Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen.
To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. There are questions of FOUR subjects in the paper namely
Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. Questions of each subject are divided into two sections. Section-A
contains 35 Questions of a Subject all of which must be attempted. Section-B contains 15 Questions of
which any 10 can be attempted.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One) mark will be
deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
answer sheet. Maximum marks of the paper are 720.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 3 above.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any text material, printed or written, mobile phone or any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR Sheet.
7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations
of the Examination body.
SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED
PHYSICS Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

CHEMISTRY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

BOTANY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

ZOOLOGY Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (PHYSICS) 140 MARKS
1. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt, V volts and (1) 0.08 Wb (2) 0.01 Wb
(3) 0.02 Wb (4) 0.06 Wb
P2 watt, V volts are connected in parallel and 𝑉
8. A particle covers half of its total distance with speed
volts are applied to it. The total power will be:
v1 and the rest half distance with speed v2 . Its
(1) P1 + P2 watt (2) PP
1 2 watt average speed during the complete journey is:
PP
1 2 watt (4) P1 + P2 v1 + v2 v1v2
(3) watt (1) (2)
P1 + P2 PP
1 2 2 v1 + v2
2. Under minimum deviation condition in a prism, 2v1v2 v12v22
if a ray is incident at an angle 30°, the angle (3) (4)
v1 + v2 v12 + v22
between the emergent ray and the second
refracting surface of the prism is: 9. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
(1) 0° (2) 30° What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
(3) 45° (4) 60° equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 48 N (2) 32 N
3. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the
(3) 30 N (4) 24 N
Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å. The
wavelength of the second spectral line in the 7
10. A flow of 10 electrons per second in a
Balmer series of singly ionized helium atom is: conducting wire constitutes a current of:
(1) 1215 Å (2) 1640 Å
(1) 1.6 10−12 A (2) 1.6  1026 A
(3) 2430 Å (4) 4687 Å
4. Which of the following rays are not electro- (3) 1.6  10−26 A (4) 1.6  1012 A
magnetic waves? 11. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20F
(1)  -rays (2) -rays is being charged by a voltage source whose
(3) Heat rays (4) X-rays potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The
5. In L–C–R circuit if resistance increases, quality conduction current through the connecting
factor. wires, and the displacement current through the
(1) Increases finitely plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively:
(2) Decreases finitely (1) zero, zero
(3) Remains constant (2) zero, 60A
(4) None of the above (3) 60A, 60A
6. The de Broglie wave present in fifth Bohr orbit (4) 60A, zero
is:
12. What is the mass of 2 L of nitrogen at 22.4 atm
(1) pressure and 273 K?
(2) (1) 28 g (2) 14 × 22.4 g
(3) 56 g (4) None of these
(3)
13. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% and
(4) temperature of sink is 500 K. If temperature of
7. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a source is kept constant and its efficiency raised to
1  Wb  60%, then the required temperature of sink will be:
  m2 
uniform magnetic field of induction in (1) 100 K
(2) 600 K
such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with
(3) 400 K
B. The magnetic flux linked with the disc is: (4) 500 K

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 Vidyamandir Classes
14. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes 20. Two charges q1 & q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as
10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its
bottom. How much time will take to be emptied shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is moved
when half filled with water? along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C
(1) 9 min (2) 7 min to D. The change in the potential energy of the
(3) 5 min (4) 3 min q3
system is k , where k is:
15. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height h. 40
Choose false statement regarding capillary rise
from the following.
(1) On the surface of Jupiter, height will be
less than h
(2) In a lift moving up with constant
acceleration height is less than h
(3) On the surface of moon the height is
more than h
(1) 8q1 (2) 6q1
(4) In a lift moving down with constant (3) 8q2 (4) 6q2
acceleration height is less than h
21. The unit of thermal conductivity is:
16. Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance.
(1) Decreases with temperature (1) W m−1K −1 (2) J mK −1
J m−1K −1 (4) W mK −1
(2) Is not affected by temperature
(3)
(3) Increases with temperature
(4) First increase then decrease with temperature 22. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude
17. A 200W sodium streetlamp emits yellow light A and time period T. The time required by it to
of wavelength 0.6 m. Assuming it to be 25% travel from x = A to x = A / 2 is:
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, (1) T/6 (2) T/4
the number of photons of yellow light it emits (3) T/3 (4) T/2
per second is: 23. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is
(1) 1.5  10 20
(2) 6  10 18
melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original
length, its new resistance will be:
(3) 62  1020 (4) 3 1019
R
15 (1) (2) n2 R
18. A source S1 is producing, 10 photons per n
second of wavelength 5000Å. Another source R
(3) (4) nR
S 2 is producing 1.02  10 photons per second
15 n2
24. Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B
of wavelength 5100Å. Then, (power of S2 ) /
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is
(power of S1) is equal to: the midpoint between A and B. The work done
(1) 1.00 (2) 1.02 in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle
(3) 1.04 (4) 0.98 CRD is:
19. The magnetic field at centre, P will be:

qQ qQ
(1) (2)
0 0 20 L 60 L
(1) (2)
4  qQ qQ
0 (3) − (4)
(3) (4) 40 60 L 40 L
2

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25. A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, figure). The electric flux in SI units associated
which is placed at a distance d from the cell. If with the surface is:
the distance becomes d/2, then number of
electrons emitted per second will be:
(1) Remain same
(2) Four times (3) Two times
(4) One-fourth
26. In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c & d are (1) EL2 (2) EL2 / 20
measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% (3) EL2 / 2 (4) Zero
and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as −1
3 2 32. Assertion (A): Unit of Rydberg constant R is m
ab
follows P = . % error in P is: Reason (R): It follows from Bohr’s formula
cd
 1 1 
(1) 7% (2) 4% v = R  2 − 2  , where the symbols have
(3) 14% (4) 10%  n1 n2 
27. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current their usual meaning.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is
of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting
the correct explanation of the (A)
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
−3
solenoid is 4 10 Wb. The self-inductance of NOT the correct explanation of the (A)
the solenoid is: (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(1) 1.0 henry (2) 4.0 henry (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) 2.5 henry (4) 2.0 henry 33. A thermodynamic system is taken through the
28. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of cycle ABCD as shown in the figure. Heat
rejected by the gas during the cycle is:
breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
combination will be:
V C
(1) 3C, (2) , 3V
3 3
C V (1) 2PV (2) 4PV
(3) 3C, 3V (4) ,
3 3 (3) 1/2 PV (4) PV
29. Alpha particles are: 34. Three copper wires of lengths and cross-
(1) Neutrally charged sectional areas are (l, A), (2l, A / 2)
(2) Positron (3) Protons & (l / 2, 2 A). Resistance is minimum in:
(4) Ionized helium atoms (1) Wire of cross-sectional area 2A
30. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive (2) Wire of cross-sectional area A/2
index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when (3) Wire of cross-sectional area A
(4) Same in all three cases
immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25
will be: 35. What is the respective number of  &  particles
(1) 10 cm (2) 2.5 cm emitted in the following radioactive decay?
(3) 5 cm (4) 7.5 cm 200
X 90 → 168Y80
31. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane (1) 8 and 8
of the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt- (2) 8 and 6
m), also in the plane of the paper is limited only (3) 6 and 8
to the lower half of the square surface (see (4) 6 and 6

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - B (PHYSICS) 40 MARKS
36. A coil of wire of resistance 50  is embedded 41. Charge q is uniformly distributed on a thin ring
in a block of ice and a potential difference of of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with
210 V is applied across it. The amount of ice a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
which melts in 1 sec is: magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is:
(1) 0.262 g (2) 2.62 g 0qf 0qf
(1) (2)
(3) 26.2 g (4) 0.0262 g 2R 2R
37. A convex mirror and a concave mirror has radii 0 q 0q
(3) (4)
of curvature 10 cm each are placed 15 cm apart 2 fR 2fR
facing each other. An object is placed midway
42. Assertion (A): The magnitude of velocity of
between them. If the reflection first takes place
two boats relative to river is same. Both boats
in the concave mirror and then in convex
start simultaneously from same point on the
mirror, the position of the final image is:
bank may reach opposite bank simultaneously
(1) On the pole of the convex mirror
moving along different paths.
(2) On the pole of the concave mirror
Reason (R): For boats to cross the river in
(3) At a distance of 10 cm from convex mirror
same time, the component of their velocity
(4) At a distance of 5 cm from concave mirror
relative to river in direction normal to flow
38. The half-life period of a radioactive substance should be same.
is 5 min. The amount of substance decayed in (1) If both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is
20 min will be: the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) 93.75% (2) 75% (2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(3) 25% (4) 6.25% NOT the correct explanation of the (A)
39. After absorbing a slowly moving neutron (3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
of mass mN (momentum~ 0) a nucleus of mass (4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
M breaks into two
nuclei of masses 43. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of
m1 and 5m1 (6m1 = M + mN ), respectively. If radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a
horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in the
the de-Broglie wavelength of the nucleus with
figure. The potential difference developed
mass m1 is  , then de-Broglie wavelength of across the ring when its speed is v, is:
the other nucleus will be:
(1) 25 (2) 5
(3) /5 (4) 
40. Two similar coils of radius R are lying
concentrically with their planes at right angles
to each other. The currents flowing in them are Bvr 2
(1) and P is at higher potential
I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic 2
field produced at the centre will be: (2) rBv and Ris higher potential
50 I 50 I (3) Zero
(1) (2) (4) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
2R R
0 I 0 I
(3) (4)
2R R

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44. Find the torque about the origin when a force of 48. The mean radius of earth is R, its angular speed
3 ˆjN acts on a particle whose position vector is on its own is  and the acceleration due to
gravity at earth’s surface is g. What will be the
2kˆ m. radius of the orbit of a geostationary satellite?
(1) 6iˆ N m (2) 6 ˆj N m (1) ( R2 g / 2 )1/3
(3) −6iˆ N m (4) 6kˆ N m
(2) ( Rg / 2 )1/3
45. The moment of the force, F = 4iˆ + 5 ˆj − 6kˆ at (3) ( R22 / g )1/3 (4) ( R2 g / )1/3
(2,0,-3) about the point (2,-2,-2), is given by:
(1) −8iˆ − 4 ˆj − 7kˆ (2) −4iˆ − ˆj − 8kˆ 49. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity

(3) −7iˆ − 8 ˆj − 4kˆ (4) −7iˆ − 4 ˆj − 8kˆ v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving
46. The following four wires are made of the same with a velocity v2 . Both of them have the same
material. Which of these will have the largest momentum but their different kinetic energies
extension when the same tension is applied? are E1 & E2 respectively. If m1  m2 then:
(1) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm E1 m1
(2) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm (1) E1  E2 (2) =
(3) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm E2 m2
(4) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm (3) E1  E2 (4) E1 = E2
47. Two particle having mass M and m are moving 50. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is
in a circular path having radius R and r. If their moved with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to
time period are same then the ratio of angular 2
velocity will be: magnetic field of intensity 0.9 Wb / m . The
r R induced e.m.f. across the conductor is
(1) (2) (1) 5.04 V (2) 25.2 V
R r (3) 1.26 V (4) 2.52 V
R
(3) 1 (4)
r

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY) 140 MARKS
51. What is the dimensional coordination number Zn + HNO3 → b + Zn ( NO3 )2 + H2O
(dil)
of a molecule in square close-packed layer?
(1) 2 (2) 4 Here a and b are:
(3) 8 (4) 6 (1) N2O,NO (2) NO,N2O

52. Calculate molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (3) NO2 , NO (4) NO,NO2

( CH3COOH ) in 75g of benzene: 58. The spontaneous combustion of ________ is

technically used in Homle’s signals:
(1) 0.556 molkg−1
(1) Phosgene (2) Phosphorus
(2) 0.0556 molkg−1 (3) Phosphine (4) All of these

(3) 0.0446 molkg−1 59. Max. no. of gram molecules are present in:
(1) 4.4g of CO2
(4) 5.556molkg−1
(2) 36g of H2O
53. Which of the following solutions does not show (3) 0.098g of SO4
positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(4) All have same no. of gram molecules
(1) Ethanol + acetone
(2) CS2 + acetone 60. Which of the following is in accordance to
reducing property of dioxides:
(3) CHCl3 + Acetone
(1) SO2  SeO2  TeO2
(4) All of these
(2) SO2  SeO2  TeO2
54. Conductivity and molar conductivity increase with:
(3) SO2  SeO2  TeO2
(1) Decrease on dilution & increase on dilution
respectively (4) SeO2  TeO2  SO2
(2) Increase on dilution & increase on dilution 61. Which one is incorrect statement out of the
(3) Increase on dilution & decreases on dilution following:
(4) None of the above (1) t 2g and eg levels are of equal energy in
55. I 2 on reaction with conc. HNO3 gives: the octahedral complexes
(1) HI (2) HOI (2) t 2g level have lower energy than eg level
(3) HIO3 (4) HIO4
in octahedral complexes
56. Assertion: AgI changes to negatively charged (3) t level have higher energy than e level in
colloidal solution in presence of KI. tetrahedral complexes
Reason: It is due to adsorption of I − on AgI (4) All of these
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and 62. Which compound undergoes electrophilic
the reason is the correct explanation of substitution reaction slower than benzene:
the assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) (2)
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) (4)
is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 63. Heating copper pyrites to remove sulphur is
statements called:
57. Cu + HNO3 → a + Cu ( NO3 )2 + H2O (1) Liquation (2) Roasting
(dil) (3) Concentration
(4) None of these
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64. Shape of SF6 molecule is: (4) Dichloridotetraammineplatinum (II)
(1) Trigonal (2) Square pyramidal bromide
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Octahedral 70. Choose the correct statement:
65. Correct order of acidic strength of following is: (a) Helium does not form clathrate
(1) HF  HBr  HCl  Hl compounds with quinol
(2) HF  HCl  HBr  Hl (b) Xenon does not form fluorides such as
(3) HF  HCl  HBr  Hl XeF,XeF3 or XeF5.
(4) HCl  HBr  HF  Hl (c) AlCl3 does not gives fumes with moist
air
66. Assertion: Rate of reaction depends upon the (1) a and c (2) a, b and c
concentration of the reactants. (3) a and b (4) None of these
Reason: The order of reaction can be negative
with respect to a substance present in the 71. Which of the following cell give a positive
solution. Tollen’s test?
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (1)
the assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but (2)
the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion O
||
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) CH3CH2 − C − H
is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false (4)
statements
72. Which one is correct about structure of
67. Electronic configuration of which transition
orthophosphoric acid?
metal shows the highest magnetic moment.
(1) There are three H-P bonds
(1) 3d8 (2) 3d5 (2) There are two O-P bonds
(3) 3d7 (4) 3d9 (3) There are three HO-P bonds
(4) None of the above
68. Which of the following compounds does not
show geometrical isomerism? 73. The correct order of electron affinity of F,Cl,Br,I
(1) BrCH = CHBr is:
(2) BrCH = CHCl (1) F  Cl  Br  I
Br (2) Br > I> F > Cl
| (3) Cl  F  Br  I
(3) CH3 − C = CHBr (4) Cl  F  Br  I
CH3 74. Assertion: Molar conductivity of solution
| increases with dilution for weak electrolyte.
(4) CH3 − C = CHCH3 Reason: Degree of ionization increase with
dilution.
69. The correct IUPAC name of (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
PtCl2 ( NH3 )  Br2 is: the reason is the correct explanation of
 4
the assertion
(1) Tetraamminedichloroplatinum (IV) (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but
Bromide the reason is not the correct explanation
(2) Dichlorotetraammineplatinum (IV) of the assertion
Bromide (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(3) Dichlorobromotetraammineplatinum
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(IV) Bromide statements

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75. The most probable velocity, average velocity (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but
and root mean square velocity of gaseous the reason is not the correct explanation
molecules have the ratio: of the assertion
(1) 1:1.13:1.22 (2) 1.13:1.22 :1 (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) 1.22 :1:1.13 (3) 1.22 :1.33:1 is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
76. Phenol have …… acidic strength than alcohols: statements
(1) lesser (2) Greater
(3) Same (4) None of these 81. The pH of 10−8 molar solution of HCl in water is:
(1) 8 (2) −8
77. Specific conductivity is represented by the formula:
L 1 (3) between 7 and 8
(1) C = 1/ R (2) K =  (4) between 6 and 7
A R
1 1 1000 82. Half-life period of third order reaction is:
(3) A =   V (4)  = K (1) Inversely proportional to square of initial
a R C concentration
78. Unit of vander walls constant ‘a’ is: (2) Inversely proportional to initial
(1) Litremol−1 (2) Atm litre2 mol−2 concentration
(3) Directly proportional to initial
(3) Litre-atm K−1mol−1 concentration
(4) Atmlitre−2mol−2 (4) None of the above
83. Mn (Z= 25) has the outer electronic configuration:
79. For expansion of an ideal gas at constant (1)
temperature the entropy change is:
V T (2)
(1) S = R ln 2 (2) S = Cv ln 2
V1 V1 (3)
T H (4)
(3) S = Cp ln 2 (4) S =
V1 T
84. Which one of the following is most metallic?
80. Assertion: Global warming is due to Green house effect. (1) Na (2) Rb
Reason: Green house gas is CH 4 . (3) K (4) Cs
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and 85. Conductivity measurement has shown that in
the reason is the correct explanation of the complex [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 the total number
the assertion of ions is:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
SECTION - B (CHEMISTRY) 40 MARKS
86. Which compound has 10 electron in it: (3) (CH3 )3 C − Cl
(1) Pyridine (2) Furan (4) Benzyl Chloride
(3) Thiophene (4) Naphthalene 89. Which of the following fibers is made of polyamide?
87. In the following reaction (1) Dacron (2) Nylon
CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO(g) + H2O ( g ) (3) Orlon (4) Rayon

What is the relation between K p and K c : 90. In Br3O8, the oxidation state of Br is:
(1) 6, 0, 6 (2) 6, 4, 6
Kp .Kc = ( RT)
2
(1) (3) 4, 0, 6 (4) 6, 1, 6
(2) Kp .Kc = ( RT) 91. Natural rubber is a polymer of:
(1) Isoprene (2) Propene
(3) K p = Kc (4) Kp .Kc = RT
(3) HCHO (3) Phenol
88. Which of the following gives fastest SN2 reaction: 92. Molarity of pure water is:
(1) CH3 − CH2 − I (1) 100 (2) 55.6
(2) (CH3 )2 − CH − I (3) 50 (4) 18

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93. In Reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (2) CBDA
(3) ACBD
H will be equal to:
(1) E + 2RT (2) E − 2RT (4) BDAC
(3) E + RT (4) E − RT 97. When the pH of the rain drops below
94. In the nitration of benzene with a mixture of __________, it is called acid rain:
conc. HNO3 and conc. H 2SO 4 , the active (1) 6 (2) 7
species involved is: (3) 8 (4) 5.6
(1) NO3− (2) NO2 98. Glucose does not give:
(1) Tollen’s test
(3) NO+2 (4) NO−2
(2) Br2 water test
95. Which of the following is true statement? (3) Schiff’s test
(1) ICl is more reactive than I 2 (4) All of these
(2) OF2 is used to removing plutonium as
99. Water soluble vitamins must be supplied
PuF6 from spent nuclear fuel. regularly in diet except ______________.
(3) CIF5 is used for the enrichment of U235 (1) Vit B12 (2) Vit A
from its isotopic mixture. (3) Vit B6 (4) Vit B1
(4) All of these 100. The first successful and effective antibacterial
96. Gold numbers of proactive colloids A, B, C, D agent prepared in 1932 is:
are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 & 0.005. The correct order (1) Penicillin (2) Protonsil
of their protective power is: (3) Tetracydine (4) Salvarsan
(1) DACB

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SECTION - A (BOTANY) 140 MARKS
101. Viruses are: 110. Well-developed pith is found in:
(1) Bigger than fungi (yeast) (1) Monocot root and monocot stem
(2) Larger than bacteria (2) Monocot stem and dicot root
(3) Smaller than viroids (3) Monocot root and dicot stem
(4) Smaller than bacteria (4) Dicot root and dicot stem

102. In viruses genetic material is: 111. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology,
human genes are often transferred into bacteria
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
(3) Both 1 and 2(4) Either 1 or 2
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very
103. Dinoflagellates are mostly: fast to form huge population, which express the
(1) Terrestrial (2) Marine desired gene.
(3) Thermohaline (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(4) Fresh water and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
104. Plant body in Funaria or bryophyte is: (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct,
(1) Predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte but Reason is not the correct explanation
(2) Predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte of Assertion.
(3) Completely gametophyte (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
(4) Completely sporophyte
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are
105. Fibrous root system of wheat develops form: incorrect.
(1) Radicle (2) Base of stem 112. Assertion: Insertion of recombinant DNA
(3) Lateral roots within the coding sequence of β-galactosidase
(4) Plumule results in colourless colonies.
Reason: Presence of insert results in
106. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found
inactivation of enzyme β-galactosidase known
in flowers of:
as insertional inactivation.
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(3) Fabaceae (4) Poaceae and Reason is the correct explanation of
107. Which of the following is not a stem Assertion.
modification? (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct,
but Reason is not the correct explanation
(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes of Assertion.
(2) Thorns of Citrus (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is
(3) Tendrils of cucumber incorrect.
(4) Flattened structures of Opuntia (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
108. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania,
Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, 113. Read the following four statements (i-iv) about
radish, gram and turnip have stamens with certain mistakes in two of them:
different lengths in their flowers? i. The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
produced milk which was human
(1) Five (2) Six
alphalactal albumin enriched.
(3) Three (4) Four
ii. Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
109. Large, empty, colourless cells present on upper of DNA from other macro-molecules.
surface of grass leaf are: iii. Downstream processing is one of the
(1) Accessory cells steps of R-DNA technology.
(2) Bulliform cells iv. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(3) Palisade parenchyma in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
(4) Spongy parenchyma Which are the two statements having mistakes?

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 Vidyamandir Classes
(1) Statement ii and iii 119. The nitrate formed by nitrification is absorbed
(2) Statement iii and iv by plants and is transported to the leaves. In
(3) Statement i and iii leaves, it is reduced to form:
(4) Statement i and ii (1) Nitrogen ( N 2 )
(2) Ammonia
114. Select the correct statement(s):
(3) NO2 (4) N2O
(i) IARI has released a mustard variety rich
in vitamin C. 120. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen
(ii) Pusa Sawani variety of Okra is resistant fixer?
to aphids. (1) Azotobacter (2) Frankia
(iii) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance (3) Azolla (4) Glomus
to insect pests.
121. How many types of genotypes are possible in
(iv) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33%
the inheritance pattern of sickle cell anaemia?
of India's GDP and employs nearly 62% of
(1) 1 (2) 2
the population.
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) 122. Which of the following genotype will show the
diseased condition in sickle cell anaemia?
(4) None of these
(1) HbAHbA (2) HbA HbS
115. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40
fruit flies died during a specified time interval (3) HbSHbS (4) Both (2) and (3)
(i.e., a week), the death rate in the population 123. Linkage refers to:
during that period is: (1) Co-inheritance of two alleles of the same
(1) 1 (2) 0.1 gene
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.4 (2) Attached X-chromosomes in Drosophila
(3) Co-inheritance of two different genes
116. The site of production of ADA in the body
(4) Role of sex-chromosomes in sex-
is: determination
(1) Erythrocytes
124. Lac operon is turned on when allolactose binds
(2) Lymphocytes
to:
(3) Blood plasma
(1) Operator gene (2) mRNA
(4) Osteocytes
(3) Repressor protein
117. Source and sink relationship is variable and (4) Promoter site
depends on the:
(1) Season (2) Plant’s need 125. In lac-operon, repressor protein binds to:
(3) Vascular tissue (1) Regulator gene
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Operator gene (3) Promoter gene
118. Mass flow of water occurs due to which (4) Structural gene
properties of water: 126. The Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand
(1) Adhesion (2) Cohesion are joined together by the enzyme:
(3) Surface tension (1) DNA primase
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) DNA polymerase
(3) DNA ligase (4) Helicase

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 Vidyamandir Classes
127. Which one of the following terms is used to explain (1) All birds (2) All mammals
the acquisition of new genes in mammalian cells (3) Very few lower vertebrate and invertebrate
due to up take of naked DNA? species
(1) Transduction (4) All of the above
(2) Transformation 132. Ecosystem follows:
(3) Transfection (4) Conjugation (1) First Law of thermodynamics
128. Yeast is used for commercial production of: (2) Second Law of thermodynamics
(1) Methanol (2) Ethanol (3) Both Laws of thermodynamics
(3) Butanol (4) Citric acid (4) None of the above
129. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by: 133. Fruit eating birds are called:
(1) Crossing of two inbred parental lines (1) Insectivorous
(2) Harvesting seeds from the most productive (2) Carnivorous
plants (3) Frugivorous
(3) Inducing mutations (4) Detritivorous
(4) Bombarding the seeds with DNA 134. For frugivorous birds and mammals in the
130. Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis tropical forests of different continents, the
by physiological (sometimes behavioral also) slope of line is found to be:
means which ensure constant body temperature, (1) 0.015 (2) 0.15
constant osmotic concentration, etc., are called: (3) 1.05 (4) 1.15
(1) Regulators (2) Conformers 135. Biosphere reserve project was started in India
(3) Migratory (4) Hibernating in:
131. Which of the following organisms are indeed (1) 1984 (2) 1985
capable of thermoregulation and (3) 1986 (4) 1989
osmoregulation?
SECTION - B (BOTANY) 40 MARKS
136. Core metal of chlorophyll is: (4) Cytoplasm and mitochondria
(1) Mn (2) Mg 140. Which one of the following is a natural growth
(3) Fe (4) Ni inhibitor?
137. PS I and PS II occur over: (1) NAA (2) ABA/Ethylene
(1) Grana of chloroplast (3) IAA (4) GA
(2) Matrix of mitochondria 141. Bakane disease of rice is due to:
(3) Stroma of chloroplast
(1) NAA (2) 2, 4-D
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondrion
(3) IAA (4) GA
138. Which is end-product of oxidative phosphorylation?
142. Bakane disease lead to the discovery of which
(1) ATP (2) ATP + H2O
phytohormone (PGR):
(3) NADH (4) Oxygen
(1) ABA (2) IAA
139. Aerobic respiration occurs in: (3) GA (4) IBA
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Peroxisomes (3) Cytoplasm

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 Vidyamandir Classes
143. Some early experiments on phototropic (2) Geitonogamy but not autogamy
curvature in grasses led to discovery of: (3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins (4) Neither autogamy nor geitonogamy
(3) Cytokinins (4) None of the above 148. Pollination in lotus is carried out by:
144. Hormone discovered through tissue culture is: (1) Wind (2) Water
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Insects (4) All of the above
(3) Gibberellin (4) Abscisic acid 149. The fruits in which thalamus also contributes
145. In Bryophyllum, the buds that arises form the to fruit formation are called:
notches of margins of leaves are called: (1) True fruits
(1) Apical buds (2) False fruits
(2) Axillary buds (3) Parthenocarpic fruits
(3) Adventitious buds (4) Parthenogenic fruits
(4) Terminal buds 150. “A disease which shows its transmission from
146. If male (staminate) and female (pistillate) unaffected female to some of the male
flowers are present on the same progeny”. Find the nature of the trait:
plant/individual, this condition is called: (1) Autosomal recessive
(1) Monoecious (2) Dioecious (2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Unisexual (4) Bisexual (3) Sex-linked recessive
147. Dioecious plants (papaya, date palm) prevent: (4) Sex-linked dominant
(1) Autogamy but not geitonogamy

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY) 140 MARKS
151. Select the option including only those
examples which are examples of natural
selection as well as evolution by
anthropogenic action:
(a) Industrial melanism
(b) Antibiotic resistant bacteria
(c) Pesticide resistant insects
(d) Man-created breeds of dogs
Choose the correct option:
(1) (b) and (c) only The movement of which marked label
(2) (b), (c) and (d) causes hair cell microvilli to bend back
(3) (a) and (b) only and forth.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
152. Which of the following statements are
true for the phylum Chordata? 155. Identify the correct set of substances
(a) In cephalochordates, notochord having glycosidic bond in their structure.
extends from head to tail (1) Glycerol and lecithin
(b) Urochordates are exclusively marine (2) Triglyceride and cellulose
(c) Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord (3) Glycogen and Adenylic acid
(d) All vertebrates are jawed (4) Chitin and cholesterol.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) 156. The given figure represents diagrammatic
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) presentation of an ECG. Each peak in the
153. Match the following: ECG is identified with a letter from P to T
Competitive inhibitor of that corresponds to a specific electrical
(a) (i) Morphine
succinic dehydrogenase activity of the heart. Which of the
(b) Possess glycosidic bonds (ii) Malonate
following letter shows the incorrect
(c) Homopolymer of NAG (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Cellulose activity of heart?
Choose the correct option from the following:
(1) (a)- (ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(1) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) R wave - Marks the beginning of
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
the systole.
154. The given diagram represents the (3) P- Electrical excitation (or
sectional view of cochlea with few part depolarization) of the atria
labelled as I, II, III & IV. (4) T wave - Return of the ventricles from
excited to normal state (repolarization).

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 Vidyamandir Classes
157. Which of the following option includes all (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
STIs? but the Reason is not the correct
(1) Syphilis, Genital herpes, Cancer explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Genital warts, Gonorrhoea, AIDS (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is
(3) AIDS, Hepatitis-B, Malaria false.
(4) Toxoplasmosis, Gonorrhoea, Cancer. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
158. Which of the following is a correct statement? 162. Which of the following is correct w.r.t.
(1) Glucagon is released in response to nervous system of Periplaneta americana?
hyperglycemia (1) Ventral part of body holds a bit of
(2) Cortisol stimulates glycogenolysis nervous system while rest is present
(3) Insulin is a hyperglycemic hormone in head
(4) Insulin acts on hepatocytes and (2) Brain supplies nerves to antennae
adipocytes.
and compound eyes
159. The transfer of zygote or embryo with (3) Brain is represented by sub-
upto 8 blastomeres and embryo with more oesophageal ganglion
than 8 blastomeres is respectively called: (4) If the head of cockroach is
(1) IUI and ZIFT
removed, it will immediately die as
(2) ZIFT and AI
brain is situated in head region.
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) GIFT and ZIFT 163. The given diagram shows the duct
systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas
160. Which of the following events are correct
in which few structures are marked as
for normal quiet inspiration?
1.2.3 and 4. On the basis of this figure
(a) Diaphragm becomes dome shaped
answer the question:
(b) Ribs and sternum move downward
and inward
(c) Intra pleural pressure becomes
more negative
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure decreases
Choose the correct option:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
161. Assertion: Increase Ca+2 level leads to
the binding of calcium with a subunit of
troponin on actin filaments.
Reason: Action potential spreads through
the muscle fibre and causes the release of Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of
calcium ion into the sarcoplasm. digestive juice by guarding which duct?
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true (1) 3 (2) 2
and the Reason is the correct (3) 4 (4) 1
explanation of the Assertion.

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 Vidyamandir Classes
164. Which of the following is an incorrect 169. Synthesis of histone proteins and tubulin
statement w.r.t. transport of oxygen? proteins takes place in A and B
(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin respectively.
mainly depends on pO2 A B
(2) High pCO2 at tissue level favours (1) S-phase G1 phase
the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin (2) G 2 phase S phase
(3) Low pH at alveolar level favours (3) G1 phase G 2 phase
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin (4) S phase G 2 phase
(4) Low pCO2 at alveolar level favours
170. With respect to life cycle of Plasmodium,
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
fertilization and development take place
165. Match the following columns and select in:
the correct option: (1) RBCs of human
Column - I Column - II (2) Mosquito’s gut
(a) Tracheal system (i) Pila
(3) Hepatocytes of human
(b) Ciliated comb plates (ii) Echinus
(4) Hepatic lobule of human
Calcareous
(c) (iii) Pleurobrachia
endoskeleton 171. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
(d) Mantle and shell (iv) Periplaneta Cucurbita represent homologous organs
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) which arise due to:
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (1) Convergent evolution
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) Divergent evolution
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (3) Artificial selection
166. An excessive loss of fluid from the body (4) Anthropogenic action.
can activate all except: 172. Identify the basic amino acid among the
(1) Release of ADH from following given options.
neurohypophysis (1) Aspartic acid
(2) Reabsorption of Na + and water from (2) Glutamic acid
renal tubules in presence of aldosterone (3) Arginine
(3) Release of renin from JG cells (4) Tryptophan
(4) Release of ANF from atria of heart. 173. The organelles that are included in the
167. Embryological support of evolution was endomembrane system are:
given by: (1) Endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria,
(1) Alfred Wallace ribosomes and lysosomes
(2) Charles Darwin (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
(3) Oparin (4) Ernst Haeckel complex, lysosomes and vacuoles
168. Which of the following is responsible for (3) Golgi complex, mitochondria, ribosomes
LH surge? and lysosomes
(1) High concentration of progesterone
(2) Low concentration of GnRH (4) Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum,
(3) High concentration of estrogen mitochondria and lysosomes.
(4) High concentration of prolactin

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 Vidyamandir Classes
174. The given figures (A, B and C) are types of
gametes of different organisms. Identify
gametes (A, B and C) respectively:
(1) Heterogametes, Isogametes,
Homogametes
(2) Isogametes, Homogametes,
Heterogametes
(3) Homogametes, Isogametes,
Heterogametes
(4) Isogametes, Heterogametes,
Heterogametes
175. Kwashiorkor disease is due to:
(1) simultaneous deficiency of proteins
and fats
(2) simultaneous deficiency of protein
and calories
(3) deficiency of carbohydrates
(4) protein deficiency not accompanied
by calorie deficiency.
176. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tight junctions establish a
barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across
epithelial cells.
Statement II: Adhering junctions are
cytoplasmic channels to facilitate
communication between adjacent cells.
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement
II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
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177. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
microvilli is found in:
(1) ducts of salivary glands
(2) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) eustachian tube
(4) lining of intestine
178. The most active phagocytic white blood
cells are:
(1) neutrophils and eosinophils
(2) lymphocytes and macrophages
(3) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(4) neutrophils and monocytes.
179. The second meiotic division is unequal
and results in the formation of:
(1) First polar body and a diploid ovum
(2) Second polar body and a haploid
ovum
(3) Second polar body and a diploid
ovum
(4) First polar body and a haploid
ovum
180. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were
between:
(1) 650-800 cc (2) 900-1000 cc
(3) 1100-1400 cc (4) 1400-1650 cc.
181. Select the incorrect match among the
following given options.
(1) Multiload 375 – Copper-ions
releasing IUD
(2) Lippes loop – Non medicated IUD
(3) LNG 20 – Hormone releasing IUD
(4) Saheli – Steroidal oral contraceptive pill
182. Which of the following receptors are
specifically responsible for maintenance
of the balance of body and posture?
(1) Basilar membrane and otoliths
(2) Hair cells and organ of corti
(3) Tectorial membrane and macula
(4) Crista ampullaris and macula.
 Vidyamandir Classes
183. After completion of meiosis-I, the 185. Assertion: The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of
resultant daughter cells have: ribs are called vertebrochondral ribs (false
(1) same amount of DNA as in the ribs).
parent cell in S-phase Reason: These pairs of ribs do not
(2) twice the amount of DNA in articulate directly with the sternum but
comparison to haploid gamete join the seventh rib with the help of
(3) same amount of DNA in hyaline cartilage.
comparison to haploid gamete (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) four times the amount of DNA in
true and the Reason is the correct
comparison to haploid gamete
explanation of the Assertion.
184. The acoelomate animals, which are (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
triploblastic, having dorso-ventrally flattened but the Reason is not the correct
body, are placed in phylum: explanation of the Assertion.
(1) Annelida (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is
(2) Aschelminthes false.
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) Ctenophora false
SECTION - B (ZOOLOGY) 40 MARKS
186. Which of the following statements
regarding sertoli cell is correct?
(1) It is found in seminiferous tubule
and secrete testosterone hormone.
(2) It is a place where spermatozoa is
concentrated and stored until
ejaculation.
(3) It secretes spermatozoa activating
substances like fructose, citrate,
inositol, prostaglandin and protein.
(4) It is found in seminiferous tubule
and function as nurse cells for Molecule Source Use
differentiating spermatozoa. (1) (i) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates the
coca transport of
187. Which one of the following cell organelles is
dopamine
enclosed by a single membrane?
(2) (ii) Heroin Cannabis Depressant and
(1) Chloroplasts (2) Lysosomes sativa slows down body
(3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria functions
188. Identify the molecules (i) and (ii) given (3) (ii) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
belladona hallucinations
below and select the right option giving
their source and use. (4) (i) Morphine Papaver Sedative and
somniferum pain killer

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 Vidyamandir Classes
189. The technology of biogas production was
developed in India mainly due to the
efforts of:
(1) IARI and KVIC
(2) NBR1 and IARI
(3) ICMR and KVIC
(4) ICAR and NBRI.
190. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for:
(1) species-specific narrow spectrum
pesticidal applications
(2) species-specific broad spectrum
pesticidal applications
(3) species-specific narrow spectrum
insecticidal applications
(4) species-specific broad spectrum
insecticidal applications.
191. Following is the diagrammatic representation
of the operation of natural selection of
different traits. Which of the following
options correctly identifies all the three
graphs A, B and C:
(1) A-Directional; B-Stabilizing;
C-Disruptive
(2) A-Stabilizing; B-Directional;
C-Disruptive
(3) A-Disruptive; B-Stabilizing;
C-Directional
(4) A-Directional; B-Disruptive;
C-Stabilizing.
192. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each
cell. During interphase of mitosis, if the
number of chromosomes at G1-phase is 8,
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what would be the number of chromosomes
after S-phase?
(1) 32 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 8
193. The figure given below shows the various
events occurring during a menstrual cycle
with few structures marked as A, B, C and
D. Which of the following options shows
the correct labeling?
(1) A-LH, B-Ovulation, C-Menstruation,
D-Proliferative phase, E-Luteal phase
(2) A-FSH, B-LH, C-Follicular phase,
D-Menstruation phase, E-Luteal phase
(3) A-Estrogen, B-Parturition, C-Luteal
phase, D-Follicular phase,
E-Follicular phase
(4) A-Progesterone, B-Estrogen,
C-Menstruation phase, D-Secretory
phase, E- Follicular phase.
194. Assertion: Pneumotaxic centre can
moderate the functions of respiratory
rhythm centre.
Reason: Neutral signal from this centre
can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are
true and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
 Vidyamandir Classes
195. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
induced by:
(1) placenta only
(2) fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) release of oxytocin from pituitary
gland
(4) release of full developed corpus luteum.
196. Which one of the following pairs is
incorrectly matched?
(1) Insulin–Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(2) Glucagon–Beta cells (source)
(3) Somatostatin–Delta cells (source)
(4) Corpus luteum – Progesterone (secretion).
197. In a nerve if sodium pump is blocked,
which of the following is most likely to
happen?
(1) Na+ and K+ will increases outside
the cell
(2) Na+ outside the nerve will increase
(3) Na+ inside the nerve will increase
(4) K+ inside the nerve will increase.
198. The joint between _____(i)____ and
_____(ii)____ forms ball and socket joint.
(1) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Ulna
(2) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Scapula
(3) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Radius
(4) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Scapula.
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199. From deep to superficial, what are the
tunics of the jejunum portion of the
alimentary canal?
(1) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and
mucosa
(2) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis
and serosa
(3) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa
and mucosa
(4) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis
and adventia
200. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chloroplast is double
membranous structure.
Statement II: Inner membrane of
chloroplast is more permeable.
In the light of above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement
II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
 Vidyamandir Classes

   End of (VPTS-7) VMC MEDICAL PRACTICE TEST SERIES -7B | NEET-2023   

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