SEPTEMBER BOOKLET CODE

12 O5
2021 NEET 2021 PCB
QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWER KEY
05. A particle is released from height S from the surface
Section - A (Physics) of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
01. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that three times its potential energy. The height from
consists of four wires of equal length. equal area of the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at
cross-section and same material is 0.25  . What that instant are respectively :
will be the effective resistance if they are connected S 3gS
S 3gS
in series? (1) , (2) ,
2 2 4 2
(1) 1  (2) 4 
S 3gS S 3gS
(3) 0.25  (4) 0.5  (3) , (4) ,
4 2 4 2
02. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
06. Polar molecules are the molecules :
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gives the correct possible directions for electric field (1) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively? field is absent.
(2) having a permanent electric dipole
(1) j  k,
  j  k (2) j  k,
  j  k
moment.
(3) j  k,
 j  k   j  k
(4) j  k, (3) having zero dipole moment

03. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across (4) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence
an ac source of voltage V, given by of electric field due to displacement of charges.

V = V0 sin  t 07. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find
The displacement current between the plates of the
the dimensions of energy.
capacitor, would then be given by :
(1) [F] [A] [T–1] (2) [F] [A–1] [T]
V0
(1) I d  sin t (2) Id  V0Csin t (3) [F] [A] [T] (4) [F] [A] [T2]
C
08. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15
V0 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
(3) I d  V0C cos t (4) I d  cos t
C frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine?
04. The number of photons per second on an average
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of (g = 10 m/s2)
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of (1) 12.3 kW
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be : (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) (2) 7.0 kW
(1) 1016 (2) 1015 (3) 10.2 kW
(3) 10 18
(4) 10 17
(4) 8.1 kW

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09. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two 13. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total perpendicular distance between the electron and
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is : the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
(1) 804 MeV (2) 216 MeV magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
at that instant.
(3) 0.9 MeV (4) 9.4 MeV
10. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
used to measure the diameter of a wire
main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
wire from the above data is : (1) 41020 N (2) 8 1020 N
(1) 0.26 cm
(3) 4 1020 N (4) 8 1020 N
(2) 0.052 cm
14. The electron concentration in an n-type
(3) 0.52 cm semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
(4) 0.026 cm a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric)
11. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is applied across each of them. Compare the
shown in the figure is : currents in them.
(1) current in n-type > current in p-type
(2) No current will flow in p-type, current will only
flow in n-type
(3) current in n-type = current in p-type.
(4) current in p-type > current in n-type
15. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a
(1) C/2 (2) 3C/2 concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along
the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If
(3) 3C (4) 2C a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a
12. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
which direction will it move? (1) 50 (2) 30
(3) 25 (4) 15 *(Most correct)
16. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope since :
(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and
visibility of the images.
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better light
gathering power.
(1) towards the left as its potential energy will
decrease. (3) a large aperture provides a better resolution
(2) towards the right as its potential energy will (4) all of the above.
increase. 17. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
(3) towards the left as its potential energy will time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
increase. is suspended by it is :
(4) towards the right as its potential energy (1) 3.14 s (2) 0.628 s
will decrease. (3) 0.0628 s (4) 6.28 s
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18. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. 22. A parallel plates capacitor has a uniform electric
the fraction of original activity that will remain after 
field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the
150 hours would be :
distance between the plates. If the distance between
2 2 the plate is ‘d’ and the area of each plates is ‘A’,
(1) (2) the energy stored in the capacitor is :
3 3 2
( 0 = permittivity of free space)
1
(3) 1/2 (4)
2 2 1 E 2 Ad
(1) 0 E Ad
2
(2)
19. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and 2 0
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
1
charge densities of the spheres (1 /  2 ) is : (3) 0 E
2
(4)  0 EAd
2
 R1  R 12 23. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '  ' is
(1)   (2) incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
 R2  R 22
work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron
emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength
R1 R2
(3) R (4) R  d then :
2 1

20. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives  2mc  2

(1)     d
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another  h 
cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at
what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?  2h  2
(2)     d
 mc 
(1) 64 cm
(2) 62 cm  2m  2
(3)     d
(3) 60 cm  hc 

(4) 21.6 cm  2mc  2

(4)  d   
21. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries  h 
current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross- 24. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy
the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the is :
cable is represented by : (1) 3n
(2) 4n
(3) n
(4) 2n
(1) (2) 25. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
identify the correct answer
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator.
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
0.1 V to 0.3 V
(1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect
(3) (4) (2) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(3) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(4) (A) and (B) both are incorrect

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26. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 29. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
connected in series to an ac source of potential distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n
difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure..
Sn
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio S is
n 1
V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A. The 2n  1 2n
(1) (2)
impedance of the circuit is : 2n  1 2n  1

2n  1 2n  1
(3) (4)
2n 2n  1
30. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
correct match from the given choices.
Column - I Column - II

1
(A) Root mean square (P) nm2
(1) 4  (2) 5  3
speed of gas molecules
(3) 4 2  (4) 5 2 
27. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the (B) Pressure exerted 3 RT
(Q)
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 . M
by ideal gas

5
(C) Average kinetic energy (R) RT
2
of a molecule

3
(D) Total internal energy (S) k BT
2
of 1 mole of a
(1) 450
diatomic gas
(2) 900
(1) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(3) 600
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(4) 300
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
28. A radioactive nucleus AZ X undergoes spontaneous
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
decay in the sequence
31. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is  .
A
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D, where Z is the
The escape velocity from the surface of another
atomic number of element X. The possible decay
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
particles in the sequence are : same mass density is :
(1)  , ,  (1) 3
(2)  , ,  (2) 4
(3) ,  ,   (3) 

(4) ,  ,  (4) 2

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32. A cup of coffee cools from 900C to 800C in t Section - B (Physics)

minutes, when the room temperature is 200C. The
time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 36. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
800C to 600C at a room temperature same at 200C uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
is : revolution.

10 5 If this particle were projected with the same speed

(1) t (2) t at an angle '  ' to the horizontal, the maximum height
13 13
attained by it equal 4R. The angle of projection,  ,
13 13 is then given by
(3) t (4) t
10 5
1

33. If E and G respectively denote energy and  2 R 

1
2

(1)   sin  2
E  gT 
gravitational constant, then has the dimension
G 1
of :  2gT 2 
1
2

(2)   sin  2 
(1) [M] [L0] [T0] (2) [M] [L–2] [T–1]  R 
(3) [M2] [L–1] [T0] (4) [M] [L–1] [T–1]
1
34. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density  gT 2 
1
2

(3)   cos  2 
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine  R
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
1
d  2 R  2
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the 1
(4)   cos  2 
2
 gT 
ball will be :
37. In the product
3
(1) Mg (2) 2 Mg   
2 
F  q  B 
Mg
(3)
2
(4) Mg  q  
 Bi  Bj  B k
0 
35. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated 
For q = 1 and   2i  4j  6k
with flow of current through a metallic conductor.

Column - II gives some mathematical relations F  4i  20j  12k
involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I and
Column - II with appropriate relations. 
What will be the complete expression for B
Column - I Column - II
(1) 8i  8j  6 k (2) 6i  6j  8 k
m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne 2 (3) 8i  8 j  6 k (4) 6i  6 j  8 k

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ned 38. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2

eE are placed in the same plane with their centres

(C) Relaxation period (R) 
m coinciding. If R1 >> R2, the mutual inductance M
E between them will be directly proportional to :
(D) Current Density (S)
J
R 12 R 22
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) (1) (2)
R2 R1
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q) R1 R2
(3) R (4) R
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P) 2 1

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39. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an 42. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm
arc corresponding to a 900 sector is removed. The from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring mirror were put perpendicular to the principle axis
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ final image would be formed at a distance of
times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is

1
(1)
4

1
(2)
8

3 (1) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual

(3)
4 image.
7 (2) 20 cm from the plane mirror , it would be a
(4) virtual image
8
40. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are (3) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio (4) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
i3 43. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would
be the output at the terminal y ?
circuit is

r1
(1) r  r
1 2

r2
(2) r  r
1 3

r1
(3) r  r
2 3

r2
(4) r  r
2 3

41. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10

(1)
m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the
ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly
(2)
(1) 2.1 kg m/s
(2) 1.4 kg m/s (3)
(3) 0 kg m/s
(4)
(4) 4.2 kg /s

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44. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 48. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity
220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. v  kVe (k<1) from the surface of the earth.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(Ve = escape velocity)
(1) 1520 V
The maximum height above the surface reached by
(2) 1980 V
the particle is
(3) 660 V
(4) 1320 V R 2k Rk 2
(1) (2)
1+k 1 k2
45. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a 2 2
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and  k   k 
(3) R   (4) R  
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s ? 1 k  1 k 
(Taking g = 10 m/s2) 49. A step down the transformer connected to an ac
mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V,
(1) 20 2 m/s, 0 44 W lamp. ignoring power losses in the
transformer, what is the currect in the primary
(2) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s 2 circuit?
(3) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 (1) 2 A (2) 4 A
(4) 20 m/s, 0 (3) 0.2 A (4) 0.4 A
46. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 50. A uniform conducting wire of length 12 a and
80μF capacitor and 40  resistor is connected resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying
to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular coil in the shape of,
frequencies of the source at which power transferred (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular
(ii) a square of side ‘a’.
frequency are likely to be
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
(1) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
case respectively are
(2) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(1) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2
(3) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
(2) 4Ia2 and 3Ia2
(4) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(3) 3Ia 2 and 3Ia2
47. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A (4) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

1 1
(1) kg (2) kg
6 12

1 1
(3) kg (4) kg
2 3

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Section - A (Chemistry) 57. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
5 1 . The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation is :
reaciton of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This (1) 2
product formation is based on? (2) 3
(1) Hofmann Rule (3) 7
(2) Huckel’s Rule (4) 5
(3) Saytzeff’s Rule 58. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
(4) Hund’s Rule blast furance is :
52. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of C-X bond (1) upto 1900 K
is : (2) upto 5000 K
(1) CH 3 - F < CH3 - Cl < CH3 - Br < CH3 - I
(3) upto 1200 K
(2) CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl < CH3 - Br < CH3 - I
(4) upto 2200 K
(3) CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - I
59. Given below are two statements :
(4) CH3 - F > CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - I
Statement I :
53. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation narcotic analgesics.
emitted by the tranmistter is : [speed of light, c = Statement II :
3.0 x 108 ms-1]
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
(1) 2192m In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) 21.92 cm correct answer from the option given below.
(3) 219.3 m (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4) 219.2 m (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
54. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic true.
and ionic radii because of : (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(1) lanthanoid contration (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) having similar chemical properties 60. Identify the compound that will react with
(3) belonging to same group Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves
(4) diagonal relationship in alkali.
55. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T(K). The correct (1)
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
(1) 7.75
(2) 6.25 (2)
(3) 8.50
(4) 8.50
56. The incorrect statement among the following is : (3)
(1) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity.
(2) Actenoids are highly reactive metals, especially (4)
when finely divided.
(3) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to 61. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
element than Lanthanoid contration. which of the following particles?
(4) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are (1) Gamma (  ) (2) Neutron (n)
colorless in the solid state. (3) Beta (  -) (4) Alpha (  )

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62. Which one of the following polymers is prepared 69. Choose the correct option for graphical
by addition polymerisation? representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph
(1) Novolac (2) Dacron of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different
(3) Teflon (4) Nylon-66 temperatures :
63. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
towards reactivity. Indentify an incorrect statement
about them.
(1) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(2) Noble gases have large positive values of (1)
electron gain enthalpy.
(3) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(4) Noble gases have very high melting and
boiling points.
64. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are
(1) 2, 1
(2)
(2) 12, 6
(3) 8, 4
(4) 6, 12
65. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides,
one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
is :
(1) Magnesium chloride
(2) Beryllium chloride (3)
(3) Calcium chloride
(4) Strontium chloride
66. Which one among the following is the correct option
for right relatioship between CP and CV for one mole
of ideal gas ?
(1) CP = RCV
(2) CV = RCP
(4)
(3) CP + CV = R
(4) CP - CV = R
67. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is
exhibited by”, is 70. Match List - I with List - II
(1) Starch solution List I List II
(2) Urea solution (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(3) NaCl solution (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(4) Glucose solution (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
68. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
10g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), Choose the correct answer from the option given
10g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
below.
10g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmostic (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c)-(iv), (d) - (ii)
pressure of these solutions is : (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(1) P2 > P3 > P1 (2) P3 > P1 > P2 (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
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71. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is -4.2 73. The major product of the following chemical
kJ mol-1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-1. reaction is
The correct potential energy profile for the reaction
is shown in option.

(1) (1)

(2)

(2)
(3)

(4)

74. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound.

(3) Hybridization and number of electrons around the
central atom, respectively are :
(1) sp2 and 6
(2) sp2 and 8
(3) sp2 and 4
(4) sp2 and 6
(4) 75. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone 
2 5

 Product
(ii)H2O, H
72. Statement I :
(1) pentan-3-ol
Acid strength increases in the order given as HF (2) 2-methyl butan-2-ol
<< HCl << HBr << HI.
(3) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
Statement II :
(4) pentan-2-ol
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
7 6 . The structure of beryllium chloride in solid state and
down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
vapour phase, are
HBr and HI decrases and so the acid strength
(1) Dimer and Linear, respectively
incrases.
(2) Chain in both
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (3) Chain and dimer, respectively
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) Linear in both
false. 77. The compound which shows metamerism is
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) C3H6O
true. (2) C4H10O
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) C5H12
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) C3H8O

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78. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of 84. The correct structure of 2,6 – Dimethyldec–4–ene
(1) Vitamin B1 is
(2) Vitamin B2
(3) Vitamin B12
(1)
(4) Vitamin B6
79. Which of the following reactions is the metal
displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
(1) Fe + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2 
(2)
(2) 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 

(3) 2KClO3   2KCl + 3O2

(4) Cr2O3 + 2Al   Al2O3 + 2Cr
(3)
80. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
is
(1) 60o
(2) 0o
(4)
(3) 120o
(4) 180o
85. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is
81. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 (1) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar (2) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is (3) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two
Choose the right option for your answer “N” donor atoms
(4) unidentate ligand
(1) 698.2;8 S cm2 mol–1
(2) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1
Section - B (Chemistry)
(3) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1 8 6 . Match List – I with List – II.
(4) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1 List – I List – II
82. Which one of the following methods can be used (a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (i) Acid rain
to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room 2SO3(g)
temperature ? (b) HOCl(g) 
hv
 (ii) Smog
(1) Distillation
OH + Cl
(2) Zone refining
(c) CaCO3 + H2SO4  (iii) Ozone depletion
(3) Electrolysis
CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
(4) Chromatography
(d) NO2(g) 
hv
 (iv) Tropospheric
83. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.)
carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The NO(g) + O(g) pollution
right option for the empirical formula of this Choose the correct answer from the option given
compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] below.
(1) CH3 (1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(2) CH4 (2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(3) CH (3) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(4) CH2 (4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
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 O5 NEET 2020-21

87. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical 92. In which one of the following arrangements the given
reaction is sequency is not strictly according to the properties
against it ?
NH2 N2 Cl
Br Br Br Br Br (1) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
Br
NaNO2.HCl R < AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
0-5 oC
(2) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
Br Br
Br
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
(1) HI (2) CuCN/KCN (3) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(3) H2O (4) CH3CH2OH < HBr < HI strength
88. CH 3 CH 2 COO – Na + 
NaOH, + ?
 CH 3 CH 3 + (4) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
Heat

Na2CO 3. < H2Se < H2Te values

Consider the above reaction and identify the missing 93. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
reagent/chemical isothermal condition, the correct option is
(1) CaO (2) DIBAL-H (1) U = 0, Stotal  0
(3) B2H6 (4) Red Phosphorus
(2) U  0, Stotal  0
 1
89. The slope of Arrhenius Plot  In k v/s  of first (3) U  0, Stotal  0
 T
order reaction is –5 × 103 K. The value of Ea of the (4) U  0, Stotal  0
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer 94. Which of the following molecules is non–polar in
nature ?
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]
(1) SbCl5
(1) 166 kJ mol–1 (2) –83 kJ mol–1
(2) NO2
(3) 41.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 83.0 kJ mol–1
(3) POCl3
90. Match List – I with List – II.
(4) CH2O
List – I List – II
95. Choose the correct opiton for the total pressure (in
(a) [Fe(CN)6] 3–
(i) 5.92 BM atm). in a mixture of 4g O2 and 2g H2 confined in a
(b) [Fe(H O) ]3+ (ii) 0 BM total volume of one litre at 0oC is
2 6

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1, T = 273 K]

(d) Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM (1) 25.18

(2) 26.02
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (3) 2.518
(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) (4) 2.602
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii) 96. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure
of a solution at 45oC with benzene to octane in
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii) molar ratio 3 : 2 is
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i) [At 45oC vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm
91. From the following pairs of ions which one is not Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
an iso–electron pair ? Assume Ideal gas]
(1) Mn , Fe
2+ 3+
(1) 336 mm of Hg
(2) Fe2+, Mn2+ (2) 350 mm of Hg
(3) O2–, F– (3) 160 mm of Hg
(4) Na+, Mg2+ (4) 168 mm of Hg

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97. Match List – I with List – II. Cl

List – I List – II HC
(2) H
CO, HCl

(a) Anhyd. (i) Hell–Volhard-

AlCl3/CuCl
CH(OCrOHCl2) 2
Zelinsky reaction
(3)
O

(b) R  C  CH3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch CH(OCOCH3 )2

NaOX (4)
reaction
(c) R – CH2 – OH (iii) Haloform 100. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is
+ R’COOH
conc. H SO O O

2 4

CH 2 C OCH 3
(d) R – CH2COOH (iv) Esterification NaBH4

(i) X /Red P C2H5OH


2
(ii) H 2 O CH 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given

OH H
below
(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii) CH2 C CH3
(1) OH
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
CH3
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
OH O
98. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is
CH2 C OCH 3
20 S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant
of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option. (2)
CH3
   350 S cm mol
0
H
2
 1

 0 1

 CH 3COO   50 S cm mol  H
2
OH
CH2 C OCH 3
(1) 1.75 × 10–5 mol L–1 (3) OH
(2) 2.50 × 10–5 mol L–1 CH3
(3) 1.75 × 10–4 mol L–1
(4) 2.50 × 10–4 mol L–1 O

99. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following CH2 CH2 OH

chemical reaction is (4)
CH3
O
CH3 C
CS2 H3O + H
+ CrO2 Cl2 X

Cl
HC
(1) Cl

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NEET 2020-21 O5
Section -A (Biology : Botany) 108. Match List-I with List-II.

101. Gemmae are present in:

List-I List-II
(1) Some Gymnosperme
More attraction in
(2) Some Liverworts
(a) Cohesion (i) liquid phase
(3) Mosses
Mutual attraction
(4) Pteridophytes
among water
102. Amensalism can be represented as: (b) Adhesion (ii) molecules
(1) Species A (-) ; Species B (-) Water loss in liquid
(2) Species A (+) ; Species B (0) (c) Surface tension (iii) phase
(3) Species A (-) ; Species B (0) Attraction towards
(4) Species A (+) ; Species B (+) (d) Guttation (iv) polar surfaces
103. Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different Choose the correct answer from the options given
kinds of structures. This ability is called:
below.
(1) Plasticity
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) Maturity
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) Eksticity
(4) Flexibility (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
104. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by: (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Gamma rays 109. The site of perception of light in plants during
(2) Zeatin photoperiodism is:
(3) Kinetin (1) Axillary bud
(4) Infrared rays (2) Leaf
105. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves (3) Shoot apex
division of centromere ?
(4) Stem
(1) Anaphase II
110. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen
(2) Telophase II
?
(3) Metaphase I
(1) Red algae
(4) Metaphase II
106. Which of the following is an incorrect statement (2) Blue-green algae
? (3) Green algae
(1) The perinuclear space forms a barrier (4) Brown algae
between the materials present inside the nucleus
111. When gene targetting involving gene amplification
and that of the cytoplasm.
is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat
(2) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
disease, it is known as :
and RNA molecules in both directions between
nucleus and cytoplasm. (1) Molecular diagnosis
(3) Mature sieve tube elements possess a (2) Safety testing
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic (3) Biopiracy
organelles.
(4) Gene therapy
(4) Microbodies are present both in plant and
animal cells. 112. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
107. The factor that leads to Founder efffect in a phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
population is: given time, is referred as :
(1) Mutation (1) Standing state
(2) Genetic drift (2) Standing crop
(3) Natural selection (3) Climax
(4) Genetic recombination (4) Climax community

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 O5 NEET 2020-21
113. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in 121. Match List-I with List-II.
afield is :
(1) 2,4-D (2) IBA List-I List-II
(3) IAA (4) NAA Primary constriction in
(a) Cristae (i)
114. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce chromosome
two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as : Disc-shaped sacs in
(b) Thylakoids (ii)
(1) Homosporous (2) Heterosporous Golgi apparatus
(3) Homosorus (4) Heterosorus Infoldings in
(c ) Centromere (iii)
mitochondria
115. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? Flattened membranous
(d) Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
plastids
(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing given below.
116. Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Marchantia polymorpha
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) Cycas circinalis
(3) Carica papaya (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) Chara (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
117. The production of gametes by the parents, 122. During the purification process for recombinant
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
be understood from a diagram called: precipitates out:
(1) Punnett square (2) Net square (1) Histones
(3) Bullet square (4) Punch square (2) Polysaccharides
118. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium
(3) RNA
bromide when viewed under UV radiation,
appear as : (4) DNA
(1) Dark red bands 123. In the equation GPP-R = NPP R represents:
(2) Bright blue bands (1) Environment factor
(3) Yellow bands (2) Respiration losses
(4) Bright orange bands (3) Radiant energy
119. Diadelphous stamens are found in: (4) Retardation factor
(1) Pea (2) China rose and citrus 124. Match List -1 with List - II.
(3) China rose (4) Citrus
120. Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II
a. Lenticels i. Phellogen
List - I List - II
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency b. Corm cambium ii. Suberin deposition
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato c. Secondary cortex iii.Exchange of gases
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones d. Cork iv. Phelloderm
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

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NEET 2020-21 O5
125. Which of the following is not an application of 132. Match List -1 with List - II.
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(1) Purification of isolated protein List - I List - II
(2) Detection of gene mutation Cells with active cell
(a) (i) Vascular tissues
(3) Molecular diagnosis division capacity
Tissue having all cells
(4) Gene amplification
(b) similar in structure (ii) Meristematic tissue
126. Which of the following algae contains mannitol and function
as reserve food material ? Tissue having
(c) (iii) Sclereids
(1) Volvox different types of cells
Dead cells with highly
(2) Ulothrix
(d) thickened walls and (iv) Simple tissue
(3) Ectocarpus narrow lumen
(4) Gracilaria
127. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Select the correct answer from the options given
sorghum is : below.
(1) Succinic acid (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Pyruvic acid (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) Oxaloacetic acid (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
128. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, 133. Which of the following statements is
which mechanism the competing species might (1) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
have evolved for their survival ? (2) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(1) Mutualism ecosystem is upright.
(2) Predation (3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
inverted.
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(4) Competitive release
upright.
129. When the centromere is situated in the middle
134. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
of two equal arms of chromosomes, the
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
chromosome is referred as: which, during pollination, brings genetically
(1) Sub-metacentric different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(2) Acrocentric (1) Chasmogamy
(3) Metacentric (2) Cleistogamy
(4) Telocentric (3) Xenogamy
130. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is : (4) Geitonogamy
(1) 7-micleate and 7-celled 135. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(2) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(3) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(4) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-
131. Which of the following are not secondary Translation; (d)-Protein
metabolites in plants ? (2) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-
(1) Vinblastin, curcumin Replication; (d)-Protein
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-
(2) Rubber, gums
Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) Morphine, codeine (4) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-
(4) Amino acids, glucose Transcription; (d)-Transduction
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Section - B (Biology : Botany)
136. Match List -1 with List - II.
List - I List - I
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
synthesized
(b) G₂ phase (ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between
mitosis and initiation
of DNA replication
(d) G₁ phase (iv) DNA replication
Choose the correct answer from the optins
given below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
137. What is the role of UNA polymerase III in the
process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
(1) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(2) Transcribes only saRNAs
(3) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S arid 5.8S)
(4) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
138. Match List -I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
139. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site
within gene amp R that confers ampicillin
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
gene for β -galactoside production and the
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli
strain
(1) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(2) it will be able to produce a novel protein
with dual ability.
(3) it will not be able to confer ampicillin
resistance to the host cell.
(4) the transformed cells will have the ability to
resist ampicillin as well as produce β -
galactoside.
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O5 NEET 2020-21
140. In some members of which of the following pairs
of families, pollen grains retain their viability for
months after release ?
(1) Poaceae; Solanaceae
(2) Rosaceae; Leguminosae
(3) Poaceae; Rosaceae
(4) Poaceae; Leguminosae
141. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Organisms that depend on living plants are
called saprophytes.
(2) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
(3) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
(4) Fusion of protoplasms between two
motile on non-motile gametes is called
plasmogamy.
142. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive
probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a
clone of cells, followed by its detection using
autoradiography because:
(1) mutated gene does not appear on a
photographic film as the probe has no
complimentarity with it.
(2) mutated gene does not appear on
photographic film as the probe has
complimentarity with it.
(3) mutated gene partially appears on a
photographic film.
(4) mutated gene completely and clearly appears
on a photographic film.
143. In the exponential growth equation
Nt = Noert, e represents:
(1) The base of natural logarithms
(2) The base of geometric logarithms
(3) The base of number logarithms
(4) The base of exponential logarithms
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying
differences in some specific regions in DNA
sequence, called as
(1) Single nucleotides
(2) Polymorphic DNA
(3) Satellite DNA
(4) Repetitive DNA
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 NEET 2020-21 O5
145. Match Column -I with Column - II. 148. Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column -II

(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
Conversion of
(b) Rhizobium (ii)
ammonia to nitrite
Conversion of nitrite
(c) Thiobacillus (iii)
to nitrate
Conversion of
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) atmospheric nitrogen
to ammonia
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Choose the correct answer from options given (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
below. (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 149. Which of tlie following statements is incorrect ?
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (1) ATP is synthesized through complex V.
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce
proton gradient in respiration.
146. Identify the correct statement.
(3) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
(1) The coding strand in a transcription unit is limited to the terminal stage.
copied to an mRNA. (4) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one
(2) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP
prokaryotes. molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3
ATP molecules.
(3) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
is added to the 3 ‘ end of hnRNA. 150. Which of the following statements is incorrect
?
(4) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor
(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
to terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria. (2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves
both PS I and PS II.
147. Select the correct pair.
(3) Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are synthesized
(1) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
that form part of cambium
(4) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
cambial ring
(2) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
151. Which of the following is not an objective of
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
Biofortification in crops ?
and forming a lens-
(1) Improve vitamin content
shaped opening in bark (2) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(3) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells (3) Improve protein content
cells in the epidermis (4) Improve resistance to diseases
of grass leaves 152. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion
of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
(4) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
(1) Epinephrine
bundles are surrounded tissue
(2) Thrombokinase
by large thick-walled (3) Thrombin
cells (4) Renin

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 O5 NEET 2020-21
153. Which one of the following organisms bears 159. Select the favourable conditions required for the
hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(1) Macropus
(1) High pO2. high pCO2, less H + , higher
(2) Ornitkorhynchus
(3) Neophron temperature
(4) Hemidactylus (2) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H + , higher
154. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are temperature
present on:
(3) High pO2, low pCO2, less H + , lower
(1) Perivitelline space
temperature
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corona radiata (4) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher
(4) Vitelline membrane temperature
155. Which of the following statements wrongly 160. Succus entericus is referred to as :
represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
(1) Gastricjuice
(1) Communication among the cells is
performed by intercalated discs (2) Chyme
(2) These muscles are present in the wall of (3) Pancreaticjuice
blood vessels
(4) Intestinal juice
(3) These muscle have no striations
(4) They are involuntary muscles 161. Which one of the following is an example of
156. Match the following: Hormone releasing IUD ?

List-I List-II (1) Cu7

a. Physalia i. Pearl oyster (2) Multfload 375
b. Limulus ii. Portuguese Man of War (3) CuT
c. Ancylostoma iii. Living fossil (4) LNG 20
d. Pinctada iv. Hookworm 162. Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below. List-I List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d) a. Vaults i. Entry of sperm through
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Cervix is blocked
b. IUDs ii. Removal of Vas deferens
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
c. Vasectomy iii. Phagocytosis of sperms
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
within the Uterus
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) d. Tubectomy Removal of fallopian tube
157. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
formation is produced by : (a) (b) (c) (D)
(1) The cells of bone marrow (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Alpha cells of pancreas (3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
163. Which one of the following belongs to the family
158. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
Muscidae ?
(1) Ozone
(1) Cockroach
(2) Troposphere (2) Housefly
(3) CFCs (3) Fire fly
(4) Stratosphere (4) Grasshopper
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 NEET 2020-21 O5
164. Match List-I with List-II. 168. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
(1) Gastro-oesophageal junction
List - I List - II (2) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (3) Ileo-caecal junction
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (4) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida duodenum
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera 169. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2)
and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of
Choose the correct answer from the options diffusion) are:
given below. (1) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(a) (b) (c) (D) (2) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) pO2 = 104 and p CO2 = 40
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 170. Which of the following RNAs is not required
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) for the synthesis of protein ?
165. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as (1) rRNA
“Universal recipients”. This is due to : (2) siRNA
(1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, (3) mRNA
onRBCs (4) tRNA
(2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti- 171. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
B, in plasma (1) Metaphase
(3) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface (2) G2 phase
ofRBCs (3) S-phase
(4) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma (4) Prophase
166. Read the following statements. 172. Match List-I with List-II.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate List - I List - II
animals. (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of
( c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
body organization.
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
digestion. Choose the correct answer from the options
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of given below.
Echinoderms. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correfct answer from the options (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
given below. (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) (a), (d) and (e) are correct (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (b), (c) and (e) are correct (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (c), (d) and (e) are correct 173. Which of the following characteristics is
incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(1) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a
167. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability”
genital pouch.
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ? (2) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears
a pair of anal cerci.
(1) DNA Ligase
(3) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
(2) DNase
junction of midgut and hind gut.
(3) DNA dependent DNApolymerase
(4) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase by the mouth parts.
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 O5 NEET 2020-21

174. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 180. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology feature ?
has C-peptide. (1) Diakinesis
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (2) Pachytene
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (3) Leptotene
interconnected by disulphide bridges. (4) Zygotene
Choose the correct answer from the options 181. The organelles that are included in the
given below. endomembrane system are:
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes
(2) (a) and (d) only and Lysosomes
(2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(3) (b) and (d) only
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
175. During the process of gene amplification using Ribosomes and Lysosomes
PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
in the beginning, then which of the following
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
steps of PCR will be affected first ?
182. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNAmolecule,
(1) Denaturation (2) Ligation what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine
(3) Annealing (4) Extension and Cytosineinit?
176. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro (1) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening (2) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as : (3) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(1) Myasthenia gravis (4) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
183. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each
(2) Gout
cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number
(3 Arthritis of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would
(4) Muscular dystrophy be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
177. For effective treatment of the disease, early (1) 4 (2) 32
diagnosis and understandingitspathophysiology (3) 8 (4) 16
is very important. Which of the following 184. Veneral diseases can spread through:
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for (a) Using sterile needles
early detection ? (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(1) ELISA Technique (c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(2) Hybridization Technique
(e) Inheritance
(3) Western Blotting Technique
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Southern Blotting Technique given below.
178. In a cross between a male and female, both (1) (b) and (c) only
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what (2) (a) and (c) only
percentage of the progeny will be diseased ? (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) 25% (2) 100% (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) 50% (4) 75% 185. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
179. Identify the incorrect pair.
within the DNA.is :
(1) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(1) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(2) Drugs - Ricin (2) Poly(A) tail sequences’
(3) Alkaloids - Codeine (3) Degenerate primer sequence
(4) Toxin - Abrin (4) Okazaki sequences
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 O5 NEET 2020-21

Section - B (Biology : Zoology) 189. Assertion (A) :

A person goes to high altitude and experiences
186. Statement I : ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing
The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and difficulty and heart palpitations.
phenylalanine. Reason (R) :
Statement II: Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
‘AAA and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
amino acidlysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
correct answer from the options given below. (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) (A) is falsejsut (R) is true
false (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
190. Match List -I with List -II.
true
List - I List - II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
false
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
187. Following are the statements about prostomium
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
of earthworm.
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which given below
it can crawl. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) It is the first body segment. (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
given below. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct 191. Following are the statements with reference to
‘lipids’.
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct unsaturated fatty acids.
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
188. Match List-I with List-II. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
List - I List - II (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichaphyton Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(1) (b) and (c) only
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba hlstolytica
(2) (b) and (e) only
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) (a) and (b) only
given below.
(4) (c) and (d) only
(a) (b) (c) (d) 192. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) Digestive disorder
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (2) Addison’s disease
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) Dysfunction of Immune system
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (i) (4) Parkinson’s disease

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193. During muscular contraction which of the 197. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to
following events occur ? stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue
(a) ‘H’ zone disappears and facilitation of communication with
(b) ‘A’band widens neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and
molecules.
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(1) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP respectively.
and Pi
(2) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards respectively.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below. (3) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
(1) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) Tight junctions and Gap junctions,
(2) (b), (d), (e), (a) only respectively
(3) (a), (c), (d), (e) only 198. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) only relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?
194. Which of these is not an important component (1) Foetus
of initiation of parturition in humans ? (2) Uterus
(1) Release of Oxytocin (3) Graafian follicle
(2) Release of Prolactin (4) Corpus luteum
(3) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio 199. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Synthesis of prostaglandins List - I List -II
195. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(MOET) ? (b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard
(1) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination (c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at
depth
(2) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
mothers at 8-32 cell stage (d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal
(3) Cow is administered hormone having LH Choose the correct answer from the options
like activity for super ovulation given below.
(4) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time (a) (b) (c) (d)
196. Match List-I with List-II. (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
List -I List-II (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
varieties due to excessive 200. Which one of the following statements about
use of herbicides and pesticides Histones is wrong ?
(b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in (1) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine
Man and Whale andArginine.
(c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and
(2) Histones carry positive charge in the side
Birds
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches (3) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
anthropogenic action molecules.
(4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
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