Test Date

30-03-2020

CST-03
Code-A

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 03

INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only.

PHYSICS

1. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross- (1) 2 kg (2) 1 kg

section of 4 cm2, one end of which has 40 holes
(3) 2.5 kg (4) 3.7 kg
each of area 10–6 cm2. If the liquid flows inside the
tube with a speed of 0.3 m min–1, the speed with 4. Two particles A and B having equal charges, after
which the liquid is ejected through the holes is being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field
(1) 5 × 102m/s (2) 5 × 103 m/s
and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 50 m/s respectively. The ratio of masses of A & B is
2. In an LCR series ac circuit, the voltage across each 1
of the components, L, C and R is 60V then the  R 2  R2 
voltage across the LC combination is (1)  1  (2)  R 
 R2   1
(1) Zero (2) 60 2 V
2
(3) 120 V (4) 30 V  R1   R1 
(3)   (4)  R 
3. Block A and B is connected with string as shown in  R2   2
the figure. Coefficient of kinetic friction between
1 5. Which one of the following methods will enable the
block A of mass 4 kg and fixed inclined plane is . volume of ideal gas to be increased four times?
2
If the block A is moving up the plane with constant (1) Double the temperature and reduce the
speed then mass of block B is approximately pressure to half
(2) Double the temperature and also double the
pressure
A B (3) Reduce the temperature to half and double the
g
4k pressure
(4) Reduce the temperature to half and reduce the
30° pressure to half

(1)
Complete Syllabus Test - 03
6. A packet is released from a balloon which is moving (1) Zero (2) 20 A
upward, when the balloon is at a height 200 m 1 1
above ground. The packet reaches the ground in (3) A (4) A
20 50
8s. Speed of the balloon when the packet is 13. The potential of the electric field at any point
released, is (g = 10m/s2) (x, y, z) is given by, V = 3x2 + 5, where x, y, z are in
(1) 18 m/s (2) 15 m/s metre and V is in volt. The intensity of the electric
(3) 12 m/s (4) 9 m/s field at (–2, 1, 0) is

7. A police car moving at 22 m/s, chase a motorcyclist. (1) +17 V/m i (2) –17V/m i
The police man sounds his horn at 176 Hz, while (3) +12V/m i (4) –12V/m i
both of them move towards a stationary siren of 14. Consider a satellite going around the earth in a
frequency 165 Hz. Calculate the speed of the circular orbit at a height of 2R from the surface of
motorcyclist if he does not observe any beats. earth, where R is the radius of the earth. What is
(Velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) the speed of the satellite? (g = acceleration due to
(1) 33 m/s (2) 22 m/s gravity at the surface of earth)
1
(3) Zero (4) 11 m/s gR  gR  2
(1) (2)  
8. In a hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength 3  3 
in Balmer Series is . The shortest wavelength in 1
Brackett series will be  gR  2 gR
(3)   (4)
 2  2
(1) 2 (2) 4
15. A material B has twice the specific resistance of A.
(3) 9 (4) 16
A circular wire made of B has twice the diameter of
9. E, m, l, and G denote energy, mass, angular a wire made of A. Then for the two wires to have
momentum and universal gravitational constant 
the same resistance, the ratio B of their respective
A
El 2 lengths must be
respectively; then has the dimensions of
m 5G2 (1) 2 (2) 1
(1) Length (2) Mass 1 1
(3) (4)
(3) Time (4) Angle 2 4
10. 146 kJ work is performed in order to compress one 16. When a planet moves around the Sun
kilomole of a gas adiabatically and in this process (a) its angular momentum about the sun remains
the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C, the constant
gas is (R = 8.3J mol–1K–1) (b) it moves faster when it is nearer to the Sun
(1) Diatomic (c) its total energy increases when it goes nearer
(2) Triatomic to the Sun
(3) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic (d) its potential energy decreases when it goes
(4) Monoatomic nearer to the Sun

 The correct statements are

11. The velocity of a particle is v  6i  2 j  2k . The
(1) (a, b, c) (2) (b, c)
component of the velocity of a particle parallel to
 (3) (a, d, c) (4) (a, b, d)
vector a  iˆ  jˆ  kˆ in vector form is–
17. Two bodies move in a straight line towards each
other at initial velocities V1 and V2 and with constant
(1) 6i  2 j  2k (2)  2i  2 j  2k  acceleration a 1 and a 2 directed against the
corresponding velocities at the initial instant. The
(3) i  j  k (4) 6i  2 j  2k maximum initial separation lmax between the bodies
for which they will meet during the motion is
12. Current through the ideal diode is
V2 V2 V1  V2 2
100 (1) 1  2 (2)
a1 a2 2  a1  a2 
2V 5V V1V2 V12  V22
(3) (4)
a1a2  a1  a2 

(2)
 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
18. A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a 23. A Carnot engine takes in 3000 kcal of heat from a
string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is revolved reservoir at 627°C and gives it to the sink at 27°C.
on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis The work done by the engine is
passing through other end of the string. The (1) 4.2 × 106 J
maximum tension that the string can bear is 324 N.
(2) 8.4 × 106 J
The maximum possible value of angular velocity of
the ball (in rad/s) is (3) 16.8 × 106 J
(1) 9 (2) 18 (4) Zero

(3) 27 (4) 36 24. The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal

is . When light of frequency 4 is incident on the
19. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of metal, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
105 V/m between the plates. If the charge on the photoelectrons is
capacitor plate is 1 C, the force on each capacitor
(1) 4 h (2) 3 h
plate is
(1) 0.5 N (2) 0.05 N 5
(3) 5 h (4) h
(3) 0.005 N (4) 5 N 2

20. For a particle in uniform circular motion, with 25. Lenses of power 3D and –5D are combined to form
speed v in anticlockwise direction (as observed a compound lens. An object is placed at a distance
 of 50 cm from this lens. Then the distance of the
from positive z-axis) the acceleration a at a point
image from the lens will be
(R, ) on the circle of radius R is (Here  is measured
from the +ve x-axis in anticlockwise sense): (1) 25 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
V2 ˆ V2 ˆ
(1) i  j 26. In a Young’s double slit experiment, let  be the
R2 R
fringe width and I0 be the intensity of the central
V2 V2 bright fringe. At a distance ‘x’ from the central bright
(2)  cosiˆ  sinjˆ
R R fringe the intensity will be

V2 V2 x
(3)  siniˆ  cosjˆ (1) I0cos  
R R 
V2 V2
(4)  cosiˆ  sinjˆ x
(2) I0cos 2  
R R

21. A capacitor is completely charged by using a battery
which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then  x 
(3) I0cos2  
slipped between the plates which results in   
(1) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase
of potential across the plates. I0  x 
(4) cos2  
4   
(2) Increase in the potential difference across the
plates, reduction in stored energy, but no 27. The expansion of an ideal gas of mass m at a
change in the charge on the plates. constant pressure P is given by the straight line B.
Then, the expansion of the same ideal gas of mass
(3) Decrease in the potential difference across the
2m at a pressure 2P is given by the straight line
plates, reduction in stored energy, but no
change in the charge on the plates. Volume A
(4) Increase in stored energy and charge on the B
capacitor C
22. A tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is sounded on a
resonance tube. The first and second resonances
are obtained at 17 cm and 51 cm. The velocity of
sound is (neglect end corrections) Temperature
(1) 170 m/s (2) 340 m/s (1) C (2) A
(3) 520 m/s (4) 850 m/s (3) B (4) Data insufficient
(3)
Complete Syllabus Test - 03
28. In Wheatstone’s network, P = 4 , Q = 4 , R = 4  33. A current flows in a conductor from east to west.
and S = 6 . The resistance with which S to be The direction of the magnetic field at a point above
shunted in order that the bridge may be balanced the conductor is towards
is (1) East (2) West
P R (3) North (4) South
34. A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei and
its half period is 20 days. The number of nuclei
present at the end of 10 days is nearly
(1) 7070 (2) 9000
(3) 8000 (4) 7500
Q S
(1) 4  (2) 6  35. A force  5i  7 j  3k  N acts on a particle at
(3) 8  (4) 12 
29. A metallic sphere (the coeff icient of linear position  i  j  k  m . Find torque of this force on
expansion, = 2 × 10–6per°C) of radius 10 cm is the particle about origin.
heated at the rate of 2°C per second. Its volume
will increase at the initial rate of (1)  4i  2j  2k  N-m
(1) 6 × 10–6 cm3/s (2) 12× 10–6 cm3/s
(2)  4i  2 j  2k  N-m
(3) 16× 10–3 cm3/s (4) 8× 10–3 cm3/s
30. The beaker completely filled with water is kept in
(3)  4i  2 j  2k  N-m
an evacuated chamber. If the pressure at bottom
of beaker is P, then pressure at half depth of
(4) 10i  8 j  12k  N-m
beaker is 36. Fig. shows a capillary tube dipped in water. If P is
the atmospheric pressure, Px the pressure at x and
P Py the pressure at y then
(1) 2P (2)
4

P x
(3) (4) 4P
2
y
31. A ray of light travels in the way as shown in the
figure. After passing through water, the ray grazes
along the water-air interface. The value of g in (1) Px = Py = P (2) Px < P, Py > P
terms of i is (3) Px < P, Py = P (4) Px = P, Py > P

4 37. If a simple harmonic motion is represented by


3 d 2x
water  x  0; its time period is
dt 2
Glass
g i
(1) 2 (2) 2 

1 3 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
sin i 4sin i  
4 1 38. The electromagnetic wave having the shortest
(3) (4) wavelength is
3sin i cos i
32. A solenoid of 0.4 m length with 500 turns carries a (1) X–rays (2)  rays
current of 3 A. A coil of 10 turns and of radius 0.01 m (3) Infrared rays (4) Microwaves
carries a current of 0.4 A. The torque required to
39. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton (charge =
hold the coil with its axis at right angles to that of
1.6 × 10–19 C, mass = 1.6 × 10–27 kg) accelerated
solenoid in the middle part of it, is
through a potential difference of 1 kV is
(1) 62× 10–7 N–m (2) 32× 10–7 N–m
(1) 600 Å (2) 0.9 × 10–12 m
(3) 92× 10–7 N–m (4) 122× 10–7 N–m
(3) 7 Å (4) 0.9 nm
(4)
 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
40. The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit 43. Two wires w1 and w2 are made of the same material
diffraction is at  = 30° for a light of wavelength and have the same volume. However wire w1 has
5000 Å. The width of the slit is cross-sectional area A and wire w 2 has cross-
(1) 5 × 10–5 cm (2) 1.0 × 10–4 cm sectional area 3 A. If the length of wire w1 increases
by y on applying force F, how much force is needed
(3) 2.5 × 10–5 cm (4) 1.25 × 10–5 cm to stretch the wire w2 by the same amount?
41. A particle of mass ‘m’ moving eastward with a (1) F (2) 4F
speed ‘V’ collides with another particle of the same
mass moving northward with the same speed ‘V’. (3) 6F (4) 9F
The two particles stick to each other with collision. 44. In the combination of the following gates the output
The new particle of mass 2m will move in the Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as
North-East direction with a velocity A
V B
(1) V (2)
2 Y
V
(3) (4) V 2
2
42. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 are joined in series and (1) A.B (2) A.B  A.B
the balancing length of the potentiometer wire is (3) A  B (4) A.B  A.B
600 cm. If the terminals of E 2 are reversed 45. A flywheel having moment of inertia 4 kg/m2 about
(E2 < E1), the balancing length obtained is 150 cm. its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 120 rpm about
The ratio of E1 : E2 will be the axis. The minimum constant torque which can
stop the wheel’s rotation in two minutes would be
(1) 5 : 3
(2) 3 : 2 4 3
(1) N-m (2) N-m
15 15
(3) 1 : 4
2 
(3) N-m (4) N-m
(4) 4 : 3 15 15

CHEMISTRY

46. 2-methylbut-2-ene can be prepared by (3) Electron repulsion is more in comparison to

H /CH OH  stability gained by achiev ing noble gas
(1) (CH3)3C – CH = CH2   3
 configuration

H /CH OH  (4) O2– is larger in size than O–

(2) CH3  CH  CH  CH2  
 3

| 49. The number of structural isomers of C5H12 which

CH3 will giv e optically activ e products on

monochlorination is
H /CH OH
(3) CH3 – CH = CH2  
 3

(1) 2 (2) 1

H /CH OH
(3) 0 (4) 3
(4) CH3  CH  CH  CH3  
 3

| | 50. If equilibrium constant f or the reaction

Br CH3
A3 + B3  3AB is 27 then equilibrium constant for
47. Am (Z = 95) belongs to 5f series. Its outermost 1 1
the reaction A 3  B3  AB will be
electronic configuration is 3 3
(1) 5f76d07s2 (2) 5f66d17s2 1
(1) 2 (2)
(3) 5f66d27s1 (4) 5f76d07s1 3

48. O(g) + e–  O–(g)  e O2–(g), conversion of (3) 4 (4) 3

O(g) into O2–(g) is unfavourable due to the fact 51. Which pair can act as acidic buffer?
(1) O2– has noble gas configuration (1) HCN and KCN (2) NH4OH and NH4Cl
(2) O– is more electronegative (3) HClO4 and KClO4 (4) H2SO4 and NaHSO4
(5)
Complete Syllabus Test - 03
52. At same temperature which of the following 60. Same moles of which of the following compounds
aqueous solutions has maximum conducting will require the maximum amount of acidified
power? KMnO4 for oxidation?
(1) 1 M NaCl (1) KI (2) BaC2O4
(2) 1 M CH3COOH (3) NaNO2 (4) FeC2O4
(3) 1 M HCl 61. The percentage void in FCC unit cell is
(4) 1 M urea (1) 74% (2) 26%
53. The catalyst used for polymerization of olefins is (3) 47.3% (4) 18%

(1) Ziegler-Natta catalyst 62. The name of complex ion of Cu2[Fe(CN)6], is

(1) Copper(I) hexacyanoferrate(II)
(2) Wilkinson’s catalyst
(2) Copper(II) hexacyanoferrate(III)
(3) Zeise’s salt
(3) Copper(II) hexacyanidoferrate(II)
(4) Pd-BaSO4
(4) Copper(I) hexacyanidoferrate(III)
54. On heating which of the following will give CO2
easily? 63. If Av ogadro Number (N A ) is changed f rom
6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1 then no.
(1) K2CO3 (2) Na2CO 3 of atoms present in 11.20 L of a gas ( = 1.4) at
(3) CaCO3 (4) Rb2CO 3 STP would be
55. Based on molecular orbital theory, which of the (1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1020
following is paramagnetic? (3) 6.022 × 1023 × 5 (4) 6.022 × 1022 × 2
(1) BaO2 (2) AlO–2 64. Which one is not a nucleophile?
(1) (CH3)2Cd (2) CH3MgBr
(3) KCN (4) KO2
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) NH3
56. There are 20 drops in 2 ml of a liquid. Number of
molecules present in 1 drop of the liquid is (Gram 65. If Boyle’s temperature of a gas is 25 K then the gas
molecular mass of liquid = 40 and d = 1 gmL–1, is
NA = Avogardo number ) (1) Difficult to liquefy
NA (20)2 (2) Easy to liquefy
(1) (2)
(20)2 NA (3) Very easy to liquify
(3) (20)2 NA (4) 20 NA (4) Boyle’s temperature can not indicate
liquefiability of the gas
57. In which of the following pairs, both the species
are isostructural? 66. Hybridization involved in the complex K3[Co(ox)3]
is
(1) NH3, PH3 (2) CO2, SO2
(1) sp3d (2) d 2sp3
(3) H2O, XeF2 (4) I3– , CO32– (3) sp3d2 (4) dsp2
58. In which of the following P–P bond is present? 67. If the heat of combustion of CH4 to CO2 and H2O is
(1) H4P2O5 (2) H4P2O6 400 kJ/mole, the heat released upon formation of
32g of CO2 from CH4 and O2 will be nearly
(3) H4P2O7 (4) (HPO3)3
(1) 291 kJ (2) 405 kJ
59. A + HCl  1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane, A may
not be (3) 506 kJ (4) 256 kJ

CH 2 CH 3 68. 20 g of lime stone sample decomposes on heating

to give CO2 and 10 g Calcium oxide. The % purity
of calcium carbonate in the sample will be
(1) (2)
(1) 89.3% (2) 93.8%
(3) 97.2% (4) 28.5%
CH 3 CH 3
69. The mole fraction of the solute in a 2 m ethanolic
solution is
(3) (4)
(1) 0.084 (2) 11.9
(3) 0.92 (4) 0.025
(6)
 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
70. Which one is ferromagnetic? (3) MPV reduction
(1) CrO2 (2) MnO (4) Stephen’s reduction
(3) VO2 (4) TiO 77. In the following reaction, the major product is
Zn/CH3OH
71. Which of the following statements is not correct? meso-2,3-dibromobutane  ?
(1) Stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13 (1) trans-but-2-ene (2) cis-but-2-ene
elements increases down the group
(3) But-1-ene (4) 1-methylpropene
(2) Ionic radius of Hf 4+ is approximately same
78. Which one is incorrect statement?
with Zr 4+
(1) SN2 reactions are stereospecific
(3) Sb5+ ion is a stronger oxidising agent than
Bi5+ (2) SN2 reactions are one step reaction
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) SN1 reactions are not stereospecific

CH3 (4) SN1 reactions are favoured by polar aprotic

solvent
CH 3 H
79. The rate constant of the reaction A  P is
72. H Br and C are 5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1. If the initial concentration of
A is 6M then conc. of A after half an hour will be
NH 2 Br
NH2 (1) 0.90 M (2) 5.1 M

(1) Enantiomers (2) Mesomers (3) 0.82 M (4) 5.18 M

(3) Diastereomers (4) Identical 80. What is the pH of the resulting solution when
equal volumes of 0.1 M KOH and 0.1 M HCl are
H mixed?
O N – OH
(1) Zero (2) 13.5
N O
H2N – OH + (3) 4.5 (4) 7.0
H
73.
Part I Part II 81. Number of moles of AgCl precipitated is x when
an excess of AgNO 3 is added to 100 mL of
Part II of the reaction is 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III)
chloride. The value of x is
(1) Schotten Baumann Reaction
(1) 0.002 (2) 0.003
(2) Baeyer Villiger Oxidation
(3) 0.001 (4) 0.01
(3) Beckmann Rearrangement
82. Which one has maximum boiling point?
(4) Etard Reaction
(1) HCl (2) HBr
74. Ratio of co-ordination number and oxidation
number of the metal M in the hypothetical (3) HF (4) H2O
complex [MCl4(C2O4)]SO4 is 83. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 3 : 4 50 mL of 20% solution of AgNO3 (w/v) is mixed
with 50 mL of 6% (w/v) NaCl solution?
(3) 5 : 9 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 6.37 gm (2) 9.69 gm
75. Which of the followings will not undergo aldol
(3) 7.36 gm (4) 12.42 gm
condensation?
(1) Acetaldehyde 84. W hich of the following is not the product of
OH
(2) Trideuteroacetaldehyde
(3) Propanaldehyde dehydration of ?

(4) Benzaldehyde
Na/C2H5OH
76. >C=O  >CHOH, this reaction is (1) (2)
known as
(1) Bouveault Blanc reduction (3) (4)
(2) Wolf Kishner reduction
(7)
Complete Syllabus Test - 03
85. Which among the following is strongest base? Cl

(1) (2) HNO 3 + H2SO 4

89. Products.
N N

H The possible product is

Cl
(3) (4)
N
NO 2
(1)
NH 2
86. Select the correct statement among the following
Cl
(1) In ionisation of Ti, the electron is first removed
from 4s orbital
(2) In ionisation of Cr, the electron is first remove (2)
from 3d orbital
(3) 3d10 configuration is more stable than 3d 5
configuration NO 2
(4) Both (1) and (3) Cl
87. The metal which can’t be purif ied by NO 2
electrorefining method using aqueous solution of
(3)
its salt as electrolyte is
(1) Cu (2) W
(3) Al (4) Au NO 2
88. Maximum boiling point is associated with (4) Both (1) and (2)
90. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) (2) Cl (1) Na-Hg amalgam is used to have decreased

Cl reactivity of Na
(2) Brass is an alloy of Cu and Hg
Cl
(3) (4) (3) Tin amalgam is used for silvering mirrors
Cl
(4) Gun metal is an alloy of Cu, Zn and Sn

BOTANY

91. Select the basic process of taxonomy which 94. Aquatic, unicellular, actively moving organisms with
requires intensive laboratory and field studies gullet
(1) Characterisation (1) Have silica shells on their surface
(2) Move and capture their prey by false feet
(2) Identification
(3) Have an infectious and spore like stage in their
(3) Classification life cycle
(4) Nomenclature (4) Show coordinated movement of rows of cilia
92. Which algae possess chlorophyll-d? 95. Select incorrect statement
(1) Blue green algae (2) Red algae (1) Kingdom protista includes single celled
eukaryotes
(3) Green algae (4) Brown algae
(2) Most fungi are saprophytic in their mode of
93. The most common f orm of shape f ound in nutrition
bacteria is (3) Lichen are not included in five kingdom
(1) Cocci (2) Comma shaped (4) Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in
(3) Bacilli (4) Spiral shaped kingdom having Chlorella

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
96. Select incorrect match 103. PEPcase is found in
(1) Rhodophyceae – Mostly multicellular thalli (1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(2) Phaeophyceae – Food is stored as complex (2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
carbohydrate like cellulose (3) Bundle sheath of C3 plants
(3) Chlorophyceae – Some of them live in salt (4) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
water
104. A. Ethephon is a liquid from which a volatile
(4) Brown algae – In Dictyota, fronds are hormone is released quickly.
present
B. This substance is used for artificial ripening of
97. Highly poisnous compound called af latoxin mango.
produced by
Select correct option w.r.t above (A) and (B)
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Aspergillus flavus statements
(3) Neurospora crassa (4) Claviceps purpurea (1) Both are true (2) Only B is true
98. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen (3) Only A is true (4) Both are false
fixing bacteria? 105. Arrange these from largest to smallest w.r.t size
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium (C)–Chloroplast, (MC)–Mesophyll cell,
(3) Nitrococcus (4) Both (1) and (2) (P)–Pigment system, (T) – Thylakoid,
99. Select correct match (M) – Chlorophyll molecule

Bacteria Features (1) MC–T–P–C–M (2) P–MC–C–T–M

(1) Chlorobium – f ree liv ing, anaerobic, (3) MC–C–T–P–M (4) P–MC–T–C–M
producer 106. 10 molecules of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate when
(2) Azotobacter – soil borne, aerobic, oxidised through aerobic cylce yeild a total of
chemolithotroph (1) 400 ATP (2) 200 ATP
(3) Lactobacillus – anaerobic, autotrophic, (3) 100 ATP (4) 300 ATP
soil borne 107. The final acceptor of electrons in non-cyclic
(4) Rhodospirillum – aerobic, autotrophic, free electron transport in the thylakoid membrane is
living (1) Phaeophytin (2) NADP+
100. Find out the wrong statement (3) Oxygen (4) Cytochrome a3
(1) Competition results in struggle for existence 108. Select the group that have a potential as crop
and survival of fittest fertilizers
(2) Competition does not affect structure and (1) Nitrifying bacteria
composition of community (2) Diazotrophic bacteria
(3) Competition can extinct the weak competitor (3) Lithotrophic bacteria
(4) A crop f ield has mainly intraspecif ic (4) Oxyphotobacteria
competition
109. In an old tree like Pinus, sugar is translocated
101. W hich of the following soil is best for plant mainly through
growth? (1) Heart wood (2) Primary xylem
(1) Clay soil (2) Sandy soil (3) Secondary phloem (4) Primary phloem
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Loam soil 110. Select incorrect w.r.t activ e K + transport
A B mechanism
102. In Mango fruit is present and is
(1) During night, K+ concentration decreases in
edible part.
guard cells
(1) A – Pome, B – Endosperm
(2) O.P. of guard cell decreases in night
(2) A – Lonentum, B – Seed
(3) Extent of K+ in guard cell determine the size
(3) A – Berry, B – Endocarp of stomatal opening
(4) A – Drupe, B – Mesocarp (4) K+ in guard cell is balanced by Na+
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Complete Syllabus Test - 03
111. Which one of these requires transporter to enter 120. Which part of leaf keeps the pitcher in vertical
into cell? direction in pitcher plant?
(1) CO2 (2) H2O (1) Epipodium (2) Leaf base

(3) H+ (4) Oxygen (3) Petiole (4) Leaf apex

112. Central core of non functional wood is dark in 121. Select correct match w.r.t venation
colour due to deposition of (1) Cucurbita – Convergent palmate
(1) Tyloses (2) Tannins (2) Bamboo – Convergent reticulate

(3) Sucrose (4) Glucose (3) Guava – Pinnate reticulate

113. Find the odd one w.r.t. phloem in angiosperms (4) Ginger – Palmate parallel
122. (A) Usually it is one internode long
(1) Phloem fibres are also called bast fibres
(B) It represents the whole shoot
(2) Companion cells are living cells
Select (A) and (B) here
(3) Seiv e tubes are usually present in
angiosperms A B
(1) Bristle Thorn
(4) Bast fibres are living cells
(2) Bulbil Corn
114. The sieve elements in angiosperm are ___(a)___
which are made of ___(b)___ (3) Phyllode Cladode

Select (a) and (b) here (4) Cladode Phylloclade

123. In maize fibrous roots develops from
(1) (a) - Sieve cells, (b) - Sieve tubes
(1) Primary root
(2) (a) - Sieve tubes, (b) - Sieve cells
(2) Lower internodes
(3) (a) - Sieve tubes, (b) - Sieve members
(3) Upper nodes
(4) (a) - Sieve members, (b) - Sieve tubes
(4) Nodes near ground
115. All the stamens unite into one bundle in
124. Flashing or intermittent light experiment was
(1) Pea (2) Solanum performed by
(3) Shoe flower (4) Mustard (1) Blackman (2) Warburg
116. Phyllode is found in (3) Englemann (4) J. Priestley
(1) Australian Acacia (2) Opuntia 125. According to Crick, base pairing is not always true
at
(3) Asparagus (4) Mimosa
(1) 1st base of a codon in tRNA
117. According to K+ pump theory
(2) 3rd base of a codon in mRNA
(1) Starch in all epidermal cells completely
(3) Wobble position of DNA
oxidised
(4) 1st base of mRNA codon
(2) PEP is produced from pyruvate by hexokinase
126. How many stop codons are in following sequence
(3) Malate ions and H+ ions associates to form
5CCUGAG3
malic acid
(1) One (2) Three
(4) Potassium malate increase the osmatic
concentrate in guard cells (3) Four (4) Five

118. Stamens are of different length in 127. Which DNA molecule among the following will
melt at lower temperature?
(1) Datura (2) Mustard
(1) 5ATGCTAGT3 (2) 5GCAATAGCT3
(3) Cassia (4) Sunflower
(3) 5AATAAAGC3 (4) 5AATGCTGC3
119. Soyabean has _____ stamens
128. Select an allotetraploid
(1) Monadelphous (2) Diadelphous
(1) ABBBB (2) AABB
(3) Synandrous (4) Syngenesious (3) AAAA (4) AAABB

(10)
 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
129. A polygenic inheritance is controlled by three pairs 132. Chromosomes are thickest during
of genes. Two individuals that are heterozygous
for three alleles are crossed each other, such type (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
of cross produces phenotypic ratio of (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) 1 : 2 : 1
133. Seed without friut is found in
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(1) Bryophyte
(3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 :15 : 6 : 1 (2) Alga
130. From the cross AABb × aaBb, genotype (3) Gymnosperm
AaBB : AaBb : Aabb : aabb are obtained in the
(4) Pteridophyte
ratio of
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 0 134. Male sex organ of Marchantia is called
(3) 0 : 3 : 1 : 0 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 0 (1) Gynoecium (2) Antheridium
131. Phragmoplast is (3) Archegonium (4) Strobilus
(1) Related to plastids
135. The sporogonium is well elaborated as compared
(2) A centrifugal cell furrow
that of Riccia in
(3) A plate formed by secretory vesicles in animal
cell (1) Dictyota (2) Chara
(4) A centrifugal cell plate precursor (3) Welwitschia (4) Marchantia

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following is a mismatched pair? 140. Which of the following factors does not influence
enzyme activity?
(1) Taenia solium : Psedosegmentation
(1) pH (2) Cofactor
(2) Periplaneta : Chewing and lapping type
of mouth parts (3) Temperature (4) Activation energy

(3) Pila : Asymmetrical 141. Denaturation of DNA occurs due to

(1) High temperature
(4) Loligo : Closed circulatory system
(2) Low temperature
137. The gastric gland is an example of
(3) Isolation for a long period
(1) Simple tubular gland
(4) Long exposure to air
(2) Compound tubuloalveolar gland 142. Which of the following hormone inhibits secretion
(3) Simple coiled tubular gland of gastric glands?
(4) Branched tubular (1) GIP (2) Gastrin

138. Which of the following happens during muscle (3) Motilin (4) Villikinin
contraction? 143. Which one of the following group of enzymes are
referred as brush border enzymes?
(1) A-band increases
(1) Nucleases, Nucleotidase, Nucleosidase
(2) I-band decreases
(2) Steapsin, Maltase, Isomaltase
(3) A-band decreases
(3) Sucrase, Nucleosidase, Dipeptidase
(4) H-zone increases (4) Lactase, Aminopeptidase, Carboxypeptidase
139. How many of the following exhibit open type 144. The products of fat digestion are finally absorbed
circulatory system? in
Hydra, Ctenoplana, Palaemon, Herdmania, (1) Blood capillaries
Octopus, Amphioxus, Hirudinaria (2) Lacteals
(1) Four (2) Six (3) Hepatic portal-vein
(3) Three (4) Seven (4) Bile ductules
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Complete Syllabus Test - 03
145. The maximum re-absorption of solutes occurs in 153. Terminal method of contraception is
(1) DCT (2) Loop of Henle (1) IUD (2) Tubectomy
(3) Collecting duct (4) PCT (3) MTP (4) Implants
146. The second heart sound is produced due to 154. W hich of the f ollowing are examples of
(1) Closure of Atrio-ventricular valves homologous organs

(2) Rapid rushing of blood f rom Atria into (1) Sweet potato and potato
ventricles (2) Wings of butterflies and birds
(3) Closure of semilunar valves (3) Forelimb of Bat and Insects
(4) Opening of semilunar valves (4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
147. W hich of the f ollowing is reabsorbed f rom Cucurbita
descending limb of loop of Henle? 155. Which one of the following is missing link?
(1) Na+ and Cl– (2) Ca2+ and Mg++ (1) Equus equus (2) Coelocanth
(3) Creatinine and NH3 (4) Water (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Peripatus
148. Hormone detected to confirm pregnancy is 156. W hich of the f ollowing is called secretory
(1) hPL (2) Estrogen antibody?
(3) Progesterone (4) hCG (1) IgG (2) IgE
149. How many of the following organs are derived (3) IgA (4) IgM
from endoderm? 157. Which of the following non-ionizing radiations act
(a) Brain (b) Bone as carcinogen?
(c) GI Tube (d) Thyroid (1) Gamma rays (2) X-rays
(e) Muscles (f) Kidney (3) Radio waves (4) UV-rays
(g) Urinary bladder (h) Adrenal cortex 158. The most common type of cancer is
(i) Lens of eye (1) Sarcoma
(1) 3 (2) 2 (2) Carcinoma
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) Leukemia
150. Which of the following are correct terms for (4) Lymphoma
human placenta?
159. Biological response modifiers are used in the
(1) Deciduous, Syndesmochorial treatment of
(2) Discoidal, Haemochorial, Deciduous (1) Typhoid (2) Syphilis
(3) Metadiscoidal, Haemochorial, Deciduous (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Cancer
(4) Deciduous, Discoidal, Endotheliochorial 160. In MOET, at what stage are the embryos are
151. Fast block to polyspermy occurs due to transferred to surrogate mothers?
(1) Influx of Ca 2+ causing release of cortical (1) 2 cells stage
granules (2) After 64 cells stage
(2) Opening of Na+ channels to depolarise ovum (3) At 8 to 32 cells
membrane
(4) Gastrula stage
(3) Formation of new membrane of ovum
161. Mating of animals within the same breed without
(4) Loss of cone of membrane of ovum common ancestors on either side of their pedigree
152. Foetal ejection reflex is induced by upto 4 - 6 generations is called
(1) Fully grown foetus (1) Outcrossing
(2) Fully developed placenta (2) Inbreeding
(3) Release of oxytocin (3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Cross breeding
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 Complete Syllabus Test - 03
162. W hich one of the f ollowing has maximum 170. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by
rhythmicity? (1) Out crossing
(1) AV node (2) Inbreeding
(2) SA node (3) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) Purkinje fibres (4) Cross breeding
(4) Bundle of His 171. Production of only fishes is called
163. Which of the following does not affect Hardy- (1) Sericulture
Weinberg equilibrum?
(2) Apiculture
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation
(3) Pisciculture
(3) Random mating (4) Genetic drift
(4) Aquaculture
164. Ear perceives sound by the movement of
172. The primary product of honey bee is
(1) Fluid in semicircular canals
(1) Wax
(2) The tectorial membrane
(2) Honey
(3) Basilar membrane and structures on it
(3) Royal jelly
(4) Fluid outside the semicircular canals
(4) Nectaries
165. A flight or fight response in the body is controlled
by 173. W hich of the f ollowing is not a part of
intratesticular genital duct system?
(1) Parasympathetic nervous system
(1) Vasa differentia
(2) Sympathetic nervous system
(2) Rete testis
(3) Somatic neural system
(3) Tubuli recti
(4) Reflex action of spinal cord
(4) Vas efferentia
166. The function of spermatheca in Periplaneta is to
174. Which of the following cloning sites found in ampR
(1) Store eggs gene of pBR 322?
(2) Store sperms (1) Pst I and BamHI
(3) Help in copulation (2) Pvu I and Pst I
(4) Form inner covering of spermatophore (3) Bam HI and Sal I
167. Which of the following hormone is referred as (4) Pvu I and EcoRI
hypocalcemic?
175. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair
(1) Thyrocalcitonin
(1) Implantation – Starts around 12th day
(2) Parathyroid hormone
after fertilisation
(3) Thyroxine
(2) First trimester – Appearance of hair on
(4) Somatomedin head
168. The hormone that activate target cells by means (3) Second trimester – Foetal movement begins
of secondary messenger is in 5th month
(1) Thyroxine (2) PTH (4) Third trimester – Formation of umbilical
(3) Estrogen (4) Aldosterone cord
169. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 176. The key evolutionary advancement of flat worms
glucocorticoids? is
(1) Anti-inflammatory (1) Biradial symmetry
(2) Hyperglycemic (2) Body plan
(3) Enhancement of WBC production (3) Incomplete digestive tract
(4) Immuno-suppressor (4) Bilateral symmetry
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Complete Syllabus Test - 03
177. Read the following statements
Statement I - Ornithorhynchus is an oviparous
mammal
Statement II - It possesses mammary glands, hair,
pinnae and are poikilotherms
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
178. The rate of breathing increases when
(1) Haemoglobin is unloaded
(2) Blood pH is more than 7.4
(3) H+ conc in CSF increases
(4) Partial pressure of oxygen is higher at tissue
level
179. Which of the following statement is wrong w.r.t
glomerular filtration?

(14)
(1) GFR in healthy individual is 125 ml/minute
(2) Nearly 70% of the filtrate is reabsorbed from
renal tubules
(3) Maximum reabsorption occurs from PCT
(4) Glucose and amino acids are high renal
threshold substance hence totally reabsorbed
from PCT
180. Read the statements (A –E)
(A) Vasopressin is released f rom posterior
pituitary
(B) The osmolarity in renal cortex is 300 mOsmol
L–1
(C) ANF mechanism, acts as check on RAAS
(D) Urea and ketone bodies show low clearance
(E) Vasopressin accelerates reabsorption of water
from loop of Henle
How many of above statements are correct?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five