28/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 14 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. Three progressive waves A, B and C are shown
1. A projectile of mass m is fired with velocity v at below. With respect to wave A :
an angle 45° with the horizontal from point A.
Neglecting air resistance, the magnitude of
change in velocity between the starting point A
and the striking point B is

v
(1) (2) 2v
2

(3) (4) (1) The wave C lags behind in phase by /2 and

B leads by /2
2. Radius of earth being R, gravitational potential
(V) and gravitational field intensity (I) at any (2) The wave C leads in phase by and B lags
r behind by
r > R, are related as
(3) The wave C lags behind in phase by /2 and
2
V B leads behind by
(1) I (2)
r2
(4) The wave C lags behind in phase by and B
(3) (4) leads by

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
4. Two waves can be expressed as 10. A lift of mass M is connected to a rope which is
moving upwards with maximum acceleration a.
and x 3cos( t kx ) . For maximum safe stress, the elastic limit of the
stress is T. The minimum diameter of the rope
Phase difference between the two waves is
required is

(1) radian (2) radian

(1) (2)

(3) radian (4) radian

(3) (4)

5. Bi has a half-life of 5 days. The time taken by

11. An ideal liquid is flowing through a horizontal pipe
having non-uniform cross-section as shown in
part of the sample to decay is
figure.
(1) 3.4 days (2) 10 days
(3) 15 days (4) 20 days
6. Magnetic field due to the motion of the electron in
nth energy state of hydrogen atom is proportional
to
1 If radius of pipe at A is 2R while that at B is R,
(1) (2)
n
then will be
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
7. A long straight wire of diameter 1 mm carrying
current 2 A is replaced by another wire of (3) 2 (4) 4
diameter 2 mm carrying the same current. The 12. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is
magnetic induction at a distance 2 m away from 10. If the temperature inside freezer is 20°C, the
the centre is temperature of the surroundings to which it
(1) Half of the previous value rejects heat is
(1) 278.3 K (2) 293.5 K
(2) Twice of the previous value
(3) 315.4 K (4) 332.6 K
(3) Unchanged
13. The amount of heat energy required to raise
(4) Quarter of its previous value temperature of 1 g of helium at constant volume
8. A rocket moves vertically up with constant from T1 K to T2 K is
acceleration of 8 m/s2. After sometime, its fuel
gets exhausted and it falls under gravity. If the (1) (2)
maximum height attained by rocket is 180 m,
what was speed when fuel was exhausted (3) (4)
(1) 30 m/s (2) 40 m/s
14. Identify the wrong statement.
(3) 60 m/s (4) 50 m/s
(1) Equipotential surface due to a single point
9. A conveyer belt is moving at constant speed of charge is spherical
30 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
(2) Equipotential surface can be constructed for
coefficient of friction between block and the belt dipole too
is 0.4. The time that the box will take before
(3) The equipotential surface is normal to electric
coming to rest on belt is (g = 10 m s 2)
field lines
(1) 12.5 s (2) 7.5 s (4) The work done in moving a test charge on an
(3) 1.5 s (4) 3.5 s equipotential surface is positive

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

15. Two wires A and B of equal lengths and of same 21. In a npn transistor, the emitter current is
metal are taken. The diameter of wire A is half to (1) Slightly more than the collector
that of wire B. If the resistance of wire A is 48 ,
(2) Slightly less than the collector
then resistance of wire B is
(3) Equal to the collector current
(1) 96 (2) 192
(4) Equal to the base current
(3) 24 (4) 12
22. Match the following.
16. In the circuit shown in diagram the current
through 6 resistor is Column-I Column-II

(a) (e)

(b) (f) A+B

(c) (g)

(d) (h)

(1) a f, b e, c h, d g
(1) 1 A (2) 0.1 A
(2) a e, b h, c f, d g
(3) 0.5 A (4) 1.2 A
(3) a g, b e, c h, d f
17. An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of
intensity 2000 A/m. The magnetic flux through (4) a g, b f, c e, d h
the rod is 6 × 10 4 Wb and area of cross-section 23. The variation of density of water with temperature
is 3 cm2. The magnetic permeability of the rod in is best represented by
SI unit is
(1) 10 1 (2) 10 2

(3) 10 3 (4) 10 (1)

18. In an AC circuit, voltage V = V0sin t and an
inductor of inductance L are connected in series.
The instantaneous power will be

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Zero

(2)
19. The density of a cylinder is given by the formula

where M is mass, r is radius and is

length. The physical quantity that should be

measured more accurately is
(1) Mass
(2) Radius (3)
(3) Length
(4) All quantities should be measured with equal
accuracy

20. has the dimension of kinetic energy. Then x

has the dimension of (m is mass) (4)

(1) Pressure (2) Torque

(3) Moment of inertia (4) Impulse

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
24. Heat propagation via, natural convection is 30. An axle of length 2.5 m is joining the front tyres of
mainly a truck. If truck is moving towards North-East
(1) Due to temperature gradient mainly in with velocity of 10 m/s, then EMF induced across
horizontal direction
(2) Due to temperature gradient in vertical magnetic field = 0.4 gauss)
direction (1) 10 V (2) 1 mV
(3) There is no need of temperature gradient
(3) (4) 0.71 mV
(4) The temperature gradient cannot exist either
in horizontal or vertical direction 31. For a compound microscope magnification is 480
25. The plane polarised light can be obtained by when final image is formed at far point. If linear
magnification due to objective is 20, then what
(1) Reflection (2) Refraction
will angular magnification due to eyepiece when
(3) Scattering (4) All of these final image is formed at near point (object is
26. Choose the wrong statement from the following fixed)
for electromagnetic waves.
(1) 24 (2) 25
(1) EM waves are transverse waves
(3) 500 (4) 504
(2) EM waves travel with same speed in all
medium 32. Which of the following colour is scattered least in
atmosphere?
(3) Accelerating electric charges are sources of
electromagnetic waves (1) Violet (2) Green
(4) Frequency is an inherent characteristics of (3) Blue (4) Red
EM wave
33. Consider the following two statements.
27. A force F directed towards centre of the sphere is
A. Electrostatic field lines do not form any
acting parallel to the incline surface as shown in
diagram. If the incline is rough enough to support closed loops.
pure rolling, the minimum force F required to hold B.
the sphere of mass M in equilibrium is the electrostatic field when the system

Which of the following option is correct?

(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is
(1) Mgsin (2) incorrect
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) (4) Mgsin mgcos
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
28. An observer, at origin, is observing a force acting 34. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a
on a body at (5, 4). If no angular acceleration is spherical shell. Which of the following option is
observed, then the force acting on body can be correct regarding this?
(1) (2) (1) Electric field is zero at every point on the
spherical shell
(3) (4)
(2) Electric field is zero at every point inside the
29. A body of mass 4 kg is executing SHM. Its potential spherical shell
energy varies with x, as U = [(x 2)2 + 20] J. If total
energy of body is 70 J, its maximum speed is (3) Electric field is uniform inside the spherical
shell
(1) (2)
(4) Total electric flux linked through the spherical
(3) (4) shell is zero

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

35. In the spring mass system shown in the figure, 38. An ice cube is kept in a gravity free hall. What will
block of mass m is connected with springs A and be its shape when it melts?

B. Now, spring A is compressed by (1) Cubical

(2) Spherical
from its natural length and then block is released
from rest. If initially both springs were in natural (3) Plane sheet
length then speed of block when it passes (4) It can be of any random shape
through its natural length again will be 39. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle ABCA as
shown in figure. Work done by the gas in the
process A B is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

SECTION-B
(1) 2J (2) 6J
36. A particle of mass m = 10 kg moving at a speed
(3) 5J (4) 4J
of 2 m s 1 (along positive x axis) is acted upon by
a force which varies with time as shown in the 40. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and charging
figure. What will be the kinetic energy of particle battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the
when the force ceases to act? capacitor are moved apart by insulating handles,
then which among the following is incorrect.
(1) The potential difference across capacitor
increases
(2) The capacitance decreases
(3) Electrostatic energy stored in capacitor
increases
(4) Work done by the electric field between
(1) 620 joule (2) 820 joule plates is positive
(3) 670 joule (4) 800 joule 41. A rise in temperature of 6°C is observed in a
37. Two stones of masses m and 2m are whirled in conductor on passing a current. If the current is
doubled through conductor, rise in temperature of
horizontal circles. The radius of 2m is and that the conductor is
of mass m is r. The tangential speed of lighter (1) 12°C (2) 18°C
stone is n times to that of heavier stone when (3) 24°C (4) 36°C
they experience same centripetal forces. The
42. In L-C-R series circuit, the potential difference
value of n is
across each element is 60 V. Now the value of
(1) 1 resistance alone is doubled, then potential drop
(2) 2 across R, L and C respectively is
(3) 3 (1) 60 V, 30 V, 30 V (2) 60 V, 120 V, 120 V
(4) 4 (3) 30 V, 120 V, 120 V (4) 60 V, 100 V, 80 V

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
43. In photoelectric experiment, if the intensity 48.
(W/m2) of incident light is doubled keeping light used is 0. The distance of screen from slits
frequency same then the saturation current is D. The slit separation is d. The number of
(1) Remains constant (2) Is also doubled bright fringes between and central fringes is

(3) Is halved (4) Becomes four times (where 0

44. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, central fringe)

it
(1)
(1) Lowers the potential barrier
(2) Raises the potential barrier
(2)
(3) Reduces the majority carrier current to zero
(4) None of these
(3)
45. The mass of a paper box is 2.3 g. Two cork
pieces each of mass 0.035 g are placed in it. The
(4)
total mass of the box and cork pieces with due
regard to significant digit will be
49. A projectile is fired with a speed from
(1) 2.4 g (2) 2.370 g
the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational
(3) 2.37 g (4) 2.3 g
pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will
46. A uniformly charged sphere of mass M, radius R be
and charge Q is rolling along positive x-axis on a
rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction (1)

. If a constant electric field of magnitude E is

(2)
acting along positive x-axis, then friction force
acting on sphere is (3)

(1) Mg (2) Zero

(4)

(3) (4) 50. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is

47. An object when viewed through a glass slab
appears to be at distance of 30 cm. Refractive
index of glass is 1.5 and object is 20 cm away
from it as shown in figure. If object is moved by a
distance of 30 cm away from the observer, its
apparent distance will now be
accelerated through a potential difference of
V. It enters a region of uniform magnetic field B
which is directed perpendicular to the direction of
motion of the particle. The particle will move on a
circular path of radius
(1)

(2)

(3)

(1) 60 cm (2) 50 cm
(4)
(3) 75 cm (4) 120 cm

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. The mixture showing positive deviation from
51. Which of the following pair of d-orbitals does not
have electron density along the axis? (1) Ethanol and water
(1) (2) (2) Acetone and aniline
(3) Hydrochloric acid and water
(3) (4)
(4) Phenol and aniline
52. Match the elements with atomic numbers in 57. Statement-I: Hard water is harmful for boilers
List-I with their IUPAC official name in List-II. because of deposition of salts in the forms of
List-I List-II scale.
Statement-II: During boiling hard water, the
a. 102 (i) Dubnium soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is converted into insoluble
b. 105 (ii) Bohrium MgCO3.
(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct
c. 103 (iii) Nobelium
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
d. 107 (iv) Lawrencium incorrect

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
53. Statement-I : Soda ash is obtained upon heating
correct
of washing soda above 373 K
58. Oxidation state of hydrogen in CaH2 is
Statement-II : Baking soda is used as a mild
antiseptic for skin infections (1) +1 (2) 1

In the light of above statements, identify the (3) Zero (4) 2

correct option. 59. Argentite ore is concentrated by
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) Froth floatation
incorrect (2) Hydraulic washing
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) Magnetic separation
correct
(4) Leaching
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
60. Coordination number of an atom in simple cubic
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct unit cell is
54. Which among the following is the purest form of (1) 12 (2) 4
carbon?
(3) 8 (4) 6
(1) Diamond (2) Graphite
61. Incorrect statement among the following is
(3) Fullerenes (4) Charcoal
(1) The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
55. The excess of which of the following species in halides is generally due to F-centre
water causes laxative effect?
(2) The number of Bravais is lattices in which
(1) Fluoride crystals can be categorized is 14
(2) Sulphate (3) Schottky defects have no effect on the
(3) Nitrate density of crystalline solids
(4) Lead (4) Quartz is a piezo electric crystal

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
62. The electricity required to produce 40 g of Al from 67. Which of the following decarboxylates most easily
molten Al2O3 will be on heating?
(1) 4.44 F
(1) (2)
(2) 2.82 F
(3) 3.64 F
(4) 5.12 F (3) (4)

63. Which among the following is optically inactive

68. If water vapour is assumed to a perfect gas then
compound?
the internal energy change for vapourization
of 1 mole water at 1 bar and 100°C will
(1) (2) be (Enthalpy of vapourization of water is
41 kJ mol 1)
(1) 37.9 kJ mol 1 (2) 22.1 kJ mol 1

(3) 49.1 kJ mol 1 (4) 29.5 kJ mol 1

(3) (4) 69. The Magnetic moment of complex ion [CoF6]3 is

(Atomic no. of Co = 27)

(1) (2) 0 BM
64. Cyclic amino acid among the following is
(1) Proline (2) Isoleucine (3) (4)
(3) Valine (4) Serine 70. Statement-I: Surface tension of H2O is more than
65. Correct order of I effect of the given groups is that of C2H5OH.
(1) CN > F > CO2H > OH Statement-II: Intermolecular forces present in
H2O molecule are stronger than intermolecular
(2) CN > CO2H > F > OH
forces present in C2H5OH molecules.
(3) F > CN > CO2H > OH
In the light of above statements, choose the
(4) F > CO2H > CN > OH
correct answer from the options given below.
66. Consider the following reactions
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct
Major products A and B respectively are
71. Which among the following elements has zero
unpaired electron in the divalent cationic form?
(1)
(1) Sc (2) Ti
(3) Cu (4) Zn
(2) 72. If rate constant of a reaction is 9.212 × 10 3 s 1
then the time required for the completion of 90%
of the reaction will be
(3) (1) 250 s
(2) 275 s
(4) (3) 160 s
(4) 450 s

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

73. Statement-I: H of adsorption is always 80. Which of the following ethers cannot be formed
negative.
Statement-II: S of adsorption is negative.
(1)
In the view of above statements, choose the
correct option.
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is (2)
correct
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
incorrect
(3)
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
74. Number of 90° bond angles possible in SF6 (4)
molecule is
(1) 4 (2) 6 81. Chemical formula of wood spirit of
(3) 8 (4) 12
75. Relation between Ksp and molar solubility s for (1) CH3OH (2)
the salt MxXy is
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3 CHO
(1) Ksp = sx+y (2) Ksp = xxyysx+y
82. Correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards
(3) (4) Ksp = xxyysy amines is
(1) R Cl > R Br > R I (2) R Cl > R I > R Br
76. If mass percentage (w/w) of ethanol in water is (3) R I > R Br > R Cl (4) R I > R Cl > R Br
25% then the molality of the solution will be
83. Statement-I: Monomer of natural rubber is
(1) 3.2 m (2) 4.5 m isoprene.
(3) 5.9 m (4) 7.2 m Statement-II: Monomer of neoprene is
77. The correct order of H E H bond angle is (where chloroprene.
E is the group 15 elements) In the light of the above statements, identify the
(1) AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > NH3 correct option.
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 (1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 correct

(4) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
78. Which of the following is least likely to exist?
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(1) HOFO2 (2) HOClO2
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
(3) HOBrO2 (4) HOlO2
84. Which of the following can be used as weak
79. Compound which is most reactive towards SN1
antiseptic for eyes?
reaction is
(1) 1% solution of phenol
(1) (2) 0.2 to 0.4 ppm chlorine in aqueous solution
(3) Sulphur dioxide in very low concentration
(2) CH2 = CH Cl (4) Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution
(3) CH2 = CH CH2 Cl 85. For which of the following option, formula mass is
preferred over molecular mass?
(4) (1) NH3 (2) NaCl
(3) Cl2 (4) H2O

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
SECTION-B 91. Consider the following statements.
86. Given below are two statements. (a) Benzene hexachloride is an aromatic
Statement-I: In photoelectric effect, the number compound.
of electrons ejected is proportional to intensity of (b) NHCOCH3 is meta directing group towards
light. aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
Statement-II: The kinetic energies of ejected (c) In arenium ion one of the carbon is sp3
electrons are independent of frequency of light hybridised.
used. The correct statements is/are
In light of above statements choose the correct (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
answer.
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false 92. Statement-I: Benzaldehyde and acetophenone in
(2) Both statements-I and II are true presence of aqueous alkali at 293 K gives
(3) Both statements-I and II are false benzalacetophenone as major product.

(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true Statement-II: Acetophenone contains three
enolizable hydrogen atoms.
87. Thermal decomposition of which of the following
In light of above statements, choose the correct
compounds does not produce NO2 gas?
answer.
(1) Mg(NO3)2 (2) Ca(NO3)2
(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) LiNO3 (4) KNO3 incorrect
88. On electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the (2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
product obtained at cathode is correct
(1) Cl2(g) (2) O2(g) (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) H2(g) (4) Na(s) incorrect

89. The equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in given reaction (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
is 93. Which among the following complex has highest
(Molar mass of FeC2O4 = M g mol 1) number of geometrical isomers?
(1) K2[NiCl4]
(2) [Pt(gly)2]
(1) M (2) (3) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2 ClBr]I
(3) (4) 94. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H6(g) will be
(Enthalpy of formation of C2H6(g), CO2(g) and
90. Consider the following compounds. H2O(l) respectively are 84.68, 393.5 and
285.8 kJ mol 1)
(1) 155.97 kJ mol 1 (2) 1559.7 kJ mol 1

(3) 15.597 kJ mol 1 (4) 2345.2 kJ mol 1

95. Density of SO2(g) at 2 atm pressure and at 127°C

To how many of these compounds Kjeldahl temperature will be
method is not applicable for estimation of (1) 3.9 g/L
nitrogen? (2) 7.8 g/L
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1.95 g/L
(3) 2 (4) 4 (4) 3.6 g/L

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

96. Which of the following equilibrium reactions is not 98. pH of solution made by mixing 100 ml of 0.1 M
affected by adding inert gas at constant HCl and 400 ml of 0.1 M NaOH is (log3 = 0.48)
pressure? (1) 1.2
(1) (2) 4.8
(3) 12.8
(2)
(4) 13.2
(3) 99. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(1) N2 (2) B2
(4)
(3) C2 (4) H2
97. Unit of second order rate constant is 100. Aniline can be prepared by
(1) s 1
(1) Reduction of nitrobenzene by LiAlH4
(2) mol L s 1 1
(2) Reduction of nitriles by LiAlH4
(3) mol 1 Ls 1
(3) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(4) mol 2 L2 s 1 (4) Hoffmann bromamide degradation

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Statement A: Pleiotropic gene produces more
101. The genetic material of causal agent of PSTD is than one effects.
different from genetic material of causal agent of Statement B: A gamete carries only one factor
tobacco mosaic disease as former of a character.
(1) Has ssRNA Consider the above statements and choose the
(2) Is composed of deoxyribose sugar correct option
(3) Has genetic material of low molecular weight (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Is surrounded by protein coat (2) Only statement B is correct
102. Alternaria (3) Both statements A and B are correct
a. Asexually reproduces by conidia (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
b. Lacks sex organs but shows sexual 105. Identify the wrong match.
reproduction
c. Produces ascospores (1) X-ray Physical mutagen

Choose the correct one(s). (2) Polyploidy Common in plants

(1) a and b
(3) Thalassemia Related to chromosome 11
(2) a only
(4) Sickle cell Occur due to frameshift
(3) b and c
anaemia mutation
(4) a and c
103. Chlorophyll a cannot be seen in 106. Choose the odd one for phenylketonuria.

(1) Euglena and Gonyaulax (1) Inborn error of metabolism

(2) Nostoc and Desmids (2) It is a recessive trait

(3) Euglena and Wolffia (3) Autosomal disorder

(4) Purple bacteria and green sulphur bacteria (4) An example of polygenic inheritance

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
107. Read the following characteristics of a PGR and 113. Bulliform cells can be seen in
identify it accordingly.
(1) All dicot plants
a. Antagonist to gibberellins
(2) All seed producing plants
b. Induces dormancy of buds and seeds
(3) Some monocot plants
c. Reduces transpiration by partial closure of
stomata (4) All monocot and dicot plants
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene 114. Cisternae are concentrically arranged near the
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin nucleus with distinct convex and concave faces.
108. Plants which flower only once in their life time is This statement is true for
(1) Jackfruit (1) Golgi apparatus
(2) Some bamboo species (2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Mango (3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Papaya
(4) Lysosome
109. Geitonogamy is
115. The structure that forms the basal body of cilia
(1) Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma
and flagella also forms
through water current
(2) Pollination of a flower by pollen of same (1) Phospholipids for plasma membrane
flower (2) Kinetochores
(3) Pollination of a flower by pollen from another (3) Centromere
flower of same plant
(4) Spindle fibres
(4) Genetically similar to xenogamy
110. Gases produced in biogas plant is/are 116. In cyanobacteria, photosynthetic pigments are
present
(1) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide only
(2) Methane only (1) In dissolved state in cytoplasm

(3) Methane and hydrogen sulphide only (2) In chromatophores

(4) Carbon dioxide, methane, hydrogen and (3) On the plasma membrane attached to the
hydrogen sulphide cell wall
111. is main constituent of thiamine and biotin (4) Inside the lysosome
in plants.
117. Which of the following is not one of the main
Select the correct option which fills the blank A function of roots?
correctly.
(1) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(1) Iron (2) Potassium
(2) Absorption of water and minerals
(3) Sodium (4) Sulphur
112. Read the following properties related to a (3) Performing biosynthetic reactions for
particular element of a complex permanent plant synthesis of glucose
tissue.
(4) Storing reserve food material
It is lignified and has lumen.
118. Regarding the type of placentation, select the
Has pointed, needle-like apices.
odd one out.
At maturity it loses protoplasm and become
(1) Mustard
dead.
Regarding the above information, the element is (2) Lemon
(1) Vessel (2) Phloem fibre (3) Tomato
(3) Companion cell (4) Sieve tube (4) China rose

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

119. Chloroplasts align themselves along the lateral
walls i.e., parallel to the incident light in the
mesophyll cells under high light intensities. This
adaptation occurs for which of the given
processes?
(1) For easy diffusion of gases
(2) To receive optimum quantity of incident light
125. According to binomial nomenclature, the
scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera
indica. Select the correct option about it.
(1) Mangifera indicates specific epithet
(2) Name in italics indicates its Latin origin
(3) indica starts with small letter as it is generic
name

(3) For protection of pigment system against (4) Mangifera starts with capital letter to show its
latin origin
destruction by light
126. All of the following categories are same in plants
(4) For absorption of maximum part of spectrum
and animals, except
used in photosynthesis
(1) Class (2) Order
120. During the process of reverse central dogma in
(3) Kingdom (4) Division
molecular biology, the enzyme reverse
transcriptase facilitates 127. During aerobic respiration, NADH + H+ and ATP
molecules are synthesized. In which of the
(1) Replication of DNA following steps NADH + H+ is not synthesized?
(2) Synthesis of DNA over RNA template (1) Glycolysis
(3) Translation of mRNA into proteins (2) Link reaction
(4) Synthesis of RNA from DNA (3) Electron transport chain
121. The structural genes in lac operon is responsible (4) Krebs cycle
for all of the given, except 128. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Synthesis of repressor protein (1) Sonalika Wheat
(2) Formation of product that increases the (2) Parbhani Kranti Bhindi
permeability of the cell to -galactosides (3) Pusa Komal Flat bean
(3) Synthesis of enzyme that transfers acetyl (4) Pusa Gaurav Mustard
group to -galactosides 129. Snails and fishes escape in time during summer
(4) Synthesis of enzyme that hydrolyses lactose by a mechanism called
(1) Hibernation (2) Diapause
122. During the process of translation, charging of
tRNA is (3) Suspend (4) Aestivation

(1) Activation of amino acids 130. Which of the following is not associated with
humus?
(2) Binding of amino acids with ATP
(1) Light coloured and rich in lignin
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(2) Reservoir of nutrients
(4) Formation of Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase (3) Slightly acidic
enzyme complex
(4) Colloidal
123. Which of the given taxa has least number of
131. Statement A: Organisms are classified on the
species w.r.t biodiversity in Amazonian basis of natural affinities.
rainforest?
Statement B: It considers both external and
(1) Mammals (2) Reptiles internal features for classification of organisms.
(3) Birds (4) Fishes Above given statements are true for
124. Which of the given gases contributes majorily in (1) Phylogenetic system of classification
greenhouse gases? (2) Natural system of classification
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Sulphur dioxide (3) Artificial system of classification
(3) NOx (4) CH4 (4) Engler and Prantl system of classification

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
132. Colonial alga showing oogamous reproduction is 139. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Eudorina (2) Ulothrix correct option.

(3) Volvox (4) Chlamydomonas Statement A: A male gamete moves towards

micropylar end and fuses with synergid cells to
133. What will be the content of DNA in a somatic cell
form triploid primary endosperm nucleus.
at G2, phase if its meiotic product has 5 picogram
of DNA? Statement B: Embryo develops at chalazal end
of the embryo sac.
(1) 20 pg (2) 10 pg
(3) 5 pg (4) 30 pg (1) Only statement A is correct

134. Identify the correct statement for the given stage (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
140. In dicot stem, secondary medullary rays are
formed by cells of
(1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Pericycle
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Endodermis
141. Match the following columns and choose the
(1) Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle correct option.
attach to centromeres of sister chromatids
(2) All the chromosomes are aligned on a single Column I Column II
equatorial plate
a. Singer and (i) Omnis cellula-e-
(3) The centromeres of the chromosomes are Nicolson cellula
arranged in two rows at the equator
b. Rudolf Virchow (ii) Proposed fluid
(4) The reduction of number of chromosomes
mosaic model of
occurs during this stage
cell membrane
135. The transport of the two different molecules in
opposite directions using transport proteins is c. Anton Von (iii) First observed
called Leeuwenhoek ribosomes
(1) Symport (2) Antiport d. George Palade (iv) First described a
(3) Uniport (4) Osmosis living cell
SECTION-B
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
136. Silica shells are found in
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Amoeba
142. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(2) Some marine amoeboid protozoans
(1) Aloe Leaf spine
(3) Parasitic amoeboid protozoans
(2) Australian acacia Phylloclade
(4) Euglena
(3) Nerium Whorled phyllotaxy
137. How many contrasting traits of pea were studied
by Mendel? (4) Venus-fly trap Leaf modification

(1) 7 (2) 14 143. In lac operon, the gene which is always

expressing, codes for
(3) 22 (4) 4
(1) Lactose
138. Who first identified and crystallised the plant
growth regulator kinetin? (2) -galactosidase
(1) F. W. Went (2) Skoog and Miller (3) Transacetylase
(3) E. Kurosawa (4) Cousins (4) Repressor protein
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

144. The use of which of the given is crucial to 148. The pattern of life cycle followed by Fucus is
disposal of hospital waste?
(1) Haplontic life cycle
(1) Open landfill (2) Sanitary landfill
(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Incinerator (4) Scrubber
(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle
145. Which of the given biodiversity hotspots extend
from Bhutan to Myanmar covering most of the (4) Diplohaplontic life cycle
North-Eastern India? 149. Given below are values of s and p of cells.
(1) Western Ghat Analyse the table and choose the correct
(2) Sri Lanka statement.

(3) Indo-Burma Cell s p

(4) Himalaya
A 10 7
146. The graph given represents response of
organisms to abiotic factors. Which organisms B 7 10
show this?
C 15 10

D 2 6

(1) There is no net movement of water between

cell A and cell B
(2) Water moves from cell A to cell C
(1) Conformers (3) Water potential of cell B is highest amongst
(2) Regulators all cells
(3) Partial regulator (4) Water moves from cell C to cell B
(4) Most of the plants 150. Which microbe is used as biocontrol agent to
147. Pyramid is upright in all, except control plant pathogens?

(1) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem (1) Saccharomyces

(2) Pyramid of number in pond ecosystem (2) Trichoderma
(3) Pyramid of energy in terrestrial ecosystem (3) Azospirillum
(4) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem (4) Azotobacter

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Read the given statements and select the
correct option.
151. Read the given statements and select the
correct one. Statement A: Hydrostatic pressure during
glomerular filtration is responsible for the
(1) The lungs can be made fully empty by
formation of concentrated urine.
forcefully breathing out all the air from them.
Statement B: During summer, when body loses
(2) Unusually high quantity of carboxy-
a lot of water by evaporation, then the release of
haemoglobin content in a patient indicates
anti-diuretic hormone is suppressed from
that the patient has been inhaling polluted air
hypothalamus.
containing unusually high content of CO2.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(3) When CO2 concentration in blood decreases,
breathing becomes shallower and slow. (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(4) Reduction in pH of blood will not alter the (3) Only statement (B) is correct
breathing rate. (4) Only statement (B) is incorrect

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
153. Bird flu is an avian influenza which can also 160. Consider the following features
attack human beings. The causative agent of the a. Stimulate erythropoiesis
given disease is a
b. Regulate cardio-vascular and kidney
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria functions
(3) Protozoan (4) Yeast Identify the hormone.
154. Which of the following bones are not included (1) Mineralocorticoids (2) Glucocorticoids
under cranial bones? (3) Progesterone (4) ADH
(1) Parietal (2) Frontal 161. Which of the following is true about the hormone
(3) Stapes (4) Occipital produced by pineal gland?

155. The only bone in the skull of human body that (1) It influences menstrual cycle
does not articulate directly with any other bone is (2) It does not maintain body temperature
(1) Incus (2) Hyoid (3) It is also known as vasopressin

(3) Stapes (4) Ilium (4) Hyperproduction of this hormone causes

cretinism
156. Which of the following is correct for MTP?
162. The cells performing the same function are
(1) Induced abortion arranged into tissues in
(2) Spontaneous abortion (1) Spongilla (2) Euspongia
(3) Aimed at increasing female foeticide (3) Sycon (4) Hydra
(4) Medical Transformation of Pregnancy 163. Select the correct option to complete the
157. Choose the incorrect statement regarding ZIFT. analogy.

(1) It is carried out after IVF Nereis : Parapodia :: Locusta : ___

(1) Jointed antennae
(2) Stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are
transferred into the uterus (3) Jointed legs

(4) Early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is (4) Indirect development

transferred into the fallopian tube 164. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option.
158. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
to a 4-year old girl with _____. Deficiency. Column-I Column-II
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
A. Protochordates (i) Homoiothermous
(1) Adenosine deaminase
(2) Thyroxine B. Aves (ii) Circular mouth
without jaws
(3) Guanosine deaminase
C. Agnatha (iii) Exclusively
(4) Epinephrine
marine
159. The colour of the cerebral cortex is and it is
D. Pisces (iv) Streamlined
due to .
body and bear
Choose the option which fills the blanks fins
correctly.
A B C D
(1) A White; B Cell bodies of neurons
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) A White; B Neuronal axons (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) A Grey; B Synaptic knobs (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) A Grey; B Neuronal cell bodies (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)

165. Select the correct match among the following. (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Embryogenesis Completes in fallopian
tubes (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
(2) External Lizards, frogs and bony
fertilization fishes 171. The valve which guards the opening between the
left atrium and the left ventricle is
(3) Reptiles and Calcareous shell is (1) Tricuspid valve
birds present around
(2) Semilunar valve
fertilized eggs
(3) Bicuspid valve
(4) Syngamy Occurs only inside the (4) Pulmonary valve
body, in vertebrates
172. The substance which is absorbed with the help of
166. All of the following cells are present in human carrier ion like Na+.
testes, except (1) Fatty acids (2) Fructose
(1) Leydig cells (2) Germ cells (3) Glycerol (4) Glucose
(3) Granulosa cells (4) Sertoli cells 173. The disorder in which food is not digested
167. Primary oocyte grows in size and completes its properly leading to a feeling of fullness and is
caused by anxiety, food poisoning, over eating
first meiotic division within
and spicy food is
(1) Primary follicle
(1) Constipation (2) Indigestion
(2) Primary follicle surrounded by a new theca
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Vomiting
(3) Follicle which contains antrum 174. Match column I with column II w.r.t. cockroach
(4) Secondary follicle and select the correct option.
168. Human male ejaculates about 300 million sperms Column I Column II
during a coitus. For normal fertility, at least what
per cent of sperms must have normal shape, size (A) Labium (i) Tongue
and vigorous motility?
(B) Labrum (ii) Lower lip
(1) 60% (2) 40%
(C) Hypopharynx (iii) Upper lip
(3) 24% (4) 12%
(A) (B) (C)
169. If a drop of blood serum is placed on a slide, then
it does not coagulate. Mark the equation (1) (ii) (iii) (i)
representing the correct explanation for it (2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) Serum = Plasma Clotting factors (3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Plasma = Serum Plasma proteins 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. dense connective
tissue.
(4) Blood = Plasma + Serum
(1) Areolar tissue
170. Read the given statements and select the
correct option. (2) Tendons

Statement A: Human heart is protected by a (3) Dense irregular connective tissue

triple walled membranous bag, pericardium, (4) Ligaments
enclosing the pericardial fluid. 176. How many copies of DNA molecules are made
Statement B: Leucocytes are enucleated and from a DNA template after 5 cycles of PCR?
relatively lesser in number which average 6000- (1) 32 (2) 64
8000 mm 3 of blood. (3) 16 (4) 128

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
177. Exonucleases differ from endonucleases in 182. Identify a homopolymer which makes up the
plant cell walls.
(1) The type of bond which they break
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose
(2) The type of polymer on which they act
(3) Chitin (4) Inulin
(3) The location where they cut
183. State the following given statements either as
(4) The class of enzymes to which they belong true (T) or false (F) w.r.t. cancer.
178. Select the mismatch among the following. (A) Non-ionizing radiations like X-rays and -rays
cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic
(1) Traditional Hybrid has desired genes transformation.
hybridisation (B) MRI plays a significant role in detecting
cancers of internal organs.
(2) Genetic Introduces only desirable
modification genes in target organism (C) Cellular oncogenes are inactivated under UV-
rays leading to oncogenic transformation of
(3) Bioprocess Maintenance of sterile cells.
engineering ambience Select an appropriate option.
(A) (B) (C)
(4) Genetic Involves change in
engineering genotype without change (1) F T T
in phenotype (2) F F T
(3) F T F
179. Branching descent and natural selection are two
(4) T F F
key concepts of theory proposed by
184. Identify the incorrect statement among the
(1) Charles Darwin following.
(2) Lamarck (1) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune
(3) Hugo de Vries disease.
(2) Allergy is an exaggerated response of the
(4) Thomas Malthus
immune system to certain antigens present in
180. Which of the following is an incorrect statement the environment.
w.r.t. evolution? (3) The use of drugs such as steroids and anti-
(1) It is a stochastic process. histamine increase the signs and symptoms
of allergy.
(2) It is based on chance events in nature and
(4) Somehow, modern-day life style has resulted
chance mutation in organisms.
in lowering down the immunity level and
(3) It is a directed process in the sense of more sensitivity towards allergens.
determinism. 185. Read the following given statements w.r.t. nucleic
(4) Anthropogenic actions may play a role in acids.
evolution. (a) DNA possesses ribose sugar in its structure.
181. The type of natural selection in which the peak (b) Thymine bonds with cytosine through two
gets higher and narrower for the phenotype hydrogen bonds.
which was already exhibited by more number of (c) The rise per base pair in B-DNA would be
individuals in the population prior to natural 3.4 Å.
selection is (d) The pitch of B-DNA would be 34 nm.
(1) Stabilising selection How many statements mentioned above are
(2) Directional selection incorrect?

(3) Disruptive selection (1) One (2) Two

(4) Progressive selection (3) Three (4) Four

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022
SECTION-B
186. Select the odd one w.r.t. selective secretion of
H+ and K+ ions.
(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) CD
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
187. The value of pCO2 present in blood vessel
containing oxygenated blood is
(1) More than pO2 in systemic veins
(2) Equal to pO2 in systemic arteries
(3) More than pCO2 in pulmonary arteries
(4) Equal to pO2 in systemic veins
188. Read the given statements and choose the
incorrect one regarding vasectomy.
(1) Reversibility is poor
(2) Vas deferens is cut and tied-up
(3) No sperms are present in epididymis
(4) Sperms are not present in the seminal fluid
189. The main challenge for production of insulin
using rDNA techniques was
(1) addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin
(2) getting insulin assembled into mature form
(3) removal of C- peptide from mature insulin
(4) splitting of A and B polypeptide chains
190. One of these centres is not present in the
hypothalamus. Which one is it from the given
options?
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre
(2) Hunger centre
(3) Thermoregulatory centre
(4) Osmoregulatory centre
191. Presence of which of the following is not an
exclusive feature of mammals?
(1) Mammary glands
(2) Hair
(3) Pinnae
(4) Four chambered heart
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CST-14 (Code-A)
192. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. birds.
(1) Characteristic feature is presence of feathers
(2) Forelimbs are modified into wings
(3) Skin is dry without glands in all birds
(4) They are oviparous and development is
direct
193. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(1) Menstrual cycle starts with ovulatory phase
and ends with menstruation.
(2) The menstrual flow occurs due to breakdown
of myometrial lining of uterus.
(3) Menstruation only occurs if the released
ovum is not fertilized.
(4) Lack of menstruation is always an indication
of pregnancy only.
194. The thickest chamber of heart receiving
oxygenated blood and having Purkinjee fibres is
(1) Left atrium
(2) Right ventricle
(3) Left ventricle
(4) Right atrium
195. If the desired gene is introduced in coding
sequence of -galactosidase in pUC 8 cloning
vector, then resultant host cells will?
(1) Produce white coloured colonies
(2) Grow on tetracycline containing medium
(3) Produce blue coloured colonies
(4) Not grow on ampicillin containing medium
196. Choose the correct option to complete the
analogy.
Direct gene transfer : Biolistics :: Indirect gene
transfer : ___
(1) Microinjection
(2) Electroporation
(3) Protoplast fusion
(4) Vector mediated gene transfer
CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
197. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct option. (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
Column I Column II (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
a. Vertebrate hearts (i) Vestigial organs
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
b. Eyes of the (ii) Homologous correct explanation of (A)
Octopus and of organs 199. Fats and oils are glycerides, in which the fatty
mammals acids are esterified with
c. Auricular muscles (iii) Analogous organs (1) Amino acid
and 3rd molar (2) Fatty acid
teeth
(3) Sugar
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) Glycerol
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) 200. A 27 years old man developed dry scaly lesions
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) in between the toes. The lesions are itchy and
spreading to other body parts as well. The most
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
probable diagnosis is
198. Assertion (A): Co-enzymes are inorganic
(1) Ascariasis
compounds that bind tightly with the apoenzyme
to form holoenzyme. (2) Amoebiasis

Reason (R): Co-enzymes and prosthetic groups (3) Diphtheria

are cofactors. (4) Ringworm

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 28/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-14 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (1) 121. (1) 161. (1)
2. (2) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (1) 43. (2) 83. (3) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (2) 44. (1) 84. (4) 124. (1) 164. (2)
5. (4) 45. (1) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (1) 126. (4) 166. (3)
7. (3) 47. (1) 87. (4) 127. (3) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (1) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (4) 89. (2) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (4) 91. (3) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (2) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (4) 53. (4) 93. (4) 133. (1) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (1) 135. (2) 175. (1)
16. (3) 56. (1) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (1)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (3) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (2) 59. (4) 99. (2) 139. (4) 179. (1)
20. (4) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (3) 180. (3)
21. (1) 61. (3) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (1)
22. (3) 62. (1) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (2)
23. (2) 63. (3) 103. (4) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (2) 64. (1) 104. (3) 144. (3) 184. (3)
25. (4) 65. (2) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (3)
26. (2) 66. (3) 106. (4) 146. (2) 186. (4)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (3) 147. (4) 187. (4)
28. (2) 68. (1) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (2) 69. (4) 109. (3) 149. (2) 189. (2)
30. (2) 70. (1) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (1)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (4) 151. (3) 191. (4)
32. (4) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (1) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (1) 193. (3)
34. (4) 74. (4) 114. (1) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (4) 75. (2) 115. (4) 155. (2) 195. (1)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156. (1) 196. (4)
37. (2) 77. (3) 117. (3) 157. (3) 197. (4)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (1) 158. (1) 198. (1)
39. (2) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (4) 199. (4)
40. (4) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (4)

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

28/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-14 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A 5. Answer (4)

1. Answer (3)

2. Answer (2)

The relation between I and V is t = 20 days

6. Answer (3)
3. Answer (1)
At t = 0 when particle corresponding to wave A is
at mean position, then the particle corresponding
to wave B is at positive extreme while particle
corresponding to wave C is at negative extreme,
For electron in nth energy state
thus B leads in phase by w.r.t. A while C lags in

phase by w.r.t. A.

4. Answer (2)
7. Answer (3)

and x 3cos( t kx ) 3sin t kx B i

2 (r = constant and point is outside (or on surface)
B remains unchanged as i remains
t kx t kx radian
2 3 6 unchanged.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

8. Answer (2)

12. Answer (1)

COP

T1 = ?, T2 = 273 20 = 253

v = a1t1 = a2t2
10T1 2530 = 253
10T1 = 2530 + 253
T1 = 278.3 K
13. Answer (4)

Number of moles =

Q = nCv T
9. Answer (2)

Frictional force will act in forward direction on box

14. Answer (4)
f= × mg Work done in moving a test charge on
By second law ma = mg equipotential surface is zero.

a g 15. Answer (4)

v = u + at

10. Answer (2)

Maximum tension in rope T0 = M(g + a)
Stress in rope

16. Answer (3)

4M (g a )
d2
T

4M( g a )
d
T
11. Answer (2)
A1v1 = A2v2
Current from battery
(2R)2vA = R2vB

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

19. Answer (2)

Percentage error in measurement of radius is
maximum, therefore, radius should be measured
more accurately.
20. Answer (4)

[x] = [MLT 1]

21. Answer (1)

In transistor, the emitter current is slightly more
than the collector current.
22. Answer (3)
(a) =

(b) =

(c) = = A·B

(d) = =A+B
23. Answer (2)
= 0.5 A
The best representation is given by
17. Answer (3)
H = 2000 A/m
= 6 × 10 4 Wb
A = 3 cm2 = 3 × 10 4 m2
= BA

24. Answer (2)

B= H
For heat propagation via natural convection
temperature gradient exists in vertical direction.
25. Answer (4)
18. Answer (2)
The plane polarised light can be obtained either by
Instantaneous current reflection, refraction or scattering.
V0 V0 26. Answer (2)
I sin t sin t
XL 2 L 2 There is change in speed of EM wave as it travels
through different medium.
27. Answer (1)

Instantaneous power

V02 V02
sin t cos t (2sin t cos t )
L 2 L For rotatory equilibrium friction should be zero,
V02 then from translatory equilibrium.
P sin(2 t )
2 L F = mgsin

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

28. Answer (2) 34. Answer (4)

=I Electric field due to dipole is non uniform and
If =0 =0 non-zero inside the spherical shell.

Force is parallel or antiparallel to position Total electric flux through spherical shell.
vector.

So force will be 35. Answer (4)

Using conservation of mechanical energy
Where n is any real number.
Ui + Ki = Uf + Kf
29. Answer (2)
KEmax = T.E. Umin

30. Answer (2)

Motional EMF =
Since

E = B v = (0.4 × 10 4) (2.5) (10) = 10 3 V

31. Answer (2)

When image is formed at far point SECTION-B
36. Answer (2)
Work done = Area under the curve
When image is formed at near point

Given m0 = 20 = 820 J
From equation (1)
37. Answer (2)
v = tangential speed of heavier stone

32. Answer (4)

Amount of scattering
As per condition F1 = F2
R > G > B > v
Scattering is least for red colour
33. Answer (1) n2 = 4
n=2
loops.
38. Answer (2)

field where system has some sort of Under the effect of surface tension. After melting
symmetry. water drop will be of spherical in shape.

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

39. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)

Volume is decreasing m = m1 + 2m2
= 2.3 + 2 (0.035)
Work done by gas is negative
= 2.3 + 0.07
= 2.37
2.4 g
= 6J 46. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4)

F
when d increases, C decreases
q = q0 remains unchanged. So, friction,

as C decreases, V increases.

Work done is against electrostatic attractive For sphere

forces, so potential energy stored increases and
work done by electric field is negative.
41. Answer (3) 47. Answer (1)
Q = ms T
Q = H = ms T
T I2
ms T = I2Rt

T2 = 24°C
t = 15 cm
42. Answer (1)
Circuit is in resonance VR = VL = VC
Applied voltage is 60 V (rms)
Now when R is doubled, the current in circuit will
be halved, but VR = VOR = 60 V
60
VL IX L IXC 30 V
2
43. Answer (2) d = 60 cm
Saturation photoelectric current is directly 48. Answer (1)
proportional to intensity of incident light at a given
Fringe width =
frequency of incident light. So, the saturation
current will be doubled. No of bright fringes
44. Answer (1)
When forward biasing is applied to a p-n junction,
then it lowers the potential barrier.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

49. Answer (4)

From, Conservation of mechanical energy 50. Answer (3)

K.E. = qV and

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 58. Answer (2)

51. Answer (4) CaH2 : (+2) + (2x) = 0 x= 1
Among d-orbitals, have electron 59. Answer (4)

density along the axis whereas Argentite (Ag2S) is concentrated by leaching using
NaCN.
have between the axis.
60. Answer (4)
52. Answer (2)

Elements with atomic IUPAC official name

number

102 Nobelium
103 Lawrencium
105 Dubnium
107 Bohrium 1st nearest neighbours are at a distance of a (edge
length) for corner A atom so coordination number
53. Answer (4)
= 6.
61. Answer (3)
Due to Schottky defect density of crystal
decreases.
62. Answer (1)
54. Answer (3)
Fullerenes are the only pure form of carbon
because they have smooth structure without
For 27 g Al, electricity required = 3 F
.
40 g Al, electricity required
55. Answer (2)
Excessive sulphate (> 500 ppm) in drinking water =
causes laxative effect.
63. Answer (3)
56. Answer (1)

A-B interactions are weaker than those between

A-A or B-B molecules.
57. Answer (3)
Above molecule contains plane of symmetry
hence it is optically inactive compound.

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

64. Answer (1) Magnetic moment

Proline is a cyclic amino acid. =
65. Answer (2)
=
Correct order of I effect of the given groups is
= BM
CN > CO2 H > F > OH
66. Answer (3) 70. Answer (1)
Surface tension of H2O is more than ethanol
because intermolecular force of attraction in water
molecules is more than ethanol.
71. Answer (4)
In Zn(II), no. of unpaired electron is zero due to
having 3d10 4s0 as outer electronic configuration.
72. Answer (1)
The reaction is first order which is evident from the
unit of rate constant

67. Answer (1)

-keto acid decarboxylates most easily on
heating.
t = 250 s
73. Answer (3)
Adsorption involves bond formation therefore,
always exothermic.
Movement of particles decreases after
adsorption therefore, entropy decreases.
74. Answer (4)
SF6 has octahedral geometry.
68. Answer (1)
H2O(l) H2O(g)
H = U + ngRT
or U= H ngRT = H RT No. of 90° bond angles = 12
41 8.314 × 373 × 10 3 = 37.9 kJ mol 1
75. Answer (2)
69. Answer (4)
Co3+ : [Ar] 3d6

F is a weak field ligand, so pairing of unpaired Ksp = [My+]x[Xx+]y

electrons not occur. = (sx)x(sy)x

Ksp = sx+yxxyy
76. Answer (4)
Mass of ethanol = 25 g
Mass of water = (100 25)g = 75 g

No. of unpaired electrons = 4

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

84. Answer (4)

Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution is weak
antiseptic for eyes.
85. Answer (2)
In ionic compound (NaCl) formula mass is
= 7.2 m preferred over molecular mass.
77. Answer (3) SECTION-B
H-E-H angle (°) 86. Answer (1)
NH3 107.8 The kinetic energy of ejected electrons increases
with the increase of frequency of the light used.
PH3 93.6
87. Answer (4)
AsH3 91.8 2KNO3 2KNO2 + O2
SbH3 91.3 88. Answer (3)
78. Answer (1) H2O is discharged in preference at cathode so,
reaction taking place at cathode is
HOFO2 does not exist.
79. Answer (4)
Higher the stability of the carbocation formed, max
89. Answer (2)
will be the reactivity of alkyl halide towards SN1
reaction.
Correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is

Equivalent weight of
80. Answer (2)
90. Answer (3)
Kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds
containing nitrogen in nitro and azo groups.
Tertiary butoxide ion does not react with 91. Answer (3)
chlorobenzene at ordinary condition because
of C Cl double bond character.
81. Answer (1) (Benzene hexachloride)

Methanol, CH3
82. Answer (3) It is not an aromatic compound.
The order of reactivity of halides with amines is R 92. Answer (4)
I > R Br > R Cl as the order of leaving ability is I
> Br > Cl .
.83. Answer (3)
Monomer of natural rubber is isoprene

Monomer of neoprene is chloroprene

Acetophenone contains three enolizable

hydrogen.

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

93. Answer (4) Unit of rate constant for second order

For octahedral complex of [Ma2b2cd] type there = mol 1 Ls 1

are six geometric isomers possible 98. Answer (3)

mmol of H+ = 100 × 0.1 = 10
mmol of OH = 400 × 0.1 = 40
mmol of OH left = 40 10 = 30

94. Answer (2) pH = 14 pOH = 14 1.2 = 12.8

C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) 99. Answer (2)
HC(C2H6) = 2 fH(CO2(g)) + 3 fH (3H2O(l))
fH(C2H6)

= 2( 393.5) + 3( 285.8) ( 84.68)

Since B2 contains unpaired electrons therefore,
= 1559.7 kJ mol 1
paramagnetic in nature
95. Answer (1)
100. Answer (4)
Hoffmann bromamide degradation.

= 3.9 (g/L)
96. Answer (2)
For the equilibrium

moles of gaseous reactants and products are

same therefore, it will not be affected by adding
inert gas at constant pressure.
97. Answer (3)
Unit of rate constant = (mol L 1)1-n s 1

BOTANY
SECTION-A Purple bacteria and green sulphur bacteria have
bacteriochlorophyll.
101. Answer (3)
104. Answer (3)
PSTD is caused by a viroid whereas tobacco
Gamete is haploid so it carries only one factor of a
mosaic disease is caused by TMV. Both have RNA character. Pleiotropic gene produces more than
as genetic material but RNA of viroid is of low one effects.
molecular weight. 105. Answer (4)
102. Answer (2) Sickle cell anaemia arises due to substitution
Alternaria being imperfect fungus reproduce mutation
asexually only. 106. Answer (4)

103. Answer (4) Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

107. Answer (3) 118. Answer (1)

Abscisic acid acts as a growth inhibitor and The placentation in china rose, tomato and lemon
induces dormancy in buds and seeds. is axile whereas in mustard, placentation is
parietal.
It is also known as stress hormone and acts as an
antagonist to gibberellins. 119. Answer (3)
108. Answer (2) Chloroplast align themselves in vertical
position along the lateral walls under high light
Some bamboo species flower only once in their life
intensities. This is to protect themselves or
time.
pigment system against destruction by light.
109. Answer (3)
Chloroplast align themselves along the walls
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from of the mesophyll cells for easy diffusion of
the anther to stigma of another flower of same gases and to receive optimum quantity of
plant. incident light.
110. Answer (4) 120. Answer (2)
Biogas is composed of methane (50-70%), carbon Reverse central dogma is also called teminism.
dioxide (30-40%) and mixture of other gases such During the process, reverse transcriptase
as H2, H2S, etc. facilitates synthesis of DNA over RNA template.
111. Answer (4) 121. Answer (1)
Sulphur is the main constituent of thiamine and Regulator gene in lac operon codes for repressor
biotin in plants. It is also constituent of coenzyme protein.
A and ferredoxin. 122. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2) During charging of tRNA, amino acid is transferred
Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are sclerenchymatous. to tRNA. It is also called as aminoacylation of
They have pointed, needle-like apices. At maturity, tRNA.
they lack protoplasm but have lumen. 123. Answer (2)
113. Answer (3) There are 378 species of reptiles found in
The large, empty and colourless cells on adaxial Amazonian rainforest.
epidermis are called bulliform cells and they are 124. Answer (1)
found in grasses. Carbon dioxide contributes 60% among all GHGs.
114. Answer (1) 125. Answer (2)
Varied number of cisternae are present in Golgi Mangifera is generic name and indica is specific
complex. These are concentrically arranged near epithet.
the nucleus with distinct convex and concave
126. Answer (4)
faces.
In animals, division is not used, instead phylum is
115. Answer (4)
used.
The centrioles from the basal body of cilia or
127. Answer (3)
flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle
apparatus. NADH + H+ is not synthesized during ETS rather it
is oxidised.
116. Answer (2)
128. Answer (3)
In photosynthetic prokaryotes, such as
Pusa Komal is a variety of cowpea.
cyanobacteria, the photosynthetic pigments are
present in the chromatophores. 129. Answer (4)
117. Answer (3) Aestivation is summer escaping or over summer.
Glucose is synthesised by the process of 130. Answer (1)
photosynthesis that is performed by the green Humus is dark coloured and rich in lignin and
parts of the plants. cellulose.

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
131. Answer (2)
In natural system of classification, organisms are
classified on the basis of natural affinities and
consider not only external but also internal
features like ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology
and phytochemistry. It was proposed by Bentham
and Hooker.
132. Answer (3)
Chlamydomonas is unicellular alga.
Ulothrix is filamentous alga.
Volvox is a colonial alga and shows oogamous
reproduction.
Eudorina shows anisogamy.
133. Answer (1)
Meiotic products are haploid and have 5 pg DNA.
Therefore, diploid somatic cell will have double the
amount of DNA i.e. 10 pg.
S-phase of interphase involves replication/
doubling of DNA content, so DNA content
becomes 20 pg in S-phase.
134. Answer (3)
stage, centromeres of chromosomes are arranged
in two rows at the equator. Hence double
metaphasic plates are formed.
135. Answer (2)
The transport of two different molecules in
opposite directions using transport proteins is
called antiport. If movement of molecules is in
same direction, it is called symport.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (2)
Some marine amoeboid protozoans have silica
shells.
137. Answer (2)
7 characters and 14 contrasting traits of pea plants
were studied by Mendel.
138. Answer (2)
Cytokinin is adenine derivative plant growth
regulator discovered by F. Skoog.
139. Answer (4)
One male gamete moves towards the two polar
nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with
them to produce a triploid primary endosperm
nucleus.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022
140. Answer (3)
During secondary growth in dicot stem, vascular
cambium at some places forms narrow band of
parenchymatous medullary rays.
141. Answer (3)
Singer and Nicolson proposed the fluid mosaic
model of cell membrane. Rudolf Virchow first
explained that cells divided and new cells are
formed from pre-existing cell (Omnis cellula-e-
cellula).
142. Answer (2)
In Australia acacia, petioles modify into green leaf-
like structures called phyllodes. Phylloclade is the
modification of stem, e.g. Opuntia.
143. Answer (4)
Regulator gene in Lac operon is always
functioning. Its codes for repressor protein.
144. Answer (3)
The use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of
hospital waste.
145. Answer (3)
Indo-Burma extends from Bhutan to Myanmar
covering most of North-Eastern India.
146. Answer (2)
Regulators maintain homeostasis, conformers
stenothermals and partial regulators cannot
maintain constant internal environment.
147. Answer (4)
Pyramids of number in tree ecosystem is inverted.
148. Answer (2)
Fucus is a brown alga and is diplontic. The
dominant phase in life cycle is photosynthetic
independent diploid sporophytic plant.
149. Answer (2)
w of cell A = s + p= 10 + 7 = 3
w of cell B = 7 + 10 = 3
w of cell C = 15 + 10 = 5
w of cell D = 2 + 6 = 4
Water moves from higher water potential to lower
water potential.
150. Answer (2)
Trichoderma is a free-living fungi that are common
in root ecosystem and are effective biocontrol
agent for several plant pathogen.
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 160. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3) Glucocorticoid, particularly cortisol, produces anti-
The lungs cannot be made fully empty by inflammatory reactions and suppresses the
forceful expiration. immune response. Cortisol stimulates the RBC
production.
When CO2 concentration in blood increases,
161. Answer (1)
breathing becomes faster.
Pineal gland secretes a hormone called
Reduction in pH of blood will alter the
melatonin. Melatonin plays a very important role in
breathing rate.
the regulation of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our
152. Answer (2) body.
Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards 162. Answer (4)
medullary interstitium in the kidneys is Sycon, Euspongia and Spongilla are poriferans
responsible for the formation of concentrated which have cellular level of organisation. Hydra is
urine. a coelenterate and has tissue level of body
An excessive loss of fluid from the body can organisation.
activate osmoreceptors which stimulate the 163. Answer (3)
hypothalamus to release ADH from
Parapodia are locomotory structures in Nereis
neurohypophysis.
helpful in swimming, whereas in Locusta, jointed
153. Answer (1) legs are responsible for locomotion.
Bird flu was caused by H5N1 influenza virus. 164. Answer (2)
154. Answer (3) Protochordates Exclusively marine
Occipital bone, frontal bone, ethmoid bone,
Aves Homoiothermous
temporal bones and parietal bones are
included in cranial bones. Agnatha Circular mouth without jaws
155. Answer (2) Pisces Streamlined body and bear
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone which is fins
present at the base of buccal cavity i.e., at the
165. Answer (3)
base of the tongue and above the larynx.
Embryogenesis refers to the process of
156. Answer (1)
development of embryo from the zygote which
MTP stands for Medical Termination of consists of cell division and cell differentiation.
Pregnancy.
Internal fertilization occurs in lizards.
157. Answer (3)
Calcareous shell is present around fertilized
IUT involves the transfer of embryo with more than eggs in reptiles and birds. Syngamy occurs
8 blastomers into the uterus. inside or outside the body of vertebrates.
158. Answer (1)
166. Answer (3)
ADA is crucial for the immune system to function.
Granulosa cells are present in ovarian follicles.
159. Answer (4)
167. Answer (3)
The cerebral cortex is referred to as grey matter.
The primary oocyte within the follicle containing
The cerebral cortex contains motor areas, sensory
antrum (tertiary follicle) grows in size and
areas and large regions that are neither clearly
complete its 1st meiotic division.
sensory nor motor in function.

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CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

168. Answer (3) 178. Answer (4)

For fertility, minimum per cent of total sperms In genetic engineering, alteration in genetic
which must show normal shape and size = 60%, material is done which results in change(s) in the
40% of them must show vigorous motility. phenotype of the organism.
So, sperms having normal shape, size and vigrous 179. Answer (1)
motility = 60% × 40% of total sperms. Charles Darwin Natural selection theory
Lamarck Theory of use and disuse
of organs
Hugo de Vries Mutation theory
Thomas Malthus Worked on human
populations
169. Answer (1)
180. Answer (3)
Serum = Plasma Clotting factors
Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of
Clotting factors are responsible for coagulation of
determinism as it is based on chance events in
blood therefore, blood serum does not coagulate.
nature and chance mutations in the organisms.
170. Answer (2)
181. Answer (1)
Heart is surrounded by a double-walled
pericardium. Leucocytes are nucleated.
171. Answer (3)
Bicuspid or mitral valve guards the opening
between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
172. Answer (4)
Glucose and some amino acids are absorbed by
active absorption.
Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be
absorbed into the blood directly.
173. Answer (2) 182. Answer (2)
In indigestion, the food is not properly digested Plant cell walls are made of cellulose. Chitin forms
leading to a feeling of fullness. the exoskeleton of arthropods.
174. Answer (1) 183. Answer (3)
The mouthparts of cockroach consist of a labrum X-rays and -rays are ionizing radiations whereas
(upper lip), a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae UV rays are non-ionizing radiations.
and a labium (lower lip). Hypopharynx acts as the
Cellular oncogenes or proto-oncogenes are
tongue.
activated under UV radiations leading to
175. Answer (1) oncogenic transformation of cells.
Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue. 184. Answer (3)
Rest all are types of dense connective tissues.
The use of drugs such as anti-histamine,
176. Answer (1) adrenaline and steroids decrease the signs and
It is pos n symptoms of allergy.
185. Answer (3)
So, after 5 cycles = 25 = 32 DNA possesses (D)-2-deoxyribose sugar in its
177. Answer (3) structure.
Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends Thymine bonds with adenine through two
of the DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at hydrogen bonds.
specific positions within the DNA. The pitch of B-DNA would be 34 Å.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-14 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION-B 195. Answer (1)

186. Answer (4) Recombinant host cells will have intact ampR
gene, so they will be ampicillin resistant; but due
Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
to insertional inactivation of lacZ gene,
to water but almost impermeable to
-galactosidase enzyme will not be produced
electrolytes.
hence, they will produce white coloured colonies.
187. Answer (4) 196. Answer (4)
Vector-mediated gene transfer is a method of
indirect gene transfer. Other methods given in the
options are examples of direct gene transfer.
197. Answer (4)

Vertebrate hearts Homologous

organs

Eyes of Octopus and of Analogous

mammals organs

Auricular muscles and Vestigial

3rd molar teeth organs

198. Answer (1)

Co-enzymes are organic compounds that bind
loosely with the apoenzyme, whereas prosthetic
188. Answer (3) group binds tightly with the apoenzyme in order to
form holoenzyme.
Since vas deferens is cut epididymis will have
sperms in it. 199. Answer (4)
189. Answer (2)
The C-peptide is not present in the mature insulin
and is removed during maturation of insulin.
190. Answer (1)
The medulla oblongata contains the centre that
controls respiration.
191. Answer (4)
Four chambered heart is present in both birds and
mammals.
192. Answer (3)
Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland
present at the base of the tail.
193. Answer (3) 200. Answer (4)
Menstrual cycle starts with menstrual phase. Ringworm is one of the most infectious diseases
Menstrual flow occurs due to breakdown of in man.
endometrial lining of uterus. Lack of menstruation
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts
may be indicative of pregnancy.
of the body such as nails, scalp and skin are the
194. Answer (3) main symptoms.
Left ventricle has the thickest walls as it pumps Ascariasis and Amoebiasis are caused by Ascaris
oxygenated blood to all body parts. and Entamoeba histolytica respectively.

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