05/05/2022 RMINT

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Minutes

Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

INTENSIVE TEST SERIES

for Regular Medical - 2022
Test - 01

Topics covered :
Physics : Mathematical Tools, Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line.

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom

Botany : Cell Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals - Animal Tissues

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A 2. If 0 is permittivity of free space and 0 is magnetic

1. If A, B and C are three physical quantities such that permeability of free space then the dimensional for-
A and B are of same dimensions while C has differ- 1
ent dimensions, then which of the following may be  2 2
meaningful mula of   is
  0 0 

 A  C  C – 2B  (1) [MLT–1]
(1) (2)
B A (2) [M0LT–1]

A (3) [MLT–2]
 2A  3B 
(3) B  C (4)
  C (4) [M0LT–2]
 Intensive Test Series-01
3. Time period of a simple pendulum recorded in three 9. Which of the following is more precise instrument?
experiments are 1.9 s, 2.0 s and 2.1 s, then
(1) Meter scale having smallest division 1 mm
(1) Mean absolute error is 0.01
(2) Vernier callipers in which 20 vernier scale divi-
(2) Relative error is 0.05 sion coinciding with 19 main scale division
(3) Percentage error is 0.5%
(3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest division on
(4) Percentage error is 0.05% linear scale and 50 divisions on circular scale
4. A particle moving on a straight line has initial veloc- (4) Vernier callipers with least count 0.02 mm
ity 2.03 m/s, accelerating uniformly with 1.0 m/s2 after
0.3 s will have velocity (in m/s) (upto correct signifi- 10. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its posi-
cant figures) tion (x) varies with time(t) as, x – (t sint) m then
average acceleration of the particle from t = 0 s to t
(1) 2.3 (2) 2.0

(3) 2.06 (4) 2.1 = s is
2
5. A physical quantity X is related to four quantities ,
 2
33 (1) m/s2 (2) m/s2
,  and as X = 2 2 
 3
 4
The percentage errors in measurement of , ,  (3) m/s2 (4) m/s2
4 
1 1 1
and are % , % , 2% and % respectively then 11. A police jeep wants to chase a thief’s car which is
2 3 3
moving with speed 40 m/s on a straight track. If the
percentage error in X is separation between the jeep and car is 400 m then
(1) 1.5% (2) 2.3% speed of jeep required to catch the car in 20 s is

(3) 3.7% (4) 4% (1) 40 m/s (2) 60 m/s

6. If force (F), acceleration (a) and time (t) are consid- (3) 80 m/s (4) 120 m/s
ered to be fundamental quantities, then the dimen-
sional formula of surface tension is 12. Who among the following scientist was awarded
Nobel prize for his work on photoelectric effect?
(1) [Fat] (2) [Fa–1t–1]
(3) [Fa–1t–2] (4) [Fa–1t2] (1) Sir Isaac Newton (2) Albert Einstein

7. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which of (3) de-Broglie (4) Neil Bohr
the following vernier scales gives vernier constant
equal to 0.05 mm? 13. A vehicle travels one fourth of total distance with
speed v 1 and remaining part with speed v 2 then its
(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions average speed in the total journey is
(2) 19 mm divided into 20 divisions
3v1  v 2 3v1v 2
(3) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions (1) (2) v1  v 2
2
(4) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions
8. If dimensional formula of a physical quantity is 4v1v 2 4v1v 2
(3) 3v  v (4) v1  v 2
[MaLbTc], then the physical quantity is 1 2

(1) Torque, if a = 1, b = 2 and c = –1 14. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as the
(2) Surface tension, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –2 units of mass, length and time respectively. Then
the value of 10 N in this system will be
(3) Impulse, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –1
(1) 1000 units (2) 1 units
(4) Radial acceleration, if a = 0, b = 1 and c = –1
(3) 10 units (4) 100 units
Page 2
Intensive Test Series-01
15. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle mov- 19. The correct velocity-time (v-t) graph for the given
ing along a straight line is as shown in figure. If the acceleration-time (a-t) graph is
initial velocity of the particle is 5 m/s then the veloc-
ity at the end of 7 s is

(1) 5 m/s (2) 6 m/s

(3) 8 m/s (4) 10 m/s (1)
16. The displacement time graph of a particle moving
on a straight line is as shown. The section of the
graph which corresponds to positive acceleration is

(2)

(1) OA (2) AB
(3)
(3) BC (4) DE
17. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to
1
the equation x  . The acceleration of the
 t  1
particle is proportional to

2
(4)
(1)  velocity  3
5
(2)  velocity  3
20. The total number of insignificant zeroes in the mea-
1
(3) surement of a quantity x = 0.003270 is
 dis tance  3
(1) 2 (2) 3
5
(4) (3) 4 (4) 1
 dis tance  2
21. The kinetic energy of a moving body is characterised
18. A car moving along x-axis with speed 72 km/h is by mass and speed of the body. If the maximum
brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If retar- percentage error in these quantities are respectively
dation is uniform then time taken (in s) in stopping 1% and 2%, then maximum percentage error in
this car is calculating the kinetic energy is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1% (2) 2%
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3% (4) 5%

Page 3
 Intensive Test Series-01
22. A person moves for 10 s with velocity 3 m/s then 27. If the unit of power is 1 kilo watt, the length is100 m
velocity 4 m/s for another 5 s and finally moves with and time 1 s, then the unit of mass will be
velocity 5 m/s for 6 s. The average speed of the
person will be (1) 10 kg (2) 10–1 kg
(3) 100 kg (4) 10–2 kg
40 70
(1) m/s (2) m/s 28. The numerical value of surface tension in SI unit is
21 21
P and in CGS system of units is Q, then P : Q is
60 80
(3) m/s (4) m/s (1) 103 : 1 (2) 1 : 10–2
21 21
(3) 10–3 : 1 (4) 10–2 : 1
23. Choose the correct statement among the following
(1) Dimensionless quantities can have a unit 29. The position-time graph of two particles A and B is
as shown in graph. Then ratio of speeds VA : VB is
(2) A dimensionally correct equation must be cor-
rect
(3) Change in system of units will surely change the
numerical value of the physical quantity
(4) Dimensions of a physical quantity can never be
a fraction
24. If linear momentum of a particle varies with distance
A x
x from origin as P  . Then dimensions of
B  3x
A (1) 1: 2 (2) 3:2
is (A and B are dimensional constants)
B
(3) 1: 3 (4) 1 : 1
(1) [M L T–1] (2) [ML3/2T–1]
30. A train is moving on a straight track with uniform
(3) [M L1/2T–1] (4) [ML–1/2T–1]
acceleration. The engine of the train is passing a
25. The position time graph of a particle moving along a pole with speed u and the next pole with speed v.
straight line is given in following graph. The aver- th
age speed of the particle between time t = 0 to t = 8  2
The speed of the train while engine covers   of
s is 5
distance between the consecutive poles, is

u2  2v 2
(1)
5

3u2  v 2
(2)
5

(1) 3 m/s (2) 9 m/s 3u2  2v 2

(3)
(3) 6 m/s (4) 0 m/s 5

26. A drunkard is walking straight such that he takes 5

steps forward and 3 steps backwards and contin- 2u2  5v 2
(4)
ues with same repeated pattern. If each step is 1m 5
long and takes 1 s in each step, then after what
duration of time he will fall in a pit at a distance 6 m 31. The order of magnitude of 192 is
from starting point?
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 8s (2) 16 s
(3) 12 s (4) 24 s (3) 2 (4) 3

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Intensive Test Series-01
32. Two balls are projected in vertically upward direc-
tion with velocity 8 m/s and 12 m/s respectively from SECTION-B
the same position at the same instant of time. Then
36. If power of a force varies with displacement x and
the separation (s) between the balls varies with time
t till one of the balls hits the ground can be best ax 2
represented by time t as P  , where a and b are dimensional
b  2t
constants, then the dimensional formula of [ab] is

(1) [ML0T–1] (2) [ML2T–3]

(1) (2)
(3) [ML0T–3] (4) [M0LT–1]

37. A car starts from rest accelerates on a straight path

with constant acceleration a for some time, after
which it decelerates at constant value b and comes
to rest. Total time elapsed is t, then average velocity
(3) (4) of the car is

abt 2abt
33. A stone is released from rest from the top of a very (1) (2)
high tower. In first 3 seconds the stone falls x m, ab a  b 
then for next x m fall, time taken by stone is
abt a2 t
(1) 3 2s (2) 3  
2 1 s (3) 2  a  b  (4)
a  b
(3) 3  
3 2 s (4) 3  
3 1 s 38. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm with 100 divi-
sions on circular scale. In measurement of thick-
34. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet is given ness of a wire, there are 3-divisions on linear scale
to be (9.0 ± 0.3) cm and (4.0 ± 0.1) cm respectively. and 25 divisions on circular scale coinciding with
Then the square root of the area of the sheet upto reference line. If nothing is put between the studs
correct significant figure will be reported as then 20th division on circular scale is coinciding with
reference line such that zero of linear scale is vis-
(1) (6.0 ±0.17) cm ible, then thickness of wire is

(2) (6.0 ±0.175) cm (1) 3.05 mm (2) 3.30 mm

(3) (6.0 ±0.2) cm (3) 3.25 mm (4) 3.0 mm

(4) (6.0 ±0.18) cm
35. The displacement (x) time (t) graph of a particle
moving along x-axis is shown in figure. Choose the
correct option among the following.
39. If water drops are falling at regular intervals from a
ceiling at a height of 80 m from the floor. If drops
are falling at the interval of 1 s, then height of third
drop from the floor when first drop reaches the floor
is (take g = 10 m s–2)

(1) 60 m (2) 40 m

(3) 20 m (4) 5 m
40. Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m
and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct value of AB
should be reported as
(1) Particle speeds up and slows down two times
(1) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
(2) Particle speeds up two times and slows down
one time (2) 1.4 m ±0.1 m
(3) Particle comes to momentary rest twice (3) 1.41 m± 0.15 m
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m

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 Intensive Test Series-01
41. A particle initially at rest moves along a straight line creasing.
with acceleration given by a = 4t – 2 (where a is in
46. The percentage error in the measurement of a, b
m/s2 and t is in s). The particle will be again at rest,
and c are 0.3%, 1% and 0.9% respectively. The
at time t =
maximum percentage error in the measurement of
(1) 3 s (2) 1 s 1
3 2
(3) 2 s (4) 4 s quantity x  a b will be
42. An elevator of cabin height 1.2 m starts ascending c
with acceleration 2 m/s2. One second after the start
(1) 3%
a loose bolt starts falling from the ceiling. The time
after which bolt will hit the floor of elevator is (g = 10 (2) 1.2%
m/s2)
(3) 1%
1 6
(1) s (2) s (4) 2.9%
5 5
47. If velocity (V), mass (M) and time (T) are taken as
1 fundamental quantities then dimensional formula of
(3) 5s (4) s Young’s modulus is
2
(1) [MV2T–3]
43. A ball is dropped from a high tower at t = 0. After 10
s another ball is thrown in downward direction from (2) [MVT–2]
the same point with speed v. If these two balls meet
at t = 15 s. Then the value of v is (take g = 10 m/s2) (3) [MV–1T–3]

(1) 50 m/s (2) 100 m/s (4) [MV–2T–3]

(3) 200 m/s (4) 225 m/s
44. A particle is moving in x-y plane such that its posi-
tion co-ordinates are varying w.r.t. time as x =
5sin121t and y = 121cos5 t (where x and y are in
meter and t is in second). The speed of the particle
at t = 1 s is
48. The position x (x > 0) of a particle on a straight line
varies w.r.t time t as
x   2t  1 , then
(1) Velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(1) 605 2 m / s (2) Velocity of the particle is inversely proportional

to t
(2) 121  m / s
(3) Velocity of the particle is proportional to t2
(3) 605  m / s
(4) Particle moves with constant acceleration
(4) 121 2  m / s
49. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its posi-
45. A particle moves with an initial velocity v 0 along a tion x is varying w.r.t. time t is given by x = (3t2 – 9t).
straight line with a retardation v ( is a positive The distance covered by the particle in first 3 s is
constant and v is velocity at any time t) then
(1) 27 m (2) 6.75 m
1
(1) The particle will come to rest after a time (3) 13.5 m (4) 54 m

50. Dimensional formula of physical quantity is [Mp LqTr],
v0 then the physical quantity is
(2) The velocity of the particle will become af-

(1) Angular momentum if, p = 1, q = 2 and r = –1
1
ter a time (2) Planck’s constant if, p = 1, q = 2 and r = –1

(3) Young’s modulus if, p =1, q = –1 and r = 1
v0
(3) The total distance covered by the particle is (4) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Velocity versus time graph will be linearly de-

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Intensive Test Series-01

CHEMISTRY

58. The molality of aq. solution of urea in which mole

SECTION-A
fraction of urea is 0.1, is
51. The energy of electron in third Bohr orbit of the hy-
(1) 6.17 m (2) 5.24 m
drogen atom is –145.7 kJ mol–1. The energy of elec-
tron in second Bohr orbit of H - atom will be (4) 5.78 m (3) 6.98 m
–1 –1
(1) –32.83 kJ mol (2) –327.8 kJ mol
59. The phenomenon which justify the wave nature of
–1
(3) –818.2 kJmol (4) –541 kJ mol–1 light is/are
52. If 0.1 mol of a gas sample contains 1.806 x 1023
(1) Diffraction (2) Photoelectric effect
atoms, the atomicity of gas is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Interference (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 3 (4) 4 60. The ratio of masses of two particles is 1 : 2 and ratio
53. If mass percentage of glucose in aqueous solution of their kinetic energies is 9 : 2. The ratio of their de-
is 36% then the molality of the solution is Broglie wavelengths is
(1) 2.250 (2) 3.125
3 2
(3) 5.125 (4) 4.612 (1) (2)
5 3
54. Total number of degenerate orbitals in the 2nd shell
of Li2+ ion is 5 1
(3) (4)
(1) 2 (2) 4 2 3
(3) 8 (4) 9
61. The number of standing waves in 3rd shell of H-atom is
55. Select the wrong statement among the following
(1) In case of hydrogen like species, the energy of (1) 3 (2) 32
3s orbital is equal to the energy of 3p orbital
(3) 3 (4) 33
(2) Angular momentum of an electron in H-atom in
quantized 62. x gram of metal gives y g of metal oxide on com-
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in plete combustion. The equivalent weight of metal is
‘p’ orbital is equal to 2
(4) Two electrons in an atom occupying the same 8x 8y  x
(1) y  x (2)
orbital are distinguished by magnetic quantum x
number
56. Which of the following is not permissible arrange- x y  x
ment of electrons in an atom? (3) 8  y  x  (4)
8x
1
(1) n = 4,  = 3, m = 0, s =  63. The ratio of the energy of first excited state of hy-
2 drogen atom to the first excited state of He+ ion is
1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(2) n = 5,  = 2, m = –3, s = –
2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
1
(3) n = 3,  = 0, m = 0, s =  64. In H-atom spectrum, the wavelength of radiation
2 emitted when electron falls from third excited state
to ground state is (RH = Rydberg constant)
1
(4) n = 2,  = 1, m = –1, s = –
2 16 3
57. Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals respec- (1) (2)
15RH 4RH
tively are
(1) 1,0 (2) 3, 0 9 15
(3) 8R (4) 16R
(3) 0, 1 (4) 2, 3 H H

Page 7
 Intensive Test Series-01
65. 50 ml of 1N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2N 75. 12.04 x 1022 molecules of urea are present in 500
Ca(OH)2. The molarity of OH– ions in the resulting mL of its solution. The molarity of the solution is
solution will be [Consider complete dissociation of (1) 4 M (2) 0.4 M
NaOH and Ca(OH)2] (3) 2.5 M (4) 0.2 M
(1) 2.5 M (2) 1.75 M 76. For a p-electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(3) 1.25 M (4) 1.50 M
66. Maximum number of atoms is present in 3h 2h
(1) (2)
(1) 0.1 mol NaOH (2) 0.2 mol C6H12O6  2
(3) 0.3 mol Na2C2O4 (4) 0.1 mol H2O
6h 3h
67. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass of 6.62 (3) (4)
 2
× 10–22 kg moving with 1 m/s speed is
(Planck's constant is 6.62 × 10–34 Js) 77. Which of the following concentration terms depend
upon temperature?
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.01 Å
(1) Molality (2) Mole fraction
(3) 0.2 Å (4) 0.02 Å
(3) Normality (4) (w/w)%
68. Which of the following transitions will emit photon
with minimum wavelength? 78. The number of significant figures in Avogadro’s num-
ber (6.022 × 1023) is
(1) n4  n5 (2) n4  n2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) n4  n1 (4) n2  n1
(3) 3 (4) 4
69. If n = 5, then correct sequence for filling of electrons
in the orbitals will be 79. Which of the following has maximum number of
(1) ns  np  (n – 1)d (n – 1)f unpaired electrons? (Atomic number of Sc = 21, Cr
= 24, Mn = 25, Cu = 29)
(2) np  (n + 1)s  (n – 1)f  nd
(1) Cr3+ (2) Sc3+
(3) ns  np  (n + 1)d  (n – 1)f
(3) Cu2+ (4) Mn2+
(4) np  nd  (n + 1)s  (n – 1)f
80. The wavelengths 1 and 2 of two radiations are re-
70. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
lated as 41 = 2. The ratio of their energies (E1 and
(1) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital for E2) is
(2) All five orbitals of d subshell have the same (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
energy in H-atom (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
(3) Screening effect of 3p orbital is more than 81. Values of work functions (W0) for few metals are given as
3s orbital
(4) Number of angular nodes present in 2s orbital Metal Li Na K Mg
is zero W0 / eV 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7
71. From 320 mg of O2, x mg of O2 is removed. If If all the metals are irradiated with light ( = 414 nm)
6.02 × 1020 molecules of O2 are left then x will be then how many metal(s) will show photoelectric
(1) 320 mg (2) 32 mg emission of electrons? (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(3) 288 mg (4) 28 mg (1) 4 (2) 3
72. Number of angular and radial nodes present in 5p (3) 2 (4) 1
orbital are respectively 82. The number of subshells in nth shell is
(1) 2 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 (1) 2n (2) n
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 3 and 1 (3) 2n2 (4) n2
73. If one mol aqueous solution of NaOH has mole frac- 83. Increase in volume when 100 mL NH3 is completely
tion of NaOH 0.1 then mass of solvent present is decomposed to N2 and H2 gas at constant pressure
(1) 1.62 g (2) 16.2 g and temperature is
(3) 0.81 g (4) 8.1 g (1) 50 mL (2) 100 mL
74. Correct order of wavelength of electromagnetic ra- (3) 200 mL (4) 400 mL
diations is 84. 244 g of ZnO was produced when 261 g of sample
(1) UV > Microwaves > Visible > Radiowaves containing Zn metal was burnt in excess of oxygen.
(2) UV > Microwaves > Radiowaves > Visible Percentage purity of Zinc metal in sample (atomic
(3) Radiowaves > Microwaves > UV > Visible mass of Zn = 65.4 u) will be nearly
(4) Radiowaves > Microwaves > Visible > UV (1) 100% (2) 75%
(3) 50% (4) 25%

Page 8
 @Aakash_Test_Series_PDF
Intensive Test Series-01
85. A compound contains 8.5% of N, 29% of O and 93. For a microscopic particle, x = v and mass is ‘m’.
62.5% of an element X(atomic mass = 207.2 u). The uncertainty in its position will be
The empirical formula of the compound will be
(1) X2N2O 5 (2) XN2O 5 1 h 3
h
(1) (2)
(3) XN2O 6 (4) X2NO 5 2 m 4 m

h 4h
SECTION-B (4) (4)
4m m
86 . The number of revolution of electrons per second in
nth orbit of H-atom is (k = constant) 94. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) 3dz2 orbital has no angular node
k k
(1) (2) (2) 3s orbital has two radial nodes
n n3
(3) In 3px orbital, electron probability is zero in
k k yz plane
(3) (4)
n2 n4 (4) All of these
87. 1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g, for- 95. Maximum number of orbitals for which ‘n + l = 5’ is
mula of the gas may be (1) 1 (2) 4
(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) 9 (4) 16
(3) NO (4) SO2
96. If shortest wavelength of H atom in Lyman series is
88. Angular momentum of electron in 5th orbit of x, then longest wavelength in Paschen series of Li2+
hydrogen atom is given by is
5h 25h
(1) (2) x 7
  (1) 16 (2) 15
7 x
2.5h 5h2 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
 22 x 2x
89. Which of the following orbital diagram violates 97. In the following reaction
Hund’s rule?
P4 + NaOH  PH3 + NaH2PO2
(1) Equivalent weight of P4 is

(2) M M
(1) (2)
1 2
(3)
3M M
(3) (4)
(4) 5 3
90. Mole fraction of the solute in 0.5 molal aqueous so- 98. Number of mole of CO2 produced on heating 20g of
lution is nearly CaCO3(s), given that CaCO3 is only 75% pure is

1 1 1 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
112 56 20 20

1 1 3 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
56 56 10 11
91. If percentage of Zn (atomic mass = 65.38) in a 99. 4 g of calcium is burnt with 2.4 g O2 in a closed
biomolecule is 0.75% by weight, then the minimum vessel. Which reactant is left and how much?
molar mass (in g mol–1) of biomolecule will be
(1) O2, 0.8 g (2) Ca, 0.4 g
(1) 10243.45 (2) 9483.29
(3) O2, 1.2 g (4) Ca, 2.8 g
(3) 8012.12 (4) 8717.33
92. The percentage loss of mass by Na2SO4.10H2O to 100. Which of the following set of orbitals will have elec-
become anhydrous is tron density along the axes?
(1) 72.5% (2) 45.2% (1) p2, dxy, dx2–y2 (2) px, dxy, dzx
(3) 55.9% (4) 65.2% (3) px, dyz, dz2 (4) px, dx2–y2, py

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 Intensive Test Series-01

BOTANY

108. The cell organelles in animals which are not bound

SECTION-A by any membrane are
101. A cell is considered as fundamental structural and (1) Ribosome and gas vacuole
functional unit of living organisms. One of the reason
(2) Centrosome and chromatophore
is that
(3) Ribosome and peroxisome
(1) It is always independent of other cells
(4) Centrosome and ribosome
(2) It performs all the essential functions of life
109. Hydrophobic tails of all the lipid molecules in plasma
(3) Cells always have a controlling centre called
membrane are towards the
nucleus
(1) Outer side of the membrane
(4) It synthesizes its own food from inorganic
substances (2) Outer side of cell surface
102. Rudolf Virchow first explained that ‘Omnis cellula- (3) Inner part of membrane
e-cellula’. It means (4) Cytoplasm of the cell
(1) Organisms are made up of cells 110. Flat disc-shaped structures of Golgi apparatus are
(2) A multicellular organisms is made up of different concerned with
types of cells (1) Synthesis of amino acids
(3) All the cells are similar in structure and function (2) Increasing the surface area for protein synthesis
(4) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells (3) Break down of lipids
103. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the main (4) Modification of proteins
arena of plant and animal cells.
111. Membrane of the cell organelle that has the enzymes
(1) It is a semi-fluid matrix such as lipases, proteases and carbohydrases is
(2) It occupies the volume of the cell the parts of the
(3) It is double membrane bound structure having (1) Vacuole and peroxisome
chromatin material
(2) Member of endomembrane system
(4) It has various cell organelles
(3) Mitochondrion and Golgi apparatus
104. Read the following statements and choose the option
(4) Amyloplast and leucoplast
which is true for them.
112. Identify the following as true (T) or false(F) and
Statement-A:- Eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes.
choose the option accordingly.
Statement-B:- In prokaryotes, both cilia and flagella
are covered with plasma membrane. A. Plant vacuoles have more concentration of ions
than that of cytoplasm.
(1) Only statement A is correct
B. In plant cells, contractile vacuoles are important
(2) Only statement B is correct for excretion.
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct C. Food vacuoles are also membrane bound
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect structures.
105. Human RBCs are about ___________ µm in A B C
diameter
(1) T F F
(1) 3 - 5 (2) 0.3
(2) T F T
(3) 10 (4) 7
(3) F F T
106. Multiplication rate will be maximum in
(4) T T F
(1) Red blood cell (2) Bacterium
113. Which of the following functions is not performed
(3) Amoeba (4) Paramoecium
by mitochondria?
107. Polysomes are formed in
(1) Synthesis of protein
(1) Cytoplasm of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(2) Nucleoplasm of eukaryotes (2) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(3) Cytoplasm of prokaryotes only (3) Division by fission
(4) Both nucleoplasm and cytoplasm of eukaryotes (4) Production of cellular energy
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Intensive Test Series-01
114. In mitochondria, enzymes are present 121. ________ proposed the hypothesis that the bodies
(1) In both outer and inner membranes as well as of animals and plants are composed of cell and
in matrix product of cells.
(2) Only in inner membrane (1) Schleiden (2) Schwann
(3) Only in matrix
(3) Virchow (4) Lecuwenhoeck
(4) Only between outer and inner membranes
115. In potato tuber, starch is stored 122. Select the wrong match
(1) Around the chloroplasts (1) Chromatophore - Pigment containing
(2) In the inter-cellular spaces membranous
extension
(3) In the specific plastids
(4) In the cytosol in the form of colloids (2) Fimbriae - Help in movement
116. W hich of the following statements regarding of bacteria
chloroplast is/are incorrect? (3) Gas vacuole - Found in Blue green
(a) A thylakoid is made up of many grana. algae
(b) Outer chloroplast membrane is more (4) Cytoplasm - Main arena of
permeable. cellular activity
(c) Stroma has enzymes for the synthesis of
proteins. 123. The component of plasma membrane which is quasi
fluid in nature includes all, except
(d) Chloroplast pigments are present in stroma.
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (1) Cholesterol (2) Phospholipid
(3) (b) & (d) (4) (d) only (3) Glycolipid (4) Glycoprotein
117. Mechanical support, motility and maintenance of the 124. Primary cell wall
shape of the cell, all these functions in a cell is due
(1) Gradually diminishes as the cell matures
to
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoplasm (2) Is living rigid structure
(3) Cell wall (4) Cytoskeleton (3) Is made up of pectose
118. In eukaryotic flagella, one of the tubules of each (4) Is absent in young plant cell
peripheral doublets is connected with central sheath
125. Which of the given statement is false?
by
(1) Central hub (2) Central bridge (1) RER is involved in protein synthesis & secretion
(3) Linker tubule (4) Radial spoke (2) Steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER
119. The cell organelle that has cart wheel appearance (3) Golgi apparatus performs the function of
is made up of packaging of material
(1) Eleven doublet peripheral microtubules (4) Carbohydrases are found in lysosome that are
(2) Nine peripheral and two central fibrils functional at basic pH.
(3) Nine peripheral triplet fibrils 126. A - Tonoplast facilitates transport of a number of
(4) Seven peripheral doublet and two central singlet ions against concentration gradient inside
fibrels vacuole.
120. Match the following columns w.r.t chromosomes and B - Mitochondria lack component required for
select the correct option. protein synthesis.
Column I Column II
(1) Only A is correct
a Centromere (i) Disc shaped
structure (2) Only B is correct
b Satellite (ii) Primary constriction (3) Both A & B are correct
c Kinetochore (iii) Basic protein (4) Both A & B are incorrect
d Histone (iv) Small fragment due 127. The ribosomes of chloroplast are
to secondary
a. 70 S type
constriction
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) b. Larger than cytoplasmic ribosome
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) c. Made up of 50 S & 40 S sub units
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) a only (2) a & c only
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) b & c only (4) All a, b & c
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 Intensive Test Series-01
128. A cilium Which of following is incorrect about the stage X,
(1) Is an outgrowth of cell membrane stage Y and stage Z?
(2) Consists of four rings in basal body (1) Stage Y refers to the process of crossing over
(3) Lacks microtubules
(2) Stage X occurs in haploid cell
(4) Is larger than flagellum
(3) Stage Z occurs prior to telophase-I
129. A nucleus does not
(1) Contains elaborate nucleoprotein fibres (4) Stage Y refere to 1st stage of meiosis-I
(2) Have more than one nucleoli 135. After the completion of meiosis-II, a cell has 23
(3) Exchange RNA and proteins with cytoplasm chromosome and 1C amount of DNA. DNA amount
(4) Have thickened chromosomes in interphase at the end of Meiosis-I was
130. Satellite is (1) 2C with 46 chromosomes
(1) Found in all chromosome
(2) 1C with 23 chromosomes
(2) Seen in metacentric chromosome only
(3) 2C with 23 chromosomes
(3) Non staining region
(4) Formed by primary constriction (4) 1C with 46 chromosomes
131. A somatic cell undergoing cell division is focused
under microscope and it is observed that the cell SECTION-B
has completed compaction of chromosomal 136. Organelles like mitochondria and plastids get
material. Which of the following is not true about
distributed equally in daughter cells during
the next stage from the above stage of mitosis?
(1) Nuclear envelope is completely disintegrated (1) Prophase (2) Anaphase
(2) Chromosomes can be observed clearly under (3) Cytokinesis (4) G2-phase
microscope 137. Select the odd one w.r.t. significance of
(3) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed equational division
(4) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator (1) Restore the nucleocytoplasmic ratio
132. G1 phase, S-phase and G2 phase in the human
(2) Contributes in the cell repair
cell collectively last for
(1) 95% of the total duration of cell cycle (3) Replacement of blood and epidermal cells
(2) 70% of the total duration of cell cycle (4) Increase the genetic variability in the daughter
(3) 50% of the total duration of cell cycle cells
(4) Only 10% of total duration of cell cycle 138. DNA amount gets double in the phase
133. Select the correct statement w.r.t. quiescent stage (1) Prophase (2) Interphase
of the cell cycle (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) The cell prepares itself for M-phase in this stage 139. Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane
(2) Centriole duplication occurs in quiescent stage marks the beginning of
(3) Cell remain metabolically active but no longer (1) Prophase (2) Anaphase
proliferate
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase
(4) Chromosome number becomes double
140. A student observed a cell at pachytene stage of
134. Read the following information about the different meiosis-I. He observed all the details and note it
stages of meiosis down on the paper. Which of the following correctly
(i) Stage X – Double metaphasic depicits the mentioned stage?
plate formation
(1) During this stage synapsis initiates
(ii) Stage Y – Very important for
(2) Chromosomes are f ully condensed in
the process of
pachytene
evolution
(iii) Stage Z – Homologous (3) Bivalent chromosomes become distinct and
chromosomes clearly appears as tetrad
separate (4) X-shaped structure called chiasmata are visible

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Intensive Test Series-01
141. Following sequence described the sequence of 145. During meiosis, dyad of cells are seen after
mitosis
(1) Metaphase-II
A Metaphase B C
(2) Anaphase-II
Which of the following is true for the above?
(3) Telophase-II
(1) Nuclear membrane is seen even at the end of
stage A (4) Telophase-I
(2) In stage B, every chromosome arranged at the 146. A plant cell at telophase stage is observed under
equatorial plate split simultaneously the microscope by a student. Surprisingly he
observed that there was no formation of cell plate.
(3) In the stage C, nucleolus and ER disappear but
Absence of cell plate in parent cells would results in
nuclear membrane reappears
(4) Metaphase is followed by the stage in which (1) Duplication of chromatids of each chromosome
spi ndle f ibre attach to ki netochore of (2) Syncytium formation
chromosomes
(3) Aneuploidy
142. Read the following statements
(4) Failure of karyokinesis
(i) Centrosome begins to move towards opposite
poles of the cell at the end of anaphase 147. All of the following are correct about the meiosis-I
except
(ii) Each centrosome radiates out microtubules
called asters in the late prophase (1) Crossing over occurs
(iii) Nucleolus cannot be seen in metaphase (2) Reduction of chromosome number
Select the correct option (3) Splitting of centromere of each chromosome
(1) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct (4) Bivalent formation
(2) Only (i) is correct 148. At the end of which of the given stages of meiosis
(3) Statement (ii) and (iii) are correct both the number of chromosomes and the amount
(4) Only (iii) is incorrect of DNA get reduced if a diploid cell undergo
meiosis?
143. Which of the following pair is not matched
correctly (i) Anaphase-I (ii) Anaphase-II
(1) Diakinesis – Terminalisation of (iii) Prophase-I (iv) S-phase
chiasmata (v) Metaphase-II
(2) Pachytene – Recombinase
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
enzyme actively
(2) (ii), (iii) and (V) only
(3) Zygotene – Dissolution of
synaptonemal (3) (i) and (iv) only
(4) Interkinesis – No replication of (4) (i) only
DNA
149. Reductional division involves __A__ cycles of
144. Read the below given statements and choose the nuclear and cell division & __B__ cycles of DNA
correct option replication.
(a) Despite the differences between metaphase II
Fill in the blanks A and B with correct option
and I, both are similar also as they involve
similar number metaphasic plates formation. (1) A-Four, B-Two (2) A-Two, B-Four
(b) In meiosis I, nucleolus disappears at the end of (3) A-Two, B-One (4) A-Four, B-One
diakinesis
150. Which of the following stage can prolong or last
(1) Only a is correct for months or years in some vertebrates female
(2) Only b is correct egg?
(3) Only a & b are correct (1) Prophase-II (2) Prophase-I
(4) Only a & b are incorrect (3) Anaphase-I (4) Telophase-II

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ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A III. Columnar epithelium (c) Air sacs of lungs

(d) Lining of fallopian
151. Select the incorrect statement for columnar
epithelium. Tube

(1) A single layer of tall and slender cells Select the correct option from following

(2) Nuclei are centrally located I II III

(3) Found in lining of stomach (1) d c a

(2) c a b
(4) Help in secretion and absorption
(3) a b d
152. Cell-tissue level of organisation is found in
(4) c b d
(1) Hydra (2) Sycon
158. W hi ch of the f ol lowing junction(s) f ix the
(3) Plasmodium (4) Planaria neighbouring cardiac muscle fibres together without
153. Multilayered epithelium that has limited role in connecting their cytoplasm or preventing leakage?
secretion and absorption covers (a) Tight junctions
(1) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands (b) Gap junctions
(2) Lining of distal convoluted tubules (c) Adhering junctions
(3) Inner surface of bronchioles (1) a, b (2) b, c
(4) Lining of fallopian tubes (3) a only (4) c only
154. Which of the following loose connective tissue is 159. Goblet cells in alimentary canal are formed by
present beneath the skin? modification of

(1) Tendon (1) Simple columnar epithelial cell

(2) Areolar tissue (2) Stratified columnar epithelial cell

(3) Compound cuboidal epithelial cells
(3) Ligament
(4) Single cell, squamous epithelium
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
160. Select the incorrect statement
155. Gap junctions are present in all except
(1) Bones are hard and non-pliable
(1) Cardiac muscle tissue
(2) Cartilage is solid and pliable
(2) Synaptic junctions
(3) Bones are site of production of blood cells
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) Cartilage grow faster than bones
(4) Skeletal muscles
161. Choose the option where collagen fibres bundles
156. The tissue which forms inner lining of hollow visceral are arranged irregularly
organs and cavities of the body is
(1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
(1) Epithelial (2) Muscular (3) Dermis (4) Blood
(3) Neural (4) Connective 162. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are
157. Match the Column-I & II w.r.t. epithelial tissue & replaced by bones in adult except
their location and choose the correct option (a) Tip of nose
Column-I Column-II (b) Intervertebral disc
I. Squamous epithelium (a) Tubular parts of (c) Pinna
nephron (d) Limbs and hands
II. Simple cuboidal (b) Lining of stomach (1) a, b, c only (2) b, c, d only
epithelium (3) a, c only (4) a, c, d only

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Intensive Test Series-01
163. Striated muscle fibres
(1) Are branched
(2) Are connected by gap-junctions
(3) Multinucleated
(4) Generally attached to bone at both ends
164. Which statement in not true for skeletal muscle?
(1) Each muscle is made up of many long,
cylindrical fibres
(2) Their muscle fibres contract in response to
stimulus and return to their uncontracted state
in coordinated fashion
(3) A sheath of tough connective tissue wrapped
around several bundles of muscle fibres
(4) We are not able to make these muscles contract
merely by thinking about it
165. Choose the common character between striated
voluntary and striated involuntary muscles
168. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electric
disturbance is generated in its plasma membrane.
This disturbance generally travels in a direction of
(1) Axon to dendrite
(2) Dendrite to next neuron
(3) Cell body to axon
(4) Dendrite to another dendrite of same neuron
169. Which type of muscle tissue fibres have specialised
structures, called intercalated discs?
(1) Voluntary muscles (2) Smooth muscles
(3) Cardiac muscles (4) Skeletal muscles
170. The dry surface of skin and moist surface of the
buccal cavity are both essentially made up of
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) Non keratinised epithelium
(3) Simple keratinised columnar epithelium

(1) Number of nuclei per cell (4) Compound epithelium

(2) Location 171. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
the body of complex animals is
(3) Branching
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(4) Blunt ends
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Neural tissue
166. Which tissue exerts greatest control over the
response of body? 172. Specialized connective tissue with a hard and
nonpliable ground substance is
(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone
(3) Neural tissue (4) Muscular tissue
(3) Adipose tissue (4) Tendon
167. Match the following
173. Muscle fibres which lack striations and present in
Column-I Column-II visceral organs are associated with
I. Cartilage, bone a. Fluid with transport (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Skeletal muscles
functions (3) Smooth muscles (4) Voluntary muscles
II. Blood b. Structural tissues 174. The most abundant protein in the human body is
III. Adipose c. Reservoir of stored (1) Collagen (2) Haemoglobin
energy (3) Globulin (4) Albumin
IV. Muscular d. Shorten in response 175. The walls of blood vessels and air sacs of human
to stimulus lungs are lined with which type of epithelium?
Select the correct option from following (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal

I II III IV (3) Columnar (4) Ciliated

(1) b a c d 176. The cells of which tissue are specialized to store

excess unutilized nutrients?
(2) b c a d
(1) Ligament (2) Adipose tissue
(3) a b d c
(3) Neural tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
(4) c b d a

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 Intensive Test Series-01
177. The structure in animal cells, which facilitates the (2) Only statement B is correct
cells to communicate with each other by connect-
ing the cytoplasm of adjoining cells (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(1) Tight junctions (2) Plasmodesmata (4) Both statements A and B are correct

(3) Gap junctions (4) Hemidesmosomes 183. Match column A with column B and choose the cor-
rect option
178. A typical muscle such as the biceps is an example
Column A Column B
of
1. Unipolar neurons A. Retina of eye
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Single unit muscle
2. Bipolar neurons B. Early embryos
(3) Structural syncytium (4) Multi unit muscle
3. Multipolar neurons C. Brain and spinal cord
179. Which one is incorrect with respect to cartilage?
4. Pseudo-unipolar D. Dorsal root ganglion
(1) Solid and pliable matrix neurons
(2) Resists compression (1) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (2) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(3) Chondrocytes absent in lacunae (3) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D (4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
(4) Elastic, harder than dense connective tissue 184. Mark the correct option with respect to the diagrams
but softer than bone below
180. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Areolar tissue – Packaging tissue
(2) Perichondrium – White fibrous connective
tissue
(3) Adipose tissue – Rich in adipocytes
(4) Cartilage – Matrix in the form of lamellae
181. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) (1) Fig. a is multinucleated and Fig. c is uninucleated

I. Simple epithelium covers the dry surface of the (2) Fig. a possess intercalated discs
skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity and (3) Fig. b is voluntary in action
pharynx (4) Fig. c is unbranched
II. In dense regular connectiv e tissue, the 185. Which of the following is true for sarcomere?
collagen fibres have similar orientation
(1) It is unit of contraction
III. Most of the cartilages are replaced by bones (2) It is situated between two z-lines
in adults among vertebrates
(3) Has half light band, one dark band and half light
IV. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground band
substance, rich in calcium salts
(4) All are correct
I II III IV
SECTION-B
(1) T F F F
186. Bones hav e ___a___ and ___b___ ground
(2) T T F F
substance rich is collagen fibres which give bone
(3) F T T T its ___c___. Choose the option that fill the blank
correctly.
(4) F T T F
a b c
182. Choose the correct option
(1) Hard Pliable Strength
Statement A : All cells of connective tissue (2) Solid Pliable Flexibility
secrete fibres
(3) Solid Non-pliable Stretchability
Statement B : Fibres provide strength, elasticity (4) Hard Non-pliable Strength
and flexibility to the tissue
(1) Only statement A is correct

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 @Aakash_Test_Series_PDF
Intensive Test Series-01
187. We usually are not able to make our blood vessels 192. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cell and the
contract, merely by thinking about them. This is function performed by it.
attributed to presence of
(1) Macrophage – Engulf microbes
(1) Fusiform shaped, voluntary nature of muscle
fibres (2) Fibroblast – Synthesise elastic fibres

(2) Branched, involuntary muscle fibres (3) Adipocyte – Store excess of

(3) Non-striated, involuntary muscle fibres nutrients which are not

used immediately
(4) Involuntary muscle fibres with maximum
refractory period (4) Mast cell – Phagocytic cells

188. Read the statements and state true (T) and False 193. Which of the following is a common feature between
(F) respectively inner lining of PCT and intestine?

Statement A: Sarcomere is the anatomical unit of (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

muscle. (2) Basal nuclei in cells
Statement B: Each muscle is made of many long,
(3) Presence of cilia on cell surface
cylindrical parallely arranged myofibrils.
(4) Contains microvilli towards lumen
(1) Both A and B are correct
194. Which of the following tissue/cells constitute more
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
than 50 per cent of neural tissue?
(3) Only A is correct
(1) Epithelial cells lining intestine
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Neuroglial cells protecting neurons
189. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilage
(3) Excitable cells, neurons
(1) Most foetal cartilages are replaced by bones in
(4) Connective tissue acting an cushion/shock
adult
absorber
(2) It is present in outer ear joint and tip of nose
195. Find out the incorrect statement with respect to
(3) Intracellular material is solid and pliable cardiac muscle tissue
(4) Its matrix resists compression (1) Found in myocardium of heart
190. Which of the following is the function of ciliated (2) Intercalated disc absent
columnar epithelium?
(3) Communication junctions at some fusion points
(1) Helps in gaseous exchange allow the cells to contract as a unit
(2) Filtration of blood (4) When one cell receives a signal to contract, its
neighbours are also stimulated to contract
(3) Move particles or mucus in all directions
196. What is not true about connective tissue?
(4) Move the contents (dust and mucus) in specific
direction (1) It is the most abundant and widely distributed
tissue in animal body
191. Collagen fibres are _ A fibres, synthesised by
___B___ cells. Fill the blanks with correct option (2) Fibres made up of proteins (collagen and
elastin) are secreted by fibroblast cells of
A B connective tissue
(1) Branched Fibroblast (3) Collagen fibres occur in bundles and are highly
(2) Elastic Chondroblast elastic

(3) Inelastic Chondrocyte (4) It is named as connective tissue as it links and

supports other tissues or organs
(4) Unbranched Fibroblast

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197. Read the following statements
(A) W hen a neuron is suitably stimulated, an
electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly
travels along its plasma membrane
Intensive Test Series-01
199. Which of the following is incorrect about tissue?
(1) Tissue is a group of similar cells along with
intercellular substances that perform similar
function

(B) Neuroglia are present in the brain
(C) Mast cells of connective tissue secrete heparin
and histamine
(D) Striated muscles are cylindrical, unbranched
and syncytial
200. Match the type of simple epithelium in Column I
(E) Microvilli form brush border on the apical
surface of some epithelial cells
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(2) Epithelial tissue always dev elops f rom
ectoderm
(3) In epithelial tissues, cells are compactly
packed with little intercellular matrix
(4) Bronchus bears cilia on free surface
with its appropriate location in Column II
Column I Column II

(1) 3 (2) 2 a. Cuboidal epithelium (i) Lining of stomach

and intestine
(3) 5 (4) 4
198. Consider the following statements about Adipose b. Columnar epithelium (ii) Blood capillaries
tissue c. Squamous epithelium (iii) Germinal epithelium
a. It is a fat-storing tissue
d. Ciliated columnar (iv) Fallopian tube
b. This tissue acts as a shock-absorber epithelium
c. It acts as an insulator epithelium
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Only a (2) Both b and c (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Both a and b (4) All are correct (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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