20/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 HOME ASSIGNMENT-01 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 3. If ε0 is permittivity of free space and µ0 is

1. If A, B and C are three physical quantities such magnetic permeability of free space then the
that A and B are of same dimensions while C has 1
 2 2
different dimensions, then which of the following dimensional formula of   is
may be meaningful  µ0 ε0 

(A + C) (C − 2B ) (1) [MLT −1]

(1) (2)
B A (2) [M0LT −1]
A ( 2 A − 3B )
(3) (4) (3) [MLT −2 ]
(B + C ) C
(4) [M0LT −2 ]
2. Time period of a simple pendulum recorded in
three experiments are 1.9 s, 2.0 s and 2.1 s, then 4. A particle moving on a straight line has initial
velocity 2.03 m/s, accelerating uniformly with
(1) Mean absolute error is 0.01
1.0 m/s2 after 0.3 s will have velocity (in m/s)
(2) Relative error is 0.05 (upto correct significant figures)
(3) Percentage error is 0.5% (1) 2.3 (2) 2.0
(4) Percentage error is 0.05% (3) 2.06 (4) 2.1

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Home Assignment-01

5. A physical quantity X is related to four quantities 11. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its
α 2β3 position (x) varies with time(t) as, x = (t sint) m
α, β, γ and ρ as X = 3 then average acceleration of the particle from
ρ γ2 π
t = 0 s to t = s is
2
The percentage errors in measurement of
1 1 1 π 2
α, β, ρ and γ are %, %, 2% and % (1) m/s2 (2) m/s2
2 3 3 2 π
respectively then percentage error in X is π 4
(1) 1.5% (3) m/s2 (4) m/s2
4 π
(2) 2.5% 12. The velocity time graph of a particle moving on a
(3) 3.5% straight line is as shown in figure.
(4) 4%
6. If power of a force varies with displacement x and
ax 2
time t as P = , where a and b are
b − 2t
dimensional constants, then the dimensional
formula of [ab] is
[ML0T −1] The corresponding displacement time graph will
(1) (2) [ML2T −3 ]
be
(3) [ML0T −3 ] (4) [M0LT −1]
7. If force (F), acceleration (a) and time (t) are
considered to be fundamental quantities, then the
dimensional formula of surface tension is (1)

(1) [Fat] (2) [Fa −1t −1]

(3) [Fa −1t −2 ] (4) [Fa −1t 2 ]
8. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which
of the following vernier scales gives vernier
constant equal to 0.05 mm? (2)
(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions
(2) 19 mm divided into 20 divisions
(3) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions
(4) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions
9. If dimensional formula of a physical quantity is (3)
[MaLb Tc ], then the physical quantity is
(1) Torque, if a = 1, b = 2 and c = –1
(2) Surface tension, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –2
(3) Impulse, if a = 1, b = 1 and c = –1
(4) Radial acceleration, if a = 0, b = 1 and c = –1 (4)
10. Which of the following is more precise
instrument?
(1) Meter scale having smallest division 1 mm
13. A police jeep wants to chase a thief’s car which is
(2) Vernier callipers in which 20 vernier scale moving with speed 40 m/s on a straight track. If
division coinciding with 19 main scale division the separation between the jeep and car is 400 m
(3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest division then speed of jeep required to catch the car in
on linear scale and 50 divisions on circular 20 s is
scale (1) 40 m/s (2) 60 m/s
(4) Vernier callipers with least count 0.02 mm (3) 80 m/s (4) 120 m/s

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14. Who among the following scientist was awarded 19. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
Nobel prize for his work on photoelectric effect? 1
to the equation x = . The acceleration of
(1) Sir Isaac Newton (2) Albert Einstein (t + 1)
(3) de-Broglie (4) Neil Bohr the particle is proportional to
2 5
15. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle
moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. (1) (velocity) 3 (2) (velocity) 3
If the initial velocity of the particle is 5 m/s then 1 5
the velocity at the end of 7 s is (3) (distance) 3 (4) (distance) 2
20. A ball is dropped from a high tower at t = 0. After
10 s another ball is thrown in downward direction
from the same point with speed v. If these two
balls meet at t = 15 s. Then the value of v is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 50 m/s
(1) 5 m/s (2) 100 m/s
(2) 6 m/s (3) 200 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 225 m/s
(4) 10 m/s 21. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with velocity
16. A vehicle travels one fourth of total distance with 6 j m/s, in xy plane with constant acceleration

speed v1 and remaining part with speed v2 then a ( 2i − 2 j ) m/s2 . Then the position coordinates
=
its average speed in the total journey is
of the particle (in m) when velocity of the particle
3v1 + v 2 3v1v 2 becomes parallel to x-axis is
(1) (2)
2 v1 + v 2 (1) (9, 9)

4v1v 2 4v1v 2 (2) (3, 9)

(3) (4)
3v1 + v 2 v1 + v 2 (3) (6, –9)
(4) (6, 0)
17. An elevator of cabin height 1.2 m starts
ascending with acceleration 2 m/s2. One second 22. Speed of a projectile at the point of projection is
after the start a loose bolt starts falling from the 2 times the speed at its maximum height the
ceiling. The time after which bolt will hit the floor angle of projection of the projectile is
of elevator is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 30°
1 6 (2) 45°
(1) s (2) s
5 5 (3) 60°

(3) 5 s (4)
1
s (4) tan−1 ( 2 )
2
23. A particle moves so that its position vector is
18. The displacement time graph of a particle moving 
given by =r A sin ωti + B cos ωt j , where A and B
on a straight line is as shown. The section of the
graph which corresponds to positive acceleration are positive constants which of the following is
is true?
(1) Velocity and  acceleration both are
perpendicular to r

(2) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
acceleration is directed towards origin

(3) Velocity is parallel to r and acceleration is

parallel to r if A = B

(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r for A = B, and
(1) OA (2) AB
acceleration is opposite to r for any value of
(3) BC (4) DE A and B
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Home Assignment-01

24. A particle is moving such that its position 30. For a man walking with speed 3 2 km/h rain
co-ordinates are varying with time as shown appears to fall vertically downward. When he
below
starts running with 5 2 km/h rain appears to fall
S. No. Position (x, y) in m Time (s) on him at an angle of 45° with vertical. The speed
of rain w.r.t. ground (in km/h) is
(i) (0, 2) 0
(1) 22
(ii) (2, 5) 2
(2) 2 6
(iii) (8, 8) 6
(3) 26
The average velocity of the particle from t = 0 s
to t = 6 s is (4) 2 7
4 31. Two boys A and B initially separated by a straight
(1) ( 4i + 3 j ) m/s 
(2)  i + j  m/s
line distance a on the ground. If A and B both
3 
start running simultaneously with same speed as
(3) ( i + j ) m/s (4) ( 3i + 4 j ) m/s shown in figure. The distance of their closest
approach will be
25. The angle of projection of a projectile for which
range is double the maximum height, will be
(1) θ = tan–1(2) (2) θ = tan–1(4)
 1 a
(3) θ = 45° (4) θ =tan−1   (1) (2) 2a
2 2
26. Water jet comes out from a point O on the
ground at a speed v at angle 45° with horizontal 3a
(3) (4) a
as shown. The speed v of jet so that it can wet 2
the man upto his head will be (g = 10 m/s2)   
32. Consider three vectors A, B and C , which add up
to give zero vector. Then which of the following is
false?
   
(1) A × B = B × C
     
(2) ( A × B ) × C lies in the plane of A, B and C
    
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s (3) ( A × B ) ⋅ C = ABC if A ⊥ B
    
10 (4) ( A × B ) ⋅ C = 0 for any angle between A and B
(3) m/s (4) 100 m/s
2 33. The position of a particle is varying w.r.t. time as
 
27. A particle moves with velocity v in xy plane as r = a(t − 1)2 i + bt 2 j where a and b are constants,
 
=v c ( xy 2 i + yx 2 j ) m/s . Then the general r is in m, and t is in second. The time after
equation of its path will be which acceleration becomes normal to the
velocity is
(1) y = x + constant (2) y = x2 + constant
a a2
(3) y2 = x2 + constant (4) y3 = x3 + constant (1) (2)
a+b (a + b )2
28. Which of the following set of magnitude of
vectors cannot give zero resultant? a2 a2
(3) (4)
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 25, 5, 15 a+b a2 + b2
(3) 10, 5, 8 (4) 15, 8, 20 34. A particle starts from rest on a circle of radius
29. A man crosses a river of width 400 m flowing at 25
40 m/s in minimum time. If velocity of man in still m with uniformly increasing speed. If it
π
water is 50 m/s then the displacement of man completes 5 revolutions after 5 s of motion then
while he reaches the opposite bank of the river is tangential acceleration will be
(1) 80 m (2) 8 4 m (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 80 41 m (4) 10 41 m (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2

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Home Assignment-01

35. In the figure given below the maximum height of

the projectile will be
40. If diagonals of a parallelogram are ( i − j ) and
( i + j ) , then area of the parallelogram will be
(1) 0.5 unit (2) 1 unit
(3) 2 unit (4) 4 unit
41. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as
the units of mass, length and time respectively.
Then the value of 10 N in this system will be
(1) 1000 units
(1) 13.5 m (2) 15.5 m (2) 1 units
(3) 18 m (4) 9 m (3) 10 units
36. A particle is moving on a circle of radius 2 m. Its (4) 100 units
speed (v) varies with time t as v = αt2, where α is 42. A car moving along x-axis with speed 72 km/h is
a constant. The ratio of radial acceleration to brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If
tangential acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is retardation is uniform then time taken (in s) in
(1) α (2) 8 stopping this car is
(3) 2α (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2
37. A ball is dropped from a long tower. One second (3) 3 (4) 4
after its fall air provides horizontal acceleration of
4g 43. If resultant of two unit vectors a and b is 3 in
m/s2 . Total displacement covered by the ball magnitude, then the magnitude of difference of
3
after 4 s of its fall will be (take g = 10 m/s2) these unit vectors is
(1) 133.3 m (2) 100 m (1) Zero (2) 1

(3) 227.8 m (4) 150 m (3) 3 (4) 2

38. A particle on y-axis starts from rest along a 44. A body is moving with 20 m/s towards east. After
straight line y = 3 with constant acceleration 5 s its velocity becomes 30 m/s towards north
2 3 m/s2 . Angle made by position vector of the and continues. Then ratio of magnitude of
average velocity between (0 to 10 s) and average
particle with positive x-axis after one second of
acceleration between (0 to 10 s) is
its motion is
(1) 30° (2) 45° 1 3
(1) (2) 13
2 2
(3) 60° (4) 90°
(3) 5 (4) 5 13
39. A man standing at a point in a flood affected
area, is waiting for a food packet to be dropped 45. Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m
from a plane. If the plane is flying at an altitude of and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct value of
2 km with speed 360 km/h, then at what angle of AB should be reported as
sight (with respect to horizontal) the packet
should be dropped so as to reach safely in hands (1) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
of the man? (take g = 10 m/s2) (2) 1.4 m ± 0.1 m
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
(3) tan (2)
–1
(4) 60° (4) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m

CHEMISTRY

46. Total number of degenerate orbitals in the 2nd (1) 1, 0 (2) 3, 0

2+
shell of Li ion is (3) 0, 1 (4) 2, 3
(1) 2 (2) 4 48. Normality of 0.1 M H3PO3 is
(3) 8 (4) 9
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.1 N
47. Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals
respectively are (3) 0.3 N (4) 0.15 N

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Home Assignment-01

49. The molality of aq. solution of urea in which mole 58. The ratio of the radius of second orbit of He to
+

fraction of urea is 0.1, is 3+

the first orbit of Be ions is
(1) 6.17 m (2) 5.24 m (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 6.98 m (4) 5.78 m
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 8 : 1
50. The angular moment of electron in d-orbital is
59. 50 ml of 1 N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2 N
h –
Ca(OH)2. The molarity of OH ions in the resulting
(1) Zero (2)
2π solution will be [Consider complete dissociation of
NaOH and Ca(OH)2]
3 h h
(3) (4) (1) 2.5 M (2) 1.75 M
2 π 2π
51. The number of atoms present in 0.48 g of O3 is (3) 1.25 M (4) 1.50 M

(NA = 6.022 × 10 )
23 60. Which of the following possess highest mass?
23 23 (1) 22.4 L H2 at STP
(1) 18 × 10 (2) 1.8 × 10
24 22 (2) 5 g of H2
(3) 18 × 10 (4) 1.8 × 10
52. Which of the following method of expressing (3) 0.3 mole of H2
concentration is dependent on temperature? 24
(4) 1.204 × 10 molecules of H2
(1) Molality
61. For a microscopic particle of mass m, ∆x = 2∆v.
(2) Mole fraction
The uncertainty in the velocity of particle will be
(3) (w/w)%
h 1 h
(4) Molarity (1) (2)
2πm 2 πm
53. Maximum possible number of spectral lines
obtained in Lyman series when an electron in H- 1 h 1 h
atom sample de-excites from third excited state (3) (4)
2 2πm 2m π
to ground state is
62. Volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make 3 L of
(1) 3 (2) 6
0.1 M NaOH solution is
(3) 4 (4) 8
(1) 2 L (2) 2.5 L
54. The wavelength associated with a 0.1 kg moving
–33 (3) 1.5 L (4) 1 L
object is 6.62 × 10 m. The speed of the moving
–34
object is (h = 6.62 × 10 Js) 63. x gram of metal gives y g of metal oxide on
–1 –1 complete combustion. The equivalent weight of
(1) 10 ms (2) 100 ms metal is
–1 –1
(3) 1 ms (4) 0.1 ms 8x 8(y − x)
55. The correct set of quantum numbers (n,  , m) for (1) (2)
y−x x
valence electron of zinc (Z = 30) is
(1) 4, 1, 2 x y−x
(3) (4)
(2) 3, 0, 0 8(y − x) 8x
(3) 4, 0, 0 e
64. Among the following   ratio is minimum for
(4) 4, 2, 0 m
56. The number of significant figures in 50 pens is (1) Electron
(1) Infinite (2) 2 (2) Proton
(3) Zero (4) 1 (3) α-particle
57. The equivalent mass of KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is
(4) Neutron
(M = Molar mass of salt)
65. Among the following which has maximum number
M of molecules?
(1) M (2)
6
(1) 49 g of H3PO4 (2) 45 g of C6H12O6
M M
(3) (4) (3) 28 g N2 (4) 36 g H2O
2 3

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Home Assignment-01

66. An organic compound contain C, H and O gave 74. Bohr theory is applicable to
the following analysis C = 40%, O = 53.33%. Its + 2+
molecular formula may be (1) Li (2) Be
4+ +
(1) C2H4O2 (2) C2H4O (3) B (4) H
75. In H-atom spectrum, the wavelength of radiation
(3) C2H6O (4) C2H6O2
emitted when electron falls from third excited
67. The number of moles of nitrogen in one litre of air state to ground state is (RH = Rydberg constant)
containing 79% nitrogen by volume, under
standard conditions is
16 3
(1) (2)
15 R H 4 RH
79 × 10 −3 7.9 × 10−3
(1) (2) 9 15
2.24 2.24 (3) (4)
8 RH 16 R H
79 × 10 −3 79 × 10 −3
(3) (4)
0.224 224 76. The number of photons emitted in one second by
a 10 watt bulb, which emits monochromatic light
68. An element, X has the following isotopic of wavelength 662 nm, is
composition, 100X : 80% and 102X : 20%. The –34
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally (h = 6.62 × 10 Js)
occurring element X is closest to 18 19
(1) 6.28 × 10 (2) 3.33 × 10
(1) 100.9 (2) 100.4 18 17
(3) 5.21 × 10 (4) 7.25 × 10
(3) 101.2 (4) 101.8
77. Select the correct statement regarding
69. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete photoelectric effect
decomposition of 10 g of lime stone (90% pure) is (1) Number of ejected electrons are independent
nearly of intensity of light
(1) 1.7 litre (2) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent
(2) 3.8 litre of intensity of light
(3) 2 litre (3) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent
of frequency of light
(4) 2.6 litre
(4) Number of ejected electrons depends on the
70. Select the isosteres pair among the following frequency of light
(1) O2, O3 (2) CO, N2 78. A steel vessel containing 10 g H2 and 64 g O2
(3) CO2, O3 (4) CO, CO2 was exploded. The maximum moles of H2O
produced in the reaction is
71. The number of revolution of electrons per second
in nth orbit of H-atom is (k = constant) (1) 8 (2) 7

k (3) 4 (4) 5
k
(1) (2) 79. If vapour density of a gas is 44 then the volume
n n3
occupied by the 0.88 g of gas at STP is
k k
(3) (4) (1) 2240 ml
n2 n4
(2) 112 ml
72. The maximum wavelength among the following is
(3) 224 ml
of
(4) 1120 ml
(1) X-rays (2) γ -rays
80. Number of maximum possible electron(s) in Zn
(3) IR (4) Radio waves for which n +  = 4, is
73. The phenomenon which justify the wave nature of (1) 4 (2) 6
light is/are
(3) 8 (4) 12
(1) Diffraction 81. If the kinetic energy of an electron in nth shell of
(2) Photoelectric effect H-atom is 3.4 eV then n is
(3) Interference (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) 1 (4) 4

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Home Assignment-01

 1  86. Which of the following is a possible arrangement

82.   g is known as of electrons in an atom?
 6.022 × 1023 
(1) 1 amu 1
(1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 4, s = +
2
(2) 1 avogram
1
(3) 1 dalton (2) n = 4, l = 4, m = 3, s = –
2
(4) All of these
1
83. The mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution (3) n = 5, l = 4, m = 2, s = +
2
containing 42.5% (w/w) NaNO3 is
1
(1) 0.251 (4) n = 4, l = 5, m = 3, s = +
2
(2) 0.053
87. The energy absorbed by each molecule of B2 is
(3) 0.215 2.2 × 10–18 J and bond energy per molecule of B2
(4) 0.135 is 2 × 10–18 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule
per atom will be
84. If threshold energy of a metal is 1.5 eV and
energy of incident photon an metal is 3 eV then (1) 1 × 10–18 J (2) 2 × 10–19 J
stopping potential for the metal is (3) 2 × 10–20 J (4) 1 × 10–19 J
(1) 1.5 V 88. The percentage loss of mass by Na2SO4·10H2O
(2) 2.5 V to become anhydrous is
(3) 3.5 V (1) 72.5% (2) 45.2%
(4) 0.5 V (3) 55.9% (4) 65.2%
85. The ratio of masses of two particles is 1 : 2 and 89. The number of standing waves in 3rd shell of
ratio of their kinetic energies is 9 : 2. The ratio of H-atom is
their de-Broglie wavelengths is (1) 3 (2) 3
2

3 3
(1) (3) 3 (4) 3
5
90. A gaseous mixture contains H2 and CO2 gases in
2 the ratio of 1 : 11 (w/w). The ratio of number of
(2)
3 atoms of H2 to CO2 in the mixture is
5 4 2
(3) (1) (2)
2 3 5
1 1 2
(4) (3) (4)
3 3 7

BOTANY
91. Identify the wrong statement for flora. 92. Key is an important taxonomic aid used for A
(1) It gives the information about plants of plants and animals based on B in a pair
(2) It gives the actual account of habitat and known as C
distribution of various plants of given area
(1) A-Naming, B-Keys, C-Couplet
(3) It is an index to the plant species of a specific
area (2) A-Identification, B-Contrasting characters,
C-Couplet
(4) It also includes information of distribution
pattern of animal species along with plants of (3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys
an area (4) A-Taxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead
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Home Assignment-01

93. Select the odd one out w.r.t. zoological parks 101. Find the mismatched pair.
(1) Wild animals are kept in zoos. (1) Acetobacteria – Vinegar production
(2) These are in-situ conservation strategies of aceti
animals (2) Bacillus vulgaris – Ammonification
(3) Animals are kept in protective environment (3) Nitrosomonas – N2 fixation
under human care
(4) Lactobacillus – Curd production
(4) National Zoological Park is located in Delhi
102. Branched chain lipids in cell membrane is a
94. The specific epithet in Panthera leo and Pisum feature of
sativum respectively, are
(1) Archaebacteria
(1) leo and Pisum
(2) Eubacteria
(2) Panthera and sativum
(3) Diatoms
(3) leo and sativum
(4) Cyanobacteria
(4) Panthera and Pisum
103. Bacteria commonly reproduce asexually by
95. The basics to taxonomy does not include
(1) Conjugation
(1) Characterisation
(2) Binary fission
(2) Identification
(3) Budding
(3) Nomenclature
(4) Conidia formation
(4) Evolutionary relationship
104. Fungi differ from bacteria in having
96. True regeneration is seen in
(1) 70 S ribosomes
(1) All fungi and algae
(2) Chitinous cell wall
(2) Planaria
(3) Plasma membrane
(3) Amoeba
(4) Asexual reproduction
(4) Bacteria
105. Euglena does not
97. In five kingdom classification, R.H. Whittaker
proposed a new kingdom as (1) Have chlorophyll a
(1) Plantae (2) Protista (2) Reproduce asexually
(3) Monera (4) Fungi (3) Have cell wall
98. R.H. Whittaker classified the organisms into five (4) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition
kingdoms on basis the following criterias, except 106. The parasitic fungus found on mustard leaves is
(1) Cell structure (1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo candida
(2) Thallus organisation and mode of nutrition (3) Alternaria (4) Puccinia
(3) 16 S rRNA sequences 107. Choose the correct option having names of all
(4) Phylogeny sac fungi
99. In six kingdom classification, which kingdom was (1) Neurospora, Claviceps, Morels
further divided into two kingdoms
(2) Agaricus, Morels, Truffles
(1) Monera
(3) Claviceps, Penicillium, Puccinia
(2) Plantae
(4) Alternaria, Penicillium, Morels
(3) Fungi
108. Find the odd one out w.r.t. lichens
(4) Animalia
(1) They are composed of phycobiont and
100. Which of the following is not a free living nitrogen mycobiont
fixing bacteria
(2) The autotrophic component of lichens
(1) Azotobacter prepare food for heterotrophic component
(2) Clostridium (3) They are pioneer colonisers of barren rocks
(3) Rhizobium (4) Lichens can grow easily in SO2 polluted
(4) Klebsiella areas

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Test-1 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
109. Which one is incorrectly matched. 117. Membrane bound organelles are present in
(1) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (1) Saccharomyces
(2) Basidiomycetes – Agaricus (2) Streptococcus
(3) Zygomycetes – Albugo candida (3) Bacillus
(4) Oomycetes – Phytophthora (4) Clostridium
110. Which one is not a feature of fungi imperfecti. 118. Which of the following is not related to ‘prions’?
(1) Mycelium branched or septate (1) Kuru disease
(2) Asexual reproduction by conidia (2) CFJ disease
(3) Oospores are sexual spores (3) BSE or Mad Cow disease

(4) Fruiting bodies are absent (4) Cholera

111. Endomycorrhiza
(1) Forms, Hartig net in cortex of roots
(2) Is mainly formed by oomycetes
(3) Are also called Vesicular
Mycorrhiza
(4) Is found in Pinus roots
112. Chief producers in the oceans are
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Diatoms
113. Sexual spores are produced exogenously in
(1) Alternaria and Trichoderma
(2) Puccinia and Ustilago
(3) Penicillium and Aspergillus
(4) Neurospora and Phytophthora
114. Find the statement wrong for both virus and
viroids
(1) Both are non-infectious
(2) Both have genetic material
(3) Both are obligate parasites
(4) Both are smaller than bacteria
115. Early blight of potato is caused by
(1) Ustilago
(2) Alternaria
(3) Albugo
(4) Phytophthora
116. Cellulose and chitin respectively are major
components of cell wall of
(1) Algae and blue-green algae
(2) Algae and diatoms
(3) Algae and fungi
(4) Fungi and algae
119. Which is true about cyanobacteria?
(1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis and cell
wall is composed of chitin
(2) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis and
Arbuscular cell wall is composed of cellulose
(3) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis along with
nitrogenase activity in heterocyst
(4) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis but
have heterocyst
120. Find the odd one out w.r.t. chlorophyceae
(1) Storage bodies are called pyrenoids
(2) Pyrenoid are composed of protein and starch
(3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are
members of this class
(4) Chlorophyll a, b and carotene are pigments
found in chlorophyceae
121. Which of the given is a feature of
‘Phaeophyceae’?
(1) Cell wall is composed of cellulose, pectin and
polysulphated esters
(2) Floridean starch is stored food
(3) They have carrageen and agar in cell wall
(4) Produce flagellatd spores and gametes
122. Hydrocolloids of red algae
(a) Are water holding substances
(b) Also includes agar
(c) Are produced by Gelidium and Gracilaria
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) All (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only
123. Classification system given by Linnaeus and
Hutchinson respectively are
(1) Natural and artificial
(2) Artificial and natural
(3) Artificial and phylogenetic
(4) Phylogenetic and artificial

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Home Assignment-01

124. Find the correctly matched pair. 130. After double fertilization in angiosperms
(1) Chlorophyceae – Asexually reproduce by (1) Fertilized ovules develops into embryos
zoospores
(2) Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate
(2) Phaeophyceae – Show post fertilizational
development (3) Zygote develop into seeds

(3) Rhodophyceae – Antherozoids are (4) Synergids cells remain suspended in

flagellated male antipodal cells
gametes 131. Find the odd one out w.r.t. alternation of
(4) Phaeophyceae – Characteristic colour is generations.
due to phycoerythrin (1) In haplontic life cycle, gametophyte is
125. Find the odd one out dominant stage

(1) Chara (2) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte is dominant

stage
(2) Nostoc
(3) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte
(3) Ulothrix and gametophyte stages are absent
(4) Spirogyra (4) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte
and gametophyte stages are equally
126. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t. dominant
bryophytes?
132. Zygotic meiosis
(1) They are found in damp, shady and humid
localities (1) Is found in all algae
(2) They are called amphibians of plant kingdom (2) Occur in all pteridophytes and angiosperms
(3) Gametophyte is diploid and dominant plant (3) Is seen in green algae
body
(4) Occur in all gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) Bryophytes are homosporous
133. Find the mismatched pair w.r.t. plants
127. Mosses
(1) Bryophyta– Embryophytes
(1) Have less developed sporophyte than liver
worts (2) Pteridophyta–First tracheophytes

(2) Exhibit creeping, green and branched (3) Gymnosperms–Naked seeded plants
filamentous stage called protonema, which is (4) Angiosperms– Archegoniate spermatophyte
their juvenile phase
134. Read the following statements.
(3) Show diplontic life cycle
A. In angiosperms seeds are formed inside fruit
(4) May asexually reproduce by gammae and the sporophylls are organised into
128. Which bryophyte has been employed by gardners flowers.
to keep the seedlings moist? B. Smallest angiosperm is Wolfia
(1) Sphagnum (1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Marchantia (2) Both the statements are wrong
(3) Polytrichum (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Funaria (4) Only Statement B is correct
129. Coralloid roots are found in 135. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. angiosperms.
(1) Pinus (1) A flower is the modified shoot
(2) Sequoia (2) PEN is triploid
(3) Cycas (3) A pistil has stigma, style and ovary
(4) All gymnosperms (4) Pollen grain is formed inside megasporangia

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Test-1 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

ZOOLOGY
136. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and 139. The adult animal which exhibits radial symmetry
(d). Select the correct option w.r.t. a common is
characteristic of two of these animals. (1) Asterias (2) Loligo
(3) Aedes (4) Pheretima
140. A new animal was discovered and brought to the
(a) (b) lab for scientific observation and study. The
following characteristic features were
documented about it.
(i) The adults were tetrapods
(ii) A lot of difference was observed between
(c) (d) larvae and adults.
(iii) The tails were absent in the adults, which the
larvae had.
(iv) Adults could live both on land and water.
(1) (a) and (d) have cnidoblast for self defense
The organism most likely belongs to
(2) (c) and (d) have a true coelom
(1) Arthropoda (2) Pisces
(3) (a) and (d) respire mainly through gills
(3) Protochordata (4) Amphibia
(4) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry 141. Select the animal that is characterized by crop
137. Choose the option in which, the genus name, its and gizzard in its digestive system.
two characters and class are not correctly (1) Tapeworm
matched.
(2) Sponges
Genus name Two characters Class (3) Cockroach
(1) Myxine Ectoparasite, circular mouth Cyclostomata (4) Humans
(2) Carcharodon
Poikilothermous, operculum
Chondrichthyes 142. Which of the following animals is a homeotherm?
absent

(3) Clarias
Sexes are separate, skin
Osteichthyes (1) Struthio
with cycloid scales

(4) Ichthyophis Tetrapoda, tympanum present Amphibia

(2) Naja
(3) Saccoglossus
138. Match the following genera in column I with their (4) Vipera russelli
respective phylum in column II.
143. Select the flying mammal.
Column I Column II
(1) Macropus
a. Cucumaria (i) Platyhelminthes
(2) Pteropus
b. Meandrina (ii) Mollusca (3) Balaenoptera
c. Chaetopleura (iii) Coelenterata (4) Ornithorhynchus
d. Taenia (iv) Echinodermata 144. Choose the incorrect statement.
Select the correct option. (1) All mammals are not viviparous
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) All cyclostomes possess jaws and paired fins.

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Reptiles generally have a three chambered
heart
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Not all fishes have gills covered by an
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) operculum

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Home Assignment-01

145. Which one of the following characteristic features 152. How many animals in the given box have open
is shared by reptiles and amphibians? circulatory system?
(1) A tympanum represents the ear Octopus, Salamandra, Spider , Crab, Chelone
(2) Fertilization is mainly internal
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) Development is indirect
(3) 5 (4) 3
(4) Skin is moist without scales
153. Among the following which organism is an
146. Choose the incorrect statement.
enterocoelomate with bilateral symmetry?
(1) Petromyzon has an ammocoete larvae
(1) Grass-hopper (2) Octopus
(2) Vertebrates possess notochord during the
embryonic period. (3) Sea horse (4) Loligo

(3) All vertebrates are chordates 154. Choose the animal that shows direct
development during the life cycle.
(4) All chordates are vertebrates
(1) Pheretima (2) Echinus
147. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (3) Saccoglossus (4) Dentalium
Statement A : Subphyla Urochordata and 155. An important characteristic feature that is shared
Cephalochordata are often referred to as between Balanoglossus and Pteropus is
protochordates. (1) Presence of air sacs
Statement B : Ascidia is a urochordata.
(2) Sexes are separate
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Dorsal solid nerve cord
(2) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Presence of notochord
(3) Both statements are correct
156. Musca domestica belongs to the order
(4) Statement B is incorrect
(1) Arthropoda (2) Insecta
148. Chordates are not
(3) Muscidae (4) Diptera
(1) Schizocoelomates
157. Which one of the following is a feature of
(2) Triploblastic
butterfly?
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical
(1) Organ level of body organisation
(4) Possessing organ-system level of
organisation (2) Body consists of head, thorax and abdomen
149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. super class (3) Belongs to second largest phylum
Tetrapoda. (4) Body is covered by a calcareous exoskeleton
(1) Mammals (2) Osteichthyes 158. Alternation of generation between asexual and
(3) Aves (4) Reptilia sexual phases of an organism is termed
150. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. (1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis
Osteichthyes.
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Morphogenesis
(1) Notochord is persistent throughout life
159. How many of the features listed below are
(2) Mouth is located ventrally correct w.r.t. phylum porifera?
(3) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are (i) Internal cavities are lined with food filtering
backwardly directed flagellated cells
(4) Air bladder is present which regulates (ii) Body is made up of meshwork of cells
buoyancy
(iii) Mostly asymmetrical
151. Select the largest animal without any
endoskeleton or exoskeleton. (iv) Water vascular system
(1) Aurelia (2) Myxine (1) None (2) One
(3) Cucumaria (4) Sword fish (3) Two (4) Three

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Test-1 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
160. A viviparous endoparasite of the human body is 169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of ventral
(1) Hookworm (2) Round worm solid central nervous system.

(3) Trichina worm (4) Tape worm (1) Doliolum

161. Members of phylum A and B are (2) Scorpion

exclusively marine. A and B respectively are (3) Spider

(1) Porifera and Coelenterata (4) Periplaneta

170. Which of the following characteristics is present
(2) Ctenophora and Hemichordata
in phylum Aschelminthes?
(3) Aschelminthes and Porifera
(1) Monoecious
(4) Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata
(2) Parapodia
162. An organism that does not show the presence of
(3) Pseudocoelom
cell wall is
(4) Metamerism
(1) Sea pen (2) E.coli
171. All of the following are correctly matched, except
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Thermus aquaticus
(1) Bombyx mori – Sericulture
163. Which of the following represents genus of ‘Cat’?
(2) Apis indica – Apiculture
(1) Equus (2) Felis
(3) Pinctada – Pearl culture
(3) Canis (4) Rattus
(4) Laccifer lacca – Vermiculture
164. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. ctenophores.
172. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?
(1) Tissue level of body organisation
(1) Metagenesis
(2) Fertilization is external
(2) Gastrovascular cavity
(3) Ciliated comb plates primarily help in feeding (3) Diploblastic
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and (4) Cnidoblast
intracellular
173. Select the incorrect statement.
165. The group of animals which belong to the same
(1) Schizocoelom first originated in phylum
phylum are
Annelida.
(1) Tape worm, Pinworm, Hookworm
(2) Blastopore is the pore of blastocoel
(2) Sea anemone, Sea hare, Sea cucumber
(3) Solenocytes are the main excretory
(3) Star fish, Flying fish, Saw fish structures in platyhelminthes
(4) Cuttle fish, Devil fish, Sea hare (4) The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents
166. A member of the largest phylum of animal an egg with a juvenile.
kingdom is 174. Given below are four matches of animals and
their respiratory organs.
(1) Lepisma (2) Exocoetus
A. Herdmania – Book lungs
(3) Sepia (4) Tetradon
B. Delphinus – Lungs
167. Members of which phylum have a single opening
to the outside that serves both as mouth and C. Anopheles – Tracheal tubes
anus D. Limulus – Book gills
(1) Mollusca (2) Platyhelminthes The correct matches are
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida (1) C and D only
168. Which of the following animals is diploblastic? (2) A and B
(1) Lancelet (2) Magur (3) B, C and D

(3) Liver fluke (4) Sea walnut (4) A and D only

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Home Assignment-01

175. A larvicidal fish which helps control malaria is 179. Select the flightless bird.
(1) Silverfish (2) Gambusia (1) Neophron
(3) Cuttlefish (4) Flyingfish
(2) Aptenodytes
176. Select the correct statement w.r.t aves.
(3) Psittacula
(1) The forelimbs generally have scales
(2) Respiration is carried out mainly by air sacs (4) Columba

(3) Development is indirect 180. Select the organism which has the following
(4) Endoskeleton is fully ossified characteristics.
177. The larva of which animal undergoes (i) The male bears a brood pouch where female
metamorphosis in fresh water and then returns to lays egg.
the ocean
(ii) Tail is prehensile
(1) Petromyzon (2) Branchiostoma
(3) Ascidia (4) Salpa (iii) Presence of long snout
178. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. (iv) Bony endoskeleton
hemichordates.
(1) Hippocampus
(1) Presence of stomochord
(2) Catla
(2) Worm like marine animal
(3) Scoliodon
(3) Presence of proboscis gland
(4) Body is metamerically segmented (4) Pristis

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