27/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 7 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are
measured with percentage error 2%, 3% 1% and
0.5% respectively. A quantity Q is defined as Q
a b (1) (2)
Q = 3/2 4 . Maximum percentage error in the
c d
calculation of Q will be
(1) 5% (2) 6%
(3) 7% (4) 9%
2. Who among the following is not a Nobel laureate (3) (4)
in physics

(1) Marie curie (2) Wilhelm Roentgen 4. A particle has initial velocity = u (4iˆ − 5 jˆ) m/s
(3) Abdus salam (4) Ernest Rutherford and it is moving with acceleration
 1 1 
3. Figure shows the acceleration time graph of a =a  i + j  m/s2 . Velocity of the particle at
particle moving in a straight line. Which of the 4 5 
following options best represents the t = 2 second is
corresponding position-time graph
(1) (6i − 4 j ) m/s

(2) (4.5i − 4.6 j ) m/s

(3) (4.5i − 4.1j ) m/s

(4) (6i − 4.6 j ) m/s

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5. Three blocks A, B and C are placed on a rough 8. Given diagram represents the potential energy
horizontal surface. Friction coefficient between curve of particle in a field. Particle will be in
blocks and surface is 0.6. Acceleration of the equilibrium at position
block C in given situation is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3.5 m/s2 (2) 0.5 m/s2 (1) at B and D (2) at A and C
(3) 4.5 m/s 2
(4) Zero (3) A, B and C (4) at A, B, C and D
6. Three blocks each of mass m are hanged 9. Three thin rods each of mass m and length L are
vertically with the help of inextensible strings and joined to form as shown in the figure
ideal spring. Initially the system was in
equilibrium. At any instant lower most string is cut
then acceleration of block B just after cutting the
string is

Moment of inertia of the system about an axis xx′

passing through rod PQ is
2mL2 mL2
(1) (2)
3 2
4mL2 3mL2
(3) (4)
3 8
10. A cylinder of mass m and radius R rolls purely
g over an inclined surface while moving up on it.
(1) g (2) Correct statement regarding friction acting on it is
2
(1) Friction is acting downward and Kinetic in
2g nature
(3) (4) Zero
3 (2) Friction is acting upward and kinetic in nature
7. A block P of mass m is moving with velocity v0 (3) Friction is acting upward and static in nature
and collides elastically with identical block Q as (4) Friction is acting downward and static in
shown in the figure. If spring constant of the nature
spring is K, then maximum compression in the 11. Two satellites are in the parking orbits around the
spring in subsequent motion is earth. Mass of one is 10 times that of the other.
The ratio of their periods of revolution is :
(1) 1 (2) 10
1
(3) (4) 10 10
v0 10
(1) 12. Four particle each of mass m move along a circle
2m
of radius R under the action of their mutual
3m gravitational attraction. The speed of each
(2) v 0 particle is
2K
2Gm (2 2 – 1) Gm
2m (1) (2)
(3) v 0 R R
3K
v 0 2m  1 + 3  Gm Gm  2 2 + 1
(4) (3)   (4)  
3K 2  R R  4 

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

13. When an elastic material with young’s modulus Y

is subjected to a stretching stress ‘S’. Elastic
energy stored per unit volume of the material is
S S2
(1) (2)
2Y 2Y
S 2Y Y 2S
(3) (4)
2 2
14. The normal density of gold is ρ0 and its Bulk
modulus is B. The increase in density of sphere
of gold when a pressure P is applied uniformly on
it is (P << B)
(1) (2)
BP B
(1) (2)
ρ0 Pρ 0

ρ0 P ρ0
(3) (4)
B PB
15. A large tank filled with water to a height of h is to (3) (4)
be emptied through a small hole at the bottom.
The ratio of time taken for the level of water to fall
h h 20. A refrigerator, whose coefficient of performance
down from h to and from to zero is
2 2 is 7, extracts heat from the low temperature
1 compartment at the rate of 250 J/cycle. Work
(1) 2 −1 (2) done per cycle required to operate the
2 −1 refrigerator is nearly
2 2 2 (1) 50 J (2) 36 J
(3) (4)
2 −1 1− 2 (3) 27 J (4) 63 J
16. Specific heat S of container of mass 1 kg varies 21. The ratio of velocity of sound in oxygen to that in
with temperature T according to the empirical Argon at the same temperature is
relation S = A + BT. Where A = 100 cal kg–1 K–1
21 20
and B = 2 × 10–2 cal kg–1 K–2. If container was (1) (2)
heated from 27°C to 227°C then heat required to 20 21
do so is 21 25
(1) 21600 J (2) 21600 cal (3) (4)
25 21
(3) 2000 cal (4) 2000 J 22. The frequency of the second overtone of the
17. A spherical body of emissivity e = 0.7 and open pipe is equal to the frequency of the first
surface area A is Placed inside a perfect black overtone of the closed pipe. The ratio of lengths
body maintained at temperature T, then energy of the closed pipe to that of open pipe is
radiated per second by black body will be
3
(1) E = 0.3 σAT4 (2) E = 0.7 σAT4 (1) (2) 1
1
(3) E = 0.5 σAT4 (4) E = σAT4 1 2
(3) (4)
18. An ideal gas is allowed to expands from volume 2 1
V to 2V according to the law VP2 = Constant. If
23. A simple pendulum performs SHM about x = 0
initial temperature of the gas is ‘T’ then its final
with an amplitude A and time period T. The
temperature will be
3A
(1) T (2) T 2 speed of the pendulum at x = will be
4
T Aπ 7 3πA
(3) (4) 2T (1) (2)
2 2T T
19. In a cyclic process ABCA V-T graph is shown in
the figure. P-V graph corresponding to the given πA 5 πA 7
(3) (4)
process can be best depicted by 2T 4T

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

24. A beam of light converges towards a point O, 10 −q.2

cm behind a concave mirror of focal length 20 (1)
1+ 2
cm. Magnification produced by the mirror is
3 2
−q
(1) (2) (2)
2 3 2 −1

−2 −3 − 2q
(3) (4) (3)
3 2 2 −1
25. A circular beam of light having a diameter 4 cm − 2q
falls on a plane glass slab at angle of incidence (4)
2 +1
60°. If refractive index of the material of slab is
3 30. Two conducting charged spheres having different
µ = , then diameter of the refracted beam is radii (Solid or Hollow) are connected by a
2
conducting wire. Then which of the following is
2 true
(1) 10 cm (2) 2 cm
3 (1) Finally both bodies will acquire equal amount
of charge
2 3
(3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm (2) Finally bigger sphere has more charge than
3 2 smaller sphere
26. A compound microscope has a magnifying power (3) Finally bigger sphere has less charge than
30. Focal length of its eye piece is 5 cm. If the smaller sphere
final image formed at least distance of distinct
(4) Any of the above situation can appear
vision then magnification produced by the
objective is 31. Plate A of a parallel plate air filled capacitor is
connected to a spring having force constant K
(1) 2 (2) 6
and Plate B is fixed. They rest on a smooth table
(3) 5 (4) 3 as shown in the figure. (Area of each plate is A)
27. In young’s double slit experiment, if the
separation between the slits is halved and the
distance between the slits and screen is doubled,
then fringe width becomes
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled
(3) Halved (4) Remains same It a charge +q is given to plate A and –q is given
to plate B. Extension of the spring in equilibrium
28. A beam of light is incident on a glass plate at an situation
angle of incidence 60°. The reflected ray is
completely polarized. Refractive index of the q2 q2
(1) (2)
glass plate is KAε0 2KAε0
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.414
2q 2
(3) 1.732 (4) 1.34 (3) (4) No extension
K ε0 A
29. Two charges each +q are placed at the vertices
of a right angled triangle (isosceles triangle) as 32. When the key is pressed at time t = 0, then
shown in the figure. charge on the capacitor after a very long time in
given figure will be

Charge that should be placed on vertex C, so

that net electrostatic energy of the configuration (1) Zero (2) 16 µ C
is zero, is (3) 8 µ C (4) 32 µ C

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

33. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has 39. The Maxwell
a period of oscillation of 4 seconds. If the magnet  
is broken in two halves (each piece has half of  dφ  E
∫ B.dl = µ0  I + ε0 dt  is a statement of
original length) and one piece is made to oscillate
in same field then its time period becomes (1) Faradey’s law of EMI
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(2) Modified Ampere’s law
(3) 8 s (4) 1 s
(3) Gauss’ law of electrostatic
34. Soft iron is used in many parts of electrical
(4) Gauss’ law of magnetism
machines because it exihit
(1) Low permeability and low hysteresis loss 40. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of an
α-particle and a proton of same kinetic energy is
(2) Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) High permeability and high hysteresis loss
(4) High permeability and low hysteresis loss (3) 2 :1 (4) 4 : 1
35. The wire loop carries a current I as shown in the 41. If 10% of a material decays in 5 days, then the
figure. The magnetic field at the centre ‘O’ will be amount of original material left after 20 days is
approximately
(1) 75% (2) 65%
(3) 55% (4) 25%
42. For the stability of any nucleus
(1) Binding energy per nucleon should be more
µ 0I  1 1  µ 0I  1 1  (2) Binding energy per nucleon should be less
(1) + (2) −
4  r1 r2  4  r1 r2  (3) Number of protons inside the nucleus should
be more
µ 0I
(3) (r − r )
2 1 2
(4) Zero (4) Number of neutrons inside the nucleus
should be more
36. A charged particle is projected in to a region
43. When a P-N junction is forward biased, the flow
where there may have an electric filed E and/or of current across the junction is mainly due to
magnetic field B . If the charged particle goes
un-accelerated, then it is not possible that (1) Drift of charges
    (2) Diffusion of charges
E 0,=
(1) = B 0 (2) E ≠ 0, B = 0
    (3) Both drift and diffusion of charges
E 0, B ≠ 0
(3) = (4) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0 (4) Depends on the nature of material
37. The working of a dynamo is based on the 44. The Boolean equation for the circuit given in
principle of figure is
(1) Electromagnetic induction
(2) Heating effect of current
(3) Thermionic emission
(4) Photo electric emission
y A.B + C
(1) = (2)=y A.(B + C )
38. Power factor of the A.C. circuit as shown in the
figure is – (3)=y A.(B + C ) (4)=y A.(B + C )
45. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave
diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without
filter is 10 V. The D.C. component of the output
voltage is :
10 10
(1) V (2) V
2 π
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.3
20
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.8 (3) 10 V (4) V
π

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY

46. The rate of reaction doubles when the 56. In which of the following cases common ion
concentration of the reactant is increased four effect is observed?
times. Order of the reaction is (1) HCl + HNO3 (2) NaOH + NaCl
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) HCN + HCl (4) HCl + H2SO4
1 57. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
(3) (4) –1
2 (1) Clark’s method (2) Permutit process
47. If EoCu2+ /Cu = + 0.34 V then reduction potential of (3) By boiling (4) Both (2) and (3)
Cu2+/Cu electrode at pH = 14 is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 1 58. Ortho and para hydrogen have different
× 10–19) (1) Electronic spin (2) Nuclear spin
(1) –0.92 V (2) – 0.22 V (3) Molar mass (4) Densities
(3) –0.65 V (4) – 0.76 V
48. In CsCl structure, each Cl– is surrounded by how 59. IUPAC name of is
many Cs+ ions? (1) Phenylmethylamide
(1) 4 (2) 6 (2) Methyl acetophenone
(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) N-Phenyl ethanamide
49. The number of octahedral voids per atom in a fcc (4) 2-methyl benzamide
structure is 60. Carius method is used to detect
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) C (2) Br
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) N (4) H
50. van’t Hoff factor, i, for K4[Fe(CN)6], if it is 80% 61. Most stable carbanion is
dissociated at 300 K, is  
(1) 5 (2) 4.2 (1) CH3 CH2 (2) CH2 = CH
(3) 4.8 (4) 3.6  
(3) HC ≡ C (4) CH3 – CH – CH3
51. At constant temperature for 1 mole of an ideal
gas, if its pressure is decreased by 20% then its 62. Molecule having 3 centre-2 electron bond is
volume will be increased by (1) Al2Cl6 (2) B2H6
(1) 20% (2) 10% (3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
(3) 25% (4) 50% 63. Select a correct statement about boric acid
52. The approximate time required for a current of (1) It is a Bronsted acid
3 ampere to decompose electrolytically 18 g of (2) It is an Arrhenius acid
H2O is
(3) It is a Lewis acid
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(4) Its basicity is three
(3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours
64. Path independent function(s) among the
53. Which of the following has highest bond order? following is/are
(1) O2 (2) N2+ (1) Temperature (2) Internal energy
(3) Pressure (4) All of these
(3) O2− (4) H2+
65. Which of the following reaction’s heat is defined
54. Molecule having non zero dipole moment is as ∆fH of a compound?
(1) XeF2 (2) SiCl4 (1) 2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g)
(3) SF6 (4) BrF3 (2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
55. pH of 10 M Ba(OH)2 aqueous solution is
–2
1
(3) H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l)
(1) 12.3 (2) 7.3 2
(3) 10.3 (4) 2.3 (4) 2NO2 (g) → N2O4 (g)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

72. Packing efficiency of a fcc unit cell is

(1) 54% (2) 74%
66. (3) 68% (4) 92%
∆
73. (CH3COO)2 Ca → Y (major product), product
Y in the above reaction is
Major product is
(1) CH4 (2) CH3OH
(1) But-2-yne (2) Cis-but-2-ene
(3) CH3 – O – CH3 (4) CH3 – CO – CH3
(3) trans-but-2-ene (4) Cyclobutane
74. Which of the following mixture(s) forms an ideal
solution?
67. A, A is
(1) Acetone + Chloroform
(2) Hexane + Heptane
(3) Benzene + Toluene
(1) (4) Both (2) and (3)
75. Fastest rate of SN1 reaction is observed in

(2) (1) CH3Cl (2)

(3) (3) (4) CH2 = CH – Cl

(4)
76. major product

68. Solvay process is used to prepare

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 formed is
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaCO3
69. Oxidation states of nitrogen in N2O3, HN3 and
HCN respectively are (1) (2)
1
(1) + 2, +3 and – 3 (2) + 3, − and – 3
3
1
(3) – 3, + 3 and – 3 (4) + 3, + and + 3
3
(3) (4)
70. Propene and propyne can be distinguished by
(1) Bromine water (2) Baeyer’s reagent
(3) Tollen’s reagent (4) Hydrogenation
77. Caprolactum is the monomer of
+
CaO
71. CH3CH2COO−Na + NaOH  → X , X is (1) Teflon (2) Nylon 6
(Major )
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Buna-N
(1) CH3CH2CH3
78. D-Glucose and D-mannose are
(2) CH3CH3
(3) CH3CH2 – OH (1) C-4 epimers (2) C-2 epimers
(4) CH2 = CH2 (3) Anomers (4) Tautormers

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

85. ; (y) is
79.

(1)
Number of oxygen atom (s) present in product P
is/are
(2)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5
NaCN DIBAL −H
80. R − Br  → X 
HO
→ Y, compound Y is (3)
2

(1) An aldehyde
(2) An alcohol
(4)
(3) An ether
(4) An ester
86. Linear shape molecule is
81. Mass of 11.2 L of NH3 gas at STP is
(1) SO2 (2) H2O
(1) 0.5 g
(3) SCl2 (4) BeCl2
(2) 4.5 g
87. Most electronegative element among the
(3) 6.75 g following is
(4) 8.5 g (1) K (2) B
82. A + 2B → 3C, what is the maximum number of (3) O (4) Br
moles of C formed, if 2 moles of A is heated with 88. Among the following substances
3 moles of B? antiferromagnetic substance is
(1) 3 (2) 1.5 (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
(3) 4.5 (4) 6 (3) ZnFe2O4 (4) CrO2
83. Number of electrons is p subshell(s) of an atom 89. London smog results from a high concentration
with atomic number 31 is of
(1) 13 (2) 12 (1) CO2 (2) SO2
(3) 9 (4) 10 (3) O3 (4) NO2

84. Number of unpaired electron(s) in Cr3+ ion is 90. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
(1) Rickets (2) Night blindness
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Scurvey (4) Beriberi
(3) 3 (4) 4

BOTANY

91. Select the correctly matched pair w.r.t plastids (1) Microfilaments
(1) Amyloplast – Stores fats and oils (2) Microtubules
(2) Aleuroplast – Stores proteins (3) Intermediate filaments
(3) Elaioplast – Stores starch (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Chromoplast – Contains chlorophylls 93. Cellular organelle having single membrane is
92. The filaments of cytoskeleton mainly composed (1) Chloroplast (2) Nucleus
of globular protein actin and filamentous protein
myosin are (3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondrion
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

94. Reduction in the number of chromosomes occurs 100. Prop roots and stilt roots are found respectively
during in
(1) Diplotene (1) Rhizophora and turnip
(2) Diakinesis (2) Banyan and maize
(3) Metaphase I (3) Potato and zaminkand
(4) Anaphase I (4) Pistia and Eichhornia
95. Congression of chromosomes is seen in 101. Valvate aestivation in corolla is found in
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Cotton (2) Calotropis
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) Cassia (4) Gulmohur
96. Select the incorrectly matched pair 102. All of the given characteristics are related to
parenchyma tissue except
(1) Herbarium – Store house of
(1) Composed of living cells
dried, pressed and
(2) Generally isodiametric cells
preserved plants on
(3) Cell wall is mainly made up of suberin
sheets.
(4) Either closely packed cells with no
(2) Museum – Collection of intercellular spaces or have small intercellular
preserved plants spaces
and animals kept in 103. Which of the following is related to tracheids?
containers (1) Deposition of suberin on cell wall
(3) Botanical garden – An institution (2) Found in gymnosperms only
located in an (3) Dead cell without protoplsm
enclosed piece of (4) Helps in radial conduction of water
land which grows 104. Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle
numerous kinds of is a characteristics feature of
(1) Dicot roots (2) Monocot stems
plants
(3) Monocot leaves (4) Dicot stems
(4) Zoological parks – Places where only
105. Identify the wrong statement in context of cork
dead wild animals
cambium
are kept in
(1) Cork cambium is also called phellogen
preserved
(2) Cork cambium is usually developed from the
conditions. secondary xylem
97. Which of the following is not correct about (3) Outer cells of phellogen differentiate into cork
lichens?
(4) Inner part of phellogen leads to formation of
(1) Lichens are dual organism containing phelloderm
phycobiont and mycobiont 106. Which one is wrongly matched?
(2) They cannot grow in the presence of sulphur (1) Anisogamous – Eudorina
dioxide
sexual reproduction
(3) They grow very fast
(2) Green algae – Pyrenoids
(4) They often grow in most inhospitable places
such as barren rocks (3) Red algae – Floridean starch
98. Find the odd one w.r.t. the fungi imperfecti (4) Brown algae – Agar and carrageen
(1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum 107. All are common examples of mosses, except
(3) Trichoderma (4) Penicillium (1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum
99. The cell wall is impregnated with silica to form (3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella
transparent siliceous shell in 108. Diplontic life cycle is shown by
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Euglenoids (1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra
(3) Diatoms (4) Slime moulds (3) Bryophytes (4) Fucus

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

109. Which of the following factors increases the 116. Which statement is not correct for Krebs’ cycle
transpiration rate? (1) Krebs’ cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix
(1) Low root-shoot ratio (2) Pyruvic acid condense with OAA to form citric
(2) Leaves with waxy coating acid
(3) High concentration of salts in soil water (3) 3 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 are produced during
(4) Lower relative humidity in atmosphere one Krebs’ cycle
110. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. transport in plants (4) Succinate dehydrogenase is found attached
to inner mitochondrial membrane
(1) Simple diffusion – Do not require
117. Read the following statements and choose the
special membrane correct option
protein
A. Parthenocarpy in banana is mainly due to
(2) Active transport – Do not show uphill high internal production of auxins
transport B. Apical dominance can be counteract by
(3) Facilitated transport – Transport saturation cytokinins
can occur (1) Only (A) is correct
(4) Active transport – Highly selective (2) Only (B) is correct
nature (3) Both (A) is (B) are correct
111. Nitrate assimilation is the process in plant in (4) Both (A) is (B) are incorrect
which 118. Which of the following plant growth regulators is
(1) N2 is converted into NH3 derived from adenine but does not occur
naturally in plants.
(2) NH3 is converted into N2
(1) NAA (2) Zeatin
(3) NO2− is converted into NO3−
(3) Kinetin (4) 2, 4-D
(4) NO3− is converted into NH3 119. Find the incorrect match
112. Turgidity of guard cells during opening of stomata (1) Isogametes – Cladophora
is maintained by the help of (2) Isogametes – Rhizopus
(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium (3) Heterogametes – Ulothrix
(3) Potassium (4) Calcium (4) Heterogametes – Volvox
113. Cyclic photophosphorylation is different from 120. Which of the given features discourage the self-
non-cyclic photophosphorylation as the former pollination?
(1) Is performed by collaboration of both PS-II (1) Dioecy (2) Cleistogamy
and PS-I
(3) Homogamy (4) Bisexuality
(2) Does not require any external source of
electrons 121. Double fertilization includes
(3) Is connected with photolysis of water (1) Endosperm and embryo development
(4) Is connected with ATP and NADPH (2) Ovules and ovary maturation
production (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
114. PEPcase enzyme is located in (4) Porogamy and chalazogamy
(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants 122. Presence of more than two alleles for a gene is
(2) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants known as
(3) All the cells of C3 plants (1) Polygenic inheritence
(4) Plant which shows photorespiration (2) Multiple allelism
115. The first irreversible reaction of EMP pathway is (3) Co-dominance
catalyzed by (4) Incomplete dominace
(1) Phosphofructokinase 123. An abnormality caused by non-disjunction of sex
(2) Pyruvate kinase chromosomes is
(3) Hexokinase (1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Sickel cell anemia
(4) Aldolase (3) Down’s syndrome (4) α-Thalassemia

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

124. During somatic hybridization, cell are treated with 129. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
A and B to produce the naked correct option
protoplast. Column-I Column-II
Here ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are a. RNA polymerase I (i) hnRNA
(1) Auxins, cytokinins b. RNA polymerase II (ii) tRNA
(2) Pectinase, cellulase c. RNA polymerase III (iii) 28 S rRNA

(3) Sodium nitrate, PEG (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

(4) BAP, gibberellins (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

125. Fermented beverages which are produced 130. Key industry animals are also known as
without distillation are (1) Top carnivores
(1) Whisky and rum (2) Herbivores
(2) Brandy and beer (3) Secondary consumers
(3) Beer and wine (4) Tertiary consumers
(4) Whisky and brandy 131. Which of the following are not given any place in
ecological pyramids
126. Organism used in preparation of vinegar is
(1) Primary producers
(1) Acetobacter aceti
(2) Primary consumers
(2) Lactobacillus
(3) Top carnivores
(3) Penicillium
(4) Saprophytes
(4) Clostridium
132. Find the odd one out w.r.t. off site conservation
127. Select the incorrect statements from the (1) Botanical gardens
following
(2) Zoological parks
(a) There are the evidences that DNA was the
first gentic material in the history of life. (3) National parks

(b) No RNA acts as catalyst (4) Seed banks

(c) DNA replication is said to be 133. The most important cause responsible for
semiconservative as it has two strands of animals and plants extinction is
polynucleotide chain. (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(d) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose (2) Over-exploitation
sugar through N-glycosidic linkage.
(3) Alien species invasion
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Co-extinction
(2) (b) and (c) only
134. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is mainly caused by
(3) (c) and (d)
(1) NOX (2) SO2
(4) (b) and (d)
(3) O3 (4) CO
128. Barnacles growing on the back a whale, a type of 135. Algal bloom in lake causes all the effects given
population interaction, is an example of below, except
(1) Competition (1) Increase CO2 level
(2) Mutualism (2) Oxygen depletion in lake
(3) Amensalism (3) Increase the fish mortality
(4) Commensalism (4) Increase the DO in water

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

ZOOLOGY
136. Skeletal muscle fibres are 142. Inspiration can occur if A pressure is less
(1) Branched, spindle shaped and uninucleated than atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is B
(2) Striped, multinucleated and unbranched pressure in the lungs w.r.t. atmosphere pressure.
(3) Unbranched, involuntary and cylindrical in Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
shape
A B
(4) Voluntary, unbranched and uninucleated
(1) Intra-pulmonary Positive
137. Select the odd one w.r.t. secretions of exocrine
glands. (2) Intra-pulmonary Negative
(1) Saliva (2) Mucus (3) Inter-pleural Positive
(3) Insulin (4) Milk (4) Intra-pleural Positive
138. Choose the incorrect match. 143. The respiratory volume/capacity of air that
cannot be measured by using a spirometer is
(1) Arachidonic acid – 20C fatty acid
(1) Inspiratory capacity
including
(2) Tidal volume
carboxyl carbon
(2) Lecithin – Phospholipid (3) Expiratory reserve volume

found in cell (4) Functional residual capacity

membrane 144. Person with blood group O is considered as
universal donor because he has
(3) Cytidine – Nitrogenous base
(1) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
of DNA and both A and B antigens on RBC’s surface.
(4) Vinblastin – Secondary (2) No antigen and no antibodies in the blood
metabolite used as plasma
anti-cancer drug (3) Neither A nor B antigens on RBCs
139. Which of the following type of structural level is (4) Both antigens on RBCs but no antibodies in
exhibited by DNA in Watson-Crick model? plasma
(1) Primary structure 145. Choose the incorrect match
(2) Secondary structure (1) Cardiac arrest – Condition in which heart
(3) Tertiary structure stops beating
(4) Quaternary structure (2) T-wave – Represents depolarization
140. Match Column-I with Column-II of ventricles
Column I Column II (3) SAN – Generates maximum
number of action
(i) Brunner’s gland a. Salivary amylase potentials
(ii) Rugae b. Nucleosidase (4) P-wave – Represents contraction of
(iii) Succus entericus c. Mucosa layer both atria
(iv) Carbohydrate d. Sub-mucosa 146. Read the following
splitting enzyme (a) High blood pressure
Choose the correct option (b) Dehydration
(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv,-c (2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (c) Low blood volume
(3) i-b, iii-c, ii-a, iv-d (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (d) High GFR
141. Odd one w.r.t. pancreatic juice is (e) Release of ANF
(1) Procarboxypeptidases How many of the above given factors are
(2) Lipases responsible for triggering RAAS mechanism?
(3) Enterokinase (1) Four (2) Three
(4) Nucleases (3) Two (4) One

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

147. Urea that is finally excreted in the urine enters 153. Glucagon and insulin hormone can be
filtrate by the process called distinguished based on
(1) Tubular secretion (1) Location of receptors i.e. intracellular or
(2) Tubular reabsorption extracellular
(3) Active transport (2) Their source gland

(4) Ultrafiltration (3) Hepatocytes as target cells

(4) Their role in the mechanism of maintaining
148. Red muscle fibres differs from white muscle
glucose homeostasis
fibres in having
154. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. total number
(1) More sarcoplasmic reticulum
of following structures in cockroach
(2) Less myoglobin content
(1) Spiracles – 10 pairs
(3) More number of mitochondria
(2) Gastric caecae – 6-8
(4) High lactic acid due to anaerobic oxidation
(3) Malpighian tubules – 100-150
149. Select the incorrect match (4) Ommatidia – 2000
(1) Fibrous joint – Sutures in cranium 155. Read the following statements
(2) Ball and socket joint – Elbow joint Statement A : Reproduction enables continuity
(3) Pivot joint – Between atlas and of the species, generation after generation
axis Statement B : Zygote is the vital link that
(4) Saddle joint – Between carpal and ensures continuity of species between organisms
of one generation and the next.
Metacarpal of
Choose the correct option.
thumb
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
150. Read the following statements
(2) Only statement A is correct
(A) Depolarization of an axonal membrane is
(3) Only statement B is correct
caused due to rise in stimulus-induced
permeability to Na+ and its rapid influx into (4) Both the statements are correct
axoplasm. 156. If vas deferens in human male reproductive
(B) Diffusion of K outside the axonal membrane
+ system is blocked, then transport of sperms will
restores the resting potential of the be blocked from
membrane. (1) Rete testis to epididymis
(C) Sodium potassium pump maintains active (2) Vasa efferentia to epididymis
transport of 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into
(3) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis
axoplasm across resting membrane
(4) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct
Choose the option that represent correct
statements only 157. LH surge induced ovulation in human females
during menstrual cycle occurs due to positive
(1) A only (2) A and B feedback mechanism by
(3) B and C (4) A and C (1) FSH
151. A part of brain that lies at the base of thalamus (2) Progesterone
and controls body temperature, urge for eating
and drinking is (3) Estrogen
(1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampus (4) Oxytocin
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum 158. Choose the incorrect match
152. Select the incorrect match w.r.t hormones and (1) Morula – 8 to 16 blastomeres
respective deficiency disease (2) Blastocyst – Implantation in
(1) PTH – Diabetes insipidus Endometrium
(2) Growth hormone – Dwarfism (3) Second polar body – Completion of 1st
(3) Thyroid hormone – Cretinism meiotic division
(4) Adrenal cortex – Addison’s disease (4) Foetal ejection reflex – Cortisol, estrogen,
hormones oxytocin

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

159. Odd one w.r.t barrier methods of contraception is 165. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother
(1) Nirodh during initial days of lactation provides _____ to
the infant. Choose the option that fills the blank
(2) Diaphragms correctly
(3) Lippes loop (1) Artificial passive immunity
(4) Cervical caps (2) Natural active immunity
160. An ART, in which embryo with more than 8 (3) Natural passive immunity
blastomeres could be transferred into the uterus is
(4) Artificial active immunity
(1) ZIFT
166. Select the correct match
(2) IUI
(1) AIDS – a congenital disease
(3) IUT
(2) Cancer – an infectious disease
(4) AI
(3) Morphine – an effective sedative and pain
161. Industrial melanism is an example of killer
(1) Artificial selection (4) Crack – Obtained from Cannabis sativa
(2) Drug resistance 167. An improved breed of cattle is
(3) A pollution generated melanism (1) Leghorn (2) Jersey
(4) Natural selection (3) Hisardale (4) Mule
162. Structures given in the figure below represent the
168. Select that option the correctly represents a
example of
palindromic sequence.
(1) 5′-GGAATTCC-3′ (2) 5′-AATTCCGG-3′
3′-CCTTAAGG-5′ 5′-TTAAGGCC-3′
(3) 5′-GGATCC-3′ (4) 5′-ATCGAGTC-3′
5′-CCTAGG-3′ 3′-TAGCTCAG-5′
169. An endonuclease that produces blunt ends is
(1) Hind III (2) Bam HI
(3) Pst I (4) Eco RV
170. DNA fragments are resolved based on their size
(1) Adaptive convergence
in gel electrophoresis through sieving effect. This
(2) Convergent evolution separation of fragments is based on the property
(3) Analogy of
(4) Divergent evolution (1) Presence of sugar moieties

163. Hugo de Vries believed that A caused (2) Positively charged DNA fragments
(3) Negative charge on DNA molecules
speciation and called it B . Choose the
(4) Double helical structure
option that fills the blanks correctly.
171. If alien piece of DNA is inserted in restriction site
A B
of Pst I in pBR322, resultant recombinants will be
(1) Variations Mutations
(1) Ampicillin resistant
(2) Mutation Saltation
(2) Tetracycline and ampicillin resistant
(3) Variations Saltation
(3) Tetracycline susceptible
(4) Factors Mutations
(4) Ampicillin susceptible
164. Choose an air-borne disease
172. The method of introducing alien DNA by directly
(1) Amoebic dysentery injecting it into the nucleus of an animal cell is
(2) Ascariasis called
(3) Filariasis (1) Biolistics (2) Gene gun
(4) Pneumonia (3) Microinjection (4) Heat shock method
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)

173. Complete the analogy. 178. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genus name, its
two characters and phylum
Lysozyme : Bacteria : : Chitinase : _______
(1) Plant cell Genus Characters Phylum

(2) Animal cell (1) Octopus Closed circulatory Mollusca

system
(3) Fungus
Presence of mantle
(4) Virus cavity

174. In RNAi, which of the following molecules binds

(2) Nereis Metamerism Annelida
to and prevents translation of the specific
mRNA? Possess lateral
appendages
(1) dsDNA
(3) Sycon Water canal Porifera
(2) ssDNA system
(3) ssRNA Hermaphrodite

(4) dsRNA (4) Balanoglossus Closed circulatory Hemichordata

175. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4 system
year old girl with Proboscis gland for
respiration
(1) Vitamin A deficiency
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency 179. Chondrichthyes differ from osteichthyes as
former possess
(3) Glucose 6- phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency (1) Operculum
(4) Insulin deficiency (2) Air bladder
176. Which group of animals belong to the same (3) Placoid scales
phylum? (4) Two-chambered heart
(1) Pennatula, Physalia, Planaria 180. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. group of
(2) Ctenoplana, Culex, Cucumaria animals and their taxon
(3) Anopheles, Aedes, Ancylostoma (1) Ichthyophis, Bufo, Hyla – Amphibia
(4) Locusta, Laccifer, Limulus (2) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, – Osteichthyes
177. Presence of radula and feather like gills are the Pterophyllum
characteristic features of (3) Corvus, Chelone, Calotes – Reptilia
(1) Pila (2) Delphinus (4) Pteropus, Equus, – Mammalia
(3) Pavo (4) Rattus Delphinus

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