Aakash Test Series - Physics Questions

06-12-2020 A
Entrance Exam - 2021
TEST No. 4
(XII Studying Students)
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Test No. 4
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers,

Chemistry in Everyday Life
Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues, Biotechnology:

Principles and Process, Biotechnology and its Applications.
Test-4 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
MM : 720 TEST - 4 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Two photons of same frequency moving in same 6. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of -particle to
medium must have that of a proton being subjected perpendicular to the

(1) Same linear momentum and same wave lengths same magnetic field B so that the radii of their paths
(2) Same linear momentum and same speeds are equal to each other is
(3) Same energy and same linear momentum 1

(1) 1 (2) 
4
(4) None of these
2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a bus moving with 1
 (3) (4) 2
speed v is . Some passengers left the bus at a 2
stopage. Now the bus moves with twice the speed, 7. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The
its kinetic energy is found to be twice the initial wavelength () of the light falling on the cathode is
value. The new de-Broglie wavelength will be gradually increased. The plate current (i) of the
(1)  (2) 2 photocell varies according to graph
 
(3) (4)
2 4
3. A proton when accelerated through a potential (1) (2)
difference of V volt has a de-Broglie wave
lengthassociated with it. An –particle in order to
have the same de-Broglie wave length, must be
accelerated through a potential difference of
V (3) (4)
(1) (2) 4V
8
V
(3) 2V (4)
4 8. A 10 W line source emits monochromatic light of
wavelength 4000 Å, when placed 1.0 m away from
4. Monochromatic light incident on a metal surface
a photosensitive surface, it librates photoelectrons
emits electrons with kinetic energies from 0 to
from surface. When the same source is moved
2.6 eV. What is the least energy of the incident
photon if the tightly bound electron needs 4.2 eV to 2.0 m away from same surface, number of
remove? photoelectrons librated reduce by a factor of
(1) 1.6 eV (1) 8 (2) 4
(2) From 1.6 eV to 6.8 eV 1

(3) 2 (4)
4
(3) 6.8 eV
9. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of molecules of
(4) More than 6.8 eV
hydrogen and helium in two gas jars kept separately
5. The human eye can barely detect a yellow-orange at temperatures of 27°C and 127°C respectively is
light of wavelength 6600 Å, that delivers 1.5 × 10–18
W to the ratina. How many photons per second does 2 2
(1) (2)
the ratina receive? 3 3
(1) 50 (2) 5 3 8
(3) (4)
(3) 500 (4) 5000 4 3
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)
10. The work function of a photosensitive material is 17. The ratio of centripetal accelerations of the electron
4.2 eV. The wavelength of incident radiation on the in singly ionized helium ion and hydrogen atom
cathode of this material, for which the stopping (both in ground state) is
potential is 2.0 V lie in the (1) 1 (2) 8
(1) X-ray region (2) Ultraviolet region (3) 4 (4) 16
(3) Visible region (4) Infrared region 18. A p-n junction photodiode is fabricated from
11. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can
Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in detect a signal of wavelength
Brackett series will be (1) 4000 nm (2) 6000 nm
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 4000 Å (4) 5000 Å
(3) 9  (4) 16  19. The Boolean expression for the circuit shown in
12. As the quantum number increases, the difference of figure is
energy between consecutive energy levels:
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases (1) Y  A  B (2) Y  AB
(3) Remains same
(3) Y  AB (4) Y  A  B
(4) First decreases then increases
20. The input signal given to common emitter amplifier
13. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is having a voltage gain of 150
13.6 V. An electron in the ground state of hydrogen
Vi = 2sin(15t + 10°)
atom absorbs a photon of energy 12.75 eV. How
many different spectral lines can be expected in The corresponding output signal is
emission spectrum? (1) V = 300cos(15t + 10°)
(1) 1 (2) 4 (2) V = 300cos(15t + 190°)
(3) 2 (4) 6 (3) V = 300sin(15t + 190°)
14. The Lyman series transitions involve the (4) V = 300sin(15t + 10°)
(1) Largest changes of energy 21. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below.
(2) Smallest changes of energy The output F of the circuit is represented by
(3) Largest changes of potential energy
(4) Both (1) and (3)
15. For an electron in the second orbit of Bohr hydrogen
atom, the moment of linear momentum is (h is
plank’s constant)
(1) W  (X + Y) (2) W (X Y)
(1) 2 ph (2) ph
(3) W + (X + Y) (4) W + (X  Y)
2h h
(3) (4) 22. A sample of radioactive material contains 1018
 
atoms at a instant. The half life of material is 2.0
16. For an ion having single electron following days, then the activity of the sample at that instant
wavelength are observed in emission spectrum. The is
missing wavelength x is
(1) 3.5 × 1012 Bq (2) 4.0 × 1012 Bq
(3) 3.5 × 1014 Bq (4) 4.0 × 1014 Bq
23. In the reaction given below
86A
222
 84B210 + Energy
The number of  and  particles emitted are
(1) 120 nm (2) 30 nm (1) 6, 3  (2) 3, 4
(3) 80 nm (4) 20 nm (3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 6
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24. The energy spectrum of -particles intensity (I) 29. In the given circuit silicon diode and germanium
versus energy (E), emitted from a radioactive diode conduct at 0.7 V and 0.3 V respectively. The
sample is value of V0 and i are
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) 11.7 V, 2.26 A (2) 11.3 V, 2.26 A

(3) 11.7 V, 2.34 A (4) 11.3 V 2.34 A
25. The graph shown in figure is a plot of binding energy 30. In a full wave rectifier, circuit operating from
per nucleon (Eb) and the nuclear mass M. A, B, C,
50 Hz A.C. mains. The ripple frequency would be
D, E and F correspond to different nuclei. Consider
four reactions (1) 50 Hz (2) 25 Hz
(3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz
31. In common emitter amplifier the phase difference
between input signal voltage and output voltage is

(1)  (2)
2

(3) 0 (4)
4
i. A + B = C + Energy ii. C  A + B + Energy
32. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across
iii. D + E = F + Energy iv. F = D + E + Energy
points A and B is (Assume didoes are ideal)
In which reactions energy will release are
(1) i and iv (2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv (4) ii and iii
26. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having
radii in the ratio 1:2. Their velocities are in the ratio
(1) 2:1 (2) 4:1
(3) 6:1 (4) 8:1
27. To produce an electron-positron pair, the minimum (1) 4 only (2) 13  only
energy of -ray photon must be (3) 15  only (4) Either 4  or 13 
(1) 1.02 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV 33. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge
(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 5.1 MeV carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n
28. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exist across a (p-n) junctions are:
junction and width of deplection layer is 1 m. An (1) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
electron approaches this (p-n) junction from
n-sides with speed 5 × 105 m/s. (2) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
The speed of electron on entering p–side is (3) Diffusion in forwards bias and drift in reverse
(1) 2.8 ×105 m/s (2) 3.8 ×105 m/s bias
(3) 6.8 ×105 m/s (4) 7.8 ×105 m/s (4) Drift in forward bias and diffusion in reverse bias
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34. Pure silicon at 300 K has equal electrons (ne) and 40. The output Y of combination of gates shown in
holes (nh) concentration of 1.5 × 1016 per m3. Doping figure, when all the three inputs are first high and
by indium hole concentration increases to 4.5 × 1022 then low will be
per m3. The number of free electrons per m3 in
doped silicon is
(1) 9 × 105
(1) 1,0 (2) 1,1
(2) 5 × 109
(3) 0,0 (4) 0,1
(3) 2.25 × 1011
41. The circuit shown in figure is equivalent to
(4) 3 × 1019
35. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measure
to be twice the radius of 4Be9. The number of (1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
nucleons in germanium are
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate
(1) 72 (2) 81
42. The peak voltage in the output of half-wave rectifier
(3) 64 (4) 75 fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The
36. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest D.C. component of output voltage is
emits an -particle. If the Q-value of reaction is 10 10
(1) V (2) V
5.5 M eV. The kinetic energy of -particle is 2 
(1) 4.4 MeV 20
(3) 10 V (4) V
(2) 5.4 MeV 
(3) 5.0 MeV 43. In the given circuit the current through Zener diode
is
(4) 4.8 MeV
37. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest
gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this
electron at time t is (Ignore relativistic effect)
h eht (1) 4 mA (2) 5 mA
(1)  (2) 
eEt 2 E (3) 6 mA (4) 7 mA
44. A silicon transistor amplifier circuit is as shown in
mh h
(3)  (4)  figure. If the current amplification factor  = 100 and
eEt 2 eEt
voltage drop between base and emitter is
38. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity of 5 ci 0.7 V. Then collector emitter voltage VCE is
has double the number of nuclei as of another
sample S2 which has an activity of 10 ci. The half
life of S1 and S2 can be
(1) 20 Years and 5 years respectively
(2) 10 years each
(3) 20 years and 10 years respectively
(4) 5 Years each
(1) 5 V (2) 4.3 V
39. A Zener diode may be used as
(3) 6.3 V (4) 2.7 V
(1) A voltage regulator in forward bias mode
45. On increasing the impurity level, width of depletion
(2) A voltage regulator in reverse bias mode layer
(3) A full wave rectifier (1) Increases (2) Remain same
(4) An oscillator in forward bias mode (3) Decreases (4) Will vanish
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[CHEMISTRY]
46. The compound which is most reactive towards 49. The pair of compounds which cannot be
nucleophilic addition reaction is distinguished by I2/NaOH is
(1) Acetone and methanol
(2) Ethanol and benzaldehyde
(1) (2) (3) Acetophenone and benzophenone
(4) Acetaldehyde and isopropyl alcohol
50. In the given reaction sequence product C is
(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone

(3) (4) (3) Secondary alcohol (4) Carboxylic acid
51. The most basic compound among the following is
47. Most acidic compound among the following is

(1) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5CH2COOH (1) (2)
(3) CH3COOH (4) FCH2COOH
48. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) (4)
Products B and C are

52. Nylon-6,6 is a/an
(1) Polyamide (2) Polyester
(1) (3) Elastomer (4) Addition polymer
53. Which among the following is monomer of orlon?
(1) Acrylonitrile (2) Vinyl chloride
(3) Styrene (4) Ethene
(2) 54. Copolymer among the following is
(1) Polythene (2) Buna-S
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Teflon
55. Synthetic biodegradable polymer(s) among the
following is/are
(3)
(1) PHBV (2) Nylon-2-nylon-6
(3) Cellulose (4) Both (1) and (2)
56. Monomers of Bakelite are
(1) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
(4) (2) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
(3) Phenol and formaldehyde
(4) Melamine and formaldehyde
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57. Which among the following is a thermosetting 66. Fat soluble vitamin among the following is
polymer? (1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin
(1) PVC (3) Vitamin-D (4) Vitamin-C
(2) Polystyrene 67. Number of chiral carbons present in
(3) Polythene -D-(-)-fructofuranose is
(4) Urea formaldehyde resins (1) 5 (2) 6
58. Consider the following compounds (3) 4 (4) 3
68. The compound which will not give carbylamine
reaction is
(1) Aniline (2) Benzylamine
(3) n-propylamine (4) Triethylamine
69. The product (P) obtained in the following reaction is
Keto-enol tautomerism is shown by P

(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
59. Brompheniramine is used as
(1) Antacid (2) Antihistamine (1)
(3) Antifertility drug (4) Tranquiliser
60. Sweetest compound among the following is (2)
(1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
(3) Sucrose (4) Sucralose
(3)
61. Which among the following is/are applied as
antiseptic?
(1) Furacine (2) Soframicine
(3) Bithional (4) All of these (4)
62. D-glucose does not react with
70. Consider the following reaction sequence
(1) NaHSO3 (2) Br2/water
(3) NH2OH (4) Benedict’s solution
63. The compound which will not undergo mutarotation
is/are
(1) Sucrose (2) Maltose
Major product C is
(3) Lactose (4) Mannose
64. Optically inactive amino acid among the following is (1)
(1) Proline (2) Valine
(3) Glycine (4) Lysine (2)
65. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Adenine and guanine are purine bases
(2) Thymine is absent in RNA (3)
(3) In DNA molecule, the sugar moiety is -D-2-
deoxyribose
(4)
(4) In RNA molecule, the sugar moiety is -D-ribose
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71. Benzylamine and aniline can be chemically 77. Consider the following reaction sequence
distinguished by
(1) Hinsberg’s reagent (2) Br2/water
(3) Dilute H2SO4 (4) CHCl3|KOH|
72. The major product of the given reaction is Major product B is
Major product
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
73. Acetaldehyde when treated with excess methanol in
presence of dry HCl gas then the major product 78. Incorrect statement among the following is
obtained is (1) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction
(2) Benzenediazonium chloride is a colourless
(1) (2) crystalline solid
(3) Nitration of aniline gives p-nitroaniline as major
(3) (4) product
(4) Benzenediazonium chloride is water insoluble
74. Consider the following compounds
and is stable at room temperature
CH3CO2CH3 ClCH2CO2CH3 CHCl2CO2CH3
79. Major product (B) of the given reaction is
(i) (ii) (iii)
The correct order of the ester hydrolysis in alkaline
medium is
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
75. Consider the following reaction
(1) (2)
Major product P is (3) (4)
80. The compound which is most easily decarboxylated

(1) (2) on heating is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
76. Which compound on acidic hydrolysis produces (3) (4)

primary amine? 81. Phorone is the condensation product of
(1) CH3CH2CN (2) CH3CH2CONH2 (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone
(3) CH3CH2NC (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Acetophenone (4) Propanaldehyde
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82. Maximum number of enolisable hydrogen present in 86. Consider the following reaction sequence
2-methylcyclohexanone is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 3 Major product B is
83. In the given reaction sequence the major product (1) PhCH2COO–Na+
(C) obtained is
(2)
(3)
(4)
87. In Etard reaction the starting material and reagent

used are respectively
(1) (2) (1) Benzene and CrO2Cl2 in CS2
(2) Toluene and CO, HCl, anh. AlCl3
(3) Toluene and CrO2Cl2 in CS2
(4) Benzonitrile and DIBAL – H
(3) (4)
88. The compound which boils at highest temperature
is
84. Acetamide on reaction with LiAlH4 followed by
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde
aqueous work-up gives
(3) Acetic acid (4) Ethanol
(1) Methyl amine (2) Ethyl amine
89. In the given reaction sequence major product (C) is
(3) Methanol (4) Ethanol
85. Product obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with
semicarbazide is
(1)
(1) (2)
(2) (3) (4) PhCH2CHO

90. Butanone is converted to n-butane by which
reagent?
(3)
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) LiAlH4
(4) CH3CH = N – NH2
(3) NaBH4 (4) NaH
[BIOLOGY]
91. The largest anthropogenic ecosystem are (3) It has very little bio-diversity
(1) Forests (2) Crop fields (4) It shows very little or no primary productivity
(3) Lakes (4) Estuaries 93. Edaphic factor of an ecosystem includes
92. About the ecosystem, like an aquarium, we cannot (1) Humidity of air
say that (2) Physical and chemical properties of soil
(1) It possesses self-regulatory mechanism (3) Slope of earth surface
(2) It show simple food chain (4) Wind and air current at that place
8/16
94. Some organisms show variant food habits at 100. A sugar cube has 10 calories of energy. If this cube
different stages of their life-cycle and thus their is consumed by 10 ants and all these ants is eaten
various stages are placed at different trophic levels. up by an anteater, then what amount of energy is
This feature can be seen in gained by the anteater from these ants?
(1) Butterfly (2) Hydra (1) 1 calory (2) 0.01 calory
(3) Frog (4) Lizard (3) 10 calories (4) 0.1 calory
95. In a forest, stratification is seen. It involves vertical 101. Standing crop is the amount of
subdivisions of vegetations. Which of the following
statements regarding such vegetation is incorrect? (1) All organic and inorganic substances in an
ecosystem per unit area
(1) Top layer is formed by big tress
(2) Organic matter present in crop plants only
(2) Bottom layer includes grasses and herbs
(3) Living material present in different trophic levels
(3) Shrubs form the second layer of the
subdivisions at a given time
(4) Upper most layer is composed of autotrophs (4) Inorganic substances present in soil per unit
only area at a given time
96. How many of the following can be considered as 102. Which of the following ecological pyramids is not
least productive ecosystem? possible for a tree ecosystem?
Tropical rain forest, Desert, Sugarcane field, Coral (1) Inverted pyramid of number
reef, Grassland, Deep sea (2) Upright pyramid of energy
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Spindle-shaped pyramid of number
(3) One (4) Two
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass
97. Some of the water-soluble substances present in
103. Regarding the limitations of ecological pyramids,
decomposing detritus go down into the soil horizon
and get precipitated there. This process is called which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(1) Anabolism (2) Leaching a. It can assume food chain as well as food web.
(3) Fragmentation (4) Humification b. Saprophytes are given a place in the pyramids
but microbes do not
98. All of the following factors increase the rate of
decomposition of detritus, except c. It does not take into account the insectivorous
animals
(1) Temperature more than 45°
(1) a only (2) All a, b , and c
(2) Presence of proteins and nucleic acid in the
detritus (3) a, and b, only (4) b, and c only
(3) Presence of water-soluble carbohydrates in the 104. Pioneer community of hydrarch succession are
detritus
(1) Phytoplanktons and zooplanktons
(4) Aerobic conditions
(2) Phytoplanktons and lichens
99. A herbivorous animal in a food chain cannot get the
complete energy that is trapped by the plant on (3) Floating and submerged plants
which the animal feeds. This is because (4) Floating plants and zooplanktons
(1) Energy flow follows the second law of 105. In which of the following areas, when succession
thermodynamics starts, it is said to be primary succession?
(2) Animal does not consume all the parts of a plant (1) Farm lands
(3) Mode of nutrition in animals are different from (2) Burned forests
that of plants
(3) Sand dunes
(4) Energy flow follows the first law of
thermodynamics (4) Lands that have been flooded
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106. According to researchers, out of the total cost of 111. One of the reasons of the richness of biodiversity in
various ecosystem services, the soil formation tropics is
accounts for (1) Frequent glaciations in the past
(1) About 50% (2) About 10% (2) Being more seasonal and less constant
(3) Less than 5% (4) About 6% (3) Being more productive for supporting wide
107. In India, occurrence of different strains of rice is an range of species
example of (4) High temperature and humidity but receiving
(1) Species diversity less solar radiations
(2) Genetic diversity 112. Which of the following graph is showing species
area relationship on logarithmic scale for very large
(3) Ecological diversity
area?
(4) Community diversity
108. More conservative and scientifically sound estimate
for global species diversity is made by Robert May.
According to him the global species diversity is
about (1) (2)
(1) 20 million (2) 7 million

(3) 1.5 million (4) 1.8 million
109. Consider the following pie chart of different plants,
fungi and lichens diversity.
(3) (4)
113. Identify the following statements as true (T) or false

(F) and choose the option accordingly.
A. An ecosystem having stable community does
not show variation in productivity from year to
Select the statement which is incorrect regarding year.
the sectors of given pie chart. B. As the biodiversity increases, productivity of the
(1) Sector C belongs to the heterotrophic ecosystem decreases.
organisms C. Stable communities are more resistant to
invasions by alien species.
(2) Sector B belongs to thallophytes
A B C
(3) Sector A includes all the green plants
(1) T T F
(4) Organisms belong to sectors A and B show
autotrophic modes of nutrition (2) F T T
110. Choose the option which is represented correctly (3) F F T
w.r.t. number of species in Amazonian rain forest. (4) T F T
(1) Reptiles > Fishes > Birds 114. According to Rivet popper hypothesis proposed by
(2) Mammals < Birds < Reptiles Paul Ehrlich, aeroplane is considered as
(3) Birds < Mammals < Fishes (1) A population (2) Species
(4) Reptiles < Amphibians < Birds (3) Ecosystem (4) Key species
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115. Since the origin and diversification of life, how many 121. Aerosols are
episodes of mass extinction of species was there on (1) Visible suspension of carbon in air
earth?
(2) The vapour chemicals in the form of
(1) Four (2) Five fluorocarbons
(3) Two (4) Three (3) Suspended particles with size more than
116. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the invasion of 1 m
alien species and the affected organisms.
(4) The allergy causing biological products
(1) Eichhornia –Several terrestrial plants
122. Select the statement which in not true w.r.t.
(2) Nile perch – Cichlid fish electrostatic precipitator.
(3) Lantana – Several plant species in forests (1) Electrodes in the precipitator give positive
(4) African catfish – Catfishes in our rivers charge to the dust particles
117. How many of the following are considered to be (2) It removes over 99% particulate matter present
in exhaust
narrowly utilitarian ecosystem services?
(3) The collecting plates attract the charged dust
Oxygen, Pollination, Food, Firewood, Drugs, Flood
particles
control, Aesthetic pleasure, Industrial products,
Erosion control. (4) It has electrode wires that are maintained at
several thousand volts
(1) Two (2) Five
123. In the scrubbing mechanism, the chemical that is
(3) Four (4) Three
responsible to remove SO2 from the exhaust is
118. Find the odd combination w.r.t. national park and
(1) CaSO4 (2) KOH
concerned animal.
(3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3
(1) Tiger – Kanha National Park
124. Green muffler scheme is for reducing a particular
(2) Elephant – Bandipur National Park
type of pollution. The unit used to measure the level
(3) Rhino – Khangchendzonga National Park of this pollution is
(4) Lion – Gir National Park (1) Dobson (2) Pascal
119. In order to control environment pollution, the (3) Decibel (4) ppm
Government of India passed (i) in (ii) to
125. All of the following are the measures taken by the
improve the quality of our environment. Government to reduce pollution caused due to
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and vehicles, except
(ii). (1) Use of leaded petrol
(i) (ii) (2) Use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel
(1) Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (3) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles
(2) Air (Prevention and control of 1981 (4) Application of stringent pollution level norms for
Pollution) Act vehicles
(3) Indian Forest Act 1927 126. Compound of which of the following elements in the
(4) Euro I norms 2000 atmosphere are the major cause of acid rain?
120. Which among the following is secondary air (1) S and N

pollutant? (2) P and S
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Carbon monoxide (3) C and N
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Ozone (4) Cl and C
11/16
127. Factor(s) that determine the amount of dissolved 132. Which of the following acts reduces the need of
oxygen in water is/are chemical fertilisers?
a. Microorganisms in water (1) Working of EcoSan toilets
b. Temperature of water (2) Working of thermal power plants
c. Non-biodegradable organic matter in water (3) Management of e-wastes
d. Animal wastes in water (4) Incineration
(1) All a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d 133. All of the following are the effects of deforestation,
(3) a and d only (4) d only except
128. Match the following columns and select the correct (1) Increase in atmospheric CO2 concentration
option (2) Loss of biodiversity
(3) Soil erosion
Column-I Column-II
(4) Increase in ground water level
a. Terror of Bengal (i) Excessive
134. CFCs have permanent and continuing affects on
growth of
phytoplankton ozone levels because
(1) CFCs are formed by the natural processes
b. Algal bloom (ii) Detergent
(2) Cl atom of CFC acts as catalyst and is not
c. Thinning of egg shell (iii) DDT consumed in the reaction
(3) CFCs are non-degradable organic compounds
d. Source of phosphate (iv) An aquatic
pollution plant (4) Ozone itself is responsible for the formation of
CFC
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
135. The international treaty, known as Montreal
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) Protocol, was signed to control
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (1) The over exploitation of wild-life
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) The emission of ozone-depleting substances
129. Itai-itai is painful skeletal deformity caused due to (3) The global temperature by limiting the emission
consumption of water and food contaminated with of green house gases
(1) Lead (2) Mercury (4) The climate by reduction in cutting of forest
(3) Arsenic (4) Cadmium trees
130. Select the statement which is not true for 136. A native plasmid is
eutrophication. (1) Autonomously replicating closed circular extra-
(1) It is a natural aging of water body chromosomal DNA
(2) It is due to nutrient enrichment of water (2) Single stranded chromosomal DNA
(3) It results the lowering of the temperature of the (3) Autonomously replicating vital gene coding
water body DNA
(4) It can be due to human activities (4) Antibiotic resistance gene containing
131. Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) is associated chromosomal DNA
with
137. Select a palindromic sequence.
(1) Control of thermal water pollution
(1) 5 GAATTC 3 (2) 5 GGATTACC 3
(2) Treatment of water contaminated with disease
causing microbes 3 CTTAAG 5 5 CCTAATGG 3
(3) Integrated waste water treatment (3) 5 GGCCCTA 3 (4) 5 CCTAATGG 3
(4) Integrated pest management 3 CCGGGAT 5 3 CTACTAGG 5
12/16
138. In Eco RI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from the (1) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(ii), d-(i)
(1) Name of the genus (2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v)
(2) Name of the viral strain (3) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) Name of the bacterial strain (4) a-(i), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) Order of isolation of bacterial strain 142. Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of
their genome within the bacterial cells because
139. The stickiness of the ends of overhanging
(1) Their replication is linked to replication of
nucleotide stretches facilitates the action of the
chromosomal DNA
enzymes categorised as
(2) Their number per cell is high
(1) Lyases
(3) Of absence of their own ‘ori’ sequence
(2) DNA ligases
(4) Of lack of vital genes
(3) Restriction endonucleases
143. pUC8 offers an advantage over pBR322 which is
(4) DNA polymerases
(1) Presence of ampicillin resistance gene
140. A circular plasmid was taken and subjected to (2) Identification of recombinants requires
restriction digestion with multiple restriction simultaneous plating on two plates having
enzymes. different antibiotics
The resultant mixture was subjected to agarose gel (3) Ability to distinguish between non recombinants
electrophoresis. Observe the figure given below and and recombinants based on production of colour
choose the incorrect statement in presence of chromogenic substrate
(4) Larger size of this plasmid
144. If an alien piece of DNA is inserted at the recognition
sequence of Pvu II in the E. coli cloning vector
pBR322, the recombinants
(1) Will appear blue in color
(2) Become ampicillin sensitive but resistant to
tetracycline
(1) Possibly, completely digested sample is in
(3) Will be ampicillin resistant but tetracycline
lane 4
sensitive
(2) Largest DNA fragment is closest to the wells (4) Will not replicate within the E.coli host
(3) Undigested DNA sample is in lane 2 145. Which of the following has been disarmed and
(4) Smallest DNA fragment is closest to anode modified into a cloning vector to deliver desirable
genes in animal cells?
141. Match column-I and column-II and choose the
correct option (1) pBR322 (2) Bacteriophage
Column-I Column-II (3) pUC8 (4) Retrovirus

146. Select the divalent cation which increases the
a. Agarose (i) Extracted from sea
efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
weeds
through pores in its cell wall.
b. Elution (ii) Loading dye for
(1) PO 24 (2) Zn2+
proteins
c. Ethidium bromide (iii) Precipitated DNA (3) Ca2+ (4) Fe2+
(EtBr) wound around a 147. A vectorless method for transferring the
glass rod recombinant DNA into the host cell is
d. Spooling (iv) Staining dye for (1) Biolistics
DNA (2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(v) Extraction of DNA (3) Cosmid
from gel piece (4) BAC
13/16
148. Complete the analogy 153. Which of the following is not a component of
Lysozyme : Bacteria :: Chitinase :______ reaction mixture of polymerase chain reaction?
(1) Plant cell (2) Fungus (1) Two sets of small chemically synthesized
oligonucleotides not complementary to regions
(3) Animal cell (4) Protozoan
of DNA called probes
149. In the given fragment of DNA, what will be the best
(2) A thermostable DNA polymerase
choice of enzymes if only gene C is to be isolated
without any flanking sequence? (3) Deoxynucleotides to extend the new DNA
strands
(4) Small amount of DNA to serve as initial template
154. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Eco RI
(1) Its an endonuclease that breaks sugar-
(1) Double digestion with Pst I and Sal I phosphate backbone of ds DNA
(2) Single digestion with Hind III (2) Its an endonuclease that breaks phosphodiester
(3) Single digestion with Pst I bonds of a DNA molecule
(4) Double digestion with Hind III and Sal I (3) Its an exonuclease that cleaves
150. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is monophosphoester bonds
disarmed by (4) Its a nuclease that recognizes specific
(1) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase gene palindromic sequence
(2) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic resistance 155. Alkaline phosphatase is employed in genetic
gene engineering as it helps to
(3) Replacing MCS from the Ti plasmid with new (1) Remove terminal 3 OH groups of a linear vector
‘ori’
(2) Remove single phosphate groups from 5 end of
(4) Replacement of ‘T-DNA’ with our gene of a linear DNA molecules
interest
(3) Add nucleotides at the 3 OH group of
circularised DNA
(4) Add single phosphate group at 5 end of
linearised DNA
151. 156. The number of segments of amplified DNA obtained
after 8 cycles of PCR is
(1) 128 (2) 64
(3) 512 (4) 256
In the cloning vector pBR322 given above, the
157. Continuous culture system differs from batch
restriction site marked 'X' is possibly
fermentation because
(1) Pvu I (2) Pst I
(1) In latter, set up conditions can be changed from
(3) Pvu II (4) Sal I outside once fermentation starts
152. While isolating genomic DNA, purified DNA can be
(2) In former, no more nutrients are added to the
ultimately precipitated out by the addition of
bioreactor after fermentation has started
(1) Proteases
(3) In former, the cells are maintained in their
(2) Ribonucleases physiologically most active exponential phase
(3) Chilled ethanol (4) In latter, the cells are maintained in their most
(4) Calcium chloride active lag phase of growth
14/16
158. The term given to the stages after fermentation in a 164. All of the following are true for genetically modified
bioreactor when the desired product is separated, plants except
and purified is (1) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
(1) Biosynthetic stage (2) Reduced efficiency of mineral usage
(2) Downstream processing (3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
(3) Protein amplification (4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
(4) Elution 165. ‘Bt’ in ‘Bt’ cotton refers to
159. Simple stirred tank bioreactor can be distinguished (1) Biopesticide transgene
from sparged stirred tank bioreactor based on the (2) -carotene transgene
(1) Absence of pH control system (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Presence of sampling ports (4) Bacterial toxin
(3) Absence of sparged sterile air bubbles 166. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Bt toxin.
(4) Presence of stirrer that facilitates even oxygen (1) The toxin gets activated in the cytoplasm of the
availability bacteria
160. Method of introducing gene of interest/ foreign DNA (2) The target insect ingests the activated toxin
directly into the nucleus of preferably an animal cell from the plant
is (3) The protoxin is inactive and gets activated in the
(1) Heat shock method (2) Biolistics alkaline pH of insect gut
(3) Microinjection (4) Gene gun (4) The protoxin is active and attacks the insect gut
161. One can see bright A coloured bands of DNA when pH is acidic
167. The protein encoded by gene cry/Ac controls
in B stained agarose gel exposed to UV light.
(1) Corn borer (2) Cotton bollworm
Choose the option that fill the blanks correctly
(3) Nematodes (4) Limulus
A B
168. Deficiency of vitamin A and iron can be cured by
(1) Pink Methylene blue consuming which biofortified crop?
(2) Orange Ethidium bromide (1) Canola (2) Flavr Savr tomato
(3) Blue X-gal (3) Golden rice (4) Native Basmati rice
(4) Yellow Gram 169. The strategy adopted to prevent the infestation of
162. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from nematode that infects tobacco plants is
(1) Fungus (2) Bacteria (1) RAPD
(3) Sea weeds (4) Protozoan (2) RNA interference
163. Read the following statements carefully (3) SDS-PAGE
Statement-A : The native (wild type) E.coli cells do (4) RFLP
not carry resistance against any antibiotics 170. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. RNA
Statement-B : Lac Z gene in pBR322 is considered interference
as useful selectable marker for E.coli (1) Its a naturally occuring mechanism that leads to
Choose the correct option post transcriptional silencing of genes
(2) It takes places in all eukaryotic organisms
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(3) It involves silencing of specific tRNA using
(2) Both statements are correct
complementary ss RNA
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) The source of complementary RNA could be
(4) Only statement B is correct viruses having RNA genome or transposons
15/16
171. To form mature insulin, removal of which of the (i) (ii)

following is essential? (1) Plasmid Mice
(1) Disulphide bonds (2) Gene taxi Sheep
(2) A chain
(3) Probe Mice
(3) B chain
(4) Tracking dye Goats
(4) C chain
176. Choose the mismatch
172. The main challenge for production of insulin using
(1) -1 antitrypsin – Treat emphysema
rDNA technique was
(1) Its modification after translation by the addition (2) Transgenic mice – Test polio vaccine
of sugar molecules (3) Basmati rice – 27 varieties in world
(2) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form (4) Pseudomonas putida – Clearing oil spills
with optimal activity 177. Biopatents are not awarded to inventors if the
(3) Transformation of this proinsulin into host E.coli invention is
(4) Screening of transformed E.coli by blue-white (1) Non-obvious
selection
(2) Documented
173. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to
(3) Well- known
a four year old girl with deficiency of
(4) Useful for human beings
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
178. The organisation which will make decisions
(2) Glyphosate
regarding the validity of GM research and safety of
(3) Adenosine dehydrogenase introducing GM organisms for public services is
(4) Adenosine deaminase (1) RCGM (2) CDRI
174. Choose the incorrect match (3) GEAC (4) Biosafety committee
(1) Rosie – Cloned cow
179. Early diagnosis is possible by using all of the
(2) Dolly – Cloned sheep following except
(3) Polly – Transgenic sheep (1) PCR (2) ELISA
(4) ANDi – Transgenic monkey (3) RDT (4) Serum analysis
175. Read the statements and choose the option that fill 180. Bt brinjal is a transgenic crop that
the respective blanks correctly
(1) Provided herbicide tolerance
Statement-A : A single stranded DNA or RNA
tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (i) . (2) Is nutrionally biofortified crop
(3) Provided drought resistance
Statement-B : Over 95% transgenic animals are
(ii) . (4) Is a biopesticidal plant

16/16
Test Booklet Code A
Test No. 3
AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN
RI
AL L
ES
2021
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021
TEST - 3 (Code-A)
Test Date : 08/11/2020
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (1) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (3) Delete 175. (1)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (1)
1/19
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 6. Answer (1)
1  2 Hint & Sol. : X = XL ~ XC
 0
Hint : irms = i dt 1
At resonance, X  L  0
C
1 4  2
Sol. : irms = 
 9 2 0 t dt 7. Answer (3)
Hint : I0  2 Irms

4 t3 V2 220  220
 3
 Sol. : R = =
9 3 0 P 100
2 = 484 
 A
3 3 Vrms 220
Irms    0.4545A
2. Answer (4) R 484
i0 I0  2Irms  0.64A
Hint : ieffective = irms =
2 8. Answer (1)
1.4A Hint : Pavg = Vrms Irms cos 
Sol. : i   1.0 A
2 1
Sol. : x =  L
3. Answer (1) C
Vp Np d 1
Hint :  and V    100  20  103
Vs Ns dt 2  50  100  106
d
= 25.5
Sol. : Vp   20V
dt Z  502  (25.5)2  56.12 
Ns 4000 2
Vs  .Vp   20  800V Vrms 144  50
Np 100 Pavg  2
.R   2.286 W
Z (3150.25)
4. Answer (4) Energy dissipated per second
Resonant frequency = Pavg × 1  2.3 J
Hint : Q =
Band width
9. Answer (3)
 rL 2
Sol. : Q   r  r  1 
  R  R Hint : Z  R 2   
   C 
L
10
1 1 Sol. : For 1st term i1 =
Also rL =  Q Z1
r C r RC
10
1 1 L For 2nd term i2 =
And r =  Q Z2
LC R C
2
5. Answer (2)  1 
where Z1  R 2   
Hint : Pavg = Vrms irms cos   100C 
100 100   1 
2
Sol. : Pavg =   cos   Z2  R 2  
2 2 6 
 500C 
 2500 3 W As Z1 > Z2  i1 < i2
2/19
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

1 1 1 1
Hint : Average energy density =  E2 Hint :  
2 0 0 v u f
Sol. : U = uavg × V 1 1 1
Sol. :  
1 v  40 40
 0 E02  A. l
2
1 1 1
1 1  
  8.85  10 12  50  50  1  v 40 40
2 4
1 1
= 2.77 nJ 
v 20
11. Answer (4)
Hint : Use concept of displacement current
  v = 20 cm
Sol. : For loop M,  B.dl  0Id Image will be behind the mirror at 20 cm i.e.
  between pole and focus.
And for loop N,  B.dl  0Ic
17. Answer (4)
As Id and Ic are non zero during charging of 2 1 2  1
capacitor. Hint :  
  v u R
Hence  B.dl will be non zero for both loop. Sol. : As for upper portion and lower portion on
12. Answer (3) right side of spherical surface have different
Hint and Sol. : As magnetic and electric field refractive index, hence they will have different
components of an EM wave are sinusoidal and focal length also. Hence there will be two images
hence they have zero average value. The one at I1 and other at I2.
magnetic and electric energy is square of sine or 18. Answer (3)
cosine function and hence they have non zero Hint and Sol. : For erect image by mirror, the
average value. magnification should be positive i.e. possible if
13. Answer (2) object or image, any one should be virtual.
1 19. Answer (4)
Hint : I =  E 2C
2 0 0 Hint : P = P1 + P2
3 1
2 Sol. :  P1  P2
2I 2 f
Sol. : E0  
0 C 0 3  108 1
f 
P1  P2
 104 
E0    N/C
   20. Answer (2)
 0 
1 1 1
14. Answer (2) Hint :  
v u f
Hint and Sol. : Since the frequencies of gamma
rays, X-rays and infrared rays are related as 1 1 1
Sol. :  
 > x > IR, hence IR > x >  v u f
15. Answer (1)
2 1 2  1
Hint :  
v u R
1 1.5 1  1.5
Sol. :  
v 6 10
1 1 1
1 1 1 1 5  
   20 10 f
v 20 4 20
f = –20 cm
v = –5 cm
3/19

 1 dreal
Hint : Apparent shift = t  1   Hint : dapparent =
   
 2 Sol. : Since distance between object O and image
Sol. : Apparent shift = 6  1   = 2 cm
 3 I is 30 cm
Microscope should shift 2 cm upwards.
22. Answer (4)
1  2  1 1 
Hint :   1  
f  1  R R 
 1 2 
Sol. : Here (2 < 1) i.e. focal length will be

negative now. Hence it will behave like diverging
lens.
23. Answer (4)
1 1 1
Hint :  
v u f
Sol. : If SP1 = SP2 = 2f
Then d = 4f
Then
6 cm + happ = 15 cm
happ = 9 cm
12 cm
= 9 cm

If SP1 = SP2 = f 12 4
 
Then P1P2 = 2f 9 3
d = 2f  = 1.33
26. Answer (3)
1 1 1 1
Hint :   
f f1 f2 f3
1 1 1 1
Sol. :    …(1)
15 f1 f2 f3
24. Answer (1) 7 1 1

  …(2)
1 60 f1 f2
Hint : sin c =
 From equation (1) and (2)
Sol. : For TIR, i > c 1 7 1
 
sin(90 – ) > sin c 15 60 f3
1
cos  > 47 1
 
60 f3
3
cos  > f3 = –20 cm
2
27. Answer (1)
cos  > cos 30°
 < 30° 1
Hint : sin c =
max = 30° 
4/19
1 30. Answer (1)

Sol. : sin c =
4/3 1 1 1
Hint :    ...
3 f f1 f2
sin c =
4 1 1 1
Sol. :     1   
f1  R
1 1 1
   
2 3 60
3
tan c =
7
r 3

2 7
6
r 
7
1  1 1 
22 36  1.8  1    
A  .r  2
 16.16 m 2 f2  30 30 
7 7
28. Answer (4) 1.6

30
1 v
Hint : sin c =  1  1 1
 c  (1.5  1)   
f3  30  
 6 
   12  1
Sol. : sin c =  30ns   
 0.6   18  60
 2ns  1 1 1 1 1 1.6 1
     
2 f f1 f2 f3 60 30 60
sin c =
3
1  3.2  1 1.2
 
2 1  60 60
c = sin  
3
f = 50 cm
1 1 1 Hint : For normal adjustment
Hint :  
f v u v D
Sol. : m   0   and L  v 0  fe
u0  fe 
1 1 1
Sol. :  
v 0 u0 f0
1 1 1
 
v 0 2.4 2
1 1 1 65
  
From the symmetry v 0 2 2.4 12
For 1st position of lens v0 = 12 cm
u = –45 cm, v = 90 cm
v0  D  12  25 
1 1 1 3 m     25
   u0  fe  2.4  5 
f 90  45 90
f = 30 cm L = v0 + fe = 12 + 5 = 17 cm
5/19

1 1 1 Hint : Most of light is diffracted in central maxima.
Hint :  
v u f Sol. : a sin  = + 
Sol. : As far point is at infinity 2 2  5  10 7
sin  = 
Hence power of the eye-lens will be minimum. a 2  10 4
1 1
i.e. fmax    2.5 cm sin     5 × 10–3 rad.
Pmin 40
38. Answer (2)
i.e. Distance of retina from eye-lens is 2.5 cm.
1.22
Now if eye is focused at near point the power will Hint :  =
d
be maximum i.e.
1.22
1 5 Sol. : Limit of resolution  =
P  60D  f   cm. d
60D 3
1 1 1 1.22  5.5  107
Now    =  2.684  10 7
v u f 2.5
1 1 1   2.7 × 10–7 rad

 
2.5 u  5  39. Answer (4)
 
3
nD
Hint : y bright 
1 2 3 d
 
u 5 5
 2n  1   D
u = –5 cm and y dark   
 2  d
i.e. near point is at 5 cm
7 D
33. Answer (1) Sol. : y 4,D 
2 d
fo
Hint : m = for normal adjustment 7D 7D
fe y 7,B  
d d
100 7D 7D
Sol. : m = = –50 Now 
2 d 2d
34. Answer (2)
 = 2.0
Hint and Sol. : Since prisms are identical so any
two can produce zero deviation and hence 40. Answer (3)
minimum deviation produced will be I0
Hint : I = cos2 
min = ( – ) + ( – ) +  =  2
35. Answer (4) I0
Sol. : It =  cos2 60  cos2 30
Hint and Sol. : Huygen’s principle of secondary 2
wavelets is used to explain wave nature of light, I01 3 3I
Snell’s law and also to find the new position of     0
wavefront. 2 4 4 32

Hint : Wavefront is perpendicular to direction of 
Hint : 2t cos  = (2n – 1)
propagation of light. 2
Sol. : As light is moving along z-axis, hence wave 
Sol. : 2t = (2n – 1) [cos  = 1]
front will be in xy plane. 2
The general equation of xy plane is 4t 4  1.5  0.5  106
 
z=c (2n  1) (2n  1)
6/19
3  106 600  109

 t  1200  109
(2n  1) 0.5
For n = 1,  = 3000 nm t = 1.2 m
n = 2,  = 1000 nm 44. Answer (1)
n = 3,  = 600 nm Hint : arc = R
n = 4,  = 429 nm
n = 5,  = 333 nm
So, within the visible range 400 nm – 700 nm light
Sol. :
of wavelength 429 nm and 600 nm will be strongly
reflected.
42. Answer (1) Distance between two dots
2
Imax (a1  a2 ) 2.54
Hint :  x= cm
Imin (a1  a2 )2 500
Sol. : a1  3a2 x 2.54

R= 
 500  5  104
Imax ( 3  1)2 a22 ( 3  1)2
  R = 10.16 cm
Imin ( 3  1)2 a22 ( 3  1)2
45. Answer (3)
 14  v
Hint : 
43. Answer (4)  c
Hint : ( – 1)t = n Sol. : From Doppler’s effect in light if galaxy will
Sol. : For minimum thickness n = 1 approach wavelength of light will decrease and
hence it is called blue shift
i.e. ( – 1)t = 
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : Species which involve d-d transition 8MnO 4  H2O  3S2O32  8MnO2  6SO24  2OH
generally show colour.
Sol. : Sc3+ : [Ar] 3d0, no d-d transition 51. Answer (4)
Mn3+ : Violet, Cr2+ : Blue, Fe2+ : green Hint : Magnetic moment = n(n  2) BM
47. Answer (3) (Where n : number of unpaired electrons)
Hint : Due to presence of stable half filled
d-subshell configuration Mn has weak metallic Sol. : Mn2+ : 3d5
bonding hence melting point is low.
48. Answer (3) Magnetic moment = 57  35 BM
Hint : On moving left to right in 3d series density 52. Answer (2)
of element generally increase. Hint : K2Cr2O7 oxidize H2S into S, in acidic
Sol. : Sc < Ti < V < Ni medium and converts itself into Cr3+
49. Answer (3) Sol. : K2Cr2O7 + H2S  Cr3+ + S
Hint : Tb : [Xe]4f 9 6s2
Equivalent(s) of K2 Cr2O7 = Equivalent(s) of H2S
50. Answer (4)
Mole of K2Cr2O7× 6 = 0.2 × 2
Hint : MnO4 can act as oxidizing agent and
0.2 2 1
converted into MnO2 in neutral or faintly alkaline Mole of K 2Cr2O7     0.067 mol
3 30 15
medium.
7/19

Hint : Ac, Cf and No only show +3 Oxidation state Hint : Cr3+ : [Ar]3d3, Co3+ : [Ar]3d6
Th shows only +4 and Np show Sol. : Both [Cr(H2O)6]3+ and [Cr(CN)6]3– contain
+3,+4,+5,+6 and +7 Oxidation states three unpaired electrons
54. Answer (1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ contains zero unpaired electron
Hint : Ce : [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2, Eu : [Xe] 4f 7 6s2 [CoF6]3– contains four unpaired electrons
Tm: [Xe] 4f13 6s2, Yb : [Xe] 4f 14 6s2, Sm : [Xe]4f 6 6s2 62. Answer (2)
Sol. : Tm2+ :[Xe]4f 13  1 unpaired electron Hint : Ni2+ : [Ar] 3d8 and magnetic moment =
Ce3+ : [Xe]4f 1  1 unpaired electron n(n  2) BM
55. Answer (3) Sol. : Ni2+ ion contains two unpaired electrons
Hint : Mischmetal contains around 95% lanthanoid Magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
metal and around 5% iron and traces of S, C, Ca 63. Answer (2)
and Al
Hint : Higher is the negative charge on metal,
56. Answer (1) more is the back donation, larger is the bond
Hint : Zn2+ = [Ar]3d10 4s0 and Br– is a weak field length and lesser will be the bond order of C – O
ligand. bond
Sol. : Bond order of C–O will be maximum in
[Co(CO)4]+
64. Answer (3)
Hint : [Ni(en)2Cl2] shows G. I. In which cis is
57. Answer (3) optically active while trans is optically inactive
Hint : bpy is a bidented neutral ligand and ox is a Sol. : [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] shows G. I.
bidented anionic ligand.
[Pd(NH3)3Cl]Br does not show G. I. or O. I.
Sol. : x + 2(0) + 0 + 1(–2) + (–2) = 0
[Co(NH3)2(H2O)2ClBr] I  shows both G. I. and O. I.
x = +4
65. Answer (3)
58. Answer (1)
Hint : Ionization isomers can be formed by
exchange of anions from one sphere to another.
Sol. :
Hint :
59. Answer (1)

Hint : en (ethylene diamine) is a neutral bidentate
ligand
60. Answer (4)
Hint : Order of field strength of ligand : Cl– < H2O
< NH3 < CN–
Sol. :
66. Answer (2)

Hint : Compounds which form most stable
carbocation will undergo fastest SN1 reaction.
Sol. : is most stable carbocation

8/19

Hint : Anions are hydrated in polar protic solvent Hint : Rearrangement of carbocation takes place
Sol. : Order of nucleophilicity : I– > Br– > Cl– > F– to generate more stable carbocation.
68. Answer (4) Sol. :
Hint : Compound which does not contain plane of
symmetry is optically active.
Sol. :

Hint : Hint : Resultant dipole moment is the vector sum
of all individual dipole and dipole moment of Ph –
CI is more than Ph – F
Sol. :

Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at NBS (N-Bromosuccinamide) is a brominating
p-position to halobenzene facilitates nucleophilic reagent used for allylic and benzylic substitution
substitution reaction. Sol. :
71. Answer (3)
Hint : Due to partial double bond character of
‘C – Cl’ bond in haloarenes, it shows slowest rate
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
72. Answer (4)
Hint : Compound having only one type of
hydrogen atoms will give only one product on
mono chlorination
Hint : Reaction follows benzyne mechanism. Hint : The reaction follows SN1 mechanism.
Sol. : Sol. : SN1 mechanism is accelerated in polar protic
solvent such as ethanol.
78. Answer (4)
Hint : Lone pair of oxygen is more delocalized in
Ph – O – Ph, so difficult to protonate
79. Answer (3)
Hint : –OH group attached with primary (or 1°)
Carbon will be 1° alcohol
80. Answer (1)
Hint : In HBO (Hydroboration oxidation) reaction
addition of water take place as per anti
Markovnikov’s rule.
9/19
Sol. : 86. Answer (3)
Hint : Anisole forms para isomer as major product

on electrophilic substitution reaction.
Sol. : (major)
81. Answer (3)
Hint : Phenol and its derivatives are generally
87. Answer (2)
more acidic than aliphatic alcohol
Sol. : CH3CH2OH (pka = 15.9), Phenol (pka = 10),
o – cresol (pka = 10.2)
Hint :
m-nitrophenol (pka = 8.3)
82. Answer (3)
Electrophile is CO2
Hint : In Tertiary alcohol turbidity is produced
immediately on reaction with Lucas reagent. 88. Answer (4)
Sol. : Hint : Electron donating groups activate ring

towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
Sol. : +M effect of –OCH3 and –OH groups will

make the benzene ring electron rich which
83. Answer (1)
facilitates electrophilic substitution reaction.
Hint : H2S2O7 (oleum) is a sulfonating reagent.
89. Answer (3)
Hint : First step is protonation of ether oxygen

Sol. : which leads to carbocation formation.
Sol. :
84. Answer (3)

Hint : In Denaturation of alcohol, it is made unfit
for drinking by mixing in it some CuSO4 (to give 90. Answer (2)
colour to it) and pyridine (a foul smelling liquid)
Hint : Alkylhalide on reaction with Mg in presence
85. Answer (3) of ether forms Grignard reagent.
Hint : Carbocation intermediate is formed in
dehydration of alcohol. Sol. :
Sol. :
10/19
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) hybridisation among selected parents. In this step,
a cross is made between two genetically diverse
Hint : Recovery of healthy plants from the
parents to obtain a progeny with desired superior
diseased plants is possible by meristem culture.
traits.
Sol. : Virus free clones of plants can be obtained
96. Answer (2)
through meristem culture because meristem
(apical and axillary) is free of viruses due to high Hint : By application of tissue culture it is possible
concentration of auxin and rapid rate of cell to achieve propagation of large number of plants
division. in very short duration.
92. Answer (3) Sol. : The method of producing thousands of

plants through tissue culture is called
Hint : Micro-organisms which can be explored for
micropropagation.
obtaining SCP are fungi, cyanobacteria as well as
bacteria. 97. Answer (4)
Sol. : SCP is not only obtained from unicellular Sol. : Wheat variety Atlas-66 with high protein
micro-organisms but also from multicellular content has been used as a donor for improving
organisms. cultivated wheat.
Hint : Somatic hybridisation is the fusion of Hint : Mutation breeding induces mutations in
protoplast of two plants belonging to different plants to develop improved varieties.
varieties, species and even genera. Sol. : High-yielding Mexican wheat were originally
Sol. : During somatic hybridisation, the cells are red-grained
first treated with pectinase and cellulase for Mexican wheat Improved variety
protoplast preparation then the naked protoplasts
1. Sonora-64 Sharbati Sonora
are fused by electrofusion or chemofusion
(through sodium nitrate or PEG). It results in 2. Lerma Rojo-64 Pusa Lerma
somatic hybrid. IAA and kinetin are 99. Answer (4)
phytohormones.
Hint : In conventional breeding, crop-varieties are
94. Answer (1) breed by hybridisation and selection for resistance
Hint : Micro-organism are explored for obtaining to several fungi, bacteria and viral agents.
SCP and, SCP is alternate source of proteins for Sol. : Pusa Swarnim (Karan Rai) is a variety of
animals and human nutrition. Brassica and is resistant to white rust.
Sol. : Blue green algae (Cyanobacteria) Spirulina 100. Answer (1)
are grown in large quantities and these serve as
Sol. : Pusa Sawani bred by hybridisation and
food rich in protein, minerals, fats, carbohydrate
selection for shoot and fruit borer is a variety of
and vitamins.
Okra (Bhindi). While, Pusa sem 2 and Pusa sem 3
95. Answer (1) bred by hybridisation and selection for Jassids,
Hint : Cross-hybridisation among selected parents aphids and fruit borer are varieties of flat bean.
is one of the main steps required in plant breeding 101. Answer (4)
programme.
Hint : Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI),
Sol. : Plant breeding programme is employed to New Delhi, has developed many vegetable crops
develop new varieties of crop which includes cross that are rich in mineral and vitamins.
11/19
Sol. : 107. Answer (4)

Vitamin-A enriched crops :- Carrot, Pumpkin, Hint : Fungal hyphae penetrate into cortex cells of
Spinach. root e.g., orchids, coffee, and woody plants. These
Vitamin-C enriched crops :- Bitter gourd, are called as endomycorrhizae.
Bathua, Tomato, Mustard. Sol. : VAM refers to endomycorrhizae. Rest of
Calcium and Iron enriched vegetable crop :- other options are correctly matched.
Spinach, Bathua. 108. Answer (4)
Protein enriched vegetable crop :- Beans
Hint : Cheese is one of the oldest food items in
(Broad, Lablab, French), and Garden peas.
which microbes e.g., bacteria and fungi were used.
102. Answer (1)
Sol. : Large holed Swiss cheese is ripened with
Hint : Breeding for disease resistance is carried the help of bacterium called Propionibacterium
out by the conventional breeding technique. sharmanii whereas, Roquefort and camembert
Sol. : The various sequential steps w.r.t. cheese are ripened by fungus Penicillium
conventional breeding are :- roquefortii and Penicillium camembertii
i. Screening germplasm for resistance sources. respectively.
ii. Hybridisation of selected parents. 109. Answer (1)
iii. Selection and evaluation of hybrids. Hint : Dosa and idli are the fermented preparations
of rice and black gram, prepared by using bacteria.
iv. Testing and release of new varieties.
Sol. : Microbes used in such preparations are –
103. Answer (2)
Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of
Sol. : Saccharum officinarum (noble sugarcane) bacteria.
had higher sugar content. Rest of other options are
correct. 110. Answer (2)
104. Answer (1) Hint : Bread is prepared from dough, which is

fermented using Baker’s yeast.
Hint : Development of several high yielding
varieties of wheat and rice in mid 1960’s increased Sol. : Puffed up appearance of dough is due to
the yield per unit area. production of CO2 during fermentation. CO2 gas
along with ethyl alcohol is formed during baking,
Sol. : From 1960 to 2000 wheat production
increased from 11 million tonnes to 75 million making bread porous and soft.
tonnes. This was due to the development of semi 111. Answer (3)
dwarf varieties of wheat.
Hint : Certain microbes have ability to convert
105. Answer (2) carbohydrate into organic acid.
Sol. : Gene norin-10, responsible for dwarfing in Sol. : Lactic acid, butyric acid and acetic acid are
wheat, was first reported in Japan.
produced by different bacteria. Whereas, citric
106. Answer (3) acid is commercially produced by Aspergillus niger
Hint : Molecules that are functional in living system (fungus)
or can interact with their component, are bioactive 112. Answer (2)
molecules.
Sol. : Toddy is traditional drink of some parts of
Sol. : Cyclosporin-A is used as an South India and is made by fermenting sap from
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant palm known as Caryota urens.
patients, is produced by the fungus, Trichoderma
polysporum. Wine, beer and rum are alcoholic beverages.
12/19
113. Answer (2) 119. Answer (2)

Hint : Microbes are used for commercial and Hint : Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the
industrial production of certain chemicals nutrient quality of soil.
(bioactive molecules). Sol. : Anabaena, Azotobacter and Azospirillum
Sol. : are employed as biofertiliser.
Bioactive molecule Source (Microbes) Bacillus thuringiensis is a microbial biocontrol

agent that can be introduced to control butterfly
1. Lipase Candida lipolytica
caterpillars.
2. Streptokinase Streptococcus
120. Answer (4)
3. Amylase Aspergillus
Hint : Biocontrol refers to the use of biological
4. Statins Monascus purpureus methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
114. Answer (2) Sol. : Fungus, Trichoderma is a biological control
Hint : Primary treatment is the initial step of agent developed for use in treatment of plant
sewage treatment. diseases Trichoderma species are free living fungi
that are very common in the root ecosystems and
Sol. : Primary treatment is a physical process are effective against several plant pathogens.
which involves removal of large and small particles
121. Answer (1)
from sewage through filtration and sedimentation.
Sol. : Natality refers to birth rate during a given
115. Answer (1)
period in the population.
Hint : Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by
Mortality refers to death rate during a given period
microbial activity that can be used as fuel.
in the population.
Sol. : Major component of biogas is methane (50-
Immigration is the number of individuals of the
70%) which is highly inflammable, rest are CO2
same species that have come into the habitat from
(30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc.
elsewhere.
116. Answer (3)
122. Answer (1)
Hint : Antibiotics are chemical substances, which
Hint : Amensalism is –, 0 relationship.
are produced by some microbes and kill or retard
the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes. Sol. : Amensalism is an interaction between two
organisms of different species in which one
Sol. : The first antibiotic penicillin was discovered
species inhibit the growth of other species by
by Alexander Fleming.
secreting certain chemicals.
117. Answer (4)
Competition, Mutualism and Parasitism are also
Sol. : The technology of biogas production was different types of population interactions and these
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of can be represented as (–, –), (+, +) and (+, –)
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and respectively
Khadi and Village Industries commission (KVIC) 123. Answer (4)
118. Answer (2) Hint : An age pyramid is a graphic representation
Sol. : Methanogens grow anaerobically on of proportion of various age group of population.
cellulosic material, produce large amount of Sol. : An age pyramid can be urn-shaped when a
methane along with CO2, H2S and H2. Leuconostoc population has small number of pre-reproductive
and Streptococcus species of bacteria are used in individuals followed by a large number of
fermented preparation of rice and black gram. reproductive individual.
13/19
124. Answer (1) Sol. : The age pyramid appears like a triangle in
which the population has a very high proportion of
Hint : Birth rate can be calculated by following
pre-reproductive individuals, the population size
formula:
will expand with time. Such population shows a
N positive growth.
Birth rate =
N t
Sol. : In the given question,

N = 50, N = 10, t = 1 year
10 10
 Birth rate    0.2 offspring per fish 129. Answer (1)
50  1 50
per year. Hint : The salt concentration (measured as salinity
in parts per thousand) for water bodies.
125. Answer (2)
Sol. :
Hint : Altitude sickness is the physiological
attribute of an organism that enables the organism
Water Salinity (Parts per thousand)
to survive in its habitat.
bodies
Sol. : During altitude sickness, body increases
RBCs production. Inland water <5
126. Answer (3) Sea 30-35

Hint : Based upon thermal tolerance, organisms
Hypersaline > 100
are classified into stenothermal and eurythermal.
lagoons
Sol. : Stenothermal organisms cannot tolerate
large temperature variation e.g., polar bears, 130. Answer (1)
lizards, Abies.
Hint : A-Conformers, B-Regulators, C-Partial
Eurythermal organisms can tolerate large changes regulators.
in temperature e.g., most of the mammals and
Sol. : Regulators are organisms like all birds and
birds.
mammals and a very few lower vertebrate and
127. Answer (1) invertebrate species, and able to maintain
Hint : Conformers cannot maintain a constant homeostasis by physiological as well as
internal environment. Their body temperature behavioural means.
changes with the ambient temperature 131. Answer (1)
Sol. : Graphical representation of organismic Sol. : Kangaroo rat, in North American desert is
response w.r.t. conformers is capable of meeting all of its water requirements
through its internal fat oxidation where water is
released as by-product.
132. Answer (2)
Hint : Logistic growth model is considered as the
most realistic one.
128. Answer (1) Sol. : Logistic growth model is represented by

sigmoid curve and is mathematically described by
Hint : The shape of the pyramids reflect the growth
dN  K N 
status of the population. the equation  rN  
dt  K 
14/19
133. Answer (1) infectious disease. Diseases caused due to

helminthic infections are called infestational
Hint : Population interaction is an interaction
diseases and due to deficiency of vitamins and
between two different species where interaction
minerals are called deficiency diseases.
can be ‘+’  beneficial, ‘–‘  detrimental and ‘0’
 neutral. 139. Answer (3) Delete
Sol. : Competition can be represented by (–, –). Hint : Mind influences on our health and immune
Hence, it is a type of interaction in which both of system.
the species are negatively affected. Sol. : Mind influences through neural and
134. Answer (3) endocrine system on our immune system and thus
mental status influences our health.
Hint : Lichens show mutualism.
140. Answer (3)
Sol. : Lichens is a mutualistic relationship between
a fungus and photosynthesizing green algae or Hint : Cyanosis is present in pneumonia due to
cyanobacteria. Algae (Phycobiont) produces food accumulation of CO2 in blood.
through photosynthesis and fungi (mycobiont) Sol. : In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips and
absorbs nutrient from soil. finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
135. Answer (1) 141. Answer (4)
Hint : Some organisms avoid the stress by over- Hint : Aedes mosquito is a vector.
wintering.
Sol. : Both chikungunya and dengue are viral
Sol. : Bear escapes in time during winter by a diseases transmitted by female Aedes agypti
process called hibernation (over-wintering) mosquito. Elephantiasis is caused by a
whereas, snails, and fishes escape in time by roundworm and malaria is caused by a protozoan.
another mechanism called aestivation (over Yellow fever is also a viral disease transmitted by
summer). Aedes mosquito.
136. Answer (4) 142. Answer (2)
Hint : BCG vaccine is used for this disease. Hint : Occurrence of disease is called
Sol. : Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused pathogenesis
by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Measles, chicken Sol. : Allergy causing agents are termed as
pox and rabies are viral diseases. allergens. Any foreign substance which can
137. Answer (1) activate immune response of the body is called
antigen. Interferons are antiviral proteins which
Hint : Discoverer of blood circulation. prevent multiplication of viruses.
Sol. : William Harvey discovered blood circulation 143. Answer (1)
and demonstrated normal body temperature in
person with black bile using thermometer Hint : Disease characterised by loss of memory
disproved the ‘Good humor’ hypothesis of health. Sol. : Parkinson’s disease is caused due to
Karl Landsteiner discovered blood groups and degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in basal
Louis Pasteur disproved theory of abiogenesis. ganglia and is characterised by muscular tremors.
Mary Mallon is related with typhoid. Huntington chorea is due to degeneration of
GABA secreting neurons in corpus striatum and
138. Answer (2)
cholinergic neurons of other parts. Myasthenia
Hint : AIDS is an example to it. gravis is autoimmune disease caused due to
Sol. : Diseases which are not easily transmitted damaging of acetylcholine receptors at
from one person to another are called non- neuromuscular junction.
15/19
144. Answer (1) Sol. : Smallpox is a viral disease caused by

Hint : Disease caused by Salmonella Variola virus leaving a permanent scar marks on
skin. This disease is completely eradicated now.
Sol. : Typhoid – Widal test
HIV, hepatitis–B and genital herpes are not
Malaria – Blood smear test curable if diagnosed at early stages and treated
Diphtheria – Schick test properly
Dengue – Tourniquet test 149. Answer (3)
145. Answer (2) Hint: Common cold is a viral disease.
Hint : It is an autoimmune disease Sol.: Streptococcus pneumoniae and

Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for
Sol. : Autoimmunity is an abnormal response in
disease pneumonia in human which infect alveoli
which the immune system of the body starts
of lungs. Microsporum, Trichophyton and
rejecting its own body cells and molecules.
Epidermophyton are responsible for ringworms.
Sometimes body lose its ability to differentiate
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and
between pathogen and foreign molecules from
W. malayi. Amoebic dysentery is caused by
self cells and attack self cells. This results in
Entamoeba histolytica.
damage to the body. Autoimmune response is
against autoantigens. Antibodies are produced 150. Answer (2)
and interact with autoantigens in the body in case
Hint : Interferons protect non-infected cells.
of autoimmunity.
Sol. : Mucus coating present at inner lining of
146. Answer (3)
digestive, respiratory and urinogenital tracts are
Hint : Infective stage of parasite are stored in included in category of physical barriers. NK cells
mosquito. act as cellular barriers like PMNL and monocytes.
Sol. : Sporozoites are produced in gut wall of Immunity present from birth is called innate
female Anopheles during sporulation and reach immunity.
into salivary glands through haemolymph for their 151. Answer (2)
storage. When mosquito bites they reach in
Hint : Colostrum contains IgA antibodies.
human blood along with its saliva.
147. Answer (2) Sol. : Antibodies attack self cells it is
autoimmunity. Immunity which develops in the
Hint : Haemolymph does not contain R.B.Cs.
body against a particular antigen is called active
Sol. : Human RBCs rupture to release malarial immunity. Immunity, present at the time of birth is
toxin hemozoin responsible for paroxysm of called innate immunity.
malaria. P. falciparum cause malignant tertian
152. Answer (1)
malaria also called cerebral malaria. Sporozoites
reproduce asexually in human body to produce Hint : Cells which are formed to recognize
gametocytes within RBCs. Male and female antigen/pathogen
gametocytes are considered as sexual stages Sol. : Memory cells for sensitized B-lymphocytes
which enter in body of mosquito through bite and and T-lymphocytes are formed during primary
undergo gametogenesis.
immune response. IgM antibodies are produced
148. Answer (1) during primary immune response whereas Ig G
Hint : Cutaneous disease causing permanent scar type of antibodies are produced during secondary
marks. immune response.
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153. Answer (4) lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid

Hint : FC fragment of antibody is situated towards organs like spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, appendix
C-terminal. and peyer’s patches of small intestine
Sol. : Antigen binding site is formed by both light 159. Answer (2)
and heavy chains and present towards Hint: Connecting link between endocrine and
N-terminal. immune system
154. Answer (3) Sol.: Thymus is a bilobed endocrine gland as well
Hint : Smallest antibody as lymphoid organ of the body situated dorsal to
breast bone/sternum. Lymph nodes trap any
Sol. : IgG are smallest antibodies present in our
foreign harmful substances e.g Antigens.
body in maximum amount and are responsible for
secondary immune response of the body. Ig M is 160. Answer (2)
largest antibody. Being smallest in size, Ig G Hint : Immunosuppressive drugs are used to
antibodies easily cross placenta to reach foetus prevent graft rejection.
during pregnancy.
Sol. : Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressive drug
155. Answer (2) which is used to prevent graft rejection. Grafted
Hint : Absorption of water is facilitated with tissues contain antigens which activates immune
absorption of Na+. system of the body, specially T-lymphocytes
which are responsible for damaging of grafted
Sol. : Cholera disease is characterised by loss of
tissue
water and minerals due to frequent diarrhoea. Na+
absorption increases osmotic pressure and 161. Answer (3)
creates osmotic gradient for absorption of water Hint : These cells are also known as platelets
as well as glucose and amino acids to maintain
blood volume and blood pressure. Sol. : Platelets synthesize certain factor for blood
clotting but they are not involved in immune
156. Answer (1)
system of the body.
Hint : Autoantigens are RBCs.
162. Answer (1)
Sol. : Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune
Hint : It is prepared by recombinant DNA
disease. Genital warts is an STI. Swine flu and
technology
rabies are viral diseases.
Sol. : Hepatitis B vaccine is a second generation
157. Answer (4)
vaccine prepared by recombinant DNA
Hint : Histamine is a potent vasodilator. technology using yeast. It induces active immunity
Sol. : The exaggerated response of immune and is given to persons above age of 14 years.
system to certain antigens present in atmosphere 163. Answer (2)
is called allergy. Eosinophils and IgE antibodies
Hint : Tissue present in defence organs of the
are increased during allergy. Histamine is not
body.
used as a drug to prevent allergy.
Sol. : MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
158. Answer (3)
is associated with mucosa of digestive, respiratory
Hint : The primary lymphoid organs. and excretory tracts and constitute about 50% of
Sol. : The organs where immature lymphocytes total lymphoid tissue. Blood is fluid connective
differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes tissue. MALT is not associated with neural tissue.
are known as primary lymphoid organs eg. Connective tissue is specialized to form lymphoid
Thymus and bone marrow. After maturation the tissue.
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164. Answer (2) 170. Answer (1)

Hint : Malaria is a disease caused by protozoans Hint : Under fur of Kashmiri goats.
Sol. : Cholera, tetanus, leprosy and diphtheria are Sol. : Pashmina wool is obtained from under fur of
bacterial disease whereas smallpox and measles Kashmiri goat. Shahtoosh wool is obtained from
are viral diseases. Tibetan antelope and Angoora wool is obtained
165. Answer (3) from rabbit.
Hint : Telomerase activity is high in cancer 171. Answer (4)

patients Hint : HIV has two RNA molecules each having
Sol. : Normal cells regulate their multiplication one enzyme reverse transcriptase.
through property of contact inhibition which is lost Sol. :
in cancer patients. Spread of cancer cells from
one place to another place of the body is called
metastasis. Alternation of generation in members
of phylum coelenterata is metagenesis.
166. Answer (1)
Hint : Shell is related with molluscs.
Sol. : Shellfish is a mollusc and used in fishery
industry for catching and selling. Common carp is
freshwater and Hilsa and pomfrets are marine
edible fishes.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Breeding in between two different species
Sol. : Breeding between two different related
species is called hybridization eg. mule, formed by
mating male ass with female horse. Mating
between closely related individual within same
breed is called inbreeding and within same breed
but having no common ancestors is called out
crossing. Mating between superior male of one 172. Answer (3)
breed with superior female of other breed is called
Hint : X-rays are ionizing radiation.
cross breeding
Sol. : Ionizing radiations such as x-rays and
168. Answer (2)
gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations such as
Hint : Apiary is where beehives kept. UV light are responsible for oncogenic
Sol. : Rearing of domesticated birds for meat and transformation. Visible spectrum of light has no
their eggs is called poultry. Rearing of silk moth for carcinogenic effect.
silk is sericulture and production of fishes is called 173. Answer (1)
pisciculture.
Hint : FNAC is an invasive technique
169. Answer (4)
Sol. : MRI is safest technique for detection of
Hint : This disease is also known as New Castle’s cancer as it uses strong magnetic field and non-
disease. invasive. X-rays are responsible for oncogenic
Sol. : New castle’s disease of poultry is a viral transformation and may be harmful.
disease. Pasteurellosis, salmonellosis and Histopathological studies and FNAC are invasive
spirochetosis are bacterial diseases in poultry. techniques.
18/19
174. Answer (3) 177. Answer (2)
Hint : Cannabis sativa is not a fungus. Hint : Period which starts after puberty.
Sol. : Amanita muscaria is a poisonous fungus Sol. : Adolescence period is bridge linking
having hallucinogens. Morchella is edible sac between childhood and adulthood and comes
between 12-18 years of age.
fungi. Datura, Atropa are hallucinogenic
angiosperms. 178. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1) Hint : Morphine is sedative and painkiller.

Sol. : Heroin is a depressant and slow down body
Hint : It is also known as heroin.
function. Datura, Atropa and cannabinoids have
Sol. : Morphine and its derivatives such as hallucinogenic property.
codeine and heroin has receptors in our CNS and 179. Answer (2)
GIT. Cannabinoids has receptors mainly in the
Hint : Receptors of this drug are mainly present in
brain. Cocaine interferes with the transport of
brain.
dopamine.
Sol. : This structure represents cannabinoid
176. Answer (1) molecule. Receptor for cannabinoids are mainly
Hint : Catecholamines are pressure agents present in brain.
180. Answer (1)
Sol. : Adrenal medulla synthesizes adrenaline and
non-adrenaline to increase both heart rate and Hint : Female Mammals are characterised by this
blood pressure. Nicotine activates adrenal feature.
medulla. Pituitary gland and parathyroid glands do Sol. : Breast enlargement is an ill effect of use of
not show direct effect on blood pressure. anabolic steroids by males and not by females.

19/19

Aakash Test Series - Physics Questions

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06-12-2020 A

Entrance Exam - 2021

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers,

Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues, Biotechnology:

MM : 720 TEST - 4 Time : 3 Hrs.

(3) Same energy and same linear momentum 1

(1) 1.6 eV (1) 8 (2) 4

(2) From 1.6 eV to 6.8 eV 1

(3) (4) (1) 11.7 V, 2.26 A (2) 11.3 V, 2.26 A

(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone

47. Most acidic compound among the following is

Products B and C are

Keto-enol tautomerism is shown by P

Major product P is (3) (4)

80. The compound which is most easily decarboxylated

76. Which compound on acidic hydrolysis produces (3) (4)

87. In Etard reaction the starting material and reagent

(2) (3) (4) PhCH2CHO

(1) 20 million (2) 7 million

113. Identify the following statements as true (T) or false

120. Which among the following is secondary air (1) S and N

Column-I Column-II (3) pUC8 (4) Retrovirus

171. To form mature insulin, removal of which of the (i) (ii)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

10. Answer (2) 16. Answer (4)

21. Answer (2) 25. Answer (2)

Sol. : Here (2 < 1) i.e. focal length will be

24. Answer (1) 7 1 1

1 30. Answer (1)

32. Answer (1) 37. Answer (1)

1 1 1   2.7 × 10–7 rad

36. Answer (3) 41. Answer (2)

3  106 600  109

Sol. : a1  3a2 x 2.54

53. Answer (4) 61. Answer (3)

59. Answer (1)

66. Answer (2)

Sol. : is most stable carbocation

67. Answer (1) 74. Answer (4)

69. Answer (3) 75. Answer (1)

70. Answer (3) 76. Answer (2)

Sol. : 86. Answer (3)

Hint : Anisole forms para isomer as major product

Sol. : Hint : Electron donating groups activate ring

Sol. : +M effect of –OCH3 and –OH groups will

Hint : First step is protonation of ether oxygen

84. Answer (3)

92. Answer (3) Sol. : The method of producing thousands of

93. Answer (2) 98. Answer (2)

Sol. : 107. Answer (4)

ii. Hybridisation of selected parents. 109. Answer (1)

104. Answer (1) Hint : Bread is prepared from dough, which is

113. Answer (2) 119. Answer (2)

Bioactive molecule Source (Microbes) Bacillus thuringiensis is a microbial biocontrol

Sol. : In the given question,

126. Answer (3) Sea 30-35

128. Answer (1) Sol. : Logistic growth model is represented by

133. Answer (1) infectious disease. Diseases caused due to