[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A (1) AND
1. In a travelling wave (2) NOT
 2 (3) NAND
y = 0.1sin  x − 330t +  (SI units) (4) NOR
 3
The phase difference between x1 = 3m and
6. Three charged particles are arranged on the vertices
x2 = 3.5 m is of an isosceles triangle as shown in the figure.

(1)
2
(2) 
3
(3)
2
(4) 2
Net electric dipole moment of the system, will be
2. The orbital frequency of an electron in the (1) 2 2qr
hydrogen atom is proportional to (2) 3qr
(1) n3 5qr
(3)
(2) n–3
(4) Zero
(3) n
(4) n0
7. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a
thermodynamic process as shown in the figure. Its
3. If a nuclei ZX206 emits 6α-particles, then the temperature expressed as a function of volume V is
resulting nuclei have mass number
(1) 180
(2) 182
(3) 184
(4) 181

4. The side of a cube is (30 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage

P0V   V  
2
error in the volume of the cube will be
(1) 1 −   
(1) 1% R   V0  
 
(2) 3%
(3) 1.5% P0V  V
(2) 1 − 
(4) 2% R  V0 
P0V0
5. Identify the gate represented by the block diagram (3)
R
is P0V
(4)
RV0

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[2]
8. An ac voltmeter connected between points A and 11. The temperature, at which the Fahrenheit scale
B in circuit shown in the figure reads 36 V. If it is reading is equal to twice the Celsius scale is
connected between A and C, reading is 39 V. The (1) 180°C
reading when connected between B and D is 25 V. (2) 160°C
What will be voltmeter reading when connected
(3) 92°C
between A and D?
(4) 140°C

12. A block of mass 2 kg is moving with 10 m/s. It is

connected to a string wound over a pulley (disc) of
mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m as shown in the figure.
Angular speed of pulley is (consider no slipping)
(1) 31 V
(2) 62 V
(3) 481 V
(4) 381 V
(1) 10 rad/s
9. The state of an ideal gas was changed isobarically.
The graph depicts three such isobaric lines. Which (2) 100 rad/s
of the following is true about the pressure of the (3) 0.1 rad/s
gas? (4) 0.01 rad/s

13. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having

 
voltage gain of 100 is Vi = 3cos 15t +  . The
 3
corresponding output single will be
 
(1) 300 cos 15t + 
 3
 4 
(2) 300 cos 15t + 
(1) P1 = P2 = P3  3 
 
(2) P1  P2  P3 (3) 50 cos 15t + 
 3
(3) P1  P2  P3
 4 
(4) P1 = P2 P3 (4) 50 cos 15t + 
 3 

10. The correct definition of Meissner effect is 14. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas
(1) The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism in is found to be proportional to the square of its
superconductors temperature. The ratio of CP/CV for the gas is
(2) The phenomenon of perfect paramagnetism in (1) 4/3
superconductors (2) 5/4
(3) The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism in (3) 2/1
semiconductors (4) 3/2
(4) The phenomenon of ferromagnetism in matter

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[3]
15. Two incoherent sources of light emitting light of 19. As the temperature of water increases, its viscosity
intensity I0 and 2I0 interfere in a medium. The (1) Decreases
resultant intensity at any point will be (2) Increases
(1) I0 (3) Remains unchanged
(2) 3 I0 (4) First increases then decrease
(3) 5 I0
20. Which of the following is not a unit of charge?
(4) 2I0
(1) Statcoulomb
(2) Faraday
16. As per Wein's displacement law, the wavelength
(3) Farad
corresponding to maximum intensity is (4) Both (2) and (3)
proportional to absolute temperature as
(1) T1 21. The quantity having negative dimensions in mass
(2) T–1 is
(3) T0 (1) Gravitational potential
(4) T4 (2) Universal gravitational constant
(3) Acceleration due to gravity
17. At resonance in a series LCR circuit, which of the (4) Gravitational potential energy
following statement is not true?
(1) Current in the circuit is minimum and phase 22. String is wound over a pulley (disc) as shown.
 Mass of pulley is 10 kg and its radius is 0.2 m. The
difference between V and I is .
2 force F to rotate pulley with angular acceleration of
(2) During resonance, phase difference between 2rev/s2 is
V and I is zero and current I is maximum.
(3) Inductive reactance is equal to capacitive
reactance, X L = X C
(4) Current in the circuit is given by I = V/R at
resonance.
(1) 2N
18. The length of a metal wire is l1, when tension in it (2) 12.56 N
is T1 and is l2 when tension is T2. The natural length (3) 20 N
of the wire is (4) 125.6 N
l +l
(1) 1 2
2 23. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of
(2) l1l2 (aiˆ + bjˆ)ms−1 . If the range of the projectile is twice
l1T2 − l2T1 the maximum height reached by it, then
(3) (1) a = 2b
T2 − T1
(2) b = a
l1T2 + l2T1
(4) (3) b = 2a
T2 + T1
(4) b = 4a

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24. The magnetic field at point O due to current
carrying loop placed in the x – y plane as shown in
the figure is

r
(1) h =

r
(2) h =
0' 1 − 2
(1) k̂
R
0l ˆ (3) h = r 1 − 2
(2) k
6R  1 
0 I ˆ (4) h = r 1 − 
(3) (−k )  1 + 2 
6R
(4) Zero
27. Wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of 5 volt is nearly
25. Three rings of mass M and radius R each are placed
such that x, y and z-axes form the common tangent (1) 5.49 μm
to each pair as shown. Moment of inertia of the (2) 5.49 Å
system about x-axis is (3) 54.9 Å
(4) 549 Å

28. Amplitude of a wave represented by the

1
displacement equation y= sin ( t − kx )
a
1
 cos ( t − kx ) will be
b

(1) 3 MR2 a+b

(1)
(2) 4 MR2 ab
(3) 5 MR2 a− b
(4) 6 MR2 (2)
ab
a+ b
26. If the coefficient of friction between an insect and (3)
ab
hemispherical bowl is µ and the radius of bowl is
r , find the maximum height (h) to which the insect a+b
(4)
can crawl up in the bowl. ab

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[5]
29. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two (1) Velocity
particles of masses m1 and m2. having non-zero (2) Momentum
velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths (3) Acceleration
of the particles, λ1/λ2 is (4) Impulse
(1) m1/m2
(2) m2/m1 33. A uniform sphere is rolling on a rough horizontal
(3) 1 surface. The force of friction
(4) m2 / m1 (1) Is directed along the motion of body
(2) Is directed opposite to the motion of body
(3) Is zero
30. Behind the dam of width w, water stands up to
(4) Can be either of (1), (2) or (3) depending on
height H meter. The density of water is
external force
1000 kg/m3. If acceleration due to gravity is g, the
average force pushing the dam is
34. A loop is taken away from a current carrying wire
(1) 1000 gw/H2
as shown. Current induced in loop will be
(2) 500 gwH2
(3) 250 gw/H2
gwH 2
(4)
2

31. Three uncharged capacitors are connected as (1) Clockwise

shown. How much charge is supplied by the battery (2) Anticlockwise
when switch is closed in the circuit? (3) Zero
(4) Alternating in nature

35. A prism disperse sun light into

(1) Seven components
(2) Ten components
(1) CV/3 (3) Infinite components
(2) 2CV (4) Three components
(3) 3CV
(4) Zero SECTION - B
36. 2 gram of ice at 0°C is mixed with 2 gram of steam
32. The velocity of a particle at time t is given by at 100°C. The final temperature of mixture will be
b (1) 0°C
v = at + , where a, b, and c are dimensional
t +c (2) 100°C
b (3) 50°C
constants. The dimension of 2 is same as
c (4) 80°C
dimension of

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[6]
37. Two infinitely large nonconducting sheets having 40. When sink temperature is kept at 300 K, the
surface charge density  on each are placed parallel efficiency of Carnot engine is 25%. While keeping
to each other as shown in the figure source temperature constant, how much sink
temperature be reduced to increase its efficiency to
40%?
(1) 60 K
(2) 50 K
(3) 40 K
(4) 80 K

41. On a photosensitive material, when frequency of

incident radiation is increased by 40%, the
Which of the following is correct regarding the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
value of electric field intensity at points P, Q and increases from 0.5eV to 1.2eV. The work function
R? of the surface is
(1) 1.25 eV
(1) Ep = ER
(2) 2.4 eV
(2) E p  EQ (3) 1.2 eV
(4) 0.5 eV

(3) Ep = and EQ = zero
0
(4) All of these 42. Considering the formation of secondary rainbow
through a spherical raindrop for a light ray having
38. Which of the following is incorrect about the work
incidence and refraction angle of i and r
done by a conservative force?
respectively, the total deviation suffered by the ray
(1) Work done by conservative force doesn't
is
depend on the path followed by the system
(1) 2i – 2r
(2) Work done by conservative force in a closed
(2) 2π – 4r
loop will not be zero
(3) 2π + 2i – 6r
(3) Work done by conservative force is not equal
(4) π + 2i – 6r
to loss in potential energy of the system
(4) Both (2) and (3)
43. An object is placed in front of a convex lens as
shown. If the shaded portion of lens is removed,
39. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer
have 100 and 3000 turns respectively. If magnetic then
flux ϕ linked to one turn of primary is given by
relation ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t(Wb), t in seconds. and no flux
leakage. The output voltage across the secondary
coil is (1) Image will shift but its intensity remains same
(1) 120 V (2) Image doesn't shift but its intensity changes
(2) 2150 V (3) Image will shift and its intensity also changes
(3) 1600 V (4) Image doesn't shift and its intensity also
(4) 12,000 V remains same

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44. For the alphabet V made from a thin uniform wire 47. Assertion: The temperature coefficient of
as shown, the centre of mass will be at resistance is positive for metals and negative p-type
semiconductors.
Reason: The effective charge carriers in metals are
negatively charged whereas in p-type
semiconductors they are positively charged.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) (0,0) Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(2) (0,3)
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) (3,0)
Assertion.
(4) (2,3) (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
45. Four particles of equal masses 𝑀 move along a
circle of radius 𝑅 under the action of their mutua 48. Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle molecule varies inversely as the square root of
is temperature.
1/2 Reason: The root mean square velocity of the
 GM
(1) 
 4R
( 
2 2 −1 

) molecule depends on the temperature.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
1/2
 GM
(2) 
 4R
( 
2 2 +1 

) Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
1/2 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
 GM
(3) 
 R
( 
2 2 +1 

) Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
1/2
 GM
( 
)
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4)  2 2 −1  (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
 R 

49. Assertion: In electric circuits, wires carrying

46. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor
increases with temperature.
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate
with larger amplitude at higher temperatures
thereby increasing its resistivity.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
currents in opposite directions are often twisted
together.
Reason: If the wires are not twisted together, the
combination of the wires forms a current loop. The
magnetic field generated by the loop might affect
adjacent circuits or components.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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50. Assertion: The magnetic field produced by a (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
current carrying solenoid is independent of its Reason is not the correct explanation of the
length and cross-sectional area. Assertion.
Reason: The magnetic field inside the solenoid is (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
uniform. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A (2) Proteins
51. The amount of Al deposited on passage of 2F (3) Gold sol
charge through molten Al2O3 is: (4) Nylon
[Atomic mass of Al = 27 u]
(1) 9 g 56. For the following conversion, which of the
(2) 15 g following reagent is found to be the most suitable?
(3) 18 g But-2-yne → trans-But-2-ene
(4) 37 g (1) Lindlar’s catalyst
(2) Na in liquid ammonia
52. Aqueous solution of which of the following
(3) NaBH4/CH3OH
compounds is the best conductor of electric
(4) Ni/H2
current?
(1) 0.1 M urea HgSO /H SO
(2) 0.1 M glucose 57. Ph − C  CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 2
H O
4 → (P)
2
(3) 0.1 M sodium chloride Major product (P) is:
(4) 0.1 M Barium hydroxide (1) Ph – CH2 –CH2 – OH
53. For a reaction; A + 2B → Product, the rate law is (2) Ph – CH2 – CHO
given as r = k[A] [B]2. If A is taken in excess, then (3) Ph – CO – CH3
what will be the overall order of the reaction? (4) Ph – CH2 – O – CH3
(1) 2
(2) 3 58. Which of the following compound is most reactive
(3) 1 towards electrophilic substitution?
(4) 0

54. Select the incorrect statement about a catalyst:

(1) It increases the rate of reaction (1) (2)
(2) It does not affect the energy of activation
(3) It does not alter G of a reaction
(4) It does not change the equilibrium constant of
a reaction
(3) (4)
55. An example of multimolecular colloid is:
(1) Starch

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59. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? (1) 2
(1) N2 (2) 14
(2) N2O
(3) 6
(3) CO2
(4) CH4 (4) 10

60. Which among the following is a tranquilizer? 65. Pick up the pair of elements showing diagonal
(1) Ranitidine relationship with each other:
(2) Seldane (1) Na and K
(3) Luminal
(4) Aspirin (2) Mg and Al
(3) Li and Mg
61. Mole fraction of the solute in 0.5 molal aqueous (4) Be and Si
solution is:
1 66. A crystal AxBy crystallizes such that A atoms
(1) occupy all the fcc lattice points and B atoms
112
occupy half of the tetrahedral voids, then the
1 formula of the compound will be:
(2)
56 (1) AB2
1 (2) AB
(3) (3) A3B4
25
(4) A2B
1
(4)
150 67. The compound which will react fastest with
AgNO3 solution is:
62. Correct statement(s) with respect to [Ni(CN)4]2–
ion is/are:
(1) The central Ni2+ ion is sp3 hybridised (1)
(2) It is a planar complex
(3) It is paramagnetic in nature
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(2)
63. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in p-
subshell is:
(1) Zero
(2) 2 (3)

(3) 6

(4) 12
(4)
64. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell
with n = 2 and l = 1 is:

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68. A mixture showing negative deviation from (2) XeF4
Raoult’s law is: (3) PCl5
(1) Hexane + Heptane
(2) Benzene + Toluene (4) ClF3
(3) Water + Ethanol
(4) Nitric acid + Water 74. Non-reducing sugar out of the given molecules
is/are:
69. Van’t Hoff factor for the aqueous solution of (1) Maltose
AlCl3 is 2.8. The percentage dissociation of AlCl3 (2) Lactose
is:
(3) Sucrose
(1) 60%
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) 75%
(3) 80%
(4) 90% 75. The density of NH3 gas at 227oC and 10 atm
pressure is:
70. The electrode potentials for Fe3+(aq) + 3e– → Fe(s) [Given; R = 0.08 L atm K–1 mol–1]
and Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s) are x and y volts (1) 2.25 g/L
respectively. The value of E o 3+ 2+ (in volts) (2) 4.25 g/L
Fe /Fe
will be: (3) 0.90 g/L
(1) x – y (4) 1.75 g/L
(2) 3x – 2y
(3) 3x + 2y 76. Consider the following redox reaction:
(4) 3x + y +
Cu 2 S(s) + MnO 4− (aq) ⎯⎯→
H

71. The correct order of increasing ionic radii of the

following isoelectronic species is:
Cu 2+ (aq) + SO 24− (aq) + Mn 2+ (aq)
2– – 3– +
(1) S < Cl < P < K
(2) Cl– < S2– < P3– < K+ The number of moles of MnO−4 ion that will be
(3) K+ < Cl– < S2– < P3– needed to oxidise one mole of Cu2S completely is:

(4) K+ < S2– < Cl– < P3– (1) 2

(2) 5
72. The molecule having bond angle of 180o is: 2
(3)
(1) CO2 5
(2) NO2 5
(4)
(3) SO2 2
(4) O3
77. Volume strength of 0.5 M H2O2 solution is:
(1) 5.6 V
73. Which of the following species has permanent
dipole moment? (2) 2.8 V
(3) 1.7 V
(1) BF3
(4) 1.0 V
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78. Ionic mobility of which of the following metal 1 3
ions is highest when aqueous solution of their salts NH3 N2 + H2
2 2
is brought under an electric field?
(1) K2
(1) Na+
(2) K+ K
(2)
(3) Rb+ 2
(4) Cs+ 1
(3)
1
79. In which type of silicates all the four oxygen K2
atoms per [SiO4]4– unit are shared? 1
(1) Orthosilicate (4)
2K
(2) Pyrosilicate
(3) Three-dimensional silicate
(4) Sheet silicate 84. What is the pH of the resulting solution when 100
ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH is mixed with 50 ml of 0.1
80. The number of B – O – B bonds present in a M NaOH solution?
molecule of borax is: [pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74]
(1) 6 (1) 4.44
(2) 5 (2) 4.74
(3) 4
(3) 5.04
(4) 7
(4) 9.37
81. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C
and D with NaOH are –10.5, –13.7, –5.9 and –12.7 85. Oxidation states of N in HCN, HN3 and NO
kcal eq–1 respectively. Out of A, B, C and D the respectively are:
strongest acid is: (1) +1, +3 and –2
(1) C (2) –3, +3 and +2
(2) A 1
(3) –3, − and +2
(3) D 3
1
(4) B (4) +2, − and +2
3
82. Extensive property among the following is:
SECTION - B
(1) Temperature
86. A metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice
(2) Volume with the unit cell length 320 pm. The radius of the
(3) Pressure metal will be:
(4) Density (1) 138.56 pm
(2) 113.12 pm
83. The equilibrium constant of the reversible reaction (3) 175.51 pm
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is K. The equilibrium (4) 72.25 pm
constant for the following reaction will be:

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87. Consider the following reaction sequence: Column I Column II
a. Phenol (i) Etard
b. Acetic acid (ii) Canniozzaro
c. Formaldehyde (iii) Reimer-Tiemann
d. Toluene (iv) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
Product D is: (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

90. The total number of optically active products

(1)
formed by the monochlorination of 2-
methylpentane is:
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(2) (4) 8

91. Molality of aqueous solution of urea is 3 m. The

mass percentage of urea in the solution is:
(1) 10.5%
(3) (2) 25.25%
(3) 15.25%
(4) 12.25%

92. 20 g of an impure sample of calcium carbonate

decomposes on heating to give 8.4 g of calcium
(4) oxide. What is the percentage purity of calcium
carbonate sample?
[Atomic weight of Ca is 40 u]
(1) 85
(2) 50
88. Statement I: In presence of DMSO solvent, the
rate of SN2 reaction increases. (3) 95
(4) 75
Statement II: DMSO is a polar protic solvent.
(1) Statement I and II both are true
93. Which among the following is the most stable
(2) Statement I and II both are false carbanion?
(3) Statement I is true statement II is false (1) (CH 3 )3 C
(4) Statement I is false statement II is true
(2) (CH3 CO)3 C
89. Match the compounds given in column I with the (3) (CH3 O)3 C
name reactions given by them in column II and (4) CH3 CH2
select the correct option given below:

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94. RCOR + RMgX → Intermediate ⎯⎯⎯
H O
2 → 97. The gas which can be compressed most easily
Product. among the following is:
In the above reaction sequence, the product is: (1) CO2
(1) A primary alcohol (2) N2
(2) A secondary alcohol
(3) A tertiary alcohol (3) H2
(4) An ether (4) O2

95. Identify the product (D) in the following reaction

sequence: 98. Mond’s process is used for the refining of which
of the following metal?
(1) Cu
(2) Ni
(3) Zr
(4) Ti

99. In laboratory, the presence of nitrate ion in a

(1) solution is confirmed by the formation of a
coloured ring. What is the colour of the ring
formed?
(1) Blue
(2) Red
(2)
(3) Orange
(4) Brown

100. The chemical formula of pyrophosphoric acid is:

(3) (1) (HPO3)n
(2) H4P2O6
(3) H4P2O7
(4) H4P2O5
(4)

96. Which of the following is/are biodegradable

polymer(s)?
(1) PHBV
(2) Nylon-2-Nylon-6
(3) Nylon-6
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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[14]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 104. ABA causes temporary closure of stomata when
101. Examine the figure given below and select the right there is a shortage of water because it
option giving the components (a/b/c/d) correctly (1) Delays cell division and cell elongation
identified. (2) Interferes with the transport of K+ ions into the
guard cells
(3) Causes rapid abscission of leaves and flowers
(4) It stops mitosis in vascular cambium during
winter season

105. Mature sieve tubes differ from xylem vessels in:

(1) Possessing nucleus
(1) (b) Photosystem - I (2) Providing mechanical strength
(d) Photosystem - II (3) Being multicellular
(2) (a) ATP synthase (4) Having thin cell wall
(c) Cyclic ETC
(3) (a) PQ. 106. In a majority of flowering plants:
(b) Photosystem - II (1) Pollen tube enters in female gametophyte
(d) F0-F1 particle through germ aperture
(4) (a) Cyt b6f (2) Generative cell divides and form two sperms
(c) Cyclic ETC before pollination in over 60 percent of
(d) Photosystem - I flowering plants
(3) All nuclei in mature embryo sac are genetically
102. Which of the following features, cannot be regarded similar
as defining feature of all life forms? (4) PEN undergoes successive meiotic divisions to
(1) Consciousness is the most obvious and give rise to free nuclei
technically complicated feature
(2) The production of new individuals of same kind 107. Phenotype of an individual is reflected by the
by the grown up individuals contribution of each allele, i.e., the effect of each
(3) The chemical reactions occuring in the body of allele is additive in/for:
living organisms (1) Flower colour in sweet pea
(4) Cellular organisation of the body (2) Fruit colour in summer squash
(3) Skin colour in humans
103. Sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in (4) Plant height in garden pea
the type and formation of sex cells in genus
P. Chlamydomonas Q. Pinus 108. Sporophyte is multicellular but attached to the
R. Porphyra S Solanum photosynthetic gametophyte and derives
(1) Both P & R nourishment from it in the life cycle of
(2) P, Q & R (1) Ficus, Sphagnum
(3) Only P (2) Polytrichum, Porella
(4) All; P, Q, R & S (3) Ulothrix, Funaria
(4) Spirogyra, Marchantia

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109. Which of the following microbe can be used in rice 114. Which of the following Mendelian disorder is a
fields to replenish soil nutrients and to reduce quantitative problem of synthesising few β-globin
dependence on chemical fertilisers? molecules?
(1) Boletus (a) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Aerorhizobium (b) Haemophilia
(3) Oscillatoria (c) Thalassemia
(4) Trichoderma
(d) Phenylketonuria
(1) (a) & (c)
110. If you are given a piece of young stem of a plant
(2) (a), (b) & (c)
from your school garden, after microscopy of T.S.
(3) Only (c)
which of the following anatomical character would
you as certain whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot (4) (a), (c) & (d)
stem?
(1) Polyarch xylem 115. Thermoacidophilic archaebacteria may survive in
(2) Type of vascular bundles hot springs as they possess
(3) Endarch xylem (1) Cellulosic cell wall
(4) Secondary permanent tissue (2) Characteristic cell wall
(3) Lipoproteinous plasma membrane
111. Many species of bacteria have been investigated for (4) Mucilaginous sheath
use in single cell protein production due to their
(1) Rapid growth and short generation time 116. Sequoia plant differs from Eucalyptus in
(2) Slow growth and long generation time (1) Having many celled of female gametophytes
(3) Rapid growth and long generation time
(2) Ovules lie exposed on the ovary
(4) Slow growth and short generation time
(3) Presence of non-motile male gametophytes
(4) Having stigma and style in pistil
112. Manas National Park in Assam is popular for its
project
(1) Elephant 117. Select the statement which explains term 'predation'.
(2) Lion (1) One organism is benefited, other is unaffected
(3) Snow Leopard (2) Organisms feed over living or dead organic
(4) Black Buck matter
(3) Animals and detrivores feed over organic
113. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and remains
restricted to narrow geographical regions because (4) Organisms feed upon other living organisms
(1) They need water for the syngamy of motile
female and male gametes 118. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
(2) Prothallus requires cool, damp and shady (1) Nucleoprotein particles
places to grow (2) Virusoids
(3) They are frequently grown as ornamentals
(3) Small sized cellular particles
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Free RNA particles

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119. Which of the following statements is correct? (2) Chromatophores
(1) Leaf is a lateral outgrowth of stem developed (3) Flagellum, mesosome
endogenously at the node (4) All of the above
(2) Seeds of flowering plants vary in shape, size
and period of viability 125. Number of transitional community found in
(3) Members of family Liliaceae are annual trees hydrosere and xerosere respectively are
(4) Floral formula provides information about (1) 4 and 5
placentation and arrangement of sepals (2) 1 and 5
(3) 5 and 4
120. It is believed that communities with less diversity (4) 4 and 1
tend to be
(1) Less productive and more resistant 126. Mark the correct statement(s) w.r.t. post-
(2) More variable and more resistant fertilisation structure and events in flowering plants.
(3) Less productive and less variable (a) Integuments - Pericarp
(4) More variable and less productive (b) Definitive nucleus - Endosperm
(c) Synergids - Degenrate
121. The period occupied by a cell between post mitotic (d) Micropyle - Hilum
gap phase and semi-autonomous organelles (1) (a), (b) & (c)
duplication phase is characterised by (2) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(1) Reformation of ER, golgi complex and (3) Only (a), (b)
nucleolus (4) Only (b), (c)
(2) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
(3) Duplication of centrioles in cytoplasm 127. Most common asexual reproductive structures in
(4) Initiation of assemble of mitotic spindle algae and fungi are respectively
(1) Gemmule and conidia
122. One of the prominent mineral deficiency symptom (2) Zoospore and conidia
in plants is (3) Aplanospores and sporangiospores
(1) Leaf rolling (4) Sporangiospore and conidia
(2) Mosaic formation
(3) Leaf curling 128. Edible part of plant is root and endosperm
(4) Chlorosis respectively in
(1) Potato, groundnut
123. Mark the the mis-matched pair: (2) Carrot, cashew
(1) Sporozoans - Endoparasites (3) Sweet potato, strawberry
(2) Gonyaulax - Saxitoxin (4) Turnip, coconut
(3) Euglena - Facultative autotroph
(4) Slime moulds - True walled spores 129. Seed coat is membranous and fused with the
pericarp in
124. Which of the following structure represent the (1) Mangifera indica
membranous extensions into the cytoplasm of a (2) Sunflower
prokaryotic cell? (3) Zea mays
(1) Mesosome, pili, fimbriae (4) Pomegranate

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130. Which of the following is wrongly matched? 134. Select the option which is NOT correct w.r.t. seed
dormancy.
(1) ϕ × 174 phage – Mutate and (1) Effect of inhibitory substances can be removed
evolve faster by application of para-ascorbic acids
than QB phage (2) It is under the control of conditions within the
(2) RNA – Transcribes seed itself
polymerase II precursor of (3) Seed coat barrier in some seeds can be broken
mRNA by mechanical abrasions or vigorous shaking
(4) Phenolic acids and anti-gibberellins lead to
(3) YAC, BAC – Vectors used in
seed dormancy
HGP
(4) Split gene – Discovered by
135. Biomass of consumers may be even more than that
Roberts
of primary producers in
(1) Teak forest
131. Solid, unbranched, rod like fibrils of indefinite (2) Grassland ecosystem
length composed of actin protein may provide/form (3) Sea ecosystem
(1) Support to plasma membrane (4) Deciduous forest
(2) Cytoskeleton of cilia and flagella
(3) Major part of spindles and astral rays SECTION - B
(4) A basket around nuclear membrane 136. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
(1) Cadmium – Nephritis
132. In which of the following processes both electron (2) Mercury – Itai-Itai
donors and final electron acceptors are organic (3) Arsenic – Arteriosclerosis
compounds? (4) Copper – Uremia
(1) Aerobic respiration
(2) Fermentation 137. Water, minerals and food are translocated within the
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation body of a plant by
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Transpiration pull
(2) Diffusion alone
133. Codons that differ in the third position and code for (3) Mass flow system
same amino acid can use a single tRNA in protein (4) Cytoplasmic streaming
synthesis because
(1) Hydrogen bonding is more flexible at the third 138. Members of Kingdom Fungi show great diversity in
anticodon position P. Pigmentation
(2) Transcription unit and anticodon show the Q. Mycelium structure and habitat
R. Cell wall composition
Wobble pairing
S Morphology of spores
(3) Confirmation of the anticodon loop allow
(1) Only P
flexibility at the first base of anticodon
(2) Only Q
(4) It helps one mRNA to read more than one
(3) Both P & R
codons
(4) Both R & S

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139. Mark the mis-matched pair 144. Consider the following (P to S) and find out the
(1) Parbhani Kranti – Low yield, YMV correct sequence of taxonomical categories.
P. Petunia
variety of bhindi resistant
Q. Polymoniales
(2) Anaerobic sludge – H2S, CH4 R. Dicotyledonae
digesters S. Solanaceae
(3) Meristem culture – Axillary bud (1) P → S → Q → R
(2) R → S → Q → P
(4) Curd – Vit. B12
(3) P → Q → R → S
(4) R → Q → P → S
140. Rhizobium and Rhodospirillum
(1) Fix nitrogen under symbiotic condition 145. In _____ on 8th December 2012 Kyoto Protocol was
(2) Are free living nitrogen fixers given second commitment period from 1 January
2013 to 31 December 2020.
(3) Involve strong reducing agent and ATP for (1) Copenhagen
N2-fixation (2) Qatar
(4) Contain leg-haemoglobin as oxygen scavenger (3) Bali
(4) Geneva
141. In lac operon, ability of the repressor protein to bind 146. How many maximum different types of gametes can
the operator gene and prevent transcription depends be formed by the genotype AaBBCc?
on the absence of (1) Four
(1) Corepressor (2) Three
(3) Two
(2) Allolactose (4) One
(3) β-galactosidase
(4) Transacetylase 147. Identify P, Q and R in the given box
Population One species Another
142. If both of the loci are linked completely then what interactions species
would be the distribution of genotypes in F2 P – –
Commensalism Q 0
generation for a dihybrid cross? Parasitism + R
(1) 1 : 2 : 1
P Q R
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (1) Competition ‘+’ ‘–’
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (2) Predation ‘–’ ‘+’
(4) 3 : 1 (3) Competition ‘–’ ‘0’
(4) Amensalism ‘–’ ‘–’
143. When proteins and fats are used in respiration, the 148. Read the given statements regarding tissue culture
RQ value is less than one as they and choose the incorrect one
(1) Oxidised under anaerobic conditions (1) Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test
(2) Consume more oxygen tube is called explant
(2) Virus free plants can grow it.
(3) Require relatively lesser amount of O2 for
(3) The meristem can be grown in vitro to obtain
oxidation virus free plants
(4) Are favoured substrates for cellular respiration (4) The nutrient medium does not contain carbon
source instead it contains only inorganic salts
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149. A DNA sample has 18% of guanine. What would be 150. Read the given statements and select the option
the percentage of other bases in this sample? stating which ones are true (T) or false (F)?
P. Cytokinins were discovered from the
Adenine Thymine Cytosine
autoclaved herring sperm DNA
(1) 32% 32% 18% Q. ABA increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses
(2) 18% 18% 32% R. Ethylene prevents senescence
(3) 32% 32% 32% S. Vernalisation prevents precocious reproductive
development late in the growing season
(4) 18% 18% 18% (1) P(T), Q(T), R(F), S(T)
(2) P(F), Q(T), R(F), S(T)
(3) P(F), Q(F), R(T), S(T)
(4) P(T), Q(T), R(F), S(F)

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 155. Match the column I with column II and choose the
correct option
151. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular in
(1) Dioecious flatworms Column I Column II
(2) Comb jellies A. Porifera (i) Canal system
(3) All triploblastic organisms
(4) Animals with well developed muscular B. Aschelminthes (ii) Water-vascular
pharynx system

C. Annelida (iii) Muscular

152. Macropus is
pharynx
(1) Monkey
(2) Dog D. Arthropoda (iv) Joined
(3) Kangaroo appendages
(4) Tiger
E. Echinodermata (v) Metameres
153. Respiratory centre is present in
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(i)
(1) Cerebellum
(2) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(i)
(2) Cerebrum
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) A-(i), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(4) Hypothalamus

156. Serum is
154. Malpighian body or renal corpuscle is
(1) Plasma without clotting factors
(1) Glomerulus along with collecting duct
(2) Blood without blood cells
(2) Glomerulus along with DCT
(3) Blood without clotting factors
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule
(4) Blood without RBCs
(4) Glomerulus along with loop of Henle

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157. Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by
decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is
increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
158. Sino-atrial node (SAN):-
(1) Is present in the right upper corner of the right
atrium
(2) Can generate the maximum number of action
potentials
(3) Is responsible for initiating and maintaining
the rhythmic contractile activity of heart
(4) All of the above
159. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea does
not collapse due to presence of
(1) Bony rings
(2) Turgid pressure
(3) Chitinous rings
(4) Cartilaginous rings
161. In complete double circulation
(1) there is no mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood
(2) the left and right ventricles pump out
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood,
respectively
(3) there are two separate circulatory pathways
(4) all of the above
162. Statement-1: Cephalochordata bears notochord
all along the body throughout life.
Statement-2: Urochordate bears vertebral column
only in tail region throughout the life.
Select the correct option?
(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
(2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is
incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is
correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are
incorrect
163. Heart is three - chambered in reptiles, except
(1) Turtle
(2) Chameleon
(3) Cobra
(4) Crocodile
164. The given structure represents a monosaccharide
known as

160. Unipolar neurons with an axon and no dendrite are

present in
(1) Embryonic stage
(2) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord (1) Ribose
(3) Brain (2) Glucose
(4) Retina (3) Fructose
(4) Raffinose

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165. Which of the following is the correct matching of 168. Some important events in the human female
the site of action of the given substrate, the reproductive cycle are given below.
enzyme acting upon it and the end product? Arrange the events in correct order:
(1) Stomach : Lipase I - Secretion of FSH
Fats ⎯⎯⎯→
II - Growth of corpus luteum
micelles III - Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
(2) Duodenum : Triglycerides IV - Ovulation
Trypsin V - Sudden increase in the levels of LH
⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
monoglycerides (1) (I) → (IV) → (III) → (V) → (II)
(2) (II) → (I) → (III) → (IV) → (V)
 amylase
(3) Small : Starch ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ (3) (I) → (III) → (V) → (IV) → (II)
intestine (4) (III) → (I) → (IV) → (II) → (V)
Disaccharide
(Maltose)
169. Cry protein is obtained from
(4) Small : Proteins ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
Pepsin (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
intestine Amino acids (2) Bacillus subtilis
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(4) E. coli
166. The below given figure shows an actin (thin)
filament. Identify the labelled parts A, B and C and 170. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
select the correct option. representation of the mechanism of hormone
action.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Tropomyosin Troponin F-actin

(2) Troponin Myosin Tropomyosin

Select the correct option from the following:
(3) Troponin Tropomyosin Myosin
(1) A-Steroid hormone; B-hormone-receptor
(4) Troponin Tropomyosin F-actin complex, C-Protein
(2) A-Protein hormone; B-Receptor; C-Cyclic
AMP
167. Select the tissue having hard, non pliable ground (3) A-Steroid hormone; B-Receptor, C - Second
substance.
messenger
(1) Enamel
(2) Bone (4) A-Protein hormone; B-Cyclic AMP, C-
(3) Cartilage Hormone-receptor complex
(4) Ligament

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171. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been 176. Statement 1: Tertiary structure of protein gives us
developed by the introduction of DNA that a 3D-view of protein.
produce _____ in the host cells Statement 2: Tertiary structure is absolutely
(1) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
necessary for the many biological activities of
(2) A particular hormone
protein.
(3) Antibodies
(4) A toxic protein (1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
(2) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
172. Prosthetic group is a part of holoenzyme. It is (3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(1) loosely attached organic part incorrect
(2) loosely attached inorganic part (4) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is
(3) non-protein organic part firmly attached with incorrect.
apoenzyme
(4) both (1) and (3)
177. Complete the analogy.
173. What would happen if a recombinant DNA is Molecular glue: Ligase : : Molecular scissors :
inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, (1) Taq polymerase
β-galactosidase? (2) Restriction endonuclease
(1) This will result in the inactivation of the (3) Plasmids
enzyme coding gene (4) Alkaline phosphatase
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate will
give blue coloured colonies
178. Match column I and column II w.r.t. diseases and
(3) The recombinant colonies do not produce any
colour their causative agent
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct
Column I Column II
174. Select the correct match.
Haploid Diploid (a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema
(1) Secondary oocyte – Primary spermatocyte
(2) Secondary – Secondary oocyte (b) Syphilis (ii) Anopheles
spermatocyte
(3) Primary oocyte – Secondary (c) Malaria (iii) Entamoeba
spermatocyte
(4) Ovum – Spermatid (d) Elephantiasis (iv) Plasmodium

175. The limbic system is formed by (v) Wuchereria

(1) Hypothalamus, epithalamus, amygdala and
hippocampus
(2) The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a
group of associated deep structures like
amygdala, hippocampus etc
(3) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus
(4) Midbrain and hindbrain
Choose the correct option
(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d(v)
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv)
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d(v)
(4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d(v)

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179. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of
mammary lobes reaches nipple through lactiferous
duct (L), mammary duct (M), mammary tubule (T)
and mammary ampulla (A) in the following order.
(1) TMAL
(2) MTLA
(3) MTAL
(4) ATML
180. All the following statements are correct about
'Saheli', but one is wrong. Which of the following
options is wrong?
(1) New oral contraceptive pill for females
(2) Contains non-steroidal preparation
(3) It is 'once a week pill'
(4) It increases the phagocytosis of the sperm
within the uterus
181. Identify the glands (A) and (B) shown below and
select the right option for their location and
function:
(3) Decrease in body mass of progeny due to
continued close inbreeding
(4) Reduced fertility and productivity due to
continued close inbreeding
183. In a double stranded B-DNA, 22% of the bases
were shown to be cytosine. What will be the
percentage of other three bases present in this
DNA?
(1) A-22%, G-28%, T-28%
(2) A-28%, G-28%, T-22%
(3) A-28%, G-22%, T-28%
(4) A-28%. G-26%. T-24%
184. Assertion (A): Over-population has become
serious problem in the developing countries.
Reason (R): It does not exhaust natural resources
causes unemployment and pollution.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is a correct
explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not a
correct explanation for A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

185. All of the following are characteristic features of

juxtamedullary nephrons, except
(1) vasa recta is highly developed
(2) loop of Henle is longer
(3) the Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of
nephron are situated in the cortical region of
kidney
Gland Location Function (4) constitute 85% of total nephrons present in
(1) A Unicellular Buccal Secrete kidney
gland cavity saliva
(2) B Unicellular Oesophagus Secrete SECTION - B
gland enzyme 186. The order of three layers of cells in the retina from
(3) A Multicellular Alimentary Secrete inside to outside is
gland canal mucus (1) Bipolar cells → ganglion cells →
(4) B Multicellular Buccal Secrete photoreceptor cells
gland cavity saliva (2) Photoreceptor cells → ganglion cells →
bipolar cells
182. Inbreeding depression is- (3) Ganglion cells → bipolar cells →
(1) Reduced motility and immunity due to close photoreceptor cells
inbreeding (4) Photoreceptor cells → bipolar cells →
(2) Decreased productivity due to mating of ganglion cells
superior male and inferior female
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187. Select the correct statement.
(1) Morphine is extracted from the leaves of
Cannabis sativa.
(2) Chikungunya and amoebic dysentery are
both transmitted through mosquito as a vector
(3) Anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids
quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy
(4) T-lymphocytes act like an HIV factory
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
190. Which of the following is correct for the structure
A and B shown in the diagram?

188. Which of the following approaches does not give

the defined action of contraceptive?
(1) Vasectomy Prevents
spermatogenesis

(2) Barrier Prevent fertilisation

methods (1) A and B are homologous structures
(2) A and B are analogous structures
(3) Intra uterine Increase (3) A and B exemplify divergent evolution
devices phagocytosis of (4) Both (1) and (3)
sperms, suppress
sperm motility and 191. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the
fertilising capacity bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’
of sperms which means
(1) It should increase their metabolic reactions.
(4) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry
(2) It should decrease their metabolic reactions.
contraceptives of sperms, prevent
(3) Increase efficiency with which DNA enters
ovulation and
the bacterium.
fertilisation
(4) Ability to divide fast.

189. Match the following joints with the bones 192. Which of the following groups of contraceptives
involved: are included under barrier methods?
(a) Gliding (i) Between carpal and (1) Condom, vaults, IUDs, cervical caps
joint metacarpal of (2) IUDs, diaphragm, periodic abstinence,
thumb injections
(3) Condom, diaphragm, cervical caps, vaults
(b) Hinge (ii) Between atlas and (4) Surgical methods, oral contraceptives,
joint cervical caps, vaults
axis

(c) Pivot (iii) Between the carpals 193. In human eye, the blind spot contains
joint (1) Rods
(d) Saddle (iv) Between humerus (2) Cones
joint and ulna. (3) Both rods and cones
(4) Neither rods nor cones
Select the correct option from the following:

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194. Striations in the striated muscles are due to
(1) Absence of myofilaments.
(2) Presence of myofilaments.
(3) Specialised arrangement of myofilaments.
(4) Projections of myosin.
195. First polar body is formed during the formation of
________ and completion of ______meiotic
division.
(1) Primary oocyte, second
(2) Secondary oocyte, first
(3) Secondary spermatocyte, second
(4) Primary spermatocyte, first
196. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is
(1) Proximal tubule
(2) Distal tubule
(3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Collecting duct
199. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by one of the breeding technique in which
superior male of one breed is mated with superior
females of another breed.
Identify the breeding technique from the options
given below.
(1) Inbreeding
(2) Out crossing
(3) Out breeding
(4) Cross breeding
200. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Injecting microbes during immunisation
induces passive immunity.
(2) Cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for graft rejection.
(3) Colostrum during initial days of lactation
provides active immunity to infant.
(4) All of the above

197. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8

blastomeres) into fallopian tube is called__
(1) AI
(2) ZIFT
(3) GIFT
(4) IUT

198. Assertion: The amino acid glycine comes under

the category of nonessential amino acids.
Reason: This is due to the fact that it cannot be
synthesised in the body.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is a correct
explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not a
correct explanation for A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

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