Full Syllabus

Test Paper No-02

By Dr. Rishabh Choubey Sir

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 4. When an elevator is moving downward with a
1. A particle is moving in a straight line with increasing speed, the apparent weight of a body
velocity (v) = (t – 4) m/s. What is the average inside elevator
speed between t = 0 to t = 8 second? (1) Will increase
(1) 0 ms–1 (2) 1 ms–1 (2) Will decrease
(3) 2 ms–1 (4) 4 ms–1 (3) Remains the same
2. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is (4) First increase then decrease
due to  
5. Two non-zero vectors A and B are essentially
(1) Collision of electrons with atoms perpendicular if
(2) Forward biasing    
(1) A ⋅ B = 0 (2) A × B = 0
(3) Field emission    
(3) A + B = 0 (4) A − B = 0
(4) All of these
6. Mercury does not wet glass because
3. A proton and a deuteron enter in a uniform
magnetic field with equal kinetic energy in the (1) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force
direction perpendicular to the field. The ratio of (2) Cohesive force is much greater than
radius of circular path is adhesive force
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (4) Angle of contact is 90°

(1)
7. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear 13. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 36%.
charge densities λ1 and λ2 respectively are The decrease in linear momentum is
placed at a distance of R. The force per unit (1) 10% (2) 20%
length on either wire will be
(3) 36% (4) 45%
2k λ1λ 2 k λ1λ 2
(1) (2) 14. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value of
R R
I0 just after pressing the key K?
2k λ1λ 2 k λ1λ 2
(3) (4)
2
R R2
8. Equation of a standing wave is expressed as
y = 2Asinωt coskx. In this equation, quantity ω/k
represents.
(1) The speed of standing wave (1) 0.25 A (2) 0.75 A
(2) The speed of either of component wave (3) 2.25 A (4) 1 A
(3) The transverse speed of particle of the string 15. A proton moving with velocity v along the axis
(4) None of these approaches a circular current carrying loop as
shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic force
9. A ball is projected from ground with initial
on proton at this instant is
momentum p at an angle θ. What is the
magnitude of net change in linear momentum
when it reaches at maximum height of journey?
(1) psinθ (2) pcosθ
(3) 2psinθ (4) psinθ + pcosθ
10. Gravitational force between two point masses is
found to be F when both are in vacuum. If both µ0 evR 2
the masses are immersed in water, new (1)
( )
3/2
gravitational force will be: 2 R2 + x2

(1) Greater than F

µ0 eviR 2
(2) Less than F (2)
( )
3/2
2 R2 + x2
(3) F
(4) Information insufficient
µ0 eviR 2
(3)
11. An automobile engine develops 105
W power
( )
3/2
when rotating at an angular speed of 900 4n R 2 + x 2
rad/minute. The instantaneous torque delivered
(4) Zero
by the engine is
16. Five metallic plates each of area A and
1
(1) 104 N-m (2) × 104 N-m separated from adjacent plate by a distance d as
3
shown in figure. The capacitance of the system
2 across A and B is:
(3) × 104 N-m (4) 2 × 104 N-m
3
12. A particle of mass m is dropped from rest from a
height h0 on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of
restitution between the floor and particle is e.
Maximum height attained by the particle after A ∈0 2A ∈0
(1) (2)
second collision is d d
(1) eh0 (2) e2h0 3A ∈0 4A ∈0
(3) (4)
(3) e3h0 (4) e4h0 d d
(2)
17. The magnetic induction at the centre O in the (1) Diamagnetic substance
figure shown is: (2) Paramagnetic substance
(3) Soft iron
(4) Steel
21. Maximum wavelength in Balmer series of
hydrogen spectrum is (R : Rydberg constant)
4 9
(1) (2)
R R

 µ i µ i 1 36
(1) Zero (2)  0 + 0  k (3) (4)
R 5R
 4πR 4R 
22. Determine the number of nuclei that will be
 µ i µ i  µ i µ i
(3)  0 + 0  k (4)  0 + 0  k decayed upto one average life of radioactive
 2πR 2R   2πR 4R  material? (N0 : Initial number of nuclei)
18. Two co-planar circular loops are placed N0  1
(1) (2) N0  1 − 
concentrically as shown in figure. The radius of e  e
the outer and inner loops are R and r respectively
R >> r. The mutual inductance between them will N0 × e
(3) (4) N0(1 – e)
be 2
23. Two particles of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are
placed along x-axis at positions x = 1 m and
x = 3 m. The moment of inertia of the system
about an axis respectively passing through
centre of mass and parallel to y-axis is
20
(1) 15 kgm2 (2) kgm2
3
µ0 πr 2 µ0 πr 2
(1) (2) 40
2R 4R (3) 20 kgm2 (4) kgm2
3
µ0 πR 2 µ0 πR 2
(3) (4) 24. The logic gate realised from the circuit as shown
2r 4r
in figure is (P and Q are inputs and Z is output)
19. In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A,
the maximum particle velocity is four times its
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is:-
πA
(1) πA (2)
2
πA
(3) (4) 2πA
4
(1) AND Gate (2) OR Gate
20. The B-H curve of two material are given below.
Substance (a) most likely indicate (3) NAND Gate (4) NOR Gate
238
25. A radioactive element 92  undergoes
successive radioactive decay and decays into
206
82 Pb . The number of α and β particles emitted
–

respectively are:
(1) 10 and 4 (2) 6 and 6
(3) 8 and 6 (4) 8 and 8

(3)
26. An objective lens of a telescope has diameter (1) 1.5P0V0 (2) 2.5P0V0
200 cm. The limit of resolution of telescope for (3) 3.5P0V0 (4) 2P0V0
wavelength 600 nm is nearly
32. The following figure depicts snapshot of a wave
(1) 9 × 10–7 rad (2) 3.7 × 10–7 rad
travelling in a medium. Which pair of particles are
(3) 3 × 10–8 rad (4) 3.7 × 10–8 rad in phase?
27. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the
following represents the variation of nth orbit
radius with n?
(1) rn ∝ n3 (2) rn ∝ n
(3) rn ∝ n4 (4) rn ∝ n2
28. The current in a coil changes from 8 A to zero in
0.2 s. If self-inductance is 4 H then average
induced emf is: (1) A and D (2) B and F

(1) 160 Volt (2) 180 Volt (3) C and E (4) B and G
(3) 120 Volt (4) 60 Volt 33. Light wave is travelling along +y-direction. If the

29. The area of cross-section of cylindrical wire corresponding E vector at any time is along the

increases uniformly from left to right as shown in +z-axis. Then the direction of B vector at this
figure. When steady current flows in the wire, time is along:
then in the direction of current

(1) Drift speed increases

(1) y-axis (2) +x-axis
(2) Drift speed decreases
(3) –x-axis (4) –z-axis
(3) Electric field intensity increases
34. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, what is the
(4) Current density increases
percentage loss of energy on each rebounding of
30. What should be the minimum coefficient of static a ball dropped from a height?
friction between an inclined plane and the solid
cylinder, for which the cylinder does not slip on (1) 25% (2) 50%
the inclined plane? (3) 67.5% (4) 75%
1 2 35. Centre of mass for a uniform semi-circular ring
(1) sin θ (2) sin θ
3 3 will be at (from centre)
2 1 2R 4R
(3) tan θ (4) tan θ (1) (2)
3 3 π 3π
31. The P-V diagram of 4 g of helium gas for a 2R 4R
certain process A → B is shown in the figure. (3) (4)
3π π
What is the heat given to the gas during the
process A → B? SECTION-B
36. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by
4 ( 4
2 He ) → 16
8 O. If atomic mass of He is

4.0026 amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then

the Q-value of the reaction will be approximately
(1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV
(3) 18.6 MeV (4) 20.4 MeV

(4)
37. For the transistor circuit as shown. If β = 100, 43. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential
then value of VCE will be:- is V. If the same surface is illuminated with
radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential
V
is . The threshold wavelength for metallic
4
surface is
(1) 2λ (2) 3λ
5
(3) λ (4) 5λ
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V 2
(3) 20 V (4) 5 V 44. A resistance R draws power P when connected
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
38. If wavelength corresponding to 2nd line of Lyman in series with the resistance, such that the
series is λ, then the wavelength corresponding to impedance of the circuit becomes Z the power
last line of Balmer series will be: drawn will be
9λ 32λ R
(1) (2) (1) P (2) P  
8 9 Z
2
27λ 24λ R PR 2
(3) (4) (3) P   (4)
16 7 Z Z
39. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and 45. Which of the following graph represents the
mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia of this plate damped oscillation motion?
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through one of its corners is:
(1)
2 7
(1) ma 2 (2) ma2
3 12

5 1
(3) ma2 (4) ma2
6 12
(2)
40. The change in surface energy when a drop of
radius R splits into 8 droplets, each of radius r is
(surface tension is T)
(1) 2πR2T (2) 4πR2T
(3) 8πR2T (4) 16πR2T (3)
41. The force required to stretch a steel wire of cross
section 4 cm2 to 1.02 times its length would be
(Y = 2 × 1011 N m–2)
(1) 1.6 × 106 N (2) 1.6 × 10–6 N
(4)
(3) 1.6 × 10–7 N (4) 1.6 × 107 N
42. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
energy losses due to 46. If a star emitting light of wavelength 500 nm is
(1) Resistance in winding moving towards earth with a velocity of 1.5 × 106
m/s then the shift in the wavelength due to
(2) Hysteresis doppler’s effect will be:
(3) Eddy currents (1) 25 Å (2) 250 Å
(4) None of these (3) 2.5 Å (4) Zero

(5)
47. The spectrum of a black body at two temperature 49. If the gravitational acceleration at the surface of
127°C and 527°C is shown in the figure. Let A1 earth is g, then increase in potential energy in
and A2 be the areas under the two curves
lifting an object of mass m from earth surface to a
A
respectively. The value 1 is: height equal to half of radius of earth from
A2
surface will be:
mgR 2mgR
(1) (2)
2 3

mgR mgR
(3) (4)
3 4
50. Water has been filled in a vertical capillary tube
upto the top after closing its lower end by a finger
Consider radius of capillary r = 1 mm, surface
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 tension is 70 dyne/cm and g = 980 cm/sec2.
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 2 Which of the option is correct when finger is
48. The length of a potentiometer wire is . A cell of removed?

emf E is balanced at a length /4 from the (1) Whole of water will fall down from the
positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is capillary tube
increased by /2, at what distance will the same (2) Whole of water will stay inside the capillary
cell give a balanced point? (Potentiometer tube
battery is ideal)
(3) Nearly 1.42 cm of water will stay inside
3 3 capillary tube and rest will fall down
(1) (2)
4 8
(4) Nearly 2.86 cm of water will stay inside the
 
(3) (4) capillary tube and rest will fall down.
4 2

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B in pure
51. The first co-ordination number of Cs+ in CsCl state are 400 and 500 mm of Hg respectively
then mole fraction of A in vapour phase of
lattice is
solution obtained by mixing equal moles of A and
(1) 4 (2) 8 B is
(3) 6 (4) 3 1 3
(1) (2)
52. Packing efficiency of fcc lattice is 2 5
π π 4 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3 9 3

3π π 55. Which among the following is malachite?

(3) (4)
8 6 (1) 2CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
53. Which of the following aqueous solution has (2) Cu2O
highest boiling point? (3) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(1) 0.1 M Glucose (4) Cu2S⋅Fe2S3
(2) 0.1 M NaCl 56. When CaC2 reacts with H2O then, it gives
(3) 0.1 K2SO4 (1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(4) 0.1 M K4[Fe (CN)6] (3) C2H6 (4) CH4

(6)
57. Which of the following is not an acidic oxide? 64. Most acidic among the following is
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O3
58. Which of the following is least likely to exist? (1) (2)
(1) HClO4 (2) HIO3
(3) HOF (4) HBrO2
59. The effective atomic number of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6]
is (3) (4)

(1) 35 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 34
60. Which of the following is the correct order of 65. Which of the following aqueous solution will have
increasing field strength of ligands to form the maximum specific conductance?
coordination compounds? (1) 0.1 HCl (2) 0.1 M Glucose
(1) OH– < I– < NCS– (2) I– < OH– < NCS– (3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M NH4OH
(3) NCS– < I– < OH– (4) OH– < NCS– < I– 66. For which order reaction, half-life is inversely
proportional to the concentration of reactant?
61. Benzotrichloride on reaction with aq. KOH
followed by hydrolysis gives (1) Zero (2) First
(3) Second (4) Half
67. Emulsion is a colloidal solution of
(1) (2) (1) Liquid in liquid (2) Liquid in solid
(3) Gas in liquid (4) Solid in gas
68. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq.) → Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq.), E° = 1.10 V
(3) (4) at 298 K is
(1) 1042.38 (2) 1028.56
62. Which of the following compounds is optically (3) 1050.73 (4) 1037.22
active?
69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
physisorption of a gas on solid surface?
(1) Reversible in nature
(1) (2)
(2) Uni-molecular layer formation
(3) Involves van der waals forces
(4) Low enthalpy of adsorption
(3) (4) 70. The ionization constant of HCN is 4.5 × 10–10 at
298 K. Hydrolysis constant of sodium cyanide is
(1) 1.11 × 10–6 (2) 3.33 × 10–4
63. Which of the following compounds will give (3) 2.22 × 10–5 (4) 4.44 × 10–7
positive test with FeCl3? 71. Which of the following equilibrium will shift in
forward direction on applying pressure?
1 

(1) (2) CH3OH (1) SO2(g) + O2 (g) 
 SO3 (g)
2


(2) PCl5 (g) 
 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)



(3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 
 2HCl(g)
(3) (4)


(4) CaCO3 (s) 
 CaO(s) + CO2 (g)

(7)
CST-12 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

72. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is 81. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 that will be
(1) +8 (2) +6 needed to react with one mole of nitrite ion in
acidic solution is
(3) +4 (4) +7
2 1
73. An element with atomic number 50 belongs to (1) (2)
3 3
(1) s-block (2) p-block
1 1
(3) d-block (4) f-block (3) (4)
6 2
74. Identify the incorrect match
82. A gas at 300 K and 10 bar has molar volume
Name IUPAC Official Name 10% more than that for an ideal gas under the
same conditions. The correct option about the
a. Unnilbium (i) Nobelium
gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
b. Unnilquadium (ii) Rutherfordium (1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
c. Unnilseptium (iii) Bohrium (2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
d. Unnilennium (iv) Dubnium
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(1) a, (i) (2) b, (ii)
83. Which among the following is not a state
(3) c, (iii) (4) d, (iv) function?
75. The correct shape and hybridization for XeF2 are (1) Gibbs energy (2) Pressure
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2 (3) Temperature (4) Work
(2) Planar triangle, sp3d3 84. Select the incorrect statement among the
(3) Linear, sp3d following
(4) Square planar, sp3d (1) Ortho and para hydrogen differ in proton spin
76. Which of the following species is nonpolar? (2) Heavy water is used as a moderator in
(1) NF3 (2) SO2 nuclear reactors
(3) BF3 (4) NO2 (3) Covalent hydrides are formed by p-block
elements
77. Which among the following has maximum
number of atoms among the following? (4) H2O2 oxidises PbS into SO2
(1) 22 g CO2 (2) 16 g O3 85. Select the correct statement among the following
(3) 14 g N2 (4) 24 g Mg (1) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known
78. If 65.5 g of a metal chloride contains 35.5 g as lime water
chlorine, then equivalent mass of metal is (2) Crude sodium chloride obtained by
(1) 30 (2) 35.5 crystallisation of brine solution contains MgSO4

(3) 40.5 (4) 25 (3) Beryllium salts are rarely hydrolysed

79. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes in (4) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of Ca
3p orbital respectively are than in plaster of Paris
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 SECTION-B
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 0 and 1 86. +1 oxidation state is most stable for
80. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 (1) Tl (2) In
kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation between (3) Ga (4) B
their frequencies i.e. ν1 and ν2 will be
87. Among the following second ionisation energy is
(1) ν1 = 2ν2 (2) 2ν1 = ν2 maximum for
(1) V (2) Ti
ν2
(3) ν1 = (4) ν1 = 4ν2
4 (3) Cr (4) Mn

(8)
88. The aqueous solution containing which one of 94. The essential amino acid among the following is
the following ions will be colourless? (1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(1) Fe2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) Glutamine (4) Histidine
(3) Ni2+ (4) V3+ 95. Monomer of Nylon-6 is
89. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl (1) Acrylonitrile (2) Chloroprene
magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives (3) Caprolactam (4) Styrene
(1) n-butyl alcohol (2) sec. butyl alcohol 96. Photochemical smog does not contain
(3) iso-butyl alcohol (4) tert. butyl alcohol (1) O3 (2) SO2
(3) PAN (4) NOx
90. Cannizzaro reaction will not take place in
97. A single compound of the structure
(1) HCHO (2) CH3 – C– CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C– CH2CH3
|| ||
O O
(3) CH3CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO
is obtain from ozonolysis of which of the following
91. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction is given by compounds?
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3
(1) (2)
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH
92. Strongest base among the following is
(1) N, N-Diethylethanamine
(3) (4)
(2) Phenylmethanamine
(3) Benzamine
98. Non-aromatic species among the following is
(4) N, N–Dimethylaniline
93. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product (D) (1) (2)

(3) (4)
the structure of the product D would be
99. The correct IUPAC name of Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2
is
(1) 3-Chloroprop-1-ene (2) 1-Chloroprop-2-ene
(1) (2)
(3) 1-Chloroprop-1-ene (4) 3-Chloroprop-2-ene
100. The number of aldehyde isomers for C4H8O will
be
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) (4)
(3) 2 (4) 5

BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Which of the given chromosomes appear L-
101. Which of the given cell organelles is the shaped during anaphase?
important site of glycosylation of proteins?
(1) Metacentric chromosome
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome (3) Acrocentric chromosome

(4) Vacuoles (4) Telocentric chromosome

(9)
103. How many generations of mitosis are required for 110. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
producing 32 cells? Fabaceae?
(1) 16 (2) 32 (1) Petunia (2) Gloriosa
(3) 8 (4) 5 (3) Muliathi (4) Belladonna
104. All of the given are significance of meiosis, 111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in
except (1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root
(1) Formation of gamete (3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem
(2) Maintenance of chromosome number 112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot
(3) Maintenance of cell size root.
(4) Introduction of variation (1) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots
105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. rules of (2) Vascular bundles are polyarch
Binomial nomenclature (3) Cambium develops at the time of secondary
(1) Biological names are generally taken from growth
Latin language irrespective of their origin (4) Pith is large and well developed
(2) Each organism is given only one name 113. Red algae
consisting of one word (1) Have chlorophyll a and b as major pigments
(3) The first word denoting genus starts with a (2) Have starch as stored food
capital letter
(3) Contain cellulose and algin in their cell wall
(4) The name of the author or discoverer is
(4) Lack flagella
written after specific epithet in abbreviated
form 114. Double fertilisation is an unique event to which of
the given plant groups?
106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic
categories of mango. (1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes

(1) Family - Anacardiaceae (3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms

(2) Order - Dicotyledonae 115. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic

solid particles of a substance without forming a
(3) Division - Angiospermae solution is called
(4) Genus - Mangifera (1) Plasmolysis (2) Imbibition
107. In which of the given protists, the cell wall (3) Transpiration (4) Guttation
resembles a soap box?
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. apoplast
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates pathway of absorption of water in plants.
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds (1) It consists of living parts of plant body
108. The algal partner of lichens (2) There is a little resistance in the movement of
(1) Is called mycobiont water
(2) Absorbs water and minerals (3) It is faster
(3) Forms bulk body of lichens (4) It is not affected by metabolic state of root

(4) Performs photosynthesis 117. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly in which of its given
form from the soil?
109. How many of the given plants have
actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers, (1) NO2− (2) NO3−
respectively?
(3) NH+4 (4) Both (1) and (3)
Mustard, Gulmohur, Canna, Cassia, Datura,
Pea 118. Which of the given monerans fixes nitrogen
symbiotically as well as in free-living state?
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 3 and 2 (1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 and 2 (3) Frankia (4) Anabaena

(10)
119. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in C3 cycle is 126. Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given
a plant groups?
(1) 3-carbon aldose sugar (1) Algae (2) Bryophyte
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar (3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm
(3) 3-carbon ketose sugar 127. All of the given are true w.r.t. innermost wall layer
(4) 5-carbon aldose sugar of anther, except
120. During photorespiration, loss of CO2 occurs in (1) Surrounds sporogenous tissue
which of the given cell organelles?
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(1) Chloroplast (2) Peroxisome
(3) Their cells nourish developing pollen grains
(3) Mitochondria (4) Sphaerosome
(4) Possess dense cytoplasm
121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. intermediates of
Krebs cycle and their products 128. The largest cell of embryo sac is
(1) Acetyl CoA – Carotenoids (1) Synergids (2) Egg
(2) Succinyl CoA – Pyrimidines (3) Antipodal cells (4) Central cell
(3) Oxaloacetic acid – Alkaloids 129. If a colour-blind female marries a normal male.
(4) α-Ketoglutaric acid – Amino acid synthesis The probability of their daughter(s) being
colourblind is
122. Select the correct option w.r.t. increasing order
of respiratory quotient of various substrates. (1) Zero (2) 0.5
(1) Fats < Protein < Oxalic acid (3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
(2) Malic acid < Oxalic acid < Fat 130. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
(3) Protein < Fat < Malic acid affected person has only one sex chromosome,
i.e. XO?
(4) Oxalic acid < Protein < Malic acid
123. Read the given statements and select the (1) Turner’s syndrome
correct option. (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Statement A: All GAs are acidic (3) Phenylketonuria
Statement B: Tomato is a long day plant (4) Haemophilia
(1) Only statement A is correct 131. All of the given are stop codons, except
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) Both statements are correct
(3) UAG (4) UGA
(4) Both statements are incorrect
132. Opening of DNA helix during transcription is
124. Stimulus for vernalisation is perceived by performed by
(1) Shoot apex (2) Embryo of the seed
(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Leaves (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Ligase (4) Topoisomerase
125. Match the columns w.r.t. plants and their
reproductive structure. 133. Agriculture contributes about A of India’s
GDP and gives employment to nearly B of
Column-I Column-II
the population.
a. Chlamydomonas (i) Conidia
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
b. Penicillium (ii) Rhizome
A B
c. Eichhornia (iii) Zoospore (1) 33% 62%
d. Ginger (iv) Offset (2) 62% 33%
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) 35% 89.5%
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) 89.5% 35%

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134. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 141. Among vertebrates which of the given species
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight contributes maximum to global biodiversity?
black rot, is a variety of which of the given crop? (1) Fish (2) Mammals
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica (3) Birds (4) Reptiles
(3) Chilli (4) Cauliflower 142. Rivet-popper hypothesis was given by
135. Which of the given household product is obtained (1) Alexander von Humboldt
by using only bacteria?
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) Bread (2) Toddy
(3) Robert May
(3) Dosa (4) Camembert cheese
(4) David Tilman
SECTION-B
143. In aquatic food chain, biomagnification is found to
136. Cyclosporin-A is used as an immunosuppressive be highest in which of the given organism?
agent. It is produced by
(1) Zooplankton
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Phytoplankton
(2) Monascus purpureus (3) Large fish
(3) Streptococcus (4) Fish-eating birds
(4) Rhizopus 144. Which of the given greenhouse gases contributes
137. Population is said to be mature or stable, when minimum to total global warming?
(1) Size of population increases rapidly (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(2) Growth rate being almost zero (3) N2O (4) CFC
(3) Population shows a declined growth 145. Read the given statements stating true (T) or
(4) Age pyramid for human population appears false (F) and select the correct option.
like a triangle A. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal
dominant disorder
138. Which of the given contribute to increase the
population density during a given period in an B. Sickle cell anaemia exhibits transversion
area? substitution mutation
(i) Natality (ii) Mortality C. Polarity of template strand which forms
continuous complementary strand during
(iii) Immigration (iv) Emigration
replication is 5′ → 3′
(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) Both (ii) and (iii)
D. Human genome project as ‘Mega project’
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) Both (ii) and (iv) was a 13-year project
139. Anthropogenic ecosystem possesses all of the A B C D
given characteristics, except
(1) T F T F
(1) Have little diversity
(2) F F F F
(2) Self regulatory mechanism
(3) T T T T
(3) Simple food chain
(4) T T F T
(4) Little cycling of nutrients
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen
140. In hydrarch succession, the successional series grains.
progress from
(1) It represents male gametophyte
(1) Xeric to mesic condition
(2) These are generally spherical in structure
(2) Hydric to mesic condition
(3) Their wall consists of exine and intine layers
(3) Xeric to hydric condition (4) Their inner wall has prominent apertures
(4) Hydric to xeric condition called germ pores.

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147. The phenotype of F1 hybrid resemble both of the 149. Which of the given nitrogenous bases is/are
parents in purine?
(1) Co-dominance a. Cytosine b. Adenine
(2) Incomplete dominance c. Uracil d. Guanine
(3) Dominance (1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Both b and d (4) Only a
148. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was 150. How many types of histones form core part of
proposed by nucleosome?
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1) Two
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Five
(3) A.R. Wallace (3) Three
(4) Charles Darwin (4) Four

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Match column I with column II and choose the
151. Choose the odd one w.r.t. menstrual cycle. correct option.

(1) Humans (2) Apes Column I Column II

(3) Tiger (4) Monkeys a. World's population in (i) 1 billion
152. How many chromosomes are present in a rat year 2000
sperm cell?
b. India's population in (ii) 7.2 billion
(1) 21 (2) 42
year 2000
(3) 23 (4) 19
c. India's population in (iii) 6 billion
153. Read the statement and choose the option that
May 2011
correctly fills the blank.
In a human male, each testis has about d. World's population in (iv) 1.2 billion
________ compartments called testicular year 2011
lobules. (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 125 (2) 250 (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 150 (4) 280 (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
154. How many of the items given below in box (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
belongs to human male reproductive system?
157. All of the following are the features of an ideal
Seminal vesicles, Glans penis, Prostate contraceptive except
gland, Infundibulum, Foreskin, Hymen, Mons (1) Easily available (2) Effective
pubis
(3) Irreversible (4) User-friendly
(1) Six (2) Four 158. How many items given in the box below are
(3) Two (4) Three IUDs?
155. At which stage of oogenesis does theca layer
Cu7, LNG-20, Saheli, Lippes loop, Nirodh,
organise itself into inner theca interna and outer
Progestasert, Depo-Provera
theca externa?
(1) Secondary follicle (2) Primary follicle (1) Six (2) Three

(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Corpus luteum (3) Four (4) One

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159. Read the statements and choose the option that 163. How many of the following are associated with
states all the correct ones. the harmful effect of smoking?
(i) Vertebrate hearts are example of Bronchitis, Emphysema, Coronary heart disease,
homologous organs Cancer of lung, Cancer of urinary bladder,
(ii) Eye of octopus and mammals are analogous Gastric ulcer
(iii) Darwin's finches are examples of evolution (1) Six (2) Two
by anthropogenic action
(3) Three (4) Four
(iv) Evolution of modern man appears to be
parallel evolution of human brain and 164. Complete the analogy for the following
language Marine fish : Pomfret : : Freshwater fish :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (1) Hilsa (2) Mackerel
(3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) Only (ii) and (iv) (3) Sardine (4) Common carp
160. Australian marsupial spotted cuscus shows 165. Which is the most common species of honey bee
convergent evolution with a placental mammal in India?
called _____. (1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis indica
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank. (3) Apis dorsata (4) Apis florea
(1) Bobcat (2) Mole 166. Read the following statements about agarose gel
(3) Lemur (4) Flying squirrel electrophoresis and choose the incorrect option.
161. Read the following statements w.r.t. evolution of (1) The agarose gel used in the technique is
man and choose the incorrect one. extracted from seaweeds
(1) Homo habilis were the first human like being (2) The DNA fragments separate according to
the hominid their size
(2) Homo erectus had a large brain around 650- (3) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised
800 cc after staining with ethidium bromide followed
by exposure to infrared rays
(3) Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) DNA fragments move from cathode to anode
(4) Neanderthal man used hides to protect their
under the influence of an electric field
body
167. Select the odd one w.r.t. downstream
162. Match column I with column II and choose the
processing.
correct option.
(1) Separation
Column I Column II
(2) Preservatives
a. Plague (i) Haemophilus (3) Marketing
influenzae
(4) Purification
b. Pneumonia (ii) Babesia 168. Transgenic animals exist for which of the
following human diseases?
c. Filariasis (iii) Entamoeba
histolytica a. Alzheimer's b. Cancer
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Babesiosis (iv) Yersinia pestis
Choose the option which includes all the correct
(v) Wuchereria ones
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (1) Only a and b
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) Only b and c
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a, b and c
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii) (4) Only a and c

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169. A plasmid containing complete gene copied from A B
human genome is introduced in a bacterial cell, (1) Pons Bile pigments
but the bacteria is unable to make a working
(2) Medulla Bile pigments
copy of the protein because
(3) Medulla Bile salts
(1) It cannot recognise the start codon in mRNA
(4) Pons Bile salts
(2) Of the absence of similar amino acids in
bacteria 174. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration is called
(3) Of the absence of similar splicing machinery
(1) Residual volume
(4) The foreign gene cannot replicate in bacteria
(2) Vital capacity
170. Read the following statements about insulin and
choose the option that states all correct (3) Functional residual capacity
statements. (4) Expiratory capacity
a. Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. formation of
of slaughtered cattles and pigs oxyhaemoglobin.
b. Mature insulin do not contain polypeptide C (1) High pO2
c. Mature insulin consists of two short (2) Low pCO2
polypeptides: chain A and chain B (3) Higher H+ concentration
d. During commercial production of insulin, (4) Lower temperature
chain A and B were produced together, 176. Match column I with column II w.r.t. percentage
extracted and combined by creating of leucocytes and choose the correct option.
disulphide bonds
Column I Column II
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only b, c and d
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65 per cent
(3) a, b, c and d (4) Only b and c
b. Neutrophils (ii) 20-25 per cent
171. The first restriction endonuclease isolated was
c. Basophils (iii) 2-3 per cent
(1) Eco RI (2) Hind III
d. Lymphocytes (iv) 0.5-1 per cent
(3) Hind II (4) Bam HI
(v) 6-8 per cent
172. Match column I with column II and choose the
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
correct option.
(2) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Column I Column II
(3) a(i), b(v), c(iv), d(ii)
a. Small intestine (i) pH 6.8
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v)
b. Salivary amylase (ii) pH 1.8
177. Study the following diagrams w.r.t. blood groups
c. Urine (iii) pH 7.8 and donor compatibility and choose the correct
d. Gastric HCl (iv) pH 6 option.
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) (2)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
173. Read the statements w.r.t. disorders of digestive (3) (4)
system and choose the option that correctly fill
the blanks A and B.
(i) Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents 178. Choose the mismatch among the following.
through the mouth, which is controlled by (1) Antennal glands – Prawns
vomit centre present in A . (2) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
(ii) In jaundice, skin and eyes turn yellow due to (3) Nephridia – Earthworm
deposit of B . (4) Flame cells – Pila

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179. Complete the analogy for the following
Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes : PCT : :
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ :
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Henle's loop (4) Bowman's capsule
180. Malfunctioning of kidneys may lead to a condition
called uremia in which
(1) Urea is accumulated in urine
(2) Uric acid is accumulated in blood
184. The inner layer of eye, retina contains three
layers of neural cells, which does not include
(1) Photoreceptor cells (2) Unipolar cells
(3) Ganglion cells (4) Bipolar cells
185. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
endocrine system and choose the correct option.
a. A is released from hypothalamus,
which inhibits the release of growth hormone
from pituitary gland.

(3) Urea is accumulated in blood b. Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone
(4) Uric acid is accumulated in joints
called B .

181. Read the following statements w.r.t. muscle A B

contraction and choose the option that states all (1) GnRH FSH
the correct statements.
(2) Somatostatin MSH
a. Actin and myosin filaments do not get short
(3) GnRH LH
but rather slide passes each other
(4) Somatotrophin MSH
b. The size of A-band reduces
SECTION-B
c. Length of H-zone decreases
186. All of the following are associated with
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
catecholamines except
(3) a and c (4) Only a
(1) Increase alertness
182. Read the following statements about human
(2) Heartbeat increases
skeleton system and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) and false (F). (3) Glycogenesis
a. Total number of bones in hind limbs are 60 (4) Piloerection
b. There are 26 bones in vertebral column of an 187. Consider the following statements about
adult man glucocorticoids.
c. There are 2 pairs of vertebrochondral ribs a. They stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
d. Axial skeleton is comprised of 80 bones b. They produce inflammatory reactions and
a b c d suppresses the immune system

(1) T F F T c. They stimulate RBC production

(2) T T F T d. They promote cellular uptake and utilisation

of amino acids
(3) F T T F
How many of the above statements are correct?
(4) F T T T
(1) Four (2) Three
183. Association areas in forebrain of humans are
associated with (3) Two (4) One
a. Communication 188. All of the following hormones interact with
membrane bound receptors except
b. Memory
c Intersensory associations (1) Epinephrine (2) Insulin

Choose the option which includes all the correct (3) Cortisol (4) ADH
ones 189. Bone cells present in lacunae are called
(1) a only (2) b only (1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteocytes
(3) a, b and c (4) c only (3) Chondrocytes (4) Chondroblasts

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190. Read the following statements about cockroach 193. The bond which connects a nitrogenous base
and choose the incorrect one. with deoxyribose sugar in a nucleotide of DNA
molecule is
(1) The hind wings are used in flight
(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Anal styles are absent in females (2) Glycosidic bond
(3) The inner thick layer of crop forms six highly (3) Ester bond
chitinous plate called teeth (4) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of 194. Which of the following play known roles in normal
excretory products from haemolymph physiological processes?
(1) Concanavalin A (2) Abrin
191. Uricose glands in cockroach are associated with
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Tryptophan
(1) Digestion
195. Study the given picture of actin filament carefully
(2) Excretion and choose the option that correctly labels A
and B.
(3) Circulation

(4) Respiration

192. Study the graphs given below and choose the

A B
option which correctly shows the activity of
enzyme, salivary amylase. (1) Troponin Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin F actin
(1) (3) Tropomyosin F actin
(4) F actin Troponin
196. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
structures formed during spermatogenesis?
(1) Primary spermatocytes → Spermatogonium
→ Spermatids → Spermatozoa
(2) (2) Spermatogonium → Primary spermatocytes
→ Spermatozoa → Spermatids
(3) Primary spermatocytes → Secondary
spermatocytes → Spermatids →
Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonium → Secondary
(3) spermatocytes → Primary spermatocytes →
Spermatozoa
197. Complete the analogy regarding assisted
reproductive technologies.
IUT : Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
transferred into uterus : : ZIFT : ______
(1) Only zygote is transferred into fallopian tube
(4)
(2) Only embryo with 4 blastomeres is
transferred into fallopian tube
(3) Zygote is transferred into uterus
(4) Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres)
is transferred into fallopian tube

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198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. secondary 200. Consider the following statements regarding
regulation of respiration.
lymphoid organs.
a. Role of oxygen is insignificant in regulation of
(1) Peyer's patches respiratory rhythm.
b. An increase in concentration of CO2 and H+
(2) Thymus
ions, in arterial blood, activate
(3) Spleen chemosensitive area, which in turn signals
pneumotaxic centre to make necessary
(4) Tonsils adjustments.
c. Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla is
199. The protein produced by some strains of Bacillus
primarily responsible for regulation of
thuringiensis can kill all of the following except respiration.
(1) Beetles d. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can
increase the duration of inspiration.
(2) Armyworm Choose the option that mentions all correct
statements.
(3) Flies
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only a, c and d
(4) Ants (3) Only a and c (4) a, b, c and d

  

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