Aipmt 1998-2011

CAREER POINT .
AIPMT - 1998
AIPMT – 1998
Q.1 Boron has two isotopes 5B10 and 5B11. If atomic Q.8 A circular ring of mass M and radius R is
weight of Boron is 10.81 then ratio of 5B10 to rotating about its axis with constant angular
11
5B in nature will be : velocity ω. Two particle each of mass m are
(1) 15 : 16 (2) 19 : 81 attached gently to the opposite ends of a
(3) 81 : 19 (4) 20 : 53 diameter of the ting. The angular velocity of the
ring will now become :
Q.2 A hollow sphere of radius 1m is given a positive
mω Mω
charge of 10µC. The electric field at the centre of (1) (2)
M + 2m M − 2m
hollow sphere will be :
(1) 60 × 103 Vm–1 (2) 90 × 103 Vm–1 Mω M + 2m
(3) (4)
(3) Zero (4) Infinite M + 2m Mω
Q.9 If x = 3 – 4t2 + t3, then work done in first 4s.
Q.3 Following table is for which logic gate : will be (Mass of the particle is 3 gram) :
Input Output (1) 384 mJ (2) 168 mJ
A B C (3) 192 mJ (4) None of these
0 0 1 Q.10 If force F = 500 – 100t, then function of impulse
0 1 1 with time will be :
1 0 1 (1) 500t – 50t2 (2) 50t – 10
2
1 1 0 (3) 50 – t (4) 100 t2
Q.11 Half life period of two elements are 40 minute
(1) AND (2) OR and 20 minute respectively, then after 80 minute
(3) NAND (4) NOT ratio of the remaining nuclei will be (Initially
Q.4 Following logic gate is : both have equal active nuclei) :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
A
Q.12 A particle of mass m is tied to a string of length
Y
L and whirled into a horizontal plan. If tension
B
in the string is T then the speed of the particle
(1) AND (2) NAND will be :
(3) EX-OR (4) OR
Tl 2Tl 3Tl T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.5 For a wave y = y0sin (ωt – kx), for what value of m m m ml
λ is the maximum particle velocity equal to two Q.13 If the light of wavelength λ is incident on metal
times the wave velocity : surface, the ejected fastest electron has speed v.
(1) πy0 (2) 2πy0 3λ
If the wavelength is changed to , the speed
(3) πy0/2 (4) 4πy0 4
of the fastest emitted electron will be :
Q.6 Two pendulums suspended from same point
having length 2m and 0.5m. If they displaced 4 4
(1) Smaller than v (2) Greater than v
slightly and released then they will be in same 3 3
phase, when small pendulum will have
(3) 2v
completed :
(4) Zero
(1) 2 oscillation (2) 4 oscillation
Q.14 A coil of one loop is made from a wire of length
(3) 3 oscillation (4) 5 oscillation
L and thereafter a coil of two loops is made
Q.7 For protecting a magnetic needle it should be from same wire, then the ratio of magnetic field
placed : at the centre of coils will be :
(1) In iron box (2) In wooden box (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
(3) In metallic box (4) None of these (3) 1 : 8 (4) 4 : 1
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CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 1998
Q.15 The speed of a boat is 5 km/hr is still water. It Q.22 If time of mean position from amplitude
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest (extreme) position is 6 s. then the frequency of
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of river SHM will be :
water is : (1) 0.01 Hz (2) 0.02 Hz
(1) 3 km/hr (2) 4 km/hr (3) 0.03 Hz (4) 0.04 Hz
(3) 5 km/hr (4) 2 km/hr Q.23 Two coil have a mutual inductance 0.005 H.
Q.16 Two identical balls A and B are moving with The current changes in first coil according to
velocity +0.5 ms–1 and – 0.3 ms–1 respectively. equation I = I0 sin ωt where I0 = 2A and
They collide head on elastically then their ω = 100π rad/sec. The maximum value of emf
velocities after collision will be : in second coil is :
(1) – 0.3 ms–1 & 0.5 ms–1 (1) 4π (2) 3π
–1
(2) + 0.5 ms & + 0.3 ms –1 (3) 2π (4) π
–1
(3) –0.4 ms & 0.3 ms –1 Q.24 Resistance of a Galvanometer coil is 8Ω and 2Ω
–1 –1 Shunt resistance is connected with it. If main
(4) 0.3 ms & – 0.4 ms
current is 1 A then the current flow through 2Ω
Q.17 A small ball is suspended from a thread. It is
resistance will be :
lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 ms–2 and
(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.8 A
lowered with an acceleration 4.9 ms–2 then the
ratio of tensions in the thread in both cases will (3) 0.1 A (4) 0.4 A
be : Q.25 If a ladder is not in balance against a smooth
vertical wall, then it can be made in balance by :
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(1) Decreasing the length of ladder
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
(2) Increasing the length of ladder
Q.18 One part of a device is connected with the (3) Increasing the angle of inclination
negative terminal of a battery and another part is (4) Decreasing the angle of inclination
connected with the positive terminal of a battery.
Q.26 For a Rocket propulsion velocity of exhaust
If their ends now altered, current does not flow
gases relative to rocket is 2 km/s. If mass of
in circuit, then the device will be : rocket system is 1000 kg, then the rate of fuel
(1) P–N Junction (2) Transistor consumption for a rocket to rise up with
(3) Zener diode (4) Triode acceleration 4.9 m/s2 will be :
Q.19 Light enters at an angle of incidence in a (1) 12.25 kg/s (2) 17.5 kg/s
transparent rod of refractive index n. For what (3) 7.35 kg/s (4) 5.2 kg/s
value of the refractive index of the material of Q.27 O is the centre of an equilateral triangle ABC
the rod, the light once entered into it will not r r r
F1 , F2 , F3 are three forces acting along the
leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the
sides AB, BC and AC as shown in fig. What
value of angle of incidence : r
should be the magnitude of F3 so that total
(1) n > 2 (2) 1.0 torque about O is zero :
(3) 1.3 (4) 1.4 A
Q.20 105 coloumb charge liberated 1 gm silver (Ag). If
now charge is doubled then the amount of r r
F1 F3
liberated Ag will be : O
(1) 1 gm (2) 2 gm (3) 3 gm (4) 4 gm
Q.21 Work function of a metal surface is φ = 1.5 eV. B r C
If a light of wavelength 5000Å falls on it then F2
r r r r r r
the maximum K.E. of ejected electron will be - (1) | F3 | = | F1 | + | F2 | (2) | F3 | = | F1 | – | F2 |
(1) 1.2 eV (2) 0.98 eV r r r
(3) | F3 | = F1 + 2 F2 (4) Not possible
(3) 0.45 eV (4) 0 eV
Q.28 When volume changes from V to 2V at constant Q.37 A car is moving with velocity V. If stop after
pressure(P) then the change in internal energy applying break at a distance of 20 m. If velocity
will be : of car is doubled, then how much distance it
PV RV will cover (travel) after applying break :
(1) PV (2) 3PV (3) (4) (1) 40 m (2) 80 m (3) 160 m (4) 320 m
γ –1 γ –1
Q.29 A gas of volume changes 2 litre to 10 litre at Q.38 A charge q is placed in an uniform electric field
constant temperature 300K, then the change in E. If it is released, then the K.E of the charge
internal energy will be : after travelling distance y will be :
(1) 12 J (2) 24 J (3) 36 J (4) 0 J (1) qEy (2) 2qEy
Q.30 When three identical bulbs are connected in qEy
(3) (4) qEy
series, the consumed power is 10W. If they are 2
now connected in parallel then the consumed Q.39 In the Bohr model of H-atom, an electron (e) is
power will be : revolving around a proton (p) with velocity v, if
10 r is the radius of orbit and m is mass and ε0 is
(1) 30W (2) 90W (3) W (4) 270W vacuum permittivity, the value of v is :
3
Q.31 A ball is dropped from a height of 5 m, if it e 2e
(1) (2)
rebound upto height of 1.8 m, then the ratio of 4πm ∈0 r πm ∈0 r
velocities of the ball after and before rebound is :
e e
3 2 1 4 (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) πm ∈0 r 4πm ∈0 r
5 5 5 5
Q.40 Electric field at the equator of a dipole is E. If
Q.32 Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1m.
strength and distance is now doubled then the
If both of them carry one ampere of current in
electric field will be :
same direction, then the force of attraction on
unit length of the wires will be : (1) E/2 (2) E/8 (3) E/4 (4) E
(1) 2 × 10–7 N/m (2) 4 × 10–7 N/m Q.41 Turn ratio of a step-up transformer is 1 : 25. If
current in load coil is 2A, then the current in
(3) 8 × 10–7 N/m (4) 10–7 N/m
primary coil will be :
Q.33 For the diffraction from a crystal with λ = 1Å
(1) 25A (2) 50A (3) 0.25A (4) 0.5A
and Bragg's angle θ = 60°, then for the second
Q.42 If a source moves perpendicularly from listener
order diffraction 'd' will be :
then the change in frequency will be :
(1) 1.15 Å (2) 0.75 Å
(1) 2 n (2) n (3) n/2 (4) Zero
(3) 0.55 Å (4) 2.1 Å
Q.43 for nuclear reaction :
Q.34 If the frequency of a spring is n after suspending 235
mass M, now 4M mass is suspended from spring 92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + .......... + 30n1
then the frequency will be : (1) 26Kr89 (2) 36Kr89
(1) 2n (2) n/2 (3) 26Sr90 (4) 38Sr89
(3) n (4) None of the above Q.44 A rigid rod is placed against the wall as shown
Q.35 A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes in figure. When its velocity of lower end is 10
is formed between 1.21 Å distance then the ms–1 and its base makes an angle α = 60° with
wavelength is : horizontal, then the vertical velocity of its end B
will be :
(1) 1.21 Å (2) 2.42 Å
(3) 0.605 Å (4) 4.84 Å B
Q.36 In hot wire Ammeter due to flowing of current
temperature of wire is increased by 5°C. If value VB = ? VA = 10m/s–1
of current is doubled, then increases in
temperature will be : α A
(1) 15°C (2) 20°C
(3) 25°C (4) 30°C (1) 10 3 (2) 10/ 3 (3) 5 3 (4) 5/ 3
Q.45 Radiation energy corresponding to the temperature Q.52 Aspirin can be prepared by the reaction of
T of the sun is E. If its temperature is doubled, acetyl chloride with :
then its radiation energy will be : (1) Benzoic acid
(1) 32 E (2) 16 E (3) 8 E (4) 4 E (2) Phenol
Q.46 The cause of potential barrier in a P–N junction (3) p-hydroxy benzoic acid
diode is : (4) o-hydroxy benzoic acid
(1) Concentration of positive and negative ions Cl C2H5
near the junction Q.53 IUPAC name of C=C is :
(2) Concentration of positive charges near the CH3 I
junction (1) (Z)-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) Depletion of negative charges near the (2) (E)-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
junction (3) 2-iodo-3-chloro-pentene
(4) Increment in concentration of holes and (4) None of the above
electrons near the junction
Q.47 Common emitter circuit is used as amplifier, its Q.54 Which of the following does not given iodoform
current gain is 50. If input resistance is 1 kΩ and test :
input voltage is 5 volt then output current will be : (1) 3-pentanone (2) 2-pentanone
(1) 250 mA (2) 30 mA (3) Ethanol (4) Ethanal
(3) 50 mA (4) 100 mA
Q.55 The product formed by the reaction of
Q.48 We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U CH2 — CH2 with RMgX is :
represents the increase in its internal energy and W
the work done by the system, which of the O
following statements is true ? R
(1) RCH2–CH2OH (2) CH–CH2OH
(1) ∆U = –W in an isothermal process R
(2) ∆U = W in an isothermal process (3) R–O–CH2CH3 (4) CH3–CH–CH3
(3) ∆U = –W in an adiabatic process
OH
(4) ∆U = W in an adiabatic process
Q.56 Which of the following is not the characteristic
Q.49 A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an
of arenes :
electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance
of Q from the dipole is r (much larger than the size (1) More stability
of the dipole), then the electric field at Q is (2) Resonance
proportional to : (3) Delocalization of π electrons
(1) p2 and r –3 (2) p and r –2 (4) Electrophilic addition
–1 –2
(3) p and r (4) p and r –3 Q.57 Which of the following gives most easily
Q.50 A particle, with restoring force proportional to electrophilic substitution reaction :
displacement and resisting force proportional to OH Cl
velocity is subjected to a force F sin ωt. If the
amplitude of the particle is maximum for ω = ω1 (1) (2)
and the energy of the particle maximum for ω = ω2,
then : CH3
(1) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 = ω0
(2) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 = ω0 (3) (4)
(3) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω0
Q.58 Which of the following does not give claisen
(4) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω0 condensation reaction :
Q.51 Correct order of –I effect is : (1) C6H5COOC2H5
(1) – NR 3+ > OR > F (2) F > – NR 3+ > – OR (2) C6H5CH2COOC2H5
(3) – NR 3+ > F > OR (4) OR > – NR 3+ > F (3) CH3COOC2H5
(4) None of the above
Q.59 Percentage of C, H & N are given as follows : Q.69 The concentration of ZnCl2 solution will change
C = 40% H = 13.33% N = 46.67% when it is placed in a container which is
The empirical formula will be : made of :
(1) CH2N (2) C2H4N (3) CH4N (4) CH3N (1) Al (2) Cu (3) Ag (4) None
Q.60 Glucose +x phenyl hydrazine → osazone 'x' will Q.70 The cell reaction of an electrochemical cell is
be : Cu+2(C1) + Zn → Zn+2(C2) + Cu. The change in
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 free energy will be the function of :
Q.61 The base found in DNA but not in RNA : C2
(1) ln(C1 + C2) (2) ln
(1) Thymine (2) Adenine C1
(3) Guanine (4) Cytosine (3) ln C2 (4) ln C1
Q.62 2-Bromo pentane reacts with ethanolic KOH Q.71 A+B C + D Constant = K1
gives main product : E+F G + H Constant = K2
(1) Trans-2-pentene (2) Cis-2-pentene then C + D + E + F ⇒ product. The constant of
(3) 1-pentene (4) None of the above reaction will be :
Q.63 Which of the following does not give K1 K2
nucleophilic substitution with alcohol : (1) (2)
K2 K1
(1) CH3COCl (2) Acetic anhydride
(3) K1K2 (4) None of these
(3) Ether (4) None
Q.72 Density of which of the following substance not
Q.64 Aniline reacts with Br2 water, NaNO2/HCl gives
decreases on adding in Br2 vapours :
respectively :
(1) CCl4 (2) CS2
(1) p-Bromo aniline, p-chloro aniline
(3) Ether (4) Coke
(2) 2, 4, 6 tri bromo aniline, p-chloro aniline
Q.73 In which of the following molecule. The
(3) 2, 4, 6 tri bromo aniline, Benzene diazonium
internuclear distance will be maximum :
chloride
(1) CsI (2) CsF
(4) p-bromo, aniline, Benzene diazonium chloride
(3) LiF (4) LiI
Q.65 A complex compound which is formed by
ligands nitrate and chloride. It gives two moles Q.74 The fertilizer which makes the soil acidic :
of AgCl precipitate with AgNO3. What will be (1) (NH4)2SO4
its formulae : (2) Super phosphate of lime
(1) [Co(NH3)5NO3]Cl2 (3) CH3COONa
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]NO3Cl (4) Ca(NO3)2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO3 Q.75 The chiral centre is absent in :
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl NO3]Cl (1) DCH2–CH2–CH2–Cl
Q.66 Which of the following molecule is not (2) CH3–CHD–CH2–Cl
paramagnetic : (3) CH3–CHCl–CH2D
(1) Cu++ (2) Fe2+ (4) CH3–CHOH–CH2–CH3
(3) Cl– (4) None of the above Q.76 Number of isomers of [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4]
Q.67 The number of antibonding electron pair in complex are :
O 2−2 is : (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
m
Q.77 nX emitted one α and 2β particles, then it will
Q.68 When A + Water → C + B, B is reacted with D,
become :
gas C again obtained. 'D' gives 'C' with H2SO4. B
gives yellow colour with bunsen flame. C is a (1) nXm–4 (2) n–1Xm–1
m–4
flamable gas then what would be A, B, C and D : (3) nZ (4) None
(1) K, H2, NaOH, Zn (2) Na, NaOH, H2, Zn Q.78 When X → 7N14 + 2β– then number of neutron
(3) Li, H2, LiOH, Zn (4) None of the above will be in X :
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9
Q.79 1% solution of other compound is isotonic with Q.90 In PO −4 3 formal charge on every oxygen atom
5% sucrose (sugar) solution. Then molecular wt.
and P-O bond order is respectively :
of compound will be :
(1) 0.75 and 1.25 (2) 0.5 and 2
(1) 32.4 (2) 68.4 (3) 129.6 (4) 34.2
(3) 1 and 1.5 (4) 0.75 and 2
Q.80 First ionization potential of Be and B will be :
Q.91 The radius of hydrogen shell is 0.53Å, then in
(1) 8.8 and 8.8 (2) 6.6 and 6.6
first excited state radius of shell will be :
(3) 6.6 and 8.8 (4) 8.8. and 6.6
(1) 2.12 Å (2) 1.06 Å
Q.81 Which of the following gives colour with the
(3) 8.5 Å (4) 4.24 Å
water :
Q.92 Mole fraction of solute is 0.2 in solution then
(1) Cu+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Na+ (4) None
lowering in V.P ∆P = 10. If lowering in V.P.
Q.82 Number of significant number will be in
∆P = 20 then mole fraction of solvent will be in
following numbers :
solution :
(a) 161 cm (b) 0.0161 (c) 1.61
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(1) 3, 3, 3 (2) 3, 4, 3
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8
(3) 3, 2, 3 (4) 3, 4, 4
Q.93 Uncertainity in position of a e– and He is
Q.83 Maximum impurity in Pig iron will be of : similar. If uncertainity in momentum of e– is
(1) Mn (2) P (3) Graphite (4) S 32 × 105, then uncertainity in momentum of He
Q.84 Schottky defect shows : will be :
(1) Same number of cation and decrease in anions (1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105
5
(2) Cations and anions are replaces from their (3) 8 × 10 (4) None of these
sites Q.94 The number of molecules of ATP produced in
(3) Maximum number of cations and anions are the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic
same acid is :
(4) None (1) 56 (2) 36
Q.85 Maximum oxidation state will be of : (3) 130 (4) 86
(1) La (2) Gd (3) Eu (4) Am Q.95 Identify the correct statement regarding entropy:
Q.86 The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)3ClBrNO2] will be : (1) At absolute zero of temperature, the
(1) Triaminebromochloronitrocobaltate (III) entropy of all crystalline substances is
(2) Triaminebromochloronitrocobalt (III) taken to be zero
(3) Triaminebromonitrochlorocobalt (III) (2) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy
of a perfectly crystalline substance is +ve
(4) Triaminenitrochlorocobalt (III)
(3) At absolute zero of temperature, entropy of
Q.87 By which activation energy calculate :
a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to
(1) At a constant temp. be zero
(2) At two different temp. (4) At 0ºC, the entropy of a perfectly
(3) For reversible reaction crystalline substance is taken to be zero
(4) For volatile reaction Q.96 The edge length of face centred unit cubic cells
Q.88 In the Haemoglobin (Molecular wt = 67200) iron is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm,
found 0.33% (by weight). The number of iron the radius of the anion is :
atom will be in its one molecule : (1) 144 pm (2) 398 pm
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 288 pm (4) 618 pm
Q.89 4NH3 + 5O2 → 6H2O + 4NO Q.97 At the critical micelle concentration (CMC) the
When one mole ammonia and one mole oxygen surfactant molecules :
taken : (1) Associate
(1) Oxygen is completely consumed (2) Dissociate
(2) Ammonia is completely consumed (3) Decompose
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct (4) Become completely soluble
(4) No one is correct
Q.98 Which one of the following pairs of substances Q.107 Indicator of water pollution :
on reaction will not evolve H2 gas ? (1) E. Coli (2) Chlorella
(1) Copper and HCl (aqueous) (3) Beggiatoa (4) Ulothrix
(2) Iron and steam Q.108 DNA of E.Coli :
(3) Iron and H2SO4 (aqueous) (1) ds circular (2) ss circular
(4) Sodium and ethyl alcohol (3) ds Linear (4) ss Linear
Q.99 The second order Bragg diffraction of X-rays Q.109 Nucleic acid in HIV :
with λ = 1.00 Å from a set of parallel planes in a (1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA
metal occurs at an angle 60º. The distance
(3) ss DNA (4) ds DNA
between the scattering planes in the crystal is :
Q.110 Knife of DNA :
(1) 2.00 Å (2) 1.00 Å
(1) DNA–ligase
(3) 0.575 Å (4) 1.15 Å
(2) Restriction endonuclease
Q.100 One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
(3) Exonuclease
isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to
10 litres. The ∆E for this process is (R = 2 cal. (4) Peptidase
mol–1 K–1) : Q.111 Genetic engineering involves :
(1) 1381.1 cal. (2) Zero (1) Use of restriction endonuclease on bacterial
(3) 163.7 cal. (4) 9 lit. atm. DNA and formation of new traits
Q.101 If Mendel might have studied 7 pairs of (2) Use of Ligase for cutting DNA
characters in a plant with 12 chromosomes (3) Developing instruments
instead of 14 then : (4) Use of statistic in genetics
(1) He could not discovered independent Q.112 Which is wrong for cytochrome P–450
assortment (1) It contains Fe
(2) He might have discovered linkage (2) It concern with oxidation
(3) He might have discovered crossing over (3) It is a pigment
(4) He might have not observed dominance (4) It is a coloured cell
Q.102 Contraction in gall bladder stimulated by : Q.113 Enamel of teeth is secreted by :
(1) CCK (2) PZ (1) Ameloblast (2) Odontoblast
(3) Secretin (4) Enterogastrin (3) Osteoblast (4) Osteoclast
Q.103 Water is essential for bryophyta : Q.114 If a female having gene for haemophilia and
(1) For fertilization and homosporos nature colour-blindness on its one X-chromosome
(2) Water should be filled in archegonium for marries a normal male then what are the
fertilization chances in their offsprings :
(3) Water is necessary for movement of sperm (1) 50% son diseased and 50% normal
(4) For dissemination of spores (2) All normal offsprings
Q.104 Which of the following yields citric acid : (3) 100% daughters are carrier
(1) Penicillium citricum (4) 100% son diseased
(2) Aspergillus niger Q.115 First child of a normal male and female is
(3) Saccharomyces albino, what are the chances of second child to
be albino:
(4) Azospirilium
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
Q.105 Saccharomyces cerevissae is used in the
formation of : Q.116 Species separated by geographical barriers are
called :
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol
(1) Allopatric (2) Sympatric
(3) Acetic acid (4) Antibiotics
(3) Sibling (4) Endemic
Q.106 AA Bb Cc genotypes form how many types of
gametes : Q.117 Point mutation induced by :
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6 (1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(3) 3-cytosine (4) Bromouracil
Q.118 Reason for trisomy in down's syndrome : Q.128 Number of bones in hind limb of man :
(1) Non disjunction during sperm formation (1) 14 (2) 24
(2) Non disjunction during egg formation (3) 26 (4) 30
(3) Non disjunction at the time of egg or sperm Q.129 Which of the following stimulates the secretion
formation of gastric juice :
(4) Addition of one extra chromosome during (1) Gastrin (2) Enterogasterone
mitosis (3) Secretin (4) Hepatocrinin
Q.119 Multivalent chromosome form by : Q.130 Age of Dryopithecous :
(1) Inversion (1) 2.46 crore years (2) 2.46 lakh year
(2) Deletion (3) 1 lakh year (4) 1 crore year
(3) Reciprocal translocation Q.131 Which of the following statement is true :
(4) Point mutation (1) Homo erectus is direct ancestor of Homo
Q.120 A cup have 105 bacterial cells. Each bacterial cell sapiens
divides in 35 minutes. What shall be the number (2) Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of
of bacteria after 175 min. modern man
(1) 2 × 105 (2) 5 × 105 (3) Australopithecous is direct ancestor of
(3) 32 × 105 (4) 16 × 105 modern man
Q.121 Deficiency of protein leads to : (4) Fossils of cromagnon man first found in
(1) Rickets (2) Scurvy Ethiopia
(3) Kwashiorker (4) Carotenemia Q.132 Which statement is wrong for Cycas :
Q.122 Lactose composed of : (1) Xylem have vessels
(1) Glucose + galactose (2) Female flowers well developed
(2) Glucose + fructose (3) It has coralloid roots
(3) Glucose + glucose (4) Circinate ptyxis
(4) Glucose + mannose Q.133 Evolution of heart from one to two, three and
Q.123 True statement for cellulose molecule : four chambered proves :
(1) β–1–4 linkage, unbranched (1) Biogenetic law of Haeckel
(2) Lamarckism
(2) β–1–4 linkage, branched
(3) Hardy weinberg's law
(3) α–1–4 linkage, branched
(4) Neo Darwinism
(4) β–1–6 linkage, unbranched
Q.134 What is necessary for ripening of fruits :
Q.124 True statement for Ulothrix :
(1) 80% of ethylene (2) Abscissic acid
(1) Filamentous thallus and flagellated
(3) 2, 4 D (4) A.M.O. – 16
reproductive structures
Q.135 Which of the following induces morphogenesis
(2) Branched thallus
in tissue culture :
(3) Flagellated cells absent
(1) Gibberline (2) Cytokinin
(3) IAA (4) Ethylene
Q.125 Which of the following exercise a control over
Q.136 Which weedicide can defoliate the complete
transcription :
forest :
(1) Operator (2) Regulator
(1) 2, 4-D (2) AMO–1618
(3) Promoter (4) Recon
(3) MH (4) ABA
Q.126 Vitamin which induces maturation of R.B.C. :
Q.137 Heterosis (Hybrid vigour) desirable in
(1) B1 (2) A
vegetatively propagated plants because :
(3) B12 (4) D
(1) Heterosis is maintained for a longer duration
Q.127 Lower jaw composed of :
(2) These plants are easy to cultivate
(1) Dentary (2) Maxilla
(3) Vegetative reproduction help to multiply fast
(3) Premaxilla (4) Palatine
(4) It is due to homozygosity
Q.138 What is correct for stages of Puccinia : Q.151 In angiosperm, characters of flowers are used in
(1) Telia and aecia on wheat classification because :
(2) Telia and uredo stage on wheat (1) Characters of flowers are conservative
(3) Telia and aecia on barberry (2) Flowers are large
(3) Flowers are attractive
(4) None
Q.139 Typhoid caused by :
Q.152 Transport of gases in alveoli takes place by :
(1) Rickettssiae (2) Chlamydia
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport
(3) Salmonella typhi (4) Mycobacterium
(3) Simple diffusion (4) None
Q.140 Agent orange is : Q.153 Oral contraceptives contain :
(1) Biodegradable insecticide (1) Progesterone (2) LH
(2) Di auxin (2–4,D and 2, 4, 5 T) weedicide (3) Oxytocin (4) Steroles
(3) Biofertilizer Q.154 In S–phase, DNA is replicated in a medium
(4) Biopesticide containing radioactive thymidine, radioactivity
Q.141 Largest sperm of : will be observed in :
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (1) Euchromatin (2) Heterochromatin
(3) Ephedra (4) Sequoia (3) Both (4) Nucleolus
Q.155 CO is harmful because :
Q.142 Hollow air filled bones (pneumatic bones) occurs
in : (1) It forms stable compound with hemoglobin
(2) It blocks mitosis
(1) Mammals (2) Reptiles
(3) It is mutagenic
(3) Urodela (4) Aves
(4) It causes defoliation
Q.143 Non–symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria :
Q.156 Function of thyrocalcitonin :
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azospirilium
(1) To reduce the calcium level in blood
(3) Azotobacter (4) Nitrosomonas (2) To increase the calcium level in blood
Q.144 Extrastelar secondary growth takes place by : (3) Oppose the action of thyroxine
(1) Vascular cambium (2) Phellogen (4) Maturation of gonads
(3) Phellem (4) Phelloderm Q.157 Osmotic potential and water potential of pure
Q.145 If CO2 is absent in atmosphere of earth then : water respectively :
(1) Temperature will decrease (1) 0 and 0 (2) 0 and 1
(2) Temperature will increase (3) 100 and 0 (4) 100 and 100
(3) Plants will flourish well Q.158 A normal leaf cell have how many genomes :
(4) No effect (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Q.146 Acacia, Prosopis and Capparis belongs to :
Q.159 Contractile protein is :
(1) Deciduous forest (2) Tropical forest
(1) Actin (2) Myosin
(3) Thorn forest (4) Evergreen forest
(3) Troponin (4) Tropomysin
Q.147 Animals of desert are : Q.160 Unit of contraction :
(1) Arboreal (2) Fossorial (1) Sarcomere (2) Muscle fiber
(3) Crepuscular (4) Nocturnal (3) Actin (4) None
Q.148 Which part not have only involuntary muscles : Q.161 Oxidation of palmitic and yield :
(1) Urethra (2) Irish (1) 129 ATP (2) 132 ATP
(3) Heart muscles (4) Blood vessels (3) 36 ATP (4) 76 ATP
Q.149 Solenocytes occur in : Q.162 Total amount of energy trapped by green plants
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Arthropoda in food is called :
(3) Annelida (4) Aschelminthes (1) Gross primary production
(2) Net primary production
Q.150 Which characteristic is true for Obelia :
(3) Standing crop
(1) Metagenesis (2) Morphogenesis
(4) Standing state
(3) Apolysis (4) Pedogeny
Q.163 Role of microtubules : (1) B → A ← C
(1) To help in cell division ↑
(2) Cell membrane formation D
(3) Respiration (2) A → B → C → D
(4) Pinocytosis (3) D → C → B ← A
Q.164 Difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes: (4) A → B ← C → D
(1) ss circular DNA in prokaryotes Q.174 What change occurs during conversion of proto
(2) Histone with prokaryotic DNA chlorophyll to chlorophyll :
(3) Operon in eukaryotes (1) Addition of 2H in one pyrrole ring
(4) Membrane bound organelles in eukaryotes (2) Loss of 2H
Q.165 According to five kingdom system blue green (3) Addition of Mg
algae belongs to : (4) Loss of Mg
(1) Metaphyta (2) Monera Q.175 Transduction in bacteria carried out by :
(3) Protista (4) Algae (1) Bacteriophage (2) B.G.A.
Q.166 Bacteria are essential in carbon cycle as : (3) Mycoplasma (4) Rickettsiae
(1) Decomposer (2) Synthesizer Q.176 Which of the following most used in genetic
(3) Consumer (4) Pri. Producer engineering :
Q.167 What occurs in crossing over : (1) E. coil and Agrobacterium
(1) Recombination (2) Mutation (2) Mycobacteria and Salmonella
(3) Independent assortment (3) Aspergillus
(4) None (4) Penicillium
Q.168 Histamine secreted by : Q.177 Variations in proteins are due to :
(1) Mast cells (2) Fibroblast (1) Sequence of amino acids
(3) Histiocytes (4) Plasma cells (2) Number of amino acids
Q.169 Arterial blood pressure in human beings : (3) R–group
(1) 120 and 80 mm Hg (2) 150 and 100 mm Hg (4) None
(3) 50 and 100 mm Hg (4) None Q.178 Genetic drift in mendelian population takes
Q.170 Which of the following survives a temperature of place in :
104 to 106ºC : (1) Small population (2) Large population
(1) Marine Archaebacteria (3) Oceanic population (4) Never occurs
(2) Hot water spring thermophiles Q.179 Embryo of sunflower have :
(3) Seeds of angiosperms (1) Two cotyledons (2) One cotyledons
(4) Eubacteria (3) Eight cotyledons (4) Cotyledons absent
Q.171 Mental retardness in man occur due to : Q.180 Effect of light and dark rhythm on plants :
(1) Loss of one X chromosome (1) Photonasty (2) Phototropism
(2) Addition of one X chromosome (3) Photoperiodism (4) Photomorphogenesis
(3) Slight growth in Y Q.181 ABO blood group have :
(4) Overgrowth in Y (1) Two codominant and one recessive allele
Q.172 Symptoms of Lathyrism : (2) Two codominant and two recessive allele
(1) Bone deformation (3) Two incompletely dominant genes
(2) Muscular dystrophy and paralysis (4) Two pseudo alleles
(3) Asphyxia Q.182 Walking fern name of Adiantum is due to :
(4) Cordiac arrest (1) Dispersal by animals
Q.173 A cell 'A' with D.P.D. = 8 is surrounded by three (2) Reproduction by spores
cells 'B', 'C' and 'D' with D.P.D. respectively 4, 6 (3) Vegetative reproduction
and 5. What shall be the direction of water (4) Power of locomotion
movement :
Q.183 Modern farmer's can increase the yield of Paddy Q.192 Correct sequence of embryo development :
upto 50% by the use of : (1) Gamete → Zygote → Morula → Blastula
(1) Cyanobacteria → Gastrula
(2) Rhizobium (2) Gamete → Zygote → Blastula → Morula
(3) Cyanobacteria in Azolla pinnata → Gastrula
(4) Farm yard manure (3) Gamete → Neurula → Gastrula
Q.184 Which destroys the acetyl choline esterase : (4) Gamete → Neurula → Morula
(1) Malathione (2) CO Q.193 Segments of DNA which can move in genome :
(3) KCN (4) Colchicine (1) Transposons (2) Introns
Q.185 Growth of leaf primordia : (3) Exons (4) Cistrons
(1) First apical then marginal Q.194 Botulism affects :
(2) Only apical (1) Digestive system
(3) Only marginal (2) Blood vascular system
(4) Lateral (3) Nervous system
Q.186 Reason for elimination of wild life is : (4) Respiratory system
Q.195 Temperature variation in Pacific ocean in
(1) Deforestation (2) Forest fire
present time is called :
(3) Floods (4) Less Rain fall
(1) Cyclone effect
Q.187 Beside CH4 and CO2 other green house gas from
(2) Alnino effect
agriculture area :
(3) Green house effect
(1) SO2 (2) NH3 (3) NO2 (4) CFC
(4) Gaudikov's effect
Q.188 In which biome a new plant may adapt soon :
Q.196 Sewage purification is performed by :
(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Desert
(1) Microbes (2) Fertilisers
(3) Mangroove (4) Sea island
(3) Antibiotics (4) Antiseptics
Q.189 In present times the origin of life is not possible Q.197 Effect of anaesthetics on body :
from inorganic compounds due to :
(1) Inhibits Na–K pump
(1) Raw material not available
(2) Kills nerves
(2) High conc. Of O2 in atmosphere (3) Stops brain functions
(3) Decrease in temperature (4) Inactivates skin cells
(4) Excess of pollution Q.198 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and
Q.190 On Galopagos island Darwin observed variation development of every population. One of them
in beaks of birds (Darwin's finches) and he related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate.
concluded : The force opposite to it is called :
(1) Inter species variation (1) Fecundity
(2) Intraspecies variation (2) Environmental resistances
(3) Natural selection according to food (3) Biotic control
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters (4) Mortality
Q.191 A male insect mistakes a flower of orchid to be Q.199 Transfusion tissue is present in the leaves of :
its female due to shape and perform the act of (1) Pinus (2) Dryopteris
copulation and induce pollination. This is an (3) Cycas (4) Both (1) and (3)
example of : Q.200 The periderm includes :
(1) Mimicry (1) Secondary phloem (2) Cork
(2) Pseudo copulation (3) Cambium (4) All of these
(3) Pseudo pollination
(4) None
ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-1998)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 2
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 2 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 4 3 2 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 1
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 2
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

N1 4. Note:
1. = ratio
N2
AND OR
N W + N 2 W2
Average weight = 1 1
N1 + N 2 NOR NAND
10 N1 + 11N 2
10.81 = ω
N1 + N 2 5. vwave =
k
10.81N1 = 10.81N2 = 10N1 + 11N2
dy y0 ω
N1 19 vparticle = = cos(ωt – kx)
0.81N1 = 0.19N2 ⇒ = dt
N 2 81
ω 2 2π
2. Electric field will be zero at the centre of hollow y 0ω = 2 ⇒ k= = ⇒ λ = πy 0
k y0 λ
sphere.
3. AND gate → C=A .B 6. (N + 1)TS = NTl because T ∝ l
OR gate → C=A +B N +1 ll 2
⇒ = = =2
NOT gate → (It has only one input) N lS 0.5
NAND gate → C = A.B N +1
⇒ =2⇒N=1 ⇒N+1=2
A B A.B A + B A.B A + B N
0 0 0 0 1 1 8. According to law of conservation of angular
0 1 0 1 1 0 momentum
1 0 0 1 1 0 Iω = I′ω′
1 1 1 1 0 0 Mr2ω = (Mr2 + 2mr2)ω′
Mω
Therefore answer is NAND gate. ω′ =
M + 2m
9. Work energy theorem Vr
W = ∆KE
x = 3 – 4t2 + t3
15. 1km Vmr Vm2 r − Vr2
dx θ
v= = –8t + 3t2
dt
v1(t = 0) = 0 Vmr = 5 km/hr
v2(t = 4) = 16 t = 15 min
1 1 d 15 1
Therefore, ∆KE = mv 22 – mv12 t= ⇒ =
2 2
2
Vmr − Vr2 60 25 − Vr2
1
= × 3 × 10–3 × 16 × 16 – 0 = 384 mJ ⇒ 4= 25 − Vr2 ⇒ Vr2 = 25 – 16 ⇒ Vr2 = 9
2
⇒ Vr = 3 km/hr
dP
10. Q F= ⇒ Fdt = dP 16. In elastic collision of bodies of same mass, the
dt
velocities get mutually exchanged between them.
t t
∆P = Impulse = ∫ 0
Fdt = ∫ 0
(500 − 100t )dt 17. T1 – mg = ma
T1 = m(g + a)
mg – T2 = ma
T2 = m(g – a)
= 500t – 50t2 T1 g + a 14.7 3
11. T1/2(A) = 40min, T1/2(B) = 20 min = = =
T2 g − a 4.9 1
t = 80 min
t 80 i N
nA = = =2 19. r 90-r
T1/ 2( A ) 40
R
t 80
nB = = =4 ∴ 90º – r > ic or r < 90º – ic
T1 / 2( B ) 20
According to Snell's law
NA N / 2 2 16 sin i = n sin r < n sin (90º – ic)
= 0 4 = =4:1
NB N0 / 2 4 sin i sin i
⇒ <n ⇒ <n
13. From Einstein's photoelectric effect eq n cos i c 1 − sin 2 i c
hc 1 sin i
= φ0 + mv2 ⇒ <n ⇒ n2 – 1 > 1
λ 2 2
1 −1/ n
4 hc 1
= φ0 + mv12 ⇒ n> 2
3λ 2
20. m = ZIt = ZQ ⇒ m∝Q
4  1 2 1 2
⇒  φ 0 + mv  = φ0 + mv1 Then amount of librated Ag will be double.
3  2  2
hc
2 21. K.Emax = –φ
1 φ 1  4  4 λ
⇒ mv12 = 0 + m  v ⇒ v1 > v
2 3 2  3  3 12400eVÅ
= – 1.5eV
5000Å
= (2.48 – 1.5)eV = 0.98 eV
14.
R R1 T
22. = 6 sec. ⇒ T = 24 sec.
4
2πR = L 4πR1 = L 1 1
Frequency = = Hz = 0.04 Hz
µ I µ Iπ µ I 4µ Iπ T 24
B1 = 0 × N = 0 ; B2 = 0 × 2 = 0
2R L 2R 1 L di d
23. e = M = 0.005 × (i0sinωt)
B1 1 dt dt
⇒ =
B2 4 = 0.005 i0 ω cos ωt = e0 cos ωt
∴ emax = 0.005 × 2 × 100π = π
1A 0.2A 8Ω u=0
 i − is  G
24. S =  G

i
 s 
2Ω 0.8A 31.
5m
is G 8 8
= = =
i S+G 2 + 8 10 V1= 2g × 5
1.8m
iS = 0.8i = 0.8 × 1 = 0.8A 2g ×1.8 = V2 .
dm 2g × 1. 8
26. Here v = m(4.9 + 9.8) = (14.7)m V2 18 9
dt = = =
V1 2g × 5 50 25
v = 2km/s m = 1000
V2 3
dm =
2000 = 14.7 × 1000 V1 5
dt
dm 14.7 µ 0i1i 2 4π × 10 −7 × 1× 1
= = 7.35 kg/s 32. F= = = 2 × 10–7 N/m
dt 2 2πd 2π × 1
27. From the centre distance of three sides are equal 33. nλ = 2d sinθ ; θ = 60º, n = 2
A 2 × 1× 2 × 10 −10
d= = 1.15Å
2× 3
→ x → 1 1
F1 F3 34. n= k/m ; n∝
2π m
x x
n m2 4m
= =
n2 m1 m
B → C
F2 . n
n2 =
∴ F1X + F2X – F3X = 0 2
F3 = F1 + F2 35.
→ → → A A
F3 = F1 + F2 N N
N
µRdT P(2V − V ) PV 1.21Å
28. dU = µCVdt = = =
γ −1 γ −1 γ −1 Therefore λ = 1.21Å
29. ∆U = µCV∆T = 0 36. I2RT = ms∆θ
∴ ∆T = 0 (temp. constant) ⇒ I2 ∝ ∆θ
∆θ 2 I 22
P =
∆θ1 I12
P ∆θ 2
30. P P P
⇒ = (2)2 ⇒ ∆θ2 = 20ºC
5
~ P 37. v2 = u2 – 2as
u2
~ s= ⇒ s ∝ u2
2a
1 1 1 1
= + + Peq = P1 + P2 + P3 20 u 2
Peq P1 P2 P3 ⇒ =
s' 4u 2
P s' = 80 meter
⇒ 10 = ⇒ Peq = 3P = 3 × 30 = 90 watt
3 38. ∆K.E. = force × displacement = Work done
∆K.E. = qEy
mv 2
1 e 2 45. According to Stefan's law
39. = ×
r 4π ∈0 r 2 E ∝ T4
4
e E  T 
v= = 
4π ∈0 rm E 2  2T 
kp E2 = 16E
40. E =
r 3 V 5
47. IB = = = 5 × 10–3
R 103
p E1 2
⇒ E∝ ⇒ =
r 3
E 8 IC out put current
β= = 50 =
IB input current
E
⇒ E1 =
4 IC
50 =
41. Note : Load coil = Secondary coil 5 × 10 −3
Es Ns Ip 25 I p IC = 25 mA
= = ⇒ =
Ep Np Is 1 2
Therefore Ip = 50 A
42. If source moves perpendicular to observer's
motion then change in freq. = 0
(No doppler's effect)
235
43. 92U + 0n1 → 56Ba
144
+ zXA + 30n1
235 + 1 = 144 + A + 3 ⇒ A = 89
92 + 0 = 56 + Z + 0 ⇒ Z = 36
89 89
Therefore 36X → 36Kr
44. x2 + y2 = l2 = constant
VB
y l
VA
x α
dx dy
2x + 2y =0
dt dt
dx
= –VA = – 10
dt
dy
= VB &
dt
y
= tanα = tan60º = 3
x
10
10 = 3VB ⇒ VB =
3
AIPMT - 1999
Q.1 The error in measurement of radius of a sphere is Q.7 The current in 8Ω resistance is (See fig.)
0.1% then error in its volume is - 8V 4Ω
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.4% (3) 0.5% (4) 0.6%
Q.2 A body starts falling from height 'h' and travels
distance h/2 during last second of motion then
time of flight is (In second) - 8Ω
(1) 2 –1 (2) 2 + 2
6V 6Ω
(3) 2+ 3 (4) 3+2
(1) 0.69 A (2) 0.92 A
Q.3 The K.E. of a person is just half of K.E. of a boy (3) 1.30 A (4) 1.6 A
whose mass is just half of that person. If person
Q.8 The effective capacity of the network between
increases its speed by 1 m/s, then its K.E. equals
terminals A and B is -
to that of boy then initial speed of person was -
6µF 6µF
(1) ( 2 + 1) m/s (2) (2 + 2 ) m/s
A B
(3) 2( 2 + 2) m/s (4) None 20µF
Q.4 Two particles separated at a horizontal distance
X as shown in fig. they projected at the same line 6µF 6µF
as shown in fig. with different initial speeds. The (1) 6 µF (2) 20 µF
time after which the horizontal distance between
(3) 3 µF (4) 10 µF
them become zero -
Q.9 If the power dissipated in 5Ω is 20 W then
u/ 3 u
power dissipated in 4Ω is -
30º 60º 6Ω 4Ω
X
x u 5Ω
(1) (2)
u 2x (1) 4 W (2) 6 W
2u (3) 10 W (4) 20 W
(3) (4) None of these
x Q.10 The value of R for which power in it is
Q.5 For a particle displacement time relation is maximum-
t = x + 3. Its displacement when its velocity is 6Ω
zero - E
(1) 2m
(2) 4m R
(3) 0
(1) 3Ω (2) 6Ω
(4) None of these
(3) 12Ω (4) 9Ω
Q.6 If 100N force is applied to 10 kg. block as shown
Q.11 Initially plane of coil is parallel to the uniform
in diagram then acceleration produced for slab -
magnetic field B. In time ∆t it makes to
100 N µS = 0.6
10 kg. perpendicular to the magnetic field, then charge
µK = 0.4
flows in ∆t depends on this time as -
40 kg. 1
Slab Smooth (1) ∝ ∆t (2) ∝
∆t
(1) 1.65 m/s2 (2) 0.98 m/s2 (3) ∝ (∆t)0 (4) ∝ (∆t)2
(3) 1.2 m/s2 (4) 0.25 m/s2
Q.12 A current carrying coil (I = 5A, R = 10 cm.) A B Y A B Y
having 50 number of turns find field at its centre-
0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) 1.57 mT (2) 3.14 mT
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
(3) 1 mT (4) 2 mT
1 0 0 1 0 1
Q.13 Eight equals charged tiny drops are combined to
1 1 1 1 1 0
form a big drop. If the potential on each drop is
10V then potential of big drop will be - A B Y
(1) 40V (2) 10V 0 0 1
(3) 30V (4) 20V (3) 0 1 0 (4) None of the above
Q.14 For a inductor coil L = 0.04 H, then workdone by 1 0 0
source to establish a current of 5A in it is -
1 1 1
(1) 0.5 J (2) 1.00 J
(3) 100 J (4) 20 J Q.19 Zener diode is used as -
Q.15 The terminal potential difference of a cell is (1) Half wave rectifier
greater than its emf when - (2) Full wave rectifier
(1) A battery of less emf is connected in its (3) A.C. voltage stablizer
series (4) D.C. voltage stablizer
(2) A battery of higher emf is connected in its Q.20 Depletion layer has (for an unbiased PN
series junction) -
(3) A battery of higher emf is connected in its (1) Electrons (2) Holes
parallel (3) Static ions (4) Neutral atoms
(4) A battery of less emf is connected in its Q.21 A cylindrical tube (L = 125 cm) is resonant with
parallel a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filling
Q.16 In millikan oil drop experiment a charged drop by water then to get resonance again, minimum
falls with a terminal velocity V. If an electric length of water column is (Vair = 330 m/s) -
field E is applied vertically upwards it moves (1) 50 cm (2) 60 cm (3) 25 cm (4) 20 cm
with terminal velocity 2V in upward direction. If Q.22 Initial pressure and volume of a gas are P and V
electric field reduces to E/2 then its terminal respectively. First its volume is expanded to 4V
velocity will be - by isothermal process and then again its volume
V 3V makes to be V by adiabatic process then its final
(1) (2) V (3) (4) 2V
2 2 pressure is (γ = 1.5) -
Q.17 For a vibration magnetometer, the time period of (1) 8P (2) 4P (3) P (4) 2P
suspended bar magnet can be reduced by - Q.23 A sphere maintained at temperature 600 K, has
(1) Moving it towards south pole cooling rate R in an external environment of
(2) Moving it towards north pole 200 K temp. If its temp. falls to 400 K then its
(3) Moving it towards equator colling rate will be -
(4) Anyone of them 3 16
(1) R (2) R
Q.18 The truth table for the following network is : 16 3
A AB 9
A (3) R (4) None
27
B
Q.24 A particle is projected with velocity 'u' makes
Y=AB+AB an angle θ w.r.t. horizontal. Now it breaks in
B two identical parts at highest point of trajectory.
B AB
If one part is retrace its path, then velocity of
other part is -
(1) 3u cos θ (2) 2u cos θ
(3) u cos θ (4) u
Q.25 The amplitude of a S.H.O. reduces to 1/3 in first Q.32 Light of wavelength 3000 Å in Photoelectric
20 secs. then in first 40 sec. its amplitude effect gives electron of max. K.E. 0.5 eV. If
becomes - wavelength change to 2000 Å then max. K.E. of
1 1 emitted electrons will be :
(1) (2) (1) Less than 0.5 eV
3 9
(2) 0.5 eV
1 1
(3) (4) (3) Greater than 0.5 eV
27 3
(4) PEE does not occurs
Q.26 Two springs A and B (KA = 2 KB) are stretched
by same suspended weights then ratio of Q.33 The K.E. of electron and photon is same then
workdone in stretching is - relation between their De-Broglie wavelength :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) λp < λe (2) λp = λe
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (3) λp > λe (4) λp = 2λe
Q.27 A spring elongated by length 'L' when a mass 'M' Q.34 The total energy of an electron is 3.555 MeV,
is suspended to it. Now a tiny mass 'm' is then its Kinetic energy is :
attached and then released, its time period of (1) 3.545 MeV (2) 3.045 MeV
oscillation is - (3) 3.5 MeV (4) None
( M + m )l ml
(1) 2π (2) 2π Q.35 Two identically charged particles A and B
Mg Mg initially at rest, are accelerated by a common
Ml potential difference V. They enters into a
(3) 2π L / g (4) 2π transverse uniform magnetic field B. They
( m + M )g
describe a circular path of radii r1 and r2
Q.28 Frequency of simple pendulum in a free falling respectively then their mass ratio is :
lift is - 2 2
r  r 
(1) Zero (2) Infinite (1)  1  (2)  2 
(3) Can't be say (4) Finite  r2   r1 
r  r 
Q.29 The energy and capacity of a charged parallel (3)  1  (4)  2 
plate capacitor are E and C respectively. Now a  r2   r1 
dielective slab of ∈r = 6 is inserted in it then
energy and capacity becomes (Assuming charge Q.36 A radio-active elements emits one α and β
on plates remains constant) particles then mass no. of daughter element is :
(1) 6E, 6C (2) E, C (1) Decreased by 4 (2) Increased by 4
(3) Decreased by 2 (4) Increased by 2
E
(3) ,6C (4) E, 6C
6 Q.37 The half life of a radio nuclide is 77 days then
Q.30 The current conduction in a discharge tube is due its decay constant is :
to - (1) 0.003/day (2) 0.006/day
(1) Electrons only (3) 0.009/day (4) 0.012/day
(2) +ve ions and –ve ions
(3) –ve ions and electrons Q.38 For a prism its refractive index is cot A/2 then
minimum angle of deviation is :
(4) +ve ions, and electrons
(1) 180 – A (2) 180 – 2A
Q.31 A light of amplitude A and wavelength λ is (3) 90 – A (4) A/2
incident on a metallic surface, then saturation
current flows is proportional to (assume cut off Q.39 Two conducting slabs of heat conductivity K1
wave length = λ0) - and K2 are joined as shown in fig. The temp. at
(1) A2, if λ > λ0 (2) A2, if λ < λ0 ends of the slabs are θ1 and θ2 (θ1 > θ2) the,
(3) A, if λ > λ0 (4) A, if λ < λ0 final temp. (θm) of junction is :
Q.46 When a stick is released (as shown in fig.). Its
free end velocity when it strikes the ground is :
K1 K2 Fig.
l = 0.6m
θ1 θ2
θm
K1θ1 + K 2 θ 2 K1θ 2 + K 2 θ1
(1) (2)
K1 + K 2 K1 + K 2 Hinge (ground)
K1θ 2 − K 2 θ1 (1) 4.2 m/s (2) 1.4 m/s
(3) (4) None
K1 + K 2 (3) 2.8 m/s (4) 6 m/s
Q.40 A particle starts from rest with constant Q.47 Frequency of an E.M. waves is 10 MHz then its
acceleration. The ratio of space-average velocity wavelength is :
to the time average velocity is : (1) 30 m (2) 300 m
1 3 4 3 (3) 3 m (4) None of the above
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 3 2 Q.48 Two particles are projected with same initial
Q.41 If radius of earth shrinks by 1% then for velocity one makes angle θ with horizontal
acceleration due to gravity : while other makes an angle θ with vertical. If
(1) No change at poles their common range is R then product of their
(2) No change at equator time of flight is directly proportional to :
(3) Max. change at equator 1
(1) R (2) R2 (3) (4) R0
(4) Equal change at all locations R
Q.42 Rohini satellite is at a height of 500 km. and Q.49 In compound microscope the magnification is
Insat-B is at a height of 3600 km. from surface 95, and the distance of object from objective
of earth then relation between their orbital lens 1/3.8 cm and focal length of objective is ¼
velocity (VR,VI) is : cm. What is the magnification of eye pieces
(1) VR > V1 (2) VR < V1 when final image is formed at least distance of
distinct vision :
(3) VR = V1 (4) No relation
Q.43 For moon, its mass is 1/81 of earth mass and its (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) None
diameter is 1/3.7 of earth dia. If acceleration due Q.50 On the basis of unit cell concept a crystal has :
to gravity at earth surface is 9.8 m/s2 then at (1) 7 systems (2) 14 systems
moon its value is : (3) 230 systems (4) 32 systems
(1) 2.86 m/s2 (2) 1.65 m/s2 Q.51 Phenyl acetylene reacts with dil. H2SO4 in
2
(3) 8.65 m/s (4) 5.16 m/s2 presence of HgSO4 gives :
Q.44 When a spring is subjected to 4N force its length O
is a metre and if 5N is applied length is b metre. (1) C CH3 (2) CH2CHO
If 9N is applied its length is :
(1) 4b – 3a (2) 5b – a O
(3) 5b – 4a (4) 5b – 2a (3) CHO (4) CH2 C OH
→
Q.45 For a body angular velocity ω = î – 2 ˆj + 3 k̂ Q.52 According to hardy Schultze law the order of
→ coagulation power of cations will be :
and radius vector is r = î + ˆj + k̂ then its (1) Na+ > Ba+2 > Al+3 (2) Al+3 > Ba+2 > Na+
velocity is : (3) Ba+2 > Al+3 > Na+ (4) Al+3 > Na+ > Ba+2
(1) – 5 î + 2 ˆj + 3 k̂ (2) – 5 î + 2 ˆj – 3 k̂ Q.53 Which of the following compound gives p-
cresol with p-methyl diazonium chloride :
(3) – 5 î – 2 ˆj + 3 k̂ (4) – 5 î – 2 ˆj – 3 k̂
(1) H2O (2) H3PO2
(3) HCOOH (4) C6H5OH
Q.54 Mole ratio of H2 and O2 gas is 8 : 1 what will be Q.63 Which of the following is a chiral compound :
the ratio of wt. : (1) 2-methyl pentanoic acid
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (2) 3-methyl pentanoic acid
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 4-methyl pentanoic acid
Q.55 Ionization energy of second orbit of Li+2 will be : (4) None of these
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 40.8 eV Q.64 Compound 'A' on chlorination gives compound
(3) 30.6 eV (4) 13.6 eV 'B'. 'B' reacts with alc. KOH gives gas 'C', which
Q.56 Which of the following electronic configuration decolourises Baeyer reagent and ozonolysis of
will have maximum I.P. difference between II compound 'C' gives only HCHO compound 'A'
and III I.P. : is :
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (1) C2H6 (2) C2H4
2 2
(3) 1s 2s 2p 6
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (3) C4H10 (4) C2H5Cl
Q.57 The concentration of a solution is changed from Q.65 Monomer of natural rubber is :
0.2 to 0.4, then what will be rate and rate (1) CH3– C = CH –CH3
constant. The reaction is of first order and rate |
CH 3
constant is K = 1 × 10–6 :
(1) 2 ×10–7 ; 1 × 10–6 (2) 1 ×10–7 ; 1 × 106 (2) CH3 –CH=CH–CH3
(3) 4 ×10–7 ; 1 × 10–6 (4) 2 ×10–3 ; 1 × 10–3 (3) CH2 = C − CH =CH2
|
Q.58 Half life of a radioactive sample is 4 days. After CH 3
16 days how much quantity of matter remain
(4) CH2 = C — C = CH2
undecayed : | |
1 1 1 1 CH 3 CH 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 32 Q.66 Which of the following compound contain zero
Q.59 Structure of trans 2-hexanal is : oxidation state of Fe :
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–4
(1) (2) [Fe(CN)6]–3
CHO
CHO (3) Fe(CO)5
(2) (4) All the above
Q.67 A compound contain C, H and O. If C = 40%
CHO and H = 6.67% then empirical formula of
(3)
compound will be :
(4) None of the above (1) CH2O (2) CH4O
(3) CH4O2 (4) CHO
Q.60 Which of the following gives ethyl benzene with
phenyl methyl ketone : Q.68 [Cu(NH3)4]+2 reacts with HNO3 in excess of
water gives :
(1) Zn–Hg+HCl (2) LiAlH4
(1) Cu(OH)2 (2) Cu(NO3)2
(3) KMnO4 (4) None of the above
(3) Cu(H2O)–2 (4) None of the above
Q.61 Acetaldehyde reacts with semicarbazide product
will be : Q.69 Cr in [Cr(NH3)6] Br3 has number of unpaired
(1) CH3CH = NNH–CO–NH2 electron :
(2) CH3CH = NCONHNH2 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) CH3CH = NHNH2 (3) 1 (4) 2
O
Q.70 Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
(4) CH3 C NH CONH2
(1) L(+) Glucose + D(+) Fructose
Q.62 Cynohydrin of the following compound on (2) L(–) Glucose + L(–) Fructose
hydrolysis gives optically active product :
(3) D(+) Glucose + D(–) Fructose
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(4) D(+) Glucose + L(–) Fructose
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) All of the above
Q.71 Order of acidic strength of the following Q.78 Determine the value of E0 cell for the following
compound will be : reaction :
OH Cu+2 + Sn+2 → Cu + Sn+4
Equilibrium constant is 106
(A) (B) C6H5OH
Cu++ + Sn++ → Cu + Sn+4
(1) 0.1773 (2) 0.01773
CH3
(3) 0.2153 (4) 1.773
OH OH Q.79 What will be the H+ con when 4 gm NaOH
dissolved in 1000 ml. of water :
(C) (D)
(1) 10–1 (2) 10–13
NO2
NO2 (3) 10–4 (4) 10–10
(1) C > D > B > A Q.80 What is true for a cyclic process :
(2) D > C > B > A (1) W = 0 (2) ∆E = 0
(3) A > B > C > D (3) ∆H = 0 (4) ∆E ≠ 0
(4) B > A > C > D Q.81 Increasing order of bond length is :
(1) NO– < NO < NO+ < O −2
Q.72 Which of the following comp. is coloured and
has unpaired electron : (2) O −2 < NO < NO– < NO+
(1) CuF2 (2) K2Cr2O7
(3) O −2 < NO– < NO < NO+
(3) KMnO4 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(4) NO+ < NO < NO– < O −2
Q.73 Which of the following does not reduce Fehling
solution : Q.82 A system is expanded under adiabatic process :
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (1) Temp. increase (2) ∆E decreases
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose (3) ∆E increases (4) None of these
Q.83 Which of the following is true for a reaction in
Q.74 O.N. of P in pyrophosphoric acid is : which all the reactant & product are liquids :
(1) + 5 (2) + 2 (1) ∆H = ∆E
(3) + 3 (4) + 4
(2) ∆H = ∆W
Q.75 Which of the following example behave as a (3) ∆H > ∆E
lewis acid BF3, SnCl2, SnCl4 : (4) None of the above
(1) Stenus chloride, stenic chloride Q.84 Clemenson's reaction is :
(2) BF3, stenus chloride O
(3) Only BF3 C–CH3 CH2CH3
(4) BF3, stenus chloride, stenic chloride
(1) Zn
/HCl
→
Q.76 In which of the following comp. H atom is
directly linked with phosphorus : (2) C6H5–COCH3 + NH2NH2 →
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3 
C H ON
→ C6H5CH2CH3
2 5
(3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7

(3) CH3COCH3 + 4HI Re
d.P
→ CH3CH2CH3
Q.77 a Zn + b NO 3− + cH + → d NH +4 + e H2O
(4) All the above
+ f Zn+2 a, b, c, d, e and f are : Q.85 Which of the following reaction gives by
a b c d e f isocyanide :
(1) Rimer Tieman reaction
(1) 2 4 6 8 4 2
(2) Carbyl amine reaction
(2) 1 4 10 3 1 4
(3) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(3) 4 1 10 1 3 4
(4) 10 4 1 3 4 2
Q.86 In a gaseous mixture which of NO2, CO2 and Q.98 The bombarment of α-particle on 7N14, emits
N2O gases have same rate of diffusion : proton then new atom will be :
(1) NO2, CO2 (2) CO2, N2O (1) 8O17 (2) 8O16
(3) NO2, N2O (4) All (3) 6C14 (4) Ne
Q.87 Compound 'A' in acidic medium does not give Q.99 Half life of a substance is 77 days then its decay
ppt with H2S but in NH4OH medium gives a ppt constant will be :
comp. 'A' is : (1) 0.9 (2) 0.09
(1) FeCl3 (2) AlCl3 (3) 0.009 (4) 0.013
(3) ZnCl2 (4) SnCl2 Q.101 Number of base pairs in human chromosomes :
Q.88 FeCr2O7 reacts with Na2CO3 gives the product : (1) 3 × 109 (2) 3 × 107
(1) Na2CrO4 (2) Na2Cr2O7 (3) 6 × 108 (4) 6 × 107
(3) Fe3O4 (4) FeO Q.102 Total amount of CO2 fixed annually by plants :
Q.89 A compound BA2 has Ksp = 4 × 10–12 solubility (1) 7 × 1023 ton (2) 7 × 1013 ton
of this comp. will be : (3) 7 × 1010 ton (4) 7 × 1011 ton
(1) 10–3 (2) 10–4 (3) 10–5 (4) 10–6 Q.103 Most stable pesticides :
Q.90 H2O2 on oxidation gives : (1) Organophosphates (2) Organochlorines
(1) O–2 (2) OH– (3) O −2 (4) O2 (3) Bordeaux mixture (4) Azaderectnin
Q.91 What is false for mole fraction : Q.104 Best economic method to harvest the solar
(1) x < 1 (2) – 2 ≤ x ≤ 2 energy :
(3) 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 (4) Always non-negative (1) Solar cell
Q.92 MgO and NaCl has similar structure. In MgO (2) Energy plantation
magnesiuem is surrounded by how many oxygen (3) Cultivation of sugar cane then energy
atoms : obtain by burning it
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1 (4) Solar cooker
Q.93 General behaviour of O3 is : Q.105 Main reason of disturbance of biological
(1) Gives electrons (2) Gives O2 diversity :
(3) Reaction with H2 (4) Accept electrons (1) Green house effect
Q.94 How many ATP will be formed by oxidation of (2) Hunting
1 mole glucose : (3) Soil erosion
(1) 36 (2) 40 (4) Destruction of natural habitats
(3) 24 (4) 32 Q.106 Best method to preserve the wild relatives of
Q.95 400 ml gas at 500 torr and 666.6 ml gas at 600 plants :
torr taken in a container of 3 litre then the total (1) By growing them in natural habitats
pressure of mixture : (2) Gene library
(1) 200 torr (2) 400 torr (3) By storing seeds
(3) 600 torr (4) 50 torr (4) Cryopreservation
Q.96 Which of the following is steroid harmones : Q.107 Practical purpose of taxonomy or classification :
(1) Progesterone (2) Cholesterole (1) Facilitate the identification of unknown
(3) ACTH (4) Adrenaline species
(2) Explain the origin of organisms
Q.97 The dipole moment of compound AB is 10.92 D
and that of compound CD is 12.45 D. The bond (3) To know the evolutionary history
length AB is 2.72 A0 and that of CD is 2.56 A0 (4) Identification of medicinal plants
then for these compound true statement is : Q.108 Koch's postulates not applicable to :
(1) More ionic nature in AB (1) Mycobacterium leprae
(2) More ionic nature in CD (2) Tuberculosis
(3) Equal in both (3) Pneumonia
(4) Not predicted (4) Cholera
Q.109 Amount of cellular DNA increases during : Q.121 Ornithophilly takes place in :
(1) Cytokinesis (2) Fertilisation (1) Yellow flower having nectaries
(3) Mutation (4) Respiration (2) Scented flower
Q.110 Initiation codon in eukaryotes : (3) Flower with charming colour
(1) UGA (2) CCA (4) Modified corolla tube
(3) AGA (4) AUG Q.122 Bhopal gas tragedy is related with :
Q.111 Transition of exarch bundles of root to endarch (1) Methane
bundles of stem occurs in : (2) Carban mono oxide
(1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl (3) Methyl Iso cyanate (MIC)
(3) Apical bud (4) Coleoptile (4) SO2
Q.112 Which induces the development of corpus Q.123 Concentration of DDT is highest in :
Luteum : (1) Primary consumer
(1) LH (2) Oestrogen (2) Producers
(3) FSH (4) LTH (3) Top consumer
Q.113 Plant pathogenic bacteria are mostly : (4) Decomposers
(1) Gram + Non spore forming Q.124 Percentage energy transferred to higher tropic
(2) Gram – Non spore forming level in food chain is :
(3) Gram + spore forming (1) 1% (2) 10% (3) 90% (4) 100%
(4) Gram (–) spore forming Q.125 What change occurs by changing one base in
Q.114 First transgenic plant : DNA :
(1) Potato (2) Tomato (1) Always a change of one amino acid in
(3) Tobacco (4) Maize protein
Q.115 Dolly sheep was obtained by : (2) Change in complex sequence of amino acid
(1) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused (3) Always a change in property of protein
with unnucleated oocyte (4) Does not necessarily change the phenotype
(2) Cloning of gametes Q.126 HIV infects :
(3) Tissue culture (1) RBC (2) T – helper cells
(4) None (3) B - cells (4) Basophils
Q.116 CCK and secretin secreted by : Q.127 Which of the following statement is true for
(1) Stomach (2) Ileum bryophyta -
(3) Duodenum (4) Colon (1) Along with water absorption roots also
Q.117 Suspensory ligaments are found in : provide anchorment to plants
(1) Brain (2) Eyes (2) Sporophyte is dominant
(3) Liver (4) Pancrease (3) Gametophyte is dominant and sporophyte
is mostly parasitic
Q.118 Life span of worker honey bee :
(4) Gametophyte is parasitic
(1) 30 days (2) 15 days
Q.128 Lichens can be used as :
(3) 90 days (4) 10 days
(1) Bio-indicator for water and air pollution
Q.119 Para thormone deficiency leads to :
(2) Initial vegetation for waste lands
(1) Decrease of Ca+2 level in blood
(3) Source of wood
(2) Increase of Ca+2 level in blood
(4) To check the air pollution
(3) Osteoporosis
Q.129 Biotic and abiotic components form :
(4) Hypercalemia
(1) Community (2) Society
Q.120 Gene composed of :
(3) Population (4) Species
(1) Amino acids (2) Polynucleotide
Q.130 Endosperm in Gymnosperm is :
(3) Fatty acid (4) Nitrogen bases
(1) Polyploid (2) Diploid
(3) Triploid (4) Haploid
Q.131 The plant having the largest flower is : Q.141 Function of Nucleases :
(1) Total stem parasite (1) Break the polynucleotide chain by breaking
(2) Epiphyte the each terminal nucleotide
(3) Total root parasite (2) Breaks phosphodiester bond
(4) Partial stem parasite (3) Breaks peptide bonds
Q.132 Anabaena is associated with Azolla's : (4) Breaks ester bonds
(1) Stem (2) Leaves Q.142 What is phytotron :
(3) Roots (4) Flowers (1) A device to grow the plants in controlled
Q.133 The allele for tallness is dominant over that of environment
dwarfness. This is called : (2) Growing plants in green house
(1) Law of independent assortment (3) Radiation chamber to induce the mutations
(2) Law of segregation (4) Apparatus to study the effect of light on
(3) Law of unit character plants
(4) Law of dominance Q.143 Species diversity is maximum in :
Q.134 Oxytocin mainly helps in : (1) Tropical rain forest (2) Temperate forest
(1) Milk production (2) Child birth (3) Deserts (4) Hill slops
(3) Diuresis (4) Gametogenesis Q.144 Exponential growth is shown by :
Q.135 What ratio is expected in offsprings if father is (1) Unicellular forms (2) A cell in tissue culture
colour blind and mother's father was colour (3) Embryo (4) Multicellular plants
blind: Q.145 Which of the following is secondary pollutant
(1) 50% daughter – colour blind (1) PAN (2) CO
(2) All the sons are colour blind (3) NO2 (4) SO2
(3) All the daughters colour blind Q.146 According to forestery commission report 1997
(4) All the sons are normal the total forest cover of India :
Q.136 When AABBcc is crossed with AaBbCc then the (1) 11% (2) 19.5%
ratio of hybrid for all the three genes is : (3) 17% (4) 18.7%
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 Q.147 During injury mast cells secrete :
(3) 1/16 (4) 1/32 (1) Histamine (2) Heparin
Q.137 Which hormone is concerned with the (3) Prothrombin (4) Antibodies
concentration of urine : Q.148 Nitrogen fixing bacteria converts :
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vassopressin (1) N2 → NH3 (2) NH4+ → Nitrates
(3) Prolactin (4) Cortisol (3) NO2 → NO3 (4) NO3 → N2
Q.138 Ventricular contraction in command of :
(1) S.A. Node Q.149 Insulin differs from Growth hormone in :
(2) A.V. Node (1) Increases activity of m-RNA and
Ribosomes
(3) Purkinje fibers
(2) Increase the permeability of cell membrane
(4) Papillary muscles
(3) Affects metabolism of fats by inducing
Q.139 Which of the following does not contain metal :
lipogenesis
(1) Glycoproteins
(4) Increasing protein synthesis
(2) Ferritin
(3) Cytochromes Q.150 Homologous organs are :
(4) Chromoproteins (1) Wings of cockroach and wings of bats
Q.140 Double unit membrane is absent in : (2) Wings of insects and wings of birds
(1) Ribosomes (3) Air bladder of fishes and lungs of frog
(2) Nucleus (4) Pectoral fins of fishes and forelimbs of
(3) Plastids horse
(4) E.R.
Q.151 Which arrangement is in correct ascending order: Q.161 Which pair is of insectivorous plants :
(1) Species < genus < order < family (1) Drosera and Vallisneria
(2) Genus < species < family < order (2) Utricularia and Hydrilla
(3) Order < family < genus < species (3) Allobandra and Utricularia
(4) Species < genus < family < order (4) Rafflesia and Dionea
Q.152 In stomach after physical and chemical digestion Q.162 What shall be the water potential of a root hair
food is called : cell absorbing water from the soil :
(1) Chyme (2) Chyle (1) Zero (2) Less than zero
(3) Amino acid (4) Bolus (3) More than zero (4) Infinite
Q.153 Exchange of bicarbonates and chloride ions Q.163 Deficiency of oxygen affects most the :
between RBC and plasma is called : (1) Brain (2) Skin
(1) Chloride shift (3) Kidney (4) Intestine
(2) Bohr's effect Q.164 Maximum DDT in birds feeding on :
(3) Haldane's effect (1) Fishes (2) Meat
(4) Intra cellular respiration (3) Insects (4) Seeds
Q.154 Which gland decreases in size with increasing Q.165 Fully digested food reaches to liver by :
age : (1) Hepatic portal vein (2) Hepatic artery
(1) Thyroid (2) Adrenal (3) Hepatic vein (4) All the above
(3) Thymus (4) Pituitory Q.166 Fraternal twin one baby is haemophilic while
Q.155 Which of following occurs in maximum baby's brother is normal then which statement is
concentration in blood plasma (ECF) : true :
(1) K+ (2) Mg+2 (1) Baby is male
(3) Ca+2 (4) Na+ (2) Baby is female
Q.156 Large scale death of fishes occur in : (3) Mother is heterozygous
(1) Saline lake (2) Oligotrophic lake (4) Mother is homozygous
(3) Eutrophic lake (4) Shallow lake Q.167 Which one is associated with occupational
Q.157 A normal human being requires how much hazard is :
calories per day : (1) Flurosis (2) Pneumoconieosis
(1) 2500 k. cal (2) 4000 k. cal (3) Silicosis (4) Asthma
(3) 5000 k. cal (4) 686 k. cal Q.168 Azolla is used in the cultivation of :
(1) Maize (2) Sorghum
Q.158 Which of the following yield maximum energy :
(3) Wheat (4) Rice
(1) By glycolysis in a sprinter
Q.169 Which one produce gas by decomposing the
(2) Aerobic respiration in germinating seeds gobar (Dung) in gobar gas :
(3) Fermentation by yeast (1) Fungus
(4) Anaerobic respiration (2) Virus
Q.159 Main reason of water bloom in rivers, lakes, sea (3) Methanogenic bacteria
etc. is : (4) Algae
(1) Brown algae and green algae Q.170 Pantothenic acid & Biotin associated with :
(2) Cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates (1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B complex
(3) Eicchornia (3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin E
(4) Fishes Q.171 Which one is wrong pair :
(1) Scurvy – Vitamin C
Q.160 Insectivorous plants grow in the soil which is
(2) Rickets – Vitamin D
deficient in :
(3) Night blindness (Xerophthalmia) – Vitamin A
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(4) Beriberi – Vitamin K
(3) P (4) N
Q.172 Maximum photosynthesis takes place by : Q.182 Industrial melanism is example of :
(1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton (1) Natural selection (2) Mutation
(3) Marsh plants (4) Woody plants (3) Racial difference (4) Predation
Q.173 Reptiles like mammals originated in : Q.183 Casparian bands are found in :
(1) Jurassic (2) Triassic (1) Endodermis (2) Pericycle
(3) Cretaseus (4) Permian (3) Periderm (4) Cortex
Q.174 Dental formula of adolescent human being Q.184 Funaria's male gametes are :
before seventeen year : (1) Poly flagellate (2) Mono flagellate
2122 2123 (3) Biflagellate (4) Tetra flagellate
(1) (2)
2122 2123 Q.185 E. coli are used in production of :
2102 2023 (1) Rifampicin (2) LH
(3) (4)
2102 1023 (3) Ecdyson (4) Interferon
Q.175 Molecular weight of DNA in yeast is : Q.186 Which one is obtained by S. Miller in his
(1) 2.56 × 109 (2) 0.5 × 109 experiments on origin of life before 1953 :
(3) 7 × 107
(4) 6 × 106 (1) Simple sugars (2) Amino acids
Q.176 Minute quantity of hormones & steroid are (3) Nucleotide (4) Peptides
detected by : Q.187 Which protein found in maximum amount :
(1) Electrophoresis (1) Catalase
(2) Radio immunoassay (2) Zinc carbonic anhydrase
(3) Electro encephalogram (3) Transferase
(4) Fractional analysis (4) RUBISCO
Q.177 Hybridoma is : Q.188 After ovulation follicles converted into :
(1) Collection of DNA from DNA (1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus albicans
(2) Collection of RNA from DNA (3) Corpus cavernosa (4) Corpus calosum
(3) A fusion of tumour sex cell with non tumour Q.189 Minor change in gene's structure is called :
sex cell (1) Reversible mutation
(4) A fusion of tumour somatic cell with non (2) Point mutation
tumour somatic cell (3) Forward mutation
Q.178 Which substance can be used as male (4) Back ward mutation
contraceptive in future : Q.190 Green house effect is :
(1) FSH (2) LH (1) Gardening outside the house
(3) Testosterone (4) Progesterone (2) Global cooling
Q.179 Genetic material of prokaryotic cell : (3) Global warming
(1) Non histonic double stranded DNA (4) Green colour house
(2) Histonic double stranded DNA Q.191 What will be happen if the number of organism
(3) Histone & DNA both are absent increased at a place :
(4) Histone without DNA (1) Inter species competition
Q.180 Ligament consist of : (2) Intra species competition
(1) Yellow fibres + Elastic fibres (3) Both
(2) Yellow fibres + Collagen (white) fibres (4) None
(3) Yellow fibres + Muscle fibres
Q.192 What is vaccine :
(4) White fibres + Muscle fibres
(1) Treated bacteria, virus & protein
Q.181 Tendon consist of :
(2) Treated algae
(1) Non Elastic connective tissue
(2) White Elastic tissue (3) Treated fungi
(3) Collagen (white) fibres + Muscle fibres (4) Treated plasmodium
(4) Only collagen fibres
Q.193 Shell of egg in bird becomes thin (not properly
formed) due to the pollution of pesticides. This is
due to interference in the activity of :
(1) Ca ATPase (2) Mg ATPase
(3) Calmodulin (4) None
Q.194 Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test

tube. This indicate :
(1) Antibodies are present in plasma
(2) Antigens are present on R.B.C.
(3) Antigens are present in plasma
(4) Antibodies are present on R.B.C.
Q.195 Secondary structure of protein, which is attached

to lipid layer and lining the pores of cell
membrane will be :
(1) α-Helix (2) β-Strand
(3) β-Chain (4) Random
Q.196 Recently extinct animal from India is :

(1) Acinonyx
(2) Rhinoceros unicornieus
(3) Panthera leo
(4) Panthera tigris
Q.197 Simplest reflex action in human is :

(1) Mono synaptic (2) Bi synaptic
(3) Tri synaptic (4) Poly synaptic
Q.198 In inducible operon, regulatory gene synthesize:

(1) Promoter (2) Operator
(3) Repressor (4) Aporepressor
Q.199 Neuroglial cells associated with :

(1) Heart (2) Kidney
(3) Brain (4) Eyes
Q.200 Diatomaceous earth is used as heat insulator in

boilers and steam pipes because the cell wall of
diatom :
(1) Composed of iron
(2) Composed of silicon dioxide
(3) Is conductor of heat
(4) Is bad conductor of electricity
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 4 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 4 1 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 1 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 4 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 1 2 1, 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 1, 2 3 1 2 2, 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 3
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 2
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 4 4 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 4
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 1 2
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 4 1 1 3 4 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

4 ∆V 3∆R u +1
1. V= πR3 ; = ⇒ = 2
3 V R u
% change in volume = 3 × 0.1 = 0.3% 1 2 +1
⇒ u= × = ( 2 + 1) ms–1.
1 2 −1 2 +1
2. h = gt2 …… (i)
2
Re lative horizontal distan ce
h 1 4. Time =
= g(t – 1)2 …… (ii) Re lative horizontal velocity
2 2
x x
1 2 1 = =
gt = g(t – 1)2 u u
4 2 u cos 60º + cos 30º
3
t
=t–1
2 5. t= x+3
x = (t – 3)2
1
t (1 – )=1 dx
2 v= = 2(t – 3) = 0
dt
2 2 +1 at t = 3, x = (3 – 3)2 = 0
t= ×
2 −1 2 +1 6.
t= 2 ( 2 + 1) 100 N
10 kg.
t=2+ 2
Friction less 40 kg.
3. Let initial speed of man of mass m be u then
1 1 Let the net acceleration of the slab be a limiting
KEman = mu2 & KEboy = 2 × mu2 = mu2
2 2 friction
Now if man increases his speed by 1 m/s–1 then FS = µmg = 0.6 × 10 × 9.8 = 58.8 N
1 100 N > 58.8 N
KEman = m (u + 1)2 = KE 'boy = mu2
2
i.e. slab will accelerate with different 10Ω
acceleration.
100 N P ∝ 1/R
10 kg. f = µKN
5Ω
f = µKN 40 kg.
then power in 10Ω will be 10W when I constant
then
f = 40a
P = I2 R
0.4 × 10 × 9.8 = 40a ⇒ a = 0.98 m/s2
P ∝ R
7. Method-I
P' 4
8V 4Ω = ⇒ P′ = 4W
10 10
I1 I1 10. For maximum power consumption –
I1+I2
R = r = 6Ω
8Ω ∆φ
I2 I2 11. Q q= ∴ q ∝ (∆t)º
R
6V 6Ω µ 0 iN
12. Magnetic field at the centre of coil B =
–8(I1 + I2) – 4I1 + 8 = 0 … (i) 2a
–8(I1 + I2) – 6I2 + 6 = 0 … (ii) 4π × 10 −7 × 5 × 50
Solving eqn. (i) and (ii), we get = = 1.57 × 10–3 T
2 × 10 / 100
8 1 = 1.57 mT.
I1 = , I2 =
13 13 13. Given :
Current in 8Ω = I1 + I2 = 0.69A 8Vtiny = Vbig
Method-II 4 3 4
Given circuit can be reduced to 8 πr = πR3
3 3
7.2V 2r = R
2.4Ω Kq
Vtiny =
r
K × 8q
Vbig =
8Ω R
8 6 8Kq
+ Vbig =
Enet = 4 6 = 7.2 volt 2r
1 1 Vbig = 4Vtiny
+
4 6
Vbig = 4 × 10 ⇒ 40 V
1 1 1 10 14. Work done by source
= + = ⇒ Rnet = 2.4Ω
R net 4 6 24
 ∆φ  LI 0
= E × q = E  =E
7.2  R  R
⇒ I= = 0.69 A
10.4
E
8. Here bridge is balanced then 20µF becomes =   LI0 = (I0)LI0 = LI 02
ineffective. R
6µF 6µF 3µF = 0.04 × (5)2 = 1.0 J
6µF Q× E× t
A B A B A B 16. V=
m
6µF 6µF 3µF V∝E
Therefore CAB = 6µF V
So Ans.
9. P = VI = V2/R, voltage constant 2
17. T = 2π I / MB H ; BH = 0 at poles u ucosθ
ucosθ V′
BH = max at equator θ
24. ⇒
BH ↑ ⇒ T↓
Before After
18. Y = AB + AB = A ⊕ B
mu m
Ex – OR Gate mucosθ = – cosθ + v′
2 2
A B A+B A⊕B
v′ = 3ucosθ
0 0 0 0 25 Amplitude of damped oscillation at time t
1 0 1 1 x = x0e–λt Where λ is a constant
0 1 1 1 after 20 sec
1 1 1 0 x0 1
= x0e–λ(20) ⇒ e–λ(20) = ….. (1)
19. Zener diode → DC voltage stabilizer. 3 3
20. Unbiased PN junction After 40 sec
Deplation layer → static ions x′ = x0e–λ(40) ⇒ x0e–λ(2×20)
( 2n − 1) v from (1)
21. f= 2
4l  1 x
x′ = x0   = 0
(2n − 1) v (2n − 1) × 330 (2n − 1)  3 9
l= = =
4f 4 × 330 4 1
26. W= Kx2 , F = – Kx
1 3 2
l = m, m = 25 cm, 75 cm.
4 4 1 F2 F2
∴ Minimum height of water column W= K. 2 =
2 K 2K
= 125 – 75 = 50 cm
1 WA K K 1
22. For isothermal process W ∝ ⇒ = B = B =
K WB K A 2K B 2
V C
M
A 27. Q T = 2π ∴ Mg = Kl
P T K
B
( M + m )l
P/4 Therefore T = 2π
Mg
V
V 4V
PAVA = PBVB 1 g eff .
28. n=
PV = PB(4V) 2π l
P In a freely falling lift geff = g – g = 0 then n = 0
PB =
4 ∈∈ A
29. CPPC = 0 r ⇒ C′ = 6C
for adiabatic process d
PB VBγ = PC VCγ EPPC =
q
⇒ E′ =
E
1.5 ∈0∈r A 6
P  4V  P
Pc =   = × 8 = 2P hc
4  V  4 32. K.E.max. = –φ
λ
23. According to stefan's law –
Then K.E. will be greater than 0.5 eV
R ' (400) 4 − (200) 4 4 4 − 2 4
= = 33. (K.E.)e = Eph
R (600) 4 − (200) 4 6 4 − 2 4
1 hc 1  h  2 hc
(4 2 + 2 2 )(4 2 − 2 2 )
20 × 12 mv2 = ⇒  v =
= 2 = 2 λph 2  λ e v  λph
(6 + 2 2 )(6 2 − 2 2 ) 40 × 32
λe v
3 = c > v
R′ = R λph 2c
16
λph > λe
34. Total energy of electron 2
MM  R E 
= K.E. + Rest Mass energy gM = ×  ×gE
K.E. = 3.555 – 0.51 = 3.045 MeV M E  R M 
2mqVacce 1 9.8
35. r= = × (3.7)2 × 9.8 = = 1.65 m/s2
qB 81 6
44. Let natural length of spring be λ0
r ∝ m then according to question
2
m1  r1  4 = K (a – l0)
= 
m 2  r2  5 = K (b – l0)
1
0.693 0.693 ⇒ l0 = 5a – 4b ; k =
37. decay constant = = b−a
T1/ 2 77
Now if we apply 9 N force then
= 0.009/day
1
A A + δm 9 = k(l – l0) ⇒ 9 = [l – 5a + 4b]
cos sin (b − a )
38. µ= 2 = 2
A A ⇒ l = 5b – 4a
sin sin → → →
2 2 45. v = w × r
π A A δm
– = + î ˆj k̂
2 2 2 2
⇒ δm = 180 – 2A = 1 −2 3
K A (θ1 − θ) t K 2 A (θ − θ 2 ) t 1 1 1
39. Q= 1 =
d d
= î (– 2 – 3) – ˆj (1 – 3) + k̂ (1 + 2)
Or K1θ1 – K1θ = K2θ – K2θ2
K1θ1 + K2θ2 = K1θ + K2θ = – 5 î + 2 ˆj + 3 k̂
K1θ1 + K 2 θ 2 46. The centre of mass of the stick fall through 0.3
θ=
K1 + K 2 m. According to law of conservation of energy
T 1 2
Iω = mgh
∫ vdt ∫ atdt aT 0
2
1 ml 2 V 2
40. < v >time = = = = mgh (Q v = ωl)
∫ dt ∫ dt 2
T
2 3 l2
Here h = l/2 = 0.3m
0
V = 6gh = 6 × 9.8 × 0.3 = 4.2 m/s
ds
< v >space =
∫vds
=
∫ v dt dt 47. λ=
c 3 × 108
= = 30 meter
∫ ds ds
∫ dt dt v 10 × 10 6
u 2 sin 2θ 2u sin θ
T T 48. R= , t1 =
∫ v dt ∫ a t dt
2 2 2 g g
0 0 2 2u sin(90º −θ) 2u cos θ
= T
= T
= aT t2 = =
3 g g
∫ vdt ∫ atdt 4u 2 sin θ cos θ 2R
0 0 Q t1t2 = =
< v > space 2aT / 3 4 g g
= = or t1t2 ∝ R
< v > time aT / 2 3
49. Compound microscope M = m0 × me
GM F0
42. V0 = ; M = mass of earth M= × me
r u + F0
1
V0 ∝ then VR > V1 1/ 4
r ⇒ 95 = me
− 1 / 3.8 + 1 / 4
GM M 95
43. g = 2 or g ∝ 2 ⇒ 95 = 19me ⇒ me = =5
R R 19
AIPMT - 2000
Q.1 Two masses as shown are suspended from a Q.6 Two projectiles of same mass and with same
massless pulley. Calculate the acceleration of the velocity are thrown at an angle 60º & 30º with
system when masses are left free : the horizontal, then which quantity will remain
same :
(1) Time of flight
(2) Horizontal range of projectile
(3) Max height acquired
5g (4) All of them
10g Q.7 A mass is performing vertical circular motion
(1) 2g/3 (2) g/3 (see figure).If The average velocity of the
(3) g/9 (4) g/7 particle is increased, then at which point the
Q.2 A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60º string will break :
& returns at the same angle. The impact time was A
m
0.2 s. Calculate the force exerted on the wall :
D C
O
60º
B
60º (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.8 For the given reaction, the particle X is :
–1
10 ms 11 11
6C → 5B + β + + X
(1) 150 3 N (2) 50 3 N
(1) Neutron (2) Anti neutrino
(3) 100 N (4) 75 3 N (3) Neutrino (4) Proton
Q.3 A mass of 1kg is thrown up with a velocity of Q.9 A man is slipping on a frictionless inclined
100 m/s. After 5 seconds, it explodes into two plane & a bag falls down from the same height.
parts. One part of mass 400 g comes down with a Then the speed of both is related as :
velocity 25 m/s Calculate the velocity of other (1) VB > Vm (2) VB < Vm
part : (3) VB = Vm (4) VB and Vm can't related
(1) 40 m/s upward (2) 40 m/s downward Q.10 A body of weight 72 N moves from the surface
(3) 100 m/s upward (4) 60 m/s downward of earth at a height half of the radius of the
Q.4 Calculate the net resistance of the circuit earth, then gravitational force exerted on it will
between A and B : be :
3Ω 4Ω (1) 36 N (2) 32 N (3) 144 N (4) 50 N
Q.11 Rainbow is formed due to :
A 7Ω B (1) Scattering & refraction
6Ω (2) Total internal reflection & dispersion
8Ω
(3) Reflection only
(1) 8/3 Ω (2) 14/3 Ω
(4) Diffraction and dispersion
(3) 16/3 Ω (4) 22/3 Ω
Q.12 Gravitational force is required for :
Q.5 A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy
(1) Stirring of liquid (2) Convection
stored is U. After disconnecting battery another
capacitor of same capacity is connected in (3) Conduction (4) Radiation
parallel with it. Then energy stored in each Q.13 For a plane convex lenx (µ = 1.5) has radius of
capacitor is : curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane
(1) U/2 (2) U/4 surface. Find focal length after silvering :
(3) 4 U (4) 2 U (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm
Q.14 By photo electric effect, Einstein proved : Q.22 A charge Q is situated at the corner of a cube,
1 the electric flux passed through all the six faces
(1) E = hν (2) KE = mv 2 of the cube is :
2
Q Q
– Rhc 2 (1) (2)
(3) E = mc2 (4) E = 6 ∈0 8 ∈0
n2
Q.15 Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for Q Q
(3) (4)
the transition : ∈0 2 ∈0
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2 Q.23 For adjoining fig., The magnetic field at point,
(3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6 'P' will be :
Q.16 For a hollow cylinder & a solid cylinder rolling
without slipping on an inclined plane, then which 5A P 2.5A
of these reaches earlier on the ground : 2.5 m
(1) Solid cylinder
5m
(2) Hollow cylinder
µ0
(3) Both simultaneously (1) µ 0 (2) ⊗
4π π
(4) Can't say anything
Q.17 To find out degree of freedom, the correct µ0
(3) ⊗ (4) µ 0
expression is : 2π 2π
2 γ +1 Q.24 A charge having q/m equal to 108 c/kg and with
(1) f = (2) f =
γ –1 2 velocity 3 × 105 m/s enters into a uniform
2 1 magnetic field B = 0.3 tesla at an angle 30º with
(3) f = (4) f =
γ +1 γ +1 direction of field. Then radius of curvature will
be :
Q.18 The frequency order of for γ - rays (b), X – rays (a),
UV – rays (c) : (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.5 cm
(1) b > a > c (2) a > b > c (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
(3) c > b > a (4) a > c > b Q.25 The value of quality factor is :
Q.19 Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius 'a' ωL ω
(1) (2)
having linear charge density λ given is given by R RC
(3) LC (4) L/R
O a Q.26 Two stationary sources each emitting waves of
wave length λ. An observer moves from one
source to other with velocity u. Then number of
2λ λπ beats heared by him :
(1) (2)
∈0 a ∈0 a 2u u
(1) (2)
λ λ λ λ
(3) (4)
2π ∈0 a π ∈0 a u
(3) uλ (4)
Q.20 The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of boat 2λ
is 5 km/hr. The boat covered the width of river Q.27 A string is cut into three parts, having
with shortest will possible path in 15 min. Then fundamental frequencies n1, n2 and n3
the velocity of river stream is : respectively. Then original fundamental
(1) 3 km/hr (2) 4 km/hr frequency 'n' related by the expression as :
(3) 29 km/hr (4) 41 km/hr 1 1 1 1
(1) = + +
n n1 n 2 n3
Q.21 Motion of a particle is given by equation
S = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14 t + 8)m, The value of (2) n = n1 × n2 × n3
acceleration of the particle at t = 1 sec. is : (3) n = n1 + n2 + n3
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 32 m/s2 n1 + n 2 + n 3
(3) 23 m/s 2
(4) 16 m/s2 (4) n =
3
Q.28 The equations of two waves given as x = acos(ωt + δ) Q.34 If F = (60 î + 15 ˆj – 3 k̂ ) N and
and y = a cos (ωt + α), Where δ = α + π/2, then
resultant wave represent : V = (2 î – 4 ˆj + 5 k̂ ) m/s, then instantaneous
(1) a circle (c.w) power is :
(2) a circle (a.c.w) (1) 195 watt (2) 45 watt
(3) an Ellipse (c.w) (3) 75 watt (4) 100 watt
(4) an ellipse (a.c.w) Q.35 For the adjoining diagram, a triangular lamina is
shown the correct relation between I1, I2 & I3 is
Q.29 The relation between λ and T1/2 is :
(I – moment of inertia)
(T1/2 = half life, λ → decay constant)
A
ln 2
(1) T1/2 = (2) T1/2 ln2= λ I1 I3
λ 5
4
1 ln
(3) T1/2 = (4) (λ + T1/2) = I2
λ 2 B 3 C
1 (1) I1 > I2 (2) I2 > I1
Q.30 The ratio (W/Q) for a carnot – engine is , Now
6 (3) I3 > I1 (4) I3 > I2
the temp. of sink is reduced by 62ºC, then this
Q.36 Two spherical bob of masses MA and MB are
ratio becomes twice, therefore the initial temp. of
hung vertically from two strings of length lA
the sink and source are respectively :
and lB respectively. They are excuting SHM
(1) 33ºC, 67ºC (2) 37ºC, 99ºC
with frequency relation fA = 2fB, Then :
(3) 67ºC, 33ºC (4) 97 K, 37 K
lB
Q.31 From the following diode circuit. Which diode in (1) lA =
4
forward biased condition :
0 – 2V (2) lA = 4lB
(1) (3) lA= 2 lB & MA = 2MB
0 2V l M
(2) (4) lA = B & MA = B
2 2
–5V – 2V
(3) Q.37 Nuclear – Fission is best explained by :
5V 12V (1) Liquid droplet theory
(4)
(2) Yukawa π - meson theory
Q.32 Given Truth table is correct for :
(3) Independent particle model of the nucleus
A B Y (4) Proton-proton cycle
1 1 1 Q.38 Who evaluated the mass of electron indirectly
1 0 0 with help of charge :
0 1 0 (1) Thomson (2) Millikan
0 0 0 (3) Rutherford (4) Newton
(1) NAND (2) AND Q.39 A car battery of emf 12 V and internal
resistance 5 × 10–2 Ω, receives a current of 60 Å
(3) NOR (4) OR
from external source, then terminal voltage of
Q.33 The bob of simple pendulum having length l, is battery is :
displaced from mean position to an angular
(1) 12 V (2) 9 V
position θ with respect to vertical. If it is released,
(3) 15 v (4) 20 V
then velocity of bob at lowest position :
Q.40 Two bulbs of (40 W, 200 V), and (100 W, 200
(1) 2gl(1 – cos θ) V). Then correct relation for their resistance :
(2) 2gl(1 + cos θ) (1) R40 < R100
(2) R40 > R100
(3) 2gl cos θ (3) R40 = R100
(4) 2gl (4) No relation can be predicted
Q.41 According to the Faraday Law of electrolysis, Q.50 Which pair have not equal dimensions :
the mass deposited at electrode proportional to : (1) Energy and torque
(1) m ∝ I2 (2) Force and impulse
(2) m ∝ Q (3) Angular momentum and Plank's constant
(3) m ∝ Q2 (4) Elastic modulus and pressure
(4) 'm' does not depend on Q Q.51 Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for
Q.42 A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full following compounds :
image. Then required minimum length of the CH3
mirror will be :
(I) (II)
(1) 12 feet (2) 3 feet
(3) 6 feet (4) Any length OCH3 CF3
Q.43 The potentiometer is best for measuring voltage,
as : (III) (IV)
(1) It has a sensitive galvanometer
(1) IV< I < II < III (2) III < II < I < IV
(2) It has wire of high resistance
(3) I < IV < III < II (4) II < III < I < IV
(3) It measures p.d. like in closed circuit
Q.52 Ethyl benzoate can be prepared from benzoic
(4) It measures p.d. like in open circuit
acid by using :
Q.44 For a planet having mass equal to mass of the
(1) Ethyl alcohol
earth but radius is one fourth of radius of the
earth. Then escape velocity for this planet will be (2) Ethyl alcohol and dry HCl
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s (3) Ethyl chloride
(3) 5.6 km/s (4) 44.8 km/s (4) Sodium ethoxide
Q.45 The correct relation for α, β for a transistor : Q.53 Polarization in acrolein as :
+δ –δ
1– α α (1) CH 2= CH –CHO
(1) β = (2) β =
α 1– α
–δ +δ
β –1 (2) CH 2= CH –CHO
(3) α = (4) αβ =1
β –δ +δ
Q.46 The life span of atomic hydrogen is : (3) CH 2= CH –CHO
(1) Fraction of one sec. (2) One year +δ –δ
(4) CH 2= CH – CHO
(3) One hour (4) One day
Q.47 The cations and anions are arranged in alternate Q.54 A reduction
 → B CHCl
 3 /
KOH
→ C reduction
 →
( vip; u ) ( vip; u )
form in :
N-methyl aniline than A is :
(1) Metallic crystal
NH2 NO2
(2) Ionic crystal
(3) Co-valent crystal (1) (2)
(4) Semi-conductor crystal
NC
Q.48 When an electron do transition from n = 4 to
n = 2, then emitted line in spectrum will be : (3) CH3NH2 (4)
(1) First line of Lyman series
(2) Second line of Balmer series Q.55 First product of the reaction between RCHO
(3) First line of Paschen series and NH2NH2 : -
(4) Second line of Paschen series (1) RCH = NNH2 (2) RCH = NH
Q.49 A bubble in glass slab (µ = 1.5) when viewed (3) RCH2NH2 (4) RCON3
from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from Q.56 In Friedal craft reaction Toluene can be
other side, then thickness of slab is : prepared by :
(1) 3.75 cm (2) 3 cm (1) C6H6 + CH3Cl (2) C6H5Cl + CH4
(3) 10.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm (3) C6H6 + CH2Cl2 (4) C6H6 + CH3COCl
Q.57 Which reagent converts propene to 1-propanol : Q.67 Equilibrium constant Kp for following reaction :
(1) H2O, H2SO4 MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g)
(2) B2H6, H2O2, OH– (1) Kp = PCO 2
(3) Hg(OAc)2, NaBH4/H2O
PCO2 × PMgO
(4) Aq. KOH (2) Kp = PCO 2 ×
Q.58 Reduction by LiAlH4 of hydrolysed product of PMgCO3
an ester gives : PCO2 + PMgO
(1) Two alcohols (3) Kp =
PMgCO3
(2) Two aldehyde
(3) One acid and one alcohol PMgCO3
(4) Kp =
(4) Two acids PCO2 × PMgO
Q.59 α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are : Q.68 Correct relation b/w dissociation constant's of a
(1) Epimers (2) Anomer di-basic acid :
(3) Enantiomers (4) Diastereomers (1) Ka1 = Ka2 (2) Ka1 > Ka2
Q.60 CF2 = CF2 is monomer of : 1
(3) Ka1 < Ka2 (4) Ka1 =
(1) Teflon (2) Orlon Ka 2
(3) Polythene (4) Nylon-6
Q.69 For a any reversible reaction. If increases
Q.61 Correct order of stability is : concentration of reactants. Then effect on
(1) 1–butene > Trans–2–butene > Cis–2–butene equilibrium constant :
(2) Trans–2–butene > 1–butene > Cis–2–butene (1) Depend's on amount of concentration
(3) Trans–2–butene > Cis–2-butene > 1–butene (2) Unchange
(4) Cis-2–butene > Trans–2–butene > 1–butene (3) Decrease
Q.62 2-butene shows geometrical isomerism due to :
(4) Increase
(1) Restricted rotation about double bond
Q.70 A cube of any crystal A-atom placed at every
(2) Free rotation about double bond corners and B-atom placed at every centre of
(3) Free rotation about single bond face. The formula of compound :
(4) Chiral carbon (1) AB (2) AB3
Q.63 Dihedral angle in staggered form of ethane is : (3) A2B2 (4) A2B3
(1) 0º (2) 120º Q.71 In quantitative analysis of second group in lab.
(3) 60º (4) 180º H2S gas is passed in acidic medium for ppt.
Q.64 Which one is responsible for produce energy in When Cu+2 and Cd+2 react with KCN, than in
bio reaction : which of the following condition, ppt will not
(1) Thyroxine (2) Adrenelene be formed due to relative stability :
(3) Oestrogen (4) Projestrone (1) K2[Cu(CN)4] – More stable
Q.65 Average molar kinetic energy of CO and N2 at K2[Cd(CN)4] – Less stable
same temperature is : (2) K2[Cu(CN)4] – Less stable
(1) KE1 = KE2
K2[Cd(CN)4] – More stable
(2) KE1 > KE2
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4] – More stable
(3) KE1 < KE2
K2[Cd(CN)4] – Less stable
(4) Can't say any thing. Both volumes are not
(4) K3[Cu(CN)4] – Less stable
given
K3[Cd(CN)4] – More stable
Q.66 For given energy, corresponding wavelength will
be E = 3.03 × 10–19 Joules (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J x Q.72 Conjugate acid of NH2– :
sec., C = 3 × 108 m/sec.) (1) NH4OH (2) NH4+
(1) 65.3 nm. (2) 6.53 nm. (3) NH–2 (4) NH3
(3) 3.4 nm. (4) 653 nm.
Q.73 Which statement is wrong about pH and H+ Q.84 Which of the following element exhibit
(1) pH of neutral water does not zero maximum oxidation state :
(2) Adding 1N, 1N soln of CH3COOH and NaOH (1) Cr (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) V
pH will be seven Q.85 Which of the following statement is correct
(3) pH of dilute and hot H2SO4 is more than for the stability of ions of ethyl alcohol and
concentrate and cold H2SO4 phenol :
(4) Mixing solution of CH3COOH and HCl, pH (1) Delocalisation of π-electrons in phenoxide ion
will be less than 7 (2) Delocalisation of electrons in ethoxide ion
Q.74 A 300 gram radioactive sample has half life of (3) Inductive effect of ethyl and phenyl group
3 hour's. After 18 hour's remaining quantity will be : (4) Localisation of π-electrons in phenoxide ion
(1) 4.68 gram (2) 2.34 gram Q.86 Which compound has planar structure :
(3) 3.34 gram (4) 9.37 gram (1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2
Q.75 Which of the following compound is electron (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4
defficient :
Q.87 Which complex compound will give four
(1) BeCl2 (2) BCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) PCl5 isomers :
Q.76 dπ - pπ bond present in : (1) [Fe(en)3]Cl3
(1) CO 32 – (2) PO 4–3 (3) NO3– (4) NO 2– (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
Q.77 Which statement is wrong : (3) [Fe(PPh3)3NH3ClBr]Cl
(1) Bond energy of F2 > Cl2 (4) [Co(PPh3)3Cl]Cl3
(2) Electronegativity of F > Cl Q.88 Which species does not exhibits paramagnetism :
(3) F is more oxidising than Cl (1) N2+ (2) O2– (3) CO (4) NO
(4) Electron affinity of Cl > F Q.89 For the disproportionation of copper :
Q.78 Which compound form linear polymer due to 2 Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu, Eº is : - (Given Eº for
H-bond : Cu+2/Cu is 0.34 V & Eº for Cu+2/Cu+ is 0.15 V :
(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) HBr (4) HCl (1) 0.49 V (2) – 0.19 V
Q.79 Shape of Fe(CO)5 is : (3) 0.38 V (4) – 0.38 V
(1) Octahedral Q.90 Cell reaction is spontaneous when :
(2) Square planar (1) ∆Gº is negative (2) ∆Gº is positive
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal (3) ∆E ºRe d is positive (4) ∆E ºRe d is negative
(4) Square pyramidal Q.91 At infinite dilution equivalent conductances of
Q.80 Correct order of dissociation energy of N2 and Ba+2 & Cl– ions are 127 & 76ohm–1cm–1 eq–1
N2+ is : respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaCl2
(1) N2 > N2+ (2) N2 = N2+ at infinite dilutions is :
(3) N2+ > N2 (4) None (1) 139.5 (2) 101.5
Q.81 Isoelectronic species are : (3) 203 (4) 279
(1) CO, CN–, NO+, C22– Q.92 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO ∆Gº = – 616 J
(2) CO–, CN, NO, C2– 2Zn + S2 → 2ZnS ∆Gº = – 293 J
(3) CO+, CN+,NO–, C2 S2 + 2O2 → 2SO2 ∆Gº = – 408 J
(4) CO, CN, NO, C2 ∆Gº for the following reaction is :
Q.82 Which ion is colourless : 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
(1) Cr+4 (2) Sc+3 (1) – 731 J (2) – 1317 J
+3
(3) Ti (4) V+3 (3) – 501 J (4) + 731 J
Q.83 Mg is present in : Q.93 At 27ºC latent heat of fusion of a compound is
(1) Chlorophyl (2) Haemoglobin 2930 J/mol. Entropy change is :
(3) Vitamin-12 (4) Vitamin-B (1) 9.77 J/mol–K (2) 10.77 J/mol–K
(3) 9.07 J/mol–K (4) 0.977 J/mol–K
Q.94 For the reaction C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → Q.101 The first step for initiation of photosynthesis
2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) which one is true : will be :
(1) ∆H = ∆E – RT (1) Photolysis of water
(2) ∆H = ∆E + RT (2) Excitement of chlorophyll molecule due to
absorption of light
(3) ∆H = ∆E + 2RT
(3) ATP formation
(4) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT
(4) Glucose formation
Q.95 For the reaction H+ + BrO3– + 3Br– → 5Br2 +
Q.102 When the plants are grown in magnesium
H2O which of the following relation correctly
deficient but urea rich soil; the symptoms
represents the consumption & formation of
expressed are :
reactants and products :
(1) Yellowish leaves (2) Colourless petiole
d[Br – ] 3 d[Br2 ] (3) Dark green leaves (4) Shoot apex die
(1) =–
dt 5 dt Q.103 For the synthesis of one glucose molecule the
d[Br – ] 3 d[Br2 ] calvin cycle operates for :
(2) =
dt 5 dt (1) 2 times (2) 4 times
d[Br – ] 5 d[Br2 ] (3) 6 times (4) 8 times
(3) =– Q.104 Plants take zinc in form of :
dt 3 dt
(1) ZnSO4 (2) Zn++ (3) ZnO (4) Zn
d[Br – ] 5 d[Br2 ]
(4) = Q.105 The bacteria generally used for genetic
dt 3 dt
engineering is :
Q.96 From the colligative properties of solution which
(1) Agrobacterium (2) Bacillus
one is the best method for the determination of
mol. wt of proteins & polymers : (3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium
(1) Osmotic pressure Q.106 For assimilation of one CO2 molecule; the
energy required in form of ATP & NADPH2
(2) Lowering in V.P.
(1) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(3) Lowering is freezing point
(4) Elevation in B.Pt.
Q.97 Which one of the following method is commonly (4) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2
used method for destruction of colloid :
Q.107 Which is the first CO2 Acceptor enzyme in C4
(1) Dialysis plants :
(2) Condensation (1) RuDP Carboxylase (2) Phosphoric acid
(3) Filteration by animal membrane (3) RUBISCO (4) PEP-Carboxylase
(4) By adding electrolyte Q.108 According to mendelism which character is
Q.98 Volume of CO2 obtained by the complete showing dominance :
decomposition of 9.85 gm. BaCO3 is : (1) Terminal position of flower
(1) 2.24 lit. (2)1.12 lit. (2) Green colour in seed coat
(3) 0.84 lit. (4) 0.56 lit. (3) Wrinkled seed
Q.99 Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are + 2, +5 and – (4) Green pod colour
2 respectively possible formula of compound is : Q.109 Due to the cross between TTRr × ttrr the
(1) A2(BC2)2 (2) A3(BC4)2 resultant progenies showed how many percent
plants tall, red flowered :
(3) A2(BC3)2 (4) A3(B2C)2
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 25% (4) 100%
Q.100 R and S enantiomer are differ in : Q.110 Which is showing accurate pairing :
(1) Rotation of PPL (1) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
(2) Solubility in achiral solvent (2) AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis
(3) Chemical properties (3) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania denovoni
(4) Dipole moment (4) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
Q.111 Which is expressing right appropriate pairing : Q.122 What is true for mammalia :
(1) Brassicaceae - Sunflower (1) Platypus is oviparous
(2) Malvaceae - Cotton (2) Bats have feather
(3) Papilionaceae - Catechu (3) Elephant is a ovo viviparous
(4) Liliaceae - Wheat (4) Diaphragm is absent in them
Q.112 Enzymes not found in : Q.123 Which of the following character is not found in
(1) Fungi (2) Algae all the chordates :
(3) Virus (4) Cyanobacteria (1) Diaphragm (2) Coelom
Q.113 Virus are living, because : (3) Pharyngeal gill clifts (4) Dorsal nerve cord
(1) They multiply in host cells Q.124 Hair are found in the inflorescences of Zea mays
(2) Carry anaerobic respiration are the modification of :
(3) Carry metabolic activity (1) Style (2) Stigma (3) Spathe (4) Filaments
(4) Cause infection Q.125 Pneumatophores are found in :
Q.114 If the apical bud has been removed then we (1) The vegetation which is found in marshy
observe : and saline lake
(1) More lateral branches (2) The vegetation which found in saline soil
(2) More axillary buds (3) Xerophytes
(3) Plant growth stops (4) Epiphytes
(4) Flowering stops Q.126 Concentration of urine depends upon which
Q.115 Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening : organ :
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxin (1) Bowman's capsule
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Cytokinin (2) Length of Henle's loop
Q.116 Eight nucleated embryosac is a : (3) P.C.T.
(1) Only monosporic (2) Only bisporic (4) Network of capillaries arising from
(3) Only tetra sporic (4) Any of the above glomerulus
Q.117 Which is the cause of damage to relative Q.127 In which point pulmonary artery is different
biological effectiveness : from pulmonary vein :
(1) High temperature (2) Pollution (1) Its lumen is broad (2) Its wall is thick
(3) Radiation (4) Low temperature (3) It have valves
Q.118 Which is the reason for highest biomass in (4) It does not possess endothelium
aquatic ecosystem : Q.128 Reason, why hair loss is more in old age :
(1) Nano plankton, blue green algae, green algae (1) Reduction of blood supply
(2) Sea grass, and slime molds (2) Decrease in protein synthesis
(3) Benthonic and brown algae (3) Low energy production
(4) Diatoms
(4) Reduced storage of glycogen
Q.119 Geocarpic fruits is :
Q.129 What is the work of copper T :
(1) Carrot (2) Radish
(1) To inhibit ovulation
(3) Ground nut (4) Turnip
(2) To inhibit fertilization
Q.120 Endosperm is formed during the double
fertilization by : (3) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(1) Two polar nuclei & one male gamete (4) To inhibit gametogenesis
(2) One polar nuclei & one male gamete Q.130 What is the work of progesteron which is
(3) Ovum and male gamete present in oral contraceptive pills :
(4) Two polar nuclei & two male gametes (1) To inhibit ovulation
Q.121 By which action a seed coat becomes permeable (2) To check oogenesis
to water : (3) To check entry of sperms in to cervix & to
(1) Sclarification (2) Stratification make them inactive
(3) Vernalization (4) All of the above (4) To check sexual behaviour
Q.131 Conversion of ammonia to urea is done Q.141 Depolarization of axolema during nerve
by ……..... Cycle : conduction takes place because of :
(1) Ornithin cycle (2) Arginine cycle (1) Equal amount of Na+ & K+ move out across
(3) Fumaric cycle (4) Citrulline cycle axolema
Q.132 What is name of joint between ribs and sternum : (2) Na+ move inside and K+ move more out side
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Angular joint (3) More Na+ outside
(3) Gliding joint (4) Fibrous joints (4) None
Q.133 Bone related with skull is : Q.142 Which statement is true for WBC :
(1) Coracoid (2) Arytenoid (1) Non nucleated
(2) In deficiency cancer is caused
(3) Pterygoid (4) Atlas
(3) Manufactured in thymus
Q.134 Melatonin is secreted by :
(4) Can squeeze through blood capillaries
(1) Pineal body (2) Skin
Q.143 Which pair is correct :
(3) Pituitary Gland (4) Thyroid
(1) Sweat = temperature regulation
Q.135 M S H is secreted by :
(2) Saliva = sense of food taste
(1) Anteria lobe of pituitary
(3) Sebum = sexual attraction
(2) Middle lobe of pituitary
(4) Humerus = Hind leg
(3) Posteria lobe of pituitary
Q.144 Which gland secretes odourous secretion in
(4) Endostyle mammals :
Q.136 A person who is eating boiled potato his food (1) Bartholins (2) Prostate
contains the component is : (3) Anal gland (4) Liver-bile
(1) Cellulose which is digested by cellulase Q.145 Characteristic of simple epithelium is :
(2) Starch which is not digested (1) They are arranged indiscriminately
(3) Lactose which is not digested (2) They make a definite layer
(4) DNA which can be digested by pancreatic (3) Continue to divide and help in organ
DNA'ase function
Q.137 In mammals milk is digested by action of : (4) None
(1) Rennin (2) Amylase Q.146 Which food should be eaten in deficiency of
(3) Intestinal bacteria (4) Invertase Rhodopsin in eyes :
Q.138 What happens if bone of frog is kept in dilute (1) Carrot & ripe papaya
hydrochloric acid : (2) Guava, banana
(1) Will become flexible (3) Mango & Potato
(2) Will turn black (4) None
(3) Will break in pieces Q.147 Which factor is responsible for inhibition of
enzymatic process during feed back :
(4) Will shrinke
(1) Substrate (2) Enzymes
Q.139 Which disease of man is similar with cattle's,
(3) End product (4) Temperature
bovine spongyform encephalopathy :
Q.148 During viral infection the protein formed in host
(1) Encephalitis
cells to resist is :
(2) Jecob-crutzfelt disease
(1) Interferone (2) Antitoxin
(3) Spongiocitis of cerebrum
(3) Antibody (4) Histone
(4) Spondylitis Q.149 The movement of ions against the concentration
Q.140 Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused when : gradient will be :
(1) Rh– female & Rh+ male (1) Active transport
(2) Rh+ female & Rh– male (2) Osmosis
(3) Rh+ female & Rh+ male (3) Diffusion
(4) Rh– female & Rh– male (4) All
Q.150 Which is not a vestigial organ in man : Q.160 Which cell organelle is concerned with
(1) Third molar (2) Nails glycosylation of protein :
(3) Segmental muscles of abdomen (1) Ribosome
(4) Coccyx (2) Peroxisome
Q.151 Homo sapiens have evolved in : (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Paleocene (2) Plestocene (4) Mitochondria
(3) Oligocene (4) Myocene Q.161 Simillarity in DNA and RNA :
Q.152 Character which is closely related to human (1) Both are polymer of nucleotides
evolution : (2) Both have similar pyrimidine
(1) Disappearance of tail (3) Both have similar sugar
(2) Reduction in size of jaws (4) Both are genetic material
(3) Binocular vision Q.162 Aquatic fern is used to increase the yield in
(4) Flat nails paddy crop :
Q.153 Which evidence of evolution related to Darwin's (1) Azolla (2) Salvinia
finches : (3) Marsilea (4) Isoetes
(1) Evidences from biogeographical distribution Q.163 Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree, and
(2) Evidences from comparative anatomy largest gametes :
(3) Evidences from embryology (1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm
(4) Evidences from palaeontological (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
Q.154 Who is directly related to man : Q.164 In ferns, Meiosis takes place at the time of :
(1) Gorilla (2) Rhesus (1) Spore formation
(3) Gibbon (4) Orangutan (2) Spore germination
Q.155 Lemur edri-edri is found in : (3) Gamete formation
(1) Madagascar (2) Mauritius (4) Antheridia and archegonia formation
(3) India (4) Sri Lanka Q.165 Similarity in Ascaris lumbricoides and
Q.156 Coconut milk is used in tissue culture in which Anopheles stephensi :
present : (1) Sexual dimorphism (2) Metamerism
(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin (3) Anaerobic respiration (4) Endoparasitism
(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene Q.166 Length of one loop of B- DNA :
Q.157 A giant rat is formed in the laboratory, what is (1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm.
the reason : (3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm.
(1) Gene mutation (2) Gene synthesis Q.167 Primary function of enteronephric nephridia of
(3) Gene manipulation (4) Gene replication Pheretima :
Q.158 Plasmid has been used as vector because : (1) Osmoregulation
(1) It is circular DNA which have capacity to (2) Excretion of nitrogenous waste
join to eukaryotic DNA (3) Respiration
(2) It can move between prokaryotic and (4) Locomotion
eukaryotic cells
Q.168 Which statement is correct :
(3) Both ends show replication
(1) A. indica is largest wild honey bee
(4) It has antibiotic resistance gene
Q.159 Irregularity is found in drosophila during the (2) Wax is waste material of honey bee
organ differentiation for example- inplace of (3) C.V. Fritsch discovered the transmission
wing, long legs are formed. Which gene is methods in honey bee
responsible for : (4) Drone of honey bee is diploid
(1) Double dominant gene Q.169 ATP is :
(2) Homeotic gene
(1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside
(3) Complimentary gene
(3) Nucleic acid (4) Vitamin
(4) Plastid
Q.170 Essential amino acid is : Q.180 What happens in plants during vascularisation :
(1) Phenyl alanine (2) Glycine (1) Differentiation of procambium, formation
(3) Aspartic acid (4) Serine of primary phloem followed by formation
of primary xylem
Q.171 Anticodon occurs in :
(2) Differentiation of procambium followed by
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA
the formation of primary phloem and
(3) r-RNA (4) DNA xylem simultaneously
Q.172 In three dimensional view the molecule of (3) Formation of procambium, primary phloem
t-RNA is : and xylem simultaneously
(1) L-shaped (2) S-shaped (4) Differentiation of procambium followed by
(3) Y-shaped (4) E-shaped the formation of secondary xylem
Q.173 Saline solution is given to patients of Cholera Q.181 Which of the following ribosomes are engaged
because : in protein synthesis in animal cell :
(1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (1) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear
(2) NaCl function as regulatory material membrane and E.R.
(2) Ribosomes of only cytosol
(3) NaCl produces energy
(3) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol
(4) NaCl is antibacterial
(4) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and
Q.174 Function of telomeres in nucleus :
cytosol
(1) Pole ward movement
Q.182 First cloned animal :
(2) To initiate the RNA synthesis
(1) Dolly sheep (2) Polly sheep
(3) To seal the ends of chromosome (3) Molly sheep (4) Dog
(4) To recognize the homologous chromosome Q.183 Which of the following is initiation codon :
Q.175 Spindle fibre unite with which structure of (1) UAG (2) AUC
chromosomes : (3) AUG (4) CCU
(1) Chromocentre (2) Chromomere Q.184 Method of DNA replication in which two
(3) Kinetochore (4) Centriole strands of DNA separates and synthesize new
Q.176 Which of the following have carbohydrate as strands :
prosthetic group : (1) Dispersive
(1) Glycoprotein (2) Conservative
(2) Chromoprotein (3) Semiconservative
(3) Lipoprotein (4) Non conservative
(4) Nucleoprotein Q.185 In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to
Q.177 Viable material of endangered species can be femaleness whereas in human beings the same
condition leads to Klienfelter's syndrome in
preserved by :
male. It proves :
(1) Gene bank (2) Gene library
(1) In human beings Y chromosome is active
(3) Herbarium (4) Gene pool in sex determination
Q.178 Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of (2) Y chromosome is active in sex
polysaccharide : determination in both human beings and
(1) Condriotin (2) Ossein Drosophila
(3) In Drosophila Y-chromosome decides
(3) Cassin (4) Cartilegen
femaleness
Q.179 Mangolian idiots are due to trisomy in 21st (4) Y chromosome of man have genes for
chromosome is called : syndrome
(1) Down's syndrome Q.186 In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication
(2) Turner's syndrome occurs :
(3) Kleinfelters syndrome (1) G1 - phase (2) S - phase
(4) Triplex syndrome (3) G2 - phase (4) M - phase
Q.187 Black rust of wheat is caused by : Q.197 Most of the mutations are :
(1) Puccinia (2) Ustilago (1) Harmful (2) Harmful and recessive
(3) Albugo (4) Phytophthora (3) Beneficial (4) Dominant
Q.188 Which of the following animals have scattered Q.198 Stored food in fungi :
cells with cell – tissue grade organisation : (1) Starch (2) Proteins
(1) Sponge (2) Hydra (3) Glycogen (4) Chitin
(3) Liver fluke (4) Ascaris Q.199 Living beings maintain continuity of life by :
Q.189 Blastopore is the pore of : (1) Adaptation
(1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel (2) DNA–replication and its transfer in next
(3) Coelom (4) A.C. generation
Q.190 Cleavage in mammals : (3) RNA synthesis
(1) Holoblastic equal (4) None of the above
(2) Holoblastic unequal Q.200 What shall be the effect of destruction of wild
(3) Superficial life :
(4) Discoidal (1) Wild gene of disease resistance will not be
Q.191 Extranuclear DNA is found in : obtained
(1) Lysosome and chloroplast (2) Soil erosion
(2) Chloroplast and mitochondria (3) Floods
(3) Mitochondria and lysosome (4) Green house effect
(4) Golgi and E.R.
Q.192 Which of the following is used to manufacture
ethanol from starch :
(1) Penicilline
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Azotobactor
(4) Lactobacillus
Q.193 A student observed an algae with chl. 'a' 'd' and
phycoerythrin it should belong to :
(1) Phaeophyta (2) Rhodophyta
(3) Chlorophyta (4) Bacillariophyta
Q.194 Lysosome contains :
(1) Oxidative enzymes
(2) Hydrolytic enzymes
(3) Reductive enzymes
(4) Anabolic enzymes
Q.195 Role of enzyme in reactions :
(1) Decrease activation energy
(2) Increase activation energy
(3) Inorganic catalyst
Q.196 What happens in light reaction (Photo chemical
reaction ) :
(1) Formation of ATP and NADPH2
(2) Formation of ATP
(3) Formation of sugar
(4) Breakdown of sugar
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 3 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 3 1 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 1
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 2 2 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 1
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 3
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 2
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 1
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
1. 10g – T = 10a →
1 × 50 ĵ = 0.4 × 25 (– ˆj ) + 0.6 v
T – 5g = 5a
→
5g = 15a 50 ĵ + 10 ĵ = 0.6 v
g
a= →60ˆj
3 v= = 100 ˆj = 100 m/s ĵ
0.6
4. It is balanced wheatstone bridge so equivalent
resistance between A & B
3 4
T A B
a↑ T a↓ 7
5g
10g 6 8
R 1 × R 2 14 × 7 14
2. R= = = Ω
60º R1 + R 2 21 3
30º q2
30º 1 1
60º 2C C
5.
2
C
∆p mv cos 30º −(− mv cos 30º ) q2
F= = energy stored (U) =
∆t ∆t 2C
2mv cos 30º 2 × 3 × 10 × 3 After connecting with another capacitor
= = = 150 3 N
∆t 0.2 × 2 q + q2 q+0 q
VCommon = 1 = =
3. Velocity after 5 second C1 + C 2 C + C 2C
v = 100 – 10 × 5 Q Energy on each capacitor
v = 50 m/s. 2
1 2 1  q  U
from conservation of momentum = CVCommon =   = .
2 2  2C  4
1 1
2u 2 sin θ cos θ =
6. R= 4 (5) − v 2
2
g
Range of a projectile for angles of projection θ 1 1
=
and 90 – θ are same. 16 25 − v 2
7. Tension in the string at the lowest position B is v = 3 km/hr.
maximum.
ds d
10. F = mg = 72N 21. v= = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8)
dt dt
2 2
 Re   Re  = 9t2 + 14t + 14
g' = g   = g
 R +R /2

R
 e + h   e e  dv
a= = 18t + 14
 2R  4
2 dt
=g e = g at, t = 1 sec.
3R
 e 9
a = 32 ms–2.
4 4
F' = mg' = mg × = 72 × = 32N 5µ 0 2µ
9 9 23. Magnetic field due to 5A → = 0⊗
2π × 2.5 2π
13. Equivalent power of combination
Peq = 2PL + PM 2.5µ 0 µ
Magnetic field due to 2.5A → = 0
1 2π × 2.5 2π
= 2(µ – 1)   + 0
R 2µ 0 µ 0 µ 0
Resultant Magnetic field = – = ⊗
2 π 2π 2π
→
24. V
→
V sin30º
30º →
B
The required focal length mV⊥
r=
1 R 10 qB
f=– =– =– = – 10cm
Peq 2(µ − 1) 2(1.5 − 1)
m  3 × 10 5 × sin 30º 
2 r =    
Q γ=1+  
17. q  0.3 
f
2 2 3 × 10 5
⇒ =γ–1 ⇒f = r= 8
= 0.5 × 10–2 m = 0.5 cm
f γ −1 10 × 0.3 × 2
19. u
26. s1 O s2
For first source
 v−u  u
α=π n1 = n   = 1 −  n
 v   v
for IInd source
v+u  u
2Kλ n2 = n   = 1 +  n
Electric field at O = sin (α/2)  v   v
a
2λ π λ nu nu
= sin = Beat freq. = |n1 – n2| = n + –n+
4π ∈0 a 2 2π ∈0 a v v
d 2nu u  1 n
20. t= =
v
=2
λ Q v = nλ ∴ λ = v 
 
u 2 − v2
27. l = l1 + l2 + l3 1 g
36. f=
k k k k 2π l
= + +
n n1 n 2 n3 1
f∝
1 1 1 1 l
⇒ = + +
n n1 n 2 n3
fA lB
=
W 1 fB lA
30. =
Q 6
2f B lB
T 1 ⇒ =
1– L = fB lA
TH 6
lB
TL 5 ⇒ 4=
=n lA
TH 6
lB
If sink temp. decrease by 62ºC then ⇒ lA =
4
TL − 62 2 T − 62 2
1– = ⇒ L = 39. V = E + IR
TH 6 TH 3
= 12 + 60 × 5 × 10–2
5 = 12 + 3
2TH = 3TL – 186 ⇒ 2TH = 3 × TH – 186
6 = 15 V
5 5−4 V2 1
2TH – TH = – 186 ⇒ TH = 186 40. P= ,P∝
2 2 R R
TH = 186 × 2 = 372 K = 99ºC i.e. R40 > R100
5 42. The minimum height of mirror
TL = × 372 = 310 K = 37ºC
6 h 6
= = = 3 feet
2 2
33. θ 44. Ves for earth is 11.2 km/sec.
lcosθ l.
l 2GM e
ves = = 11.2 km/sec.
Re
2GM e × 4 2GM e
v 'es = = 2
Potential energy at extreme position = kinetic Re Re
energy at mean position
= 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/sec.
1
mgl (1 – cos θ) = mv2 t−x
2 49. From one side, = 1.5
5
v = 2gl(1 − cos θ) x
From other side, = 1.5 → x = 3
→ → 2
34 P = F. v
t −3
= (60 î +15 ĵ – 3 k̂ ) . (2 î – 4 ĵ + 5 k̂ ) ∴ = 1.5 ⇒ t = 7.5 + 3 = 10.5 cm
5
= (120 – 60 – 15) = 45 watt
35. For triangular lamina

Longest side → Imin
Smallest side → Imax
Therefore I2 > I1 > I3
AIPMT - 2001
Q.1 The dimension of Planck constant equals to that Q.8 Two particles having mass 'M' and 'm' are
of : moving in a circular path having radius R & r
(1) Energy (2) Momentum respectively. If their time period are same then
(3) Angular momentum (4) Power the ratio of angular velocity will be : -
Q.2 Following truth table represent which logic r R R
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
gate – R r r
Q.9 A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and
A B C maximum heights from the ground is
1 1 0 0.75 m and 2 m respectively, its maximum
speed will be
0 1 1
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
1 0 1
(3) 8 m/s (4) 15 m/s
0 0 1
Q.10 The current (I) in the circuit will be : -
(1) XOR (2) NOT 20
(3) NAND (4) AND
Q.3 Which rays contain (+ Ve) charged particle : - 30
(1) α-rays (2) β-rays I
20 5V
(3) γ-rays (4) X-rays
Q.4 An electron having mass 'm' and kinetic energy E 5 5 5 5
enter in uniform magnetic field B (1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
40 50 10 20
perpendicularly, then its frequency will be : -
Q.11 Biological importance of Ozone layer is : -
eE 2πm
(1) (2) (1) It stops ultraviolet rays
qVB eB
(2) Ozone layer reduces green house effect
eB 2m
(3) (4) (3) Ozone layer reflects radio waves
2πm eBE
(4) Ozone layer controls O2/H2 ratio in
Q.5 A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its
atmosphere
velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s. Then the
maximum height attained by it : - Q.12 Two springs A and B having spring constant KA
and KB. (KA = 2KB) are stretched by applying
(g = 10 m/s2)
force of equal magnitude. If energy stored in
(1) 8 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) 16 m spring A is E then energy stored in B will be : -
Q.6 A particle is projected making angle 45º with
E E
horizontal having kinetic energy K. The kinetic (1) 2E (2) (3) (4) 4E
energy at highest point will be : - 4 2
K K Q.13 A charge Q µc is placed at the centre of cube,
(1) (2) (3) 2K (4) K
2 2 the flux coming out from any surfaces will be : -
Q.7 A black body has wavelength λm corresponding Q Q

(1) × 10–6 (2) × 10–3
to maximum energy at 2000 K. Its wavelength 6ε 0 6ε 0
corresponding to maximum energy at 3000 K Q Q
(3) (4)
will be : - 2ε 0 8ε 0
3 2
(1) λm (2) λm Q.14 X(n, α) 37 Li , then X will be : -
2 3
10
16 81 (1) 5 B (2) 95 B (3) 11
4 Be (4) 42 He
(3) λm (4) λm
81 16
Q.15 Half life of radioactive element is 12.5 Hour and Q.23 A cylindrical rod having temperature T1 and T2
its quantity is 256 gm. After how much time its at its end. The rate of flow of heat Q1 cal/sec. If
quantity will remain 1 gm : - all the linear dimension are doubled keeping
(1) 50 Hrs (2) 100 Hrs temperature remain const. then rate of flow of
heat Q2 will be : -
(3) 150 Hrs (4) 200 Hrs
(1) 4Q1 (2) 2Q1
Q.16 A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat
engine which work at source temperature 127ºC Q1 Q1
(3) (4)
and sink temperature 27º C to 26%, then 4 2
(1) It is impossible Q.24 If A + B = A = B then angle between
(2) It is possible but less probable
A and B will be : -
(3) It is quite probable
(1) 90º (2) 120º (3) 0º (4) 60º
(4) Data are incomplete
Q.25 Optical fibre are based on : -
Q.17 A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm. in 0.1
(1) Total internal relfection
second moving with speed 20 ms–1. Then he
(2) Less scattering
experiences force of : -
(3) Refraction
(1) 300 N (2) 30 N (3) 3 N (4) 0.3 N
(4) Less absorbtion coefficient
Q.18 If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire
of fundamental frequency n is doubled and Q.26 Which one among shows particle nature of
density is halved then its fundamental frequency light.
will become (1) P.E.E. (2) Interference
n n (3) Refraction (4) Polirazation
(1) (2) 2n (3) n (4)
4 2 Q.27 Two waves having equation
Q.19 The total energy of particle performing SHM x1 = a sin(ωt + φ1)
depend on : - x2 = a sin (ωt + φ2)
(1) K, a, m (2) K, a If in the resultant wave the frequency and
(3) K, a, x (4) K, x amplitude remains equals to amplitude of
Q.20 With what velocity should a particle be projected superimposing waves. Then phase diff. between
so that its height becomes equal to radius of them : -
earth - π 2π
(1) (2)
1/ 2 1/ 2 6 3
 GM   8 GM 
(1)   (2)   π π
 R   R  (3) (4)
1/ 2 1/ 2
4 3
 2 GM   4 GM 
(3)   (4)   Q.28 In Thomson mass spectrograph E ⊥ B then the
 R   R 
velocity of underflected electron beam will be :
Q.21 A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has
5 |E| | B| E2
refractive index . A source of light is placed 4 (1) (2) E × B (3) (4)
3 | B| |E| B2
m below the surface of liquid. The minimum
radius of disc will be so light is not coming out Q.29 Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having
(1) ∞ (2) 3m (3) 6m (4) 4m area A and separation d kept at potential
diffeence V is given by : -
Q.22 A ray of light travelling in air haves wavelength λ,
frequency n, velocity v and intensity I. If this ray 1 V2 1 V2
(1) ε0 (2)
enters into water then these parameter are λ', n' , v' 2 d2 2ε 0 d 2
and I' respectively. Which relation is correct 1 Q2
(3) CV 2 (4)
(1) λ = λ′ (2) n = n′ (3) v = v′ (4) I = I′ 2 2C
Q.30 On the horizontal surface of a truck a block of Q.37 A dipole of moment p is placed in uniform
mass 1 kg is placed (µ = 0.6) and truck is
electric field E then torque acting on it is given
moving with acceleration 5 m/s2 then the
by : -
frictional force on block will be : -
(1) 5N (2) 6N (1) τ = p . E (2) τ = p × E
(3) 5.88N (4) 8N (3) τ = p + E (4) τ = p – E
Q.31 Tangent galvanometer is used to measure : -
Q.38 If number of turn, area and current through it is
(1) Potential difference given by n, A and i respectively then its
(2) Current magnetic moment will be : -
(3) Resistance (1) niA (2) n2iA
(4) In measuring charge ni
(3) niA2 (4)
Q.32 A capacitor of capacity C and reactance X if A
capacitance and frequency become double then Q.39 The equation of a wave is represented by : -
reactance will be : -
 x
X y = 10–4 sin 100 t –  m, then the velocity of
(1) 4X (2)  10 
2
wave will be : -
X
(3) (4) 2X (1) 100 m/s (2) 4 m/s
4
(3) 1000 m/s (4) 0.00 m/s
Q.33 A disc is rolling the velocity of its centre of mass
Q.40 The interplaner distance in a crystal is 2.8 × 10–8
is Vcm then which one will be correct : -
m. The value of maximum wavelength which can
(1) The velocity of highest point is 2Vcm and
be diffracted : -
point of contact is zero
(1) 2.8 × 10–8 m (2) 5.6 × 10–8 m
(2) The velocity of highest point is Vcm and point –8
(3) 1.4 × 10 m (4) 7.6 × 10–8 m
of contact is Vcm
Q.41 The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En
(3) The velocity of highest point is 2Vcm and
then the energy in nth orbit of singly ionised
point of contact is Vcm
helium atom will be : -
(4) The velocity of highest point is 2 Vcm and
(1) 4 En (2) En/4
point of contact of contact is 2Vcm
(3) 2En (4) En/2
Q.34 If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
10–7Ωm and current flow through it is 0.1 A, Q.42 Among which the magnetic susceptibility does
cross-sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2 then not depend on the temperature : -
potential gradient will be : - (1) Dia-magnetis (2) Paramagnetis
–2
(1) 10 V/m –4
(2) 10 V/m (3) Ferro-magnetism (4) Ferrite
–6
(3) 10 V/m –8
(4) 10 V/m Q.43 The resistance of each arm of the wheat stone
Q.35 For a coil having L = 2 mh, current flow through bridge is 10 ohm. A resistance of 10 ohm is
it is I = t2 e–t then the time at which emf become connected in series with galvanometer then the
zero : - equivalent resistance across the battery will be :
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s (1) 10 ohm (2) 15 ohm
(3) 4 s (4) 3 s (3) 20 ohm (4) 40 ohm

Q.44 Copper and silicon is cooled from 300 K to
IC
Q.36 For a common emmiter circuit if = 0.98 then 60 K, the specific resistance : -
IE
(1) Decrease in copper but increase in silicon
current gain for common emitter circuit will be :-
(2) Increase in copper but decrease in silicon
(1) 49 (2) 98 (3) Increase in both
(3) 4.9 (4) 25.5 (4) Decrease in both
Q.45 In BCC, the distance between two nearest atoms (1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II
will be : - (3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II
3 3 a Q.52 CH3–CH2–CH–CH3 obtained by chlorination of
(1) 3 a (2) a (3) a (4)
2 4 2 Cl
Q.46 250 N force is required to raise 75 kg mass from n-butane, will be : -
a pulley. If rope is pulled 12 m then the load is (1) Meso form (2) Racemic mixture
lifted to 3m, the efficiency of pulley system will
(3) d-form (4) l-form
be : -
Q.53 Which alkeneon ozonolysis gives
(1) 25% (2) 33.3%
CH3CH2CHO and CH3CCH3 : -
(3) 75% (4) 90%
Q.47 A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, O
which is placed at a distance d from the cell. If CH3
(1) CH3CH2CH = C
the distance become d/2, then number of CH3
electrons emited per second will be : -
(2) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3
(1) Remain same (2) Four times
(3) CH3CH2CH = CHCH3
(3) Two times (4) One-fourth
(4) CH3 – C = CHCH3
Q.48 Mn and Mp represet the mass of neutron and
proton respectively. An element having mass CH3
M has N neutron and Z-protons, then the correct Q.54 Intermediates formed during reaction of
relation will be : - RCNH2 with Br2 and KOH are : -
(1) M < {N.Mn + Z.Mp} (2) M > {N.Mn + Z.Mp} O
(3) M = {N.Mn+Z.Mp} (4) M=N{Mn + Mp} (1) RCONHBr and RNCO
Q.49 A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts (2) RNHCOBr and RNCO
having mass 1 : 1 : 3 respectively. Parts having (3) RNH-Br and RCONHBr
same mass move in perpendicular direction with (4) RCONBr2
velocity 30 ms–1, then the velocity of bigger part Q.55 An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction
will be : - with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon
10 which on monochlorination gives only one
(1) 10 2 ms–1 (2) ms –1
2 chloro derivative then, A is : -
15 (1) t-butyl chloride
(3) 15 2 ms –1 (4) ms –1
2 (2) sec. butyl chloride
Q.50 Energy is released in nuclear fission is due to (3) Iso butyl chloride
(1) Few mass is converted into energy (4) n-butyl chloride
(2) Total binding energy of fragements is more Q.56 Which of the following is incorrect : -
than the B.E. of parantel element (1) FeCl3 is used in detection of phenol
(3) Total B.E. of fragements is less than the B.E. (2) Fehling solution is used in detection of
of parantel element glucose
(4) Total B.E. of fragements is equals to the B.E. (3) Tollen reagent is used in detection of
of parantal element is unsaturation
Q.51 The correct acidic order of following is : - (4) NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl
OH OH OH compound
Q.57 Which of following give positive Fehling
(I) (II) (III) solution test
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
CH3 NO2
(3) Fats (4) Protein
Q.58 Which of the following is not correctly matched Q.63 Which of the following is correxct about H-
bonding in nucleotide : -
(1) Neoprene – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – (1) A–T G–C (2) A–G T–C
Cl n (3) G–T A–C (4) A–A T–T
(2) Nylon-66 Q.64 Which is correct statement : -
O (1) Starch is polymer of α-glucose
–NH–(CH2)6 – NH – CO – (CH2)4 – C – O – (2) Amylose is a component of cellulose
n (3) Proteins are composed of only one type of

amino acid
O O (4) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four
(3) Terylene –OCH2–CH2–C C– carbons and one oxygen atom
n
O
CH3 ..
Q.65 – C – NH – (peptide bond)
(4) PMMA – CH2 – C – which statement is incorrect about peptide
COOCH3 n bond : -
Q.59 Which of the following is correct : - (1) C–N bond length in protiens is longer than
(1) Cyclo heptane is an aromatic compound usual bond length of N-bond
(2) Diastase is an enzyme (2) Spectroscopic analysis show planar structure
(3) Acetophenone is an ether of – C –NH – group
(4) All the above O

Q.60 The incorrect IUPAC name is : - (3) C–N bond length in proteins is smaller than
usual bond length of C–N bond
(1) CH3–C–CH–CH3 2-methyl-3-butanone
(4) None of above
O CH3
Q.66 In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
toluene in vapour is : -
CH3 CH2–CH3 (1) Equal pressure of barometer
(3) CH3–C≡CCH(CH3)2 4-methyl-2-pentyne (2) Less than pressure of barometer
(4) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 2-bromo-3-chloro butane (3) Equal to vapour pressure to toluene in
Cl Br simple distillation
Q.61 In preparation of alkene from alcohol using (4) More than vapour pressure of toluene in
Al2O3 which is effective factor : - simple distillation
(1) Porousity of Al2O3 Q.67 A compound of molecular formula is C7H16
(2) Temperature shows optical isomerism, compound will be
(3) Concentration (1) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(4) Surface area of Al2O3 (2) 2, 2-dimethyl butane
Q.62 Which of following is correct : - (3) 2-methyl hexane
(1) Any aldehyde gives secondary alcohol on (4) None of the above
reduction Q.68 Change in enthalpy for reaction
(2) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4 give 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
glycerin If heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are
(3) C2H5OH, iodine with NaOH gives iodoform – 188 & – 286 KJ/mol respectively : -
(4) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl give invert (1) – 196 KJ/mol (2) + 196 KJ/mol
sugar
(3) + 948 KJ/mol (4) – 948 KJ/mol
Q.69 When 1 mol gas is heated at constant volume Q.76 Sp. vol. of cylinderical virus particle is
temp. is raised from 298 to 308 K. Heat supplied 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm. Whose radius and length are
to the gas is 500 J. Then which statement is 7 Å & 10Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023.
correct : - Find mol. wt. of virus : -
(1) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (1) 1.54 kg/mol.
(2) q = ∆U = 500J, w = 0 (2) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol.
(3) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (3) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol.
(4) ∆U = 0, q = w = – 500 J (4) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol.
1 Q.77 Pure water can be obtain from sea water by
Q.70 Enthalpy of CH4 + O2 → CH3OH is negative.
2 (1) Centrifugation (2) Plasmolysis
If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH (3) Reverse osmosis (4) Sedimentation
and x and y respectively. Then which relation is Q.78 Stand electrode potential are
correct : - Fe+2/Fe Eº = – 0.44
(1) x > y (2) x < y (3) x = y (4) x ≥ y Fe+3/Fe+2 Eº = 0.77
Q.71 For the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 rate and rate If Fe+2, Fe+3 and Fe block re kept together, then :-
constant are 1.02 × 10–4 and 3.4 × 10–5 sec–1 (1) Fe+3 increases
respectively.Then conc.of N2O5 at that time will
(2) Fe+3 decreases
be : -
(1) 1.732 (2) 3 Fe +2
(3) reamins unchanged
Fe +3
(3) 1.02 × 10–4 (4) 3.4 × 105
(4) Fe+2 decreases
Q.72 A human body required the 0.01 Curie activity of
radioactive susbtance after 24 hours. Half life of Q.79 Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of
radioactive is 6 hours. Then max. activity of a gas on surface of solid: -
radioactive sustance that can be injected will be : - (1) On increasing temp. adsorption increase
(1) 0.08 (2) 0.04 (3) 0.16 (4) 0.32 continuously
Q.73 When a bio chemical reaction is carried out in (2) Enthalpy & entropy change is – Ve
laboratory out side the human body in the (3) Adsorption is more for some specific
absence of enzyme, then the rate of reaction substance
obtained is 10–6 times, than activation energy of (4) Reversible
reaction in the presence of enzyme is : - Q.80 PbO2 → PbO ∆G298 < 0
6 SnO2 → SnO ∆G298 > 0
(1)
RT
Most probable oxidation state of Pb & Sn will be :
(2) P is required
(1) Pb+4, Sn+2 (2) Pb+4, Sn+2
(3) Different from, Ea obtained in laboratery
(3) Pb+2, Sn+2 (4) Pb+2, Sn+4
(4) Can't say any things
Q.81 Which of the following two species in the pair
Q.74 Molarity of liquid HCl if density of liq. HCl is are isostructural : -
1.17 gm/cc : -
(1) XeF2, IF2– (2) NH3, BF3
(1) 36.5 (2) 18.25 (3) 32.05 (4) 42.10
Q.75 Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous (3) CO 3–2 , SO 3–2 (4) PCl5, ICl5
enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at. wt = 78.4) then Q.82 In which of the following bond angle is
minimum molecular weight of peroxidase maximum :
anhydrous enzymes is : -
(1) NH3 (2) NH +4
(1) 1.568 × 104 (2) 1.568 × 103
(3) PCl3 (4) SCl2
(3) 15.68 (4) 2.136 × 104
Q.83 Which of the following statement is not correct Q.90 Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z,
(1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3 molecular orbtial px and py overlaps to form,
(2) In Lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln+3 ions which of the following orbital : -
decreases (1) π molecular orbtial
(3) La is actually an element of transition series (2) σ molecular orbital
rather Lanthanide (3) δ molecular orbtial
(4) Aomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because (4) No bond will form
of Lanthanide contraction Q.91 Which of the following will exhibit maximum
Q.84 Correct order of Ist IP among following elements ionic conductivity : -
Be, B, C, N, O is : - (1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) B < Be < C < O < N (3) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (4) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) B < Be < C < N < O Q.92 The following quantum no's are possible for
(3) Be < B < C < N < O how many orbital n = 3, l = 2, m = +2
(4) Be < B < C < O < N (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Q.85 Which of the following will give maximum Q.93 – –
In HS , I , R–NH2, NH3 order of proton
number of isomers : - excepting tendency will be :-
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (1) I– > NH3 > R–NH2 > HS–
+2
(2) [Ni(en)(NH3)4] (2) NH3 > R-NH2 > HS– > I–
–2
(3) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2] (3) RNH2 > NH3 > HS– > I–
(4) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+ (4) HS– > RNH2 > NH3 > I–
–4
Q.86 Coordination number of Ni in [(C2O4)3] is Q.94 The Beans are cooked earlier in pressure
(1) 3 (2) 6 cooker, because : -
(3) 4 (4) 2 (1) B.P. increase with increasing pressure
Q.87 Which of following organometallic compound is (2) B.P. decrease with increasing pressure
σ and π bonded : - (3) Extra pressure of pressure cooker, softens
(1) [Fe(η5 – C5H5)2] the beans
(2) K[PtCl3(η2 – C2H4)] (4) Internal energy is not lost while cooking is
(3) [Co(CO)5NH3]+2 pressure cooker
(4) Fe(CH3)3 Q.95 The most convenient method to protect the
Q.88 Which statement is incorrect : - bottom of ship made of iron is : -
(1) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic (1) Coating it with Red lead oxide
(2) White tin plating
(2) Ni(CN ) 4–2 - Square planar, diamagnetic
(3) Connecting it with Mg block
(3) Ni(CO)4 - Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
(4) Connecting it with Pb block
(4) [Ni(Cl)4]–2 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic
Q.96 Zn convert it's melted state to its solid state, it
Q.89 In X- H ----- Y, X and Y both are electronegative has HCP structure, then find out nearest no. of
elements : - nearest atom : -
(1) Electro density on X will increase and on H (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 4
will decrease
Q.97 Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P2, it's
(2) In both electron density will increase at a time convert in P4, reason is : -
(3) In both electron density will decrease (1) Triple bond present between phosphorous atom
(4) On X electron density will decrease and on (2) pπ – pπ bonding is weak
H increases (3) pπ – pπ bonding is strong
(4) Multiple bond form easilly
–5
Q.98 Ionisation constant of CH3COOH is 1.7 × 10 Q.104 What is true for plasmid : -
and concentration of H+ ions is 3.4 × 10–4. Then (1) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
find out initial concentration of CH3COOH (2) These are found in virus
molecules : - (3) Plasmid contain gene for vital activities
(1) 3.4 × 10–4 (2) 3.4× 10–3 (4) These are main part of chromosome
(3) 6.8 × 10–4 (4) 6.8 × 10–3 Q.105 Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to
Q.99 Solubility of a M2S salt is 3.5 × 10–6 then find deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was
out solubility product : - due to which enzyme : -
(1) 1.7 × 10–6 (2) 1.7 × 10–16 (1) Amylase
–18 –12
(3) 1.7 × 10 (4) 1.7 × 10 (2) Invertase
Q.100 If a ab X species emits firstly a positron, then two (3) Diastase

(4) Absence of starch branching enzyme
α and two β and at last one α is also
Q.106 Before the European invader which vegetable
after intially it fainally convets into stable
c
was absent in India :-
dY species so correct relation will be : -
(1) Potato and Tomato
(1) c = b – 12, d = a – 5 (2) Simla mirch and Brinjal
(2) a = c – 8, d = b – 1 (3) Maize and chichinda
(3) a = c – 6, d = b – 0 (4) Bitter gourd
(4) a = c – 4, a = b – 2 Q.107 Which of the following is true pair of
Q.101 Independent assortment of genes does not takes biofertilizers : -
place when : - (1) Azolla and BGA
(1) Genes are located on homologous (2) Nostoc and legume
chromosomes (3) Rhizobium and grasses
(2) Genes are linked and located on same (4) Salmonella & E. Coli
chromosome Q.108 Ratio of complementry genes is : -
(3) Genes are located on non-homologous (1) 9 : 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 3 : 1
chromosome (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (4) 9 : 7
(4) All the above Q.109 When dominant and recessive allels express
Q.102 What is true for monoclonal antibodies : - itself together it is called : -
(1) These antibodies obtained from one parent (1) Co-dominance
and for one antigen (2) Dominance
(2) These obtained from different parents and for (3) Amphidominance
one antigen (4) Pseudo dominance
(3) These obtained from one parent and for many Q.110 A and B genes are linked. What shall be
antigens genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab
(4) These obtained from many parents and for and ab/ab : -
many antigen (1) AAbb and aabb (2) AaBb and aabb
Q.103 In Negative operon : - (3) AABB and aabb (4) None
(1) Inducer binds with repressor Q.111 Which statement correct about centre of origin
(2) Co-repressor does not binds with repressor of plant : -
(3) Corepressor binds with inducer (1) More diversity in improved variety
(2) Frequency of dominant gene is more
(4) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(3) Climatic condition more favourable
(4) None
Q.112 Probability of four son to a couple is : - Q.121 In which of the following haemocyanin pigment
1 1 1 1 is found : -
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 32 (1) Annelida (2) Echinodermata
Q.113 Two nonallelic genes produces the new (3) Insecta (4) Lower chrodata
phenotype when present together but fail to do so Q.122 Anemophilly type of pollination is found in
independently then it is called : - (1) Salvia (2) Bottle brush
(1) Epistasis (3) Vallisneria (4) Coconut
(2) Polygene Q.123 What is the eye of potato : -
(3) Non complimentry gene (1) Axillary bud (2) Accessory bud
(4) Complimentry gene (3) Adventitious bud (4) Apical bud
Q.114 Which of the following cut the DNA from Q.124 Due to discovery of which of the following in
specific places : - 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world :
(1) Restriction endonuclease (EcoRI) (1) m-RNA, t-RNA- r-RNA synthesise proteins
(2) Ligase (2) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(3) Exonuclease (3) RNA have enzymatic property
(4) Alkaline phosphate (4) RNA is not found in all cells
Q.115 Tetradynamous conditions occur in : - Q.125 Which pair is wrong : -
(1) Cruciferae (2) Malvaceae (1) C3 – Maize
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae (2) C4 – Kranz anatomy
Q.116 Which is correct pair for edible part : - (3) Calvin cycle - PGA
(1) Tomato – Thalamus (4) Hatch and Slake cycle – O.A.A.
(2) Maize - Cotyledons Q.126 Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber : -
(3) Guava - Mesocarp (1) Gibberellin (2) IAA
(4) Date palm - Pericarp (3) ABA (4) Zeatin
Q.117 Bicarpellary gyanoecium and oblique ovary Q.127 Hormone responsible for senescence : -
occurs in : -
(1) ABA (2) Auxin
(1) Mustard (2) Banana
(3) GA (4) Cytokinin
(3) Pisum (4) Brinjal
Q.128 Which of the following prevents the fall of
Q.118 Edible part of Banana : - fruits : -
(1) Epicarp (1) GA3 (2) NAA
(2) Mesocarp and less developed endocarp (3) Eethylene (4) Zeatin
(3) Endocarp and less developed mesocarp Q.129 Loading of phloem is related to : -
(4) Epicarp & mesocarp (1) Increase of sugar in phloem
Q.119 In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and (2) Elongation of phloem cell
nitrogenous waste material removed from : -
(3) Separation of phloem parenchyma
(1) Mouth and mouth
(4) Strengthening of phloem fiber
(2) Body wall and body wall
Q.130 Which pigment system inactivated in red drop : -
(3) Mouth and body wall
(1) PS-I and P.S-II (2) PS – I
(4) Mouth and tentacles
(3) PS – II (4) None
Q.120 In which of the following animal post anal tail is
Q.131 Which plant is LDP : -
found
(1) Tobacco (2) Glycine max
(1) Earthworm (2) Lower invertebrate
(3) Mirabilis jalapa (4) Spinach
(3) Scorpion (4) Snake
Q.132 What is true for photolithotrops : - Q.141 L.S.D. is : -
(1) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen (1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative
from organic compounds (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser
(2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen Q.142 Which set is similar : -
from inorganic compounds (1) Corpus luteum – graffian follicles
(3) Obtain energy from organic compounds (2) Sebum-sweat
(4) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds (3) Bundle of his – Pace macker
Q.133 In which of the following plant sunken stomata (4) Vita B7 - Niacin
are found : -
Q.143 Salmonella is related with : -
(1) Nerium (2) Hydrilla
(1) Typhoid (2) Polio
(3) Mango (4) Guava
(3) T.B. (4) Tetanus
Q.134 What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of
Q.144 Difference in gram ⊕ and gram bacteria is
plants : -
due to -
(1) 3.4 – 5.4 (2) 6.5 – 7.5
(1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane
(3) 4.5 – 8.5 (4) 5.5 – 6.5
(3) Ribosome (4) Cytoplasm
Q.135 Which fish selectively feed on larva of
Q.145 What is sarcomere : -
mosquito : -
(1) Part between two H-line
(1) Gambusia (2) Rohu
(2) Part between two A-line
(3) Clarias (4) Exocoetus
(3) Part between two I-band
Q.136 Which one of the following is correct match
(4) Part between two Z-line
(1) Reserpine – Tranquilliser
Q.146 Which statement is correct for muscle
(2) Cocaine – opiatic narcotic
contraction : -
(3) Morphine – Hallucinogenic
(1) Length of H-zone become decrease
(4) Bhang – Analgesic
(2) Length of A-band remains constant
Q.137 What is B.O.D. : -
(3) Length of I-band become increase
(1) The amount of O2 utilised by organisms in
(4) Length of two Z-line become increase
water
Q.147 Characteristics character of human cornea
(2) The amount of O2 utilized by micro
organisms for decomposition (1) Secreted by conjuctiva and glandular
(2) It has lacrimal gland which secrete tears
(3) The total amount of O2 present in water
(3) Blood circulation is absent in cornea
(4) All of the above (4) In old age it become harden and white layer
Q.138 In grasses what happens in micro spore mother deposite on it which causes the cataract
cell for the formation of mature pollen grains : - Q.148 Which of the most infectious disease is : -
(1) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions (1) Hepatitis -B (2) AIDS
(3) Cough and cold (4) Malaria
(2) One meiotic & one mitotic divisions
Q.149 Interferons are synthesized in response to
(3) One meiotic division
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
(4) One mitotic division (3) Viruses (4) Fungi
Q.139 What is the intensity of sound in normal Q.150 Cauliflower mosaic virus contains : -
conversation : - (1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA
(1) 10 – 20 decibal (2) 30 – 60 decibal
(3) ds DNA (4) ss DNA
(3) 70 – 90 decibal (4) 120 – 150 decibal
Q.151 Reason of lung cancer : -
Q.140 Adventive embryony in citrus is due to : -
(1) Coal mining (2) Calcium fluoride
(1) Nucellus (2) Integuments
(3) Cement factory (4) Bauxite mining
(3) Zygotic embryo (4) Fertilized egg
Q.152 When water moves through a semipermeable Q.162 Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to
membrane then which of the following pressure (1) Deletion
develops : - (2) Transfer of segments in X and Y
(1) O.P. (2) S.P. (3) T.P. (4) W.P. chromosomes
Q.153 Proteinaceous pigment which control the (3) Aneuploidy
activities concerned with light : - (4) Hormonal imbalance
(1) Phytochrome (2) Chlorophyll Q.163 No. of Bar Body in XXXX female : -
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Carotenoids (1) 1 (2) 2
Q.154 Glycolate induces opening of stomata in : - (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Presence of oxygen (2) Low CO2 conc. Q.164 Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus
(3) High CO2 (4) CO2 absent for RNA synthesis : -
Q.155 Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation : - (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Nitrogenase (2) Nitroreductase (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Transferase (4) Transaminase Q.165 What is true for Archaebacteria : -
Q.156 Maximum number of bases in plasmids (1) All Halophiles (2) All photosynthetic
discovered so far : - (3) All fossils (4) Oldest living beings
(1) 50 kilo base (2) 500 kilo base Q.166 Extranuclear inheritence occurs in : -
(3) 5000 kilo base (4) 5 kilo base (1) Killer paramaecium
Q.157 Passive absorption of minerals depend on (2) Killer Amoeba
(1) Temperature (3) Euglena
(2) Temperature and metabolic inhibitor (4) Hydra
(3) Metabolic inhibitor Q.167 Extranuclear chromosomes occur in : -
(4) Humidity (1) Peroxisome, Ribosome
Q.158 Half life period of C14 is : - (2) Chloroplast and Mitochondria
(1) 500 years (2) 5000 years (3) Mitochondria and Ribosome
(3) 50 years (4) 5 × 104 years (4) Chloroplast and Lysosome
Q.159 Which one correctly matched : - Q.168 Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty
(1) Vit. E – Tocoferole acid : -
(2) Vit. D – Riboflavin (1) Oleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Vit. B – Calciferole (3) Linoleic acid (4) Erusic acid
(4) Vit. A – Thiamine Q.169 When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to
Q.160 E. Coli about to replicate was placed in a see for sometimes but after a time visibility
medium containing radio active thymidine for becomes normal. It is example of
five minutes. Then it was made to replicate in a (1) Accomodation
normal medium. Which of the following (2) Adaptation
observation shall be correct : -
(3) Mutation
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radio active
(4) Photoperiodism
(2) One strand radio active
Q.170 In plants inulin and pectin are
(3) Each strand half radio active
(1) Reserved material
(4) None is radio active
(2) Wastes
Q.161 Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(3) Excretory material
(1) Protein (2) Cellulose
(4) Insect attracting material
(3) Lipids (4) Steroids
Q.171 Gene and cistron words are sometimes used Q.180 Microtubules absent in : -
synonymously because : - (1) Mitochondria (2) Flagella
(1) One cistron contains many genes (3) Spindle fibres (4) Centriole
(2) One gene contains many cistrons Q.181 Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation : -
(3) One gene contains one cistron (1) Azolla (2) Nostoc
(4) One gene contains no cistron (3) Salvia (4) Salvinia
Q.172 Element necessary for the middle lamella Q.182 Roots of which plant contains a red pigment
(1) Ca (2) Zn which have affinity for oxygen : -
(3) K (4) Cu (1) Carrot (2) Soyabean
Q.173 Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in (3) Mustard (4) Radish
angiosperms becuase of : - Q.183 Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with
(1) Naked ovules (1) Oat (2) Barley (3) Maize (4) Rye
(2) Seems like monocot Q.184 At the time of organogenesis genes regulate the
(3) Circinate ptyxis process at different levels and at different time
(4) Compound leaves due to :
Q.174 Plant Decomposers are : - (1) Promoter (2) Regulator
(1) Monera and fungi (3) Intron (4) Exon
(2) Fungi and plants Q.185 A mutant strain of T4 – Bacteriophage, R-II,
(3) Protista and Animalia fails to lyse the E-Coli but when two strains R-
IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the
(4) Anibalia and Mogna
E.Coli. What may be the possible reason : -
Q.175 What is true for cyano bacteria : -
(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild
(1) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(2) It is not mutated
(2) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(3) Both strains have simillar cistrons
(3) Non oxygenic with nitrogenase
(4) Both strains have different cistrons
(4) Non oxygenic without nitrogenase
Q.186 Reason of diversity in living being : -
Q.176 m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in
which direction : - (1) Mutation
(1) 5' → 3' (2) 3' → 5' (2) Long term evolutionary change
(3) Both (4) Any (3) Gradual change
Q.177 Cytochrome is : - (4) Short term evolutionary change
(1) Metallo flavo protein Q.187 Sickle cell anaemia is due to : -
(2) Fe containing porphyrin pigment (1) Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of
Haemoglobin
(3) Glycoprotein
(2) Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of
(4) Lipid
Haemoglobin
Q.178 Which of the following less general in characters
(3) Change of Amino acid in both α and β
as compared to genus : -
chain of Haemoglobin
(1) Species (2) Division
(4) Change of Amino acid either α or β chain
(3) Class (4) Family of Haemoglobin
Q.179 Adhesive pad of fungi penetrate the host with the Q.188 Similarities in organism with different genotype
help of : - indicates : -
(1) Mechanical pressure and enzymes (1) Microevolution
(2) Hooke and suckers (2) Macroevolution
(3) Softening by enzymes (3) Convergent evolution
(4) Only by mechanical pressure (4) Divergent evolution
Q.189 What is correct for Blood group 'O' : - Q.197 Forecomming generations are less adaptive than
(1) No antegens but both a and b antibodies are their parental generation due to : -
present (1) Natural selection (2) Mutation
(2) A antegen and b antibody (3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation
(3) Antigen and Antibody both absent Q.198 During regeneration, modification of an organ
(4) A and B antigens and a, b, antibodies to other organ is known as : -
Q.190 Which of the following is closest relative of (1) Morphallogenesis
man : - (2) Epimorphosis
(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (3) Morphallaxis
(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon (4) Accretionary growth
Q.191 Which of the following is correct order of the Q.199 Occurence of endemic species in south america
evolutionary history of man : - and Australia due to : -
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthel (1) These species has been extinct from other
man, Cromagnon man regions
(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens (2) Continental separation
Cromagnon man (3) These is no terrestrial route to these places
(3) Peking man, Hedalberg man, Neanderthal (4) Retrogressive evolution
man, Cromagnon man Q.200 Darwins theory of pangenesis shows similarity
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens with theory of inheritance of acquired characters
Hedalberg man then what shall be correct according to it : -
Q.192 Which cells do not form layer and remains (1) Useful organs become strong and
structurally seperate : - developed while useless organs become
(1) Epithelial cells (2) Muscle cells extinct. These organs help in struggle for
(3) Nerve cells (4) Gland cells survival
Q.193 During an injury Nasal septum gets damaged (2) Size of organs increase with aging
and for it's recovery which cartilage prefered : - (3) Development of organs is due to will power
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (4) There should be some physical basis of
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage inheritance
Q.194 First life on earth was : -
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Chemohetrotrophs
(3) Autotrophs
(4) Photoautotrophs
Q.195 Frequency of an allele in an isolated population
may change due to : -
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow
(3) Mutation (4) Natural selection
Q.196 In lederberg's replica plating experiment what
shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant
strain : -
(1) Minimal medium and streptomycine
(2) Complete medium and streptomycine
(3) Only minimal medium
(4) Only complete medium
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 3 3 4
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 1 1 1 4 1,2 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 4
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

5. 10. Equivalent ckt is
v=0 30Ω
10 ms–1
h
h/2 20Ω 5V
5V
I=
2 2h (30 + 20)Ω
v = u – 2g
2
5
0 = (10)2 – 10h I= A
50
h = 10 m
kx 2 k 2 x 2 f2
6. K′ = Kcos2 45º = K/2 12. E= = ⇒E=
2 2k 2k
9.
1
Q Force is equal ∴ E ∝
k
Maximum
16. Carnot engine is an Ideal engine so its efficiency
Minimum will be will be maximum
400 – 300
V ∴ ηmax. = × 100% = 25%
h = 2m 400
h1
ground therefore 26% efficient engine is impossible
Apply COME between maxm and min point 17. Impulse = change in momentum
1
mgh = Mgh1 + MV2 ∆P 150 × 10 –3 × 20
2 F= = = 30 N
∆t 0. 1
1 T frL = µs.N pseudo force = ma
18. n=
2l πr 2ρ = µs.mg =1×5
= 0.6 ×1 × 10 F =5N
ρ 1
ρ1 = , T = 2T and D1 = 2D ;k r1 = 2r = 6N
2
∴ F < frL block does not move
1 2T 1 T
n1 = = =n static firction = applied force
2l ρ 2l πr 2ρ
π( 2r ) 2
2 ⇒ fr = 5N
⇒ No change
Iρ
– GMm 1 34. Solve by x =
20. Apply energy consevation + mv2 A
R 2 2 –t
35. I=te
GMm GM
=– ⇒v= dl dl
2R R e=L here emf is zero when =0
dt dt
21. dl
= 2te–t – t2 e–t= 0
dt
⇒ te–t (t – 2) = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec
r
θc IC I α
4 36. = α = 0.98 ; C = β = = 49
θc 42 + r 2 IE IB 1– α
40. 2dsinθ = nλ Q – 1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1

1 1
sin θc = = Therefore λmax. = 2d ⇒ λmax. = 2 × 2.8 × 10–8m
µ 5/3
⇒ λmax. = 5.6 × 10–8 m
r 3
⇒ =
42 + r 2 5 useful work mgh (75g ) × 3
46. η= = = = 0.75
total work F× d 250 × 12
⇒ r =3
49. Apply conservation of linear momentum
KA (T1 – T2 )
23. Heat flow rate = =Q ⇒ 3mV = 30 2 m
L
when linear dimensions are doubled ⇒ V = 10 2
A1 ∝ r12, L1 = L (m)30 2
A2 ∝ 4r12, L1 = 2L1 so Q2 = 2Q1 (m) 30
2
24. A+B = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
⇒ A2 = A2 + A2 + 2A2 cos θ (m) 30

1
⇒ cos θ = – ⇒ θ = 120º
2 (3m)V
2
1 v
29. Energy density = ∈0 2 52. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3→ CH3–CH2CH–CH3
2 d
intermediate Sp2 hybrid planar
30. Cl
shape → recemic mix
1kg planr shape (leryh; vkÑfr) ij reagent dk

a=5m/s2
F = ma fr
vkØe.k nksuksa rjQ ls gks ldrk gSA
1 76. Sp. vol (vol. of 1gm) cylindrical virus particle
70. CH4 + O2 → CH3OH
2 = 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm
∆H = x – y given ∆H = – ve radius of virus r = 7Å = 7 × 10–8 cm
Hence x – y < 0 x < y length of virus = πr2l
22
71. 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 = × (7 × 10–8)2 × 10 × 10–8 = 154 × 10–23cc
7
this is a first order reaction
Vol.
rate wt. of one virus particle =
∴ rate = K[N2O5] [N2O5] = Sp.vol.
K
154 × 10 –23
⇒ gm
72. At the end of 25 hrs. activity = 0.01 M 6.02 × 10 – 2
half life = 6 hrs ∴ mol. wt. of virus = wt. of NA particles
24 154 × 10 –23
In 24 hrs. there are = 4 half life = × 6.02 × 10+23 gm/mol
6
6.02 × 10 – 2
(A)
Activity of susbtance after n half life = = 15400 gm/mol = 15.4 kg/mol
2n
(A)
⇒ = 0.01 (A) = 0.16
24
74. Density = 1.17 gm/cc.

⇒ 1cc. solu. contains 1.17 gm of HCl
1.17 × 1000
∴ molarity =
36.5 × 1
75. In peroxidase anlydrous enzyme 0.55 Se is

present means, 0.5gm. Se is present in 100gm of
enzyme
In a molecule of enzyme one Se atom must be
present hence 78.4 gm Se will be present in
100
× 78.4 = 1.568 × 104
0. 5
AIPMT - 2002
Q.1 A mass is suspended separately by two different Q.6 Displacement between max. P.E. position and
springs in successive order then time period is t1 max. K.E. position for a particle excuting
and t2 respectively. If it is connected by both simple harmonic motion is : -
spring as shown in figure then time period is t0, a
(1) ± (2) + a
the correct relation is : - 2
(3) ± a (4) – 1
K1 K2 Q.7 A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a

child sits on it, what is conserved : -
m (1) Linear momentum
2
(1) t0 = + t12 t22
(2) t0–2 = t1–2 + t2–2 (2) Angular momentum
–1 –1 –1
(3) t0 = t1 + t2 (4) t0 = t1 + t2 (3) Kinetic energy
Q.2 When an oscillator completes 100 oscillation its (4) Potential energy
1 Q.8 Which is having minimum wavelength : -
amplitude reduced to of initial value. What
3 (1) X-rays (2) Ultra violet rays
will be its amplitude, when it completes 200 (3) γ-rays (4) Cosmic rays
oscillation : - Q.9 If particles are moving with same velocity, then
1 2 1 1 De-Broglie wavelength is maximum for : -
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 3 6 9 (1) Proton (2) α-particle
Q.3 A circular disc is to be made by using iron and (3) Neutron (4) β-particle
aluminium so that it acquired maximum moment
Q.10 When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate
of inertia about geometrical axis. It is possible
then photoelectric effect does not occur, it
with : -
occurs by incidence of : -
(1) Aluminium at interior and iron surround to it
(1) Infrared rays (2) X-rays
(2) Iron at interior and aluminium surround to it
(3) Radio wave (4) Light wave
(3) Using iron and aluminium layers in alternate
Q.11 What is the cause of “Green house effect” : -
order
(1) Infra-red rays (2) Ultra violet rays
(4) Sheet of iron is used at both external surface
(3) X-rays (4) Radio waves
and aluminium sheet as internal layers
Q.12 Which of the following is not the property of
Q.4 For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the
cathode rays : -
condition of total internal reflection of this ray
(1) It produces heating effect
the minimum refractive index of prism will be : -
(2) It does not deflecte in electric field
45º incident
ray (3) It casts shadow
(4) It produces flurosence
Q.13 A solid sphere of radius R is placed on smooth
horizontal surface. A horizontal force 'F' is
applied at height 'h' from the lowest point. For
3 +1 2 +1 3 7 the maximum, acceleration of centre of mass,
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 6 which is correct : -
Q.5 The value of plank's constant is : - (1) h = R
(1) 6.63 × 10–34 J/s (2) h = 2R
(2) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2/s (3) h = 0
(3) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2 (4) No relation between h and R
(4) 6.63 × 10–34 J–s–1
Q.14 Diameter of human eye lens is 2 mm. What will K1A1 K 2 A 2
(1) K1A1 = K2A2 (2) =
be the minimum distance between two points to S1 S2
resolve them, which are situated at a distance of
K 2 A1 K1A 2
50 meter from eye. The wavelength of light is (3) K2A1 = K1A2 (4) =
S2 S1
5000 Å :-
Q.20 The efficiency of carnot engine is 50% and
(1) 2.32 m (2) 4.28 mm
temperature of sink is 500K. If temperature of
(3) 1.25 cm (4) 12.48 cm
source is kept constant and its efficiency raised
Q.15 A bulb is located on a wall. Its image is to be to 60%, then the required temperature of the
obtained on a parallel wall with the help of sink will be : -
convex lens. If the distance between parallel (1) 100 K (2) 600 K
walls is 'd' then required focal length of lens
(3) 400 K (4) 500 K
placed in between the walls is : -
Q.21 Unit of Stefan's constant is : -
d (1) Watt-m2-K4 (2) Watt-m2/K4
(1) Only
4 2
(3) Watt/m –K (4) Watt/m2K4
d Q.22 Number of atom per unit cell in B.C.C. : -
(2) Only
2 (1) 9 (2) 4
d d (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) More than but less than
4 2 Q.23 An object of mass 3kg is at rest. Now a force of
d
(4) Less than or equal to F = 6 t 2 î + 4 t ˆj is applied on the object then
4
velocity of object at t = 3 second is : -
Q.16 The Wien's displacement law express relation
between : - (1) 18 î + 3 ˆj (2) 18 î + 6 ˆj
(1) Wavelength corresponding to maximum (3) 3 î + 18 ˆj (4) 18 î + 4 ˆj
energy and temperature
Q.24 A body of mass m is placed on earth surface
(2) Radiation energy and wavelength which is taken from earth surface to a height of
(3) Temperature and wavelength h = 3R then change in gravitational potential
(4) Colour of light and temperature energy is : -
Q.17 Which of the following is best close to an ideal mgR 2
(1) (2) mgR
black body : - 4 3
(1) Black lamp 3 mgR
(3) mgR (4)
(2) Cavity maintained at constant temperature 4 2
(3) Platinum black Q.25 A point P consider at contact point of a wheel
on ground which rolls on ground without sliping
(4) A lump of charcoal heated to high temp.
then value of displacement of point P when
Q.18 For a black body at temperature 727ºC, its
wheel completes half of rotation (If radius of
radiating power is 60 watt and temperature of
wheel is 1m) : -
surrounding is 227ºC. If temperature of black
body is changed to 1227ºC then its radiating (1) 2m (2) π2 + 4 m
power will be : -
(3) π m (4) π2 + 2 m
(1) 304 W (2) 320 W
(3) 240 W (4) 120 W Q.26 A block of mass 10 kg placed on rough
horizontal surface having coefficient of friction µ
Q.19 Consider two rods of same length and different
= 0.5, if a horizontal force of 100 N acting on it
specific heats (S1, S2), conductivities (K1, K2) and
then acceleration of the block will be : -
area of cross-sections (A1, A2) and both having
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
temperature T1 and T2 at their ends. If rate of loss
of heat due to conduction is equal, then :- (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2
Q.27 A lift of mass 1000 Kg which is moving with Q.33 A whistle revolves in a circle with angular
acceleration of 1 m/s2 in upward direction, then speed ω = 20 rad/sec using a string of length 50
the tension developed in string which is cm. If the frequency of sound from the whistle
connected to lift is : - is 385 Hz, then what is the minimum frequency
(1) 9800 N (2) 10, 800 N heard by an observer which is far away from the
(3) 11000 N (4) 10, 000 N centre : - (Vsound = 340 m/s)
Q.28 A particle (A) is droped from a height and (1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz
another particle (B) is projected in horizontal (3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz
direction with speed of 5 m/s from the same Q.34 In a PN junction : -
height then correct statement is : - (1) High potential at N side and low potential at
(1) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with P side
respect to particle (B) (2) High potential at P side and low potential at
(2) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with N side
respect to particle (A) (3) P and N both are at same potential
(3) Both particles will reach at ground (4) Undetermined
simultaneously Q.35 The given truth table is for which logic gate : -
(4) Both particles will reach at ground with same A B Y
speed 1 1 0
Q.29 A rod of length is 3m and its mass acting per unit 0 1 1
length is driectly proportional to distance x from 1 0 1
one of its end then its centre of gravity from that 0 0 1
end will be at : -
(1) NAND (2) XOR (3) NOR (4) OR
(1) 1.5 m (2) 2 m
Q.36 For the given circuit of P-N junction diode
(3) 2.5 m (4) 3.0 m which is correct : -
Q.30 If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% R
than percentage change in momentum will be Diode
(1) 100% (2) 150%

(3) 265% (4) 73.2%
IC V
Q.31 For a transistor = 0.96, then current gain for
IE (1) In F.B. the voltage across R is V
common emitter configuration : - (2) In R.B. the voltage across R is V
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 48 (4) 24 (3) In F.B. the voltage across R is 2 V
(4) In R.B. the voltage across R is 2 V
Q.32 A wave travelling in positive X-direction with
Q.37 Specific resistance of a conductor increases with :
A = 0.2 m velocity = 360 m/s and λ = 60 m, then
(1) Increase in temperature
correct expression for the wave is : -
(2) Increase in cross section area
x
(1) y = 0.2 sin [2π (6t + )] (3) Increase in cross section and decrease in
60
length
x
(2) y = 0.2 sin [π (6t + )] (4) Decrease in cross section area
60 Q.38 For a series LCR circuit the power loss at
x resonance is : -
(3) y = 0.2 sin [2π (6t – )]
60 V2
(1) (2) I2Lω
x  1 
(4) y = 0.2 sin [π(6t – )] ωL – ωC 
60  
V2
(3) I2R (4)
Cω
Q.39 Some charge is being given to a conductor. Then Q.45 The magnetic field of given length of wire for
its potential : - single turn coil at its centre is 'B' then its value
(1) Is maximum at surface for two turns coil for the same wire is : -
(2) Is maximum at centre B B
(1) (2)
(3) Is remain same throughout the conductor 4 2
(4) Is maximum somewhere between surface and (3) 4B (4) 2B
centre Q.46 A charge 'q' moves in a region where electric
Q.40 For a cell terminal P.D. is 2.2V when circuit is field and magnetic field both exist, then force
open and reduces to 1.8V when cell is connected on it is : -
to a resistance of R = 5Ω. Determine internal (1) q ( V × B ) (2) q E + q ( V × B )
resistance of cell (r) is then : -
(3) q E + q ( B × V ) (4) q B + q ( E × V )
10 9
(1) Ω (2) Ω Q.47 Two bar magnets having same geometry with
9 10
magnetic moments M and 2M, are firstly placed
11 5
(3) Ω (4) Ω in such a way that their similer poles are same
9 9
side then its time period of osccilation is T1.
Q.41 To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one
Now the polarity of one of the magnet is
should connect a : -
reversed then time period of osccilation is T2,
(1) High resistance in series with galvanometer then : -
(2) Low resistance in series with galvanometer (1) T1 < T2 (2) T1 = T2
(3) High resistance in parallel with galvanometer (3) T1 > T2 (4) T2 = ∞
(4) Low resistance in parallel with galvanometer Q.48 The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel
Q.42 A capacitor of capacity C1 charged upto V volt to : -
and then connected to an uncharged capacitor C2.
(1) B × E (2) E × B
Then final P.D. across each will be
C2V C1V (3) E (4) B
(1) (2)
C1 + C 2 C1 + C 2 Q.49 A sample of radioactive element containing
4 × 1016 active nuclei. Half life of element is
 C   C 
(3) 1 + 2  (4) 1 – 2  V 10 days, then number of decayed nuclei after
 C1   C1  30 days : -
Q.43 Identical charges (–q) are placed at each corner (1) 0.5 × 1016 (2) 2 × 1016
of a cube of side 'b' then electrical potential (3) 3.5 × 1016 (4) 1 × 1016
energy of charge (+q) which is placed at centre Q.50 A deuteron is bombarded on 8O16 nucleus then
of cube will be α-particle is emitted then product nucleus is -
– 4 2q 2 – 8 2q 2 (1) 7N13 (2) 5B10
(1) (2)
π ∈0 b π ∈0 b (3) 4Be 9
(4) 7N14
235
Q.51 92U , nucleus absorb a neutron and disintegrate
– 4q 2 8 2q 2
(3) (4) in 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and x So, What will be the
3π ∈0 b 4π ∈0 b
product x : -
Q.44 Which of the following are suitable for the (1) 3 - neutrons (2) 2 - neutrons
fusion process : -
(3) α - partical (4) β - partical
(1) Light nuclei
Q.52 In Hydrozen atom, energy of first excited state
(2) heavy nuclei
is – 3.4 eV. Then find out KE of same orbit of
(3) Element must be lying in the middle of the Hydrogen atom : -
periodic table
(1) + 3.4 eV (2) + 6.8 eV
(4) Middle elements, which are lying on binding
(3) – 13.6 eV (4) + 13.6 eV
energy curve
Q.53 Reaction BaO2 (s) BaO (s) + O2(g); Q.62 Heat of combustion ∆Hº for C(s), H2(g) and
∆H = + ve. In equilibrium condition. Pressure of CH4(g) are – 94, – 68 and – 213 Kcal/mol. then
O2 is depens on : - ∆Hº for C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4 (g) is : -
(1) Increase mass of BaO2 (1) – 17 Kcal (2) – 111 Kcal
(2) Increase mass of BaO (3) – 170 Kcal (4) – 85 Kcal
(3) Increase temp. on Eqm. + d[B]
Q.63 3A → 2B, rate of reaction is equals to : -
(4) Increase mass of BaO2 and BaO both dt
Q.54 Solubility of MX2 – type electrolytes is 3 d[A] 2 d[A]
(1) – (2) –
0.5 × 10–4 Mole/lit. then find out Ksp of 2 dt 3 dt
elctrolytes : - 1 d[A] d[A]
(3) – (4) +2
(1) 5 × 10–12 (2) 25 × 10–10 3 dt dt
(3) 1 × 10–13 (4) 5 × 10–13 Q.64 2A → B + C
Q.55 1 M and 2.5 litre NaOH solution mixed with It would be a zero order reaction when : -
another 0.5 M and 3 litre NaOH solution. Then (1) The rate of reaction is proportional to square
find out molarity of resultant solution : - of conc. of A
(1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M (2) The rate of reaction remains same at any
(3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M conc. of A
Q.56 Which has highest pH : - (3) The rate remains unchanged at any conc. of
(1) CH3COOK (2) Na2CO3 B and C
(3) NH4Cl (4) NaNO3 (4) The rate of reaction doubles if conc. of B is
Q.57 Solution of 0.1 N NH4OH and 0.1 N NH4Cl has increased to double
pH 9.25, Then find out pkb of NH4OH : - Q.65 Which has maximum molecules : -
(1) 9.25 (2) 4.75 (1) 7 gm N2 (2) 2 gm H2
(3) 3.75 (4) 8.25 (3) 16 gm NO2 (4) 16 gm O2
Q.58 Vander waal's real gas, act as a ideal gas, at Q.66 A solution contains non volatile solute of
which conditions : - molecular mass M2. Which of the following can
(1) High temp., Low pressure be used to calculate the molecular mass of
(2) Low temp., High pressure solute in terms of osmotic pressure : -
(3) High temp., High pressure m   m  RT
(1) M2 =  2  VRT (2) M2 =  2 
(4) Low temp., Low pressure  π   V  π
Q.59 Unit of entropy is : - m  m  π
(3) M2 =  2  πRT (4) M2 =  2 
(1) JK–1 mol–1 (2) J mol–1  V   V  RT
–1 –1 –1
(3) J K mol (4) JK mol–1 Note : m2 → mass of solute
Q.60 In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred
V → Volume of solution
with a paddle to increase the temperature which
p → Osmotic pressure
of the following is true : -
Q.67 A solution containing components A and B
(1) ∆E = W ≠ 0, q = 0
follows Raoult's law : -
(2) ∆E = W = q ≠ 0
(1) A – B attraction force is greater than A – A
(3) ∆E = 0, W = q ≠ 0 and B – B
(4) W = 0 ∆E = q ≠ 0 (2) A – B attraction force is less than A – A
Q.61 2 mole of ideal gas at 27ºC temp. is expanded and B – B
reversibly from 2 lit. to 20 lit. Find entropy (3) Attraction force remains same in A – A and
change (R = 2 cal/mol K) : - B–B
(1) 92.1 (2) 0 (4) Volume of solution is different from sum of
(3) 4 (4) 9.2 volume of solute and solvent
Q.68 Which reaction is not feasible : - Q.76 In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lonepair
(1) 2 KI + Br2 → 2KBr + I2 of electrons on nitrogen atom are : -
(2) 2 KBr + I2 → 2KI + Br2 (1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 1
(3) 2 KBr + Cl2 → 2KCl + Br2 (3) 1, 3 (4) 4, 0
(4) 2H2O + 2F2 → 4HF + O2 Q.77 Which of the following shows maximum
number of oxidation states :-
Q.69 In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is
taken then H2 is liberated at cathode while with (1) Cr (2) Fe
Hg cathode it forms sodium amalgam : - (3) Mn (4) V
(1) Hg is more inert than Pt Q.78 Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively
(2) More voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg 24 and 26, which of the following is
than at Pt paramagnetic with the spin of electron : -
(3) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not (1) [Cr(CO)6] (2) [Fe(CO)5]
–4
dissolve in Pt (3) [Fe(CN)6] (4) [Cr(NH3)6]+3
(4) Conc. of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode Q.79 The hypothetical complex chloro
is taken diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride can be
Q.70 Which of the following statement is true : - represented as : -
(1) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its (1) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2
compound (2) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
(2) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2 (3) [Co(NH2)3(H2O)2Cl]
(3) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than (4) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3Cl3]
Mn (II) in aqueous state Q.80 In the silver plating of copper, K[Ag(CN)2] is
(4) Elements of 15th gp shows only + 3 and + 5 used instead of AgNO3. The reason is : -
oxidation states (1) A thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
Q.71 Which of the following order is wrong : - (2) More voltage is required
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic (3) Ag+ ions are completely removed from
(2) Li < Be < B < C – Ist IP solution
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O - Basic (4) Less availability of Ag+ ions, as Cu can not
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ - Ionic radius displace Ag from [Ag(CN)2]– ion
Q.72 General electronic configuration of lanthanides is Q.81 CuSO4 when reacts with KCN forms CuCN,
which is insoluble in water. It is soluble in
(1) (n – 2) f 1–14 (n – 1) s2p6d0–1 ns2
excess of KCN, due to formation of the
(2) (n – 2) f 10–14 (n – 1) d0–1 ns2
following complex : -
(3) (n – 2) f 0–14(n – 1) d10 ns2
(1) K2[Cu(CN)4] (2) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) (n – 2) d0–1 (n – 1) f 1–14 ns2
(3) CuCN2 (4) Cu[KCu(CN)4]
Q.73 An atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6
Q.82 Position of non polar & polar part in miscell
3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, you will place it in which group : -
(1) Polar at outer surface but non polar at inner
(1) Fifth (2) Fifteenth
surface
(3) Second (4) Third
(2) Polar at inner surface non polar at outer
Q.74 Which of the following is iso-electronic : -
surface
(1) CO2 , NO2 (2) NO 2– , CO2 (3) Distributed over all the surface
(3) CN–, CO (4) SO2, CO2 (4) Are present in the surface only
Q.75 Which of the following has pπ – dπ bonding Q.83 In borex bead test which compound is formed
(1) NO3– (2) SO 3–2 (1) Ortho borate
(2) Meta borate
(3) BO3–3 (4) CO 3–2
(3) Double oxide
(4) Tetra borate
Q.84 Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 & HCl but not with Q.90 Reactivity order of halides for
HNO3 because :- dehydrohalogenation is : -
(1) Zn act as oxidising agent when react with (1) R – F > R – Cl > R – Br > R – I
HNO3 (2) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F
(2) HNO3 is weaker acid then H2SO4 & HCl (3) R – I > R – Cl > R – Br > R – F
(3) In electrochemical series Zn is above (4) R – F > R – I > R – Br > R – Cl
hydrogen CH3
(4) NO3Θ is reduced in prefference to hydronium Q.91 Monomer of – C – CH2 – is : -
ion
CH3
Q.85 IUPAC name of the following is n
CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C ≡ CH (1) 2-methyl propene (2) Styrene
(1) 1, 5-hexenyne (3) Propylene (4) Ethene
(2) 1-hexene-5-yne MgBr
(3) 1-hexyne-5-ene Q.92 (
i ) CO 2

⊕→ P
(ii ) H3O
(4) 1, 5-hexynene
In the above reaction product 'P' is : -
C≡N
⊕ CHO COOH
Q.86 + CH3MgBr H
3O
→ P
(1) (2)
OCH3
OH O
OH O (3) (4) C6H5 – C – C6H5
CH–CH3 C–CH3
(1) (2) Q.93 Cellulose is polymer of : -
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
OCH3 OCH3
(3) Ribose (4) Sucrose
CHO COOH Q.94 CH3CH2Cl NaCN

→ X Ni
/ 
H2
→ Y
Acetic anhydride
(3) (4) Z
Z in the above reaction sequence is : -
OCH3 OCH3
(1) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3
Q.87 n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be
chemically distinguished by which reagent : - (2) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(1) PCl5 (3) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3
(2) Reduction (4) CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
(3) Oxidation with Potassium dichromate Q.95 When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH,
the product formed is :-
(4) Oznolysis
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Salicylaldehyde
Q.88 In the following reaction product 'P' is : -
H2 (3) Salicylic acid (4) Benzoic acid
R – C – Cl P
Pd-BaSO4 Q.96 The percentage of C, H and N in an organic
O compound are 40%, 13.3% and 46.7%
(1) RCH2OH (2) RCOOH respectively then emprirical formula is :
(3) RCHO (4) RCH3 (1) C3H13N3 (2) CH2N
CH2 – C – CH3 and CH2 – C – CH3 are (3) CH4N (4) CH6N
Q.89
Q.97 Enzymes are made up of : -
O O
(1) Edible proteins
(1) Resonating structures
(2) Tautomers (2) Proteins with specific structure
(3) Geometrical isomers (3) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates
(4) Optical isomers (4) Carbohydrates
Q.98 Geometrical isomers are differ in : - Q.105 In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity
(1) Poisition of functional group is called as -
(2) Position of atoms (1) Biotic potential (2) Fertility
(3) Spatial arrangement of atoms (3) Carring capacity (4) Birth rate
(4) Length of carbon chain Q.106 Change in sequence of nucleotide in DNA is
Q.99 When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the called as -
product formed is : - (1) Mutagen (2) Mutation
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (3) Recombination (4) Translation
(2) CH3 – C ≡ CH Q.107 Reason of fast speciation in present day crop
NH2 plants is -
(1) Mutation (2) Isolation
(3) CH3CH2CH
(3) Polyploidy (4) Sexual Reproduction
NH2
Q.108 Which of the following is important for
Cl speciation : -
(4) CH3CH2CH (1) Seasonal isolation
NH2 (2) Reproductive isolation
Q.100 Which is not true statement : - (3) Behavioural isolation
(1) α-carbon of α-amino acid is asymmetric (4) Tropical isolation
(2) All proteins are found in L-form Q.109 Which of the following are homologous organs :-
(3) Human body can synthesize all proteins they (1) Wings of birds & Locust
need (2) Wings of birds (Sparrow) & Pectoral fins of
(4) At pH = 7 both amino and carboxylic groups fish
exist in ionised form (3) Wings of bat & Butterfly
Q.101 Which is a reducing sugar : - (4) Legs of frog & Cockroch
(1) Galactose Q.110 Genetic drift oparates in : -
(2) Gluconic acid (1) Small isolated population
(3) β-methyl galactoside (2) Large isolated population
(4) Sucrose (3) Fast reproductive population
Q.102 Significance of mimicry is - (4) Slow reproductive population
(1) Attack (Offance) Q.111 There is no life on moon due to the absence of -
(1) O2 (2) Water
(2) Protection (Defence)
(3) Light (4) Temperature
(3) Both (1) & (2)
Q.112 According to fossils which discovered up to
(4) Isolation
present time, origin and evolution of man was
Q.103 Which of the following is correct match -
started from which country -
(1) Down Syndrome = 21st Chromosome
(1) France (2) Java
(2) Sickel cell anaemia = X – Chromosome
(3) Africa (4) China
(3) Haemophilia = Y – Chromosome
Q.113 Impulse of heart beat originates from : -
(4) Parkinson Disease = X & Y Chromosome
(1) S.A. Node (2) A. V. Node
Q.104 Some bacteria able to grow in Streptomycin
(3) Vagus Nerve (4) Cardiac Nerve
containing medium due to -
Q.114 Which cartilage is present on the end of long
(1) Natural selection
bones -
(2) Induced mutation (1) Calcified cartilage
(3) Reproductive isolation (2) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Genetic drift (3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Fibrous cartilage
Q.115 Melanin protect from :- Q.124 Which of the following is used in the treatment
(1) U.V. rays (2) Visible rays of Thyroid cancer : -
(3) Infrared rays (4) X-rays (1) I131 (2) U238 (3) Ra224 (4) C14
Q.116 Continuous bleeding from an injured part of Q.125 Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH are
body is due to deficiancy of ; - called as : -
(1) Vitamin -A (2) Vitamin - B (1) Protease (2) α-Amylase
(3) Vitamin - K (4) Vitamin - E (3) Hydrolases (4) Peroxidase
Q.117 What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken : - Q.126 Stool of a person contain whitish grey colour
(1) Bones will move freely at joints due to malfunction of which type of organ : -
(2) No movement at joint (1) Pancrease (2) Spleen
(3) Bone will become unfix (3) Kidney (4) Liver
(4) Bone will become fixed Q.127 Adrenalin direct affect on : -
Q.118 Which of the following statement is true for (1) S.A. Node
Lymph : - (2) β-cells of Langerhans
(1) WBC and serum (3) Dorsal root of spinal cord
(2) All components of blood except RBCs and (4) Epithelial cells of stomach
some proteins Q.128 Acromegaly is caused by : -
(3) RBCs, WBCs and Plasma (1) Excess of S.T.H.
(4) RBCs, Proteins and Platelets (2) Excess of Thyroxin
Q.119 Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth (3) Deficiency of Thyroxin
curve for Bacteria : - (4) Excess of Adrenalin
(1) Leg, Log, stationary, Decline phase Q.129 In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
(2) Leg, Log, Stationary phase (1) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
(3) Stationary, Leg, Log, Decline phase (2) Polar layer is hydrophobic
(4) Decline, Leg, Log phase (3) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in
Q.120 The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is middle part
ploted against time. What will the shape of graph : - (4) Proteins form a middle layer
(1) Sigmoid (2) Hyperbolic Q.130 Organisms which obtain energy by the
(3) Ascending straight line oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are
(4) Descending straight line called : -
Q.121 Mainly which hormones control menstrual cycle (1)Photo autotrophs
in human beings : - (2) Chemo autotrophs
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Saprozoic
(3) FSH, LH, Estrogen (4) Progesteron (4) Coproheterotrophs
Q.122 When both ovary of rat are removed then which Q.131 In which condition, the gene ratio remains
hormone is decreased in blood : - constant for any species : -
(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin (1) Sexual selection (2) Random mating
(3) Estrogen (3) Mutation (4) Gene flow
(4) Gonadotrophic releasing factor Q.132 Which of the following occurs more than one
Q.123 Which of the following statement is correct for and less than five in a chromosome : -
node of Ranvier of nerve : - (1) Chromatid (2) Chromomere
(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous (3) Centromere (4) Telomere
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous Q.133 Ribosomes are produced in :
(3) Both neurilemma & Myelin sheath are (1) Nucleolus (2) Cytoplasm
discontinuous (3) Mitochondria (4) Golgibody
(4) Covered by myelin sheath
Q.134 Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which Q.144 During the formation of bread it becomes
protein :- porous due to release of CO2 by the action of : -
(1) Actin (2) Tubulin (1) Yeast (2) Bacteria
(3) Actomyosin (4) Myoglobin (3) Virus (4) Protozoans
Q.135 Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by Q.145 In protozoa like Amoeba and Paramecium, a
radiations due to : - organ is found for osmoregulation which is : -
(1) Rapid cell division (2) Lack of nutrition (1) Contractile vacuole (2) Mitochondria
(3) Fast mutation (4) Lack of oxygen (3) Nucleus (4) Food vacuole
Q.136 Which fungal disease spreads by seed and Q.146 Which of the following is absent in polluted
flowers : - water : -
(1) Loose smut of Wheat (1) Hydrilla (2) Water hyacinth
(2) Corn stunt (3) Larva of stone fly (4) Blue green algae
(3) Covered smut of Barley Q.147 What is true for individuals of same species
(4) Soft rot of Potato (1) Live in same niche
Q.137 Sequence of which of the following is used to (2) Live in same habitat
know the phylogeny : - (3) Interbreeding
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (4) Live in different habitat
(3) t-RNA (4) DNA Q.148 In which era reptiles were dominated : -
Q.138 Which of the following secretes toxins during (1) Coenozoic era (2) Mesozoic era
storage conditions of crop plants : - (3) Paleozoic era (4) Archaeozoic era
(1) Aspergillus (2) Penicillium Q.149 Number of wild life is continuously decreasing.
(3) Fusarium (4) Colletotrichum What is the main reason of this : -
Q.139 Which of the following plants produces seeds (1) Predation
but not flowers : - (2) Cutting down of forest
(1) Maize (2) Mint (3) Peepal (4) Pinus (3) Destruction of habitat
Q.140 Best material for the study of mitosis in (4) Hunting
laboratory : - Q.150 In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male
(1) Anther (2) Root tip gametes into the : -
(3) Leaf tip (4) Ovary (1) Central cell (2) Antipodal cells
Q.141 In five kingdom system, the main basis of (3) Egg cell (4) Synergids
classification : - Q.151 Maximum green house gas released by which
(1) Structure of nucleus country : -
(2) Nutrition (1) India (2) France
(3) Structure of cell wall (3) U.S.A. (4) Britain
(4) Asexual reproduction Q.152 What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous
Q.142 Which of the following is without exception in ovule :-
Angiosperms : - (1) Upward (2) Downward
(1) Presence of vessels (3) Right (4) Left
(2) Double fertilisation Q.153 Which type of association is found in between
(3) Secondary growth entomophilous flower and pollinating agent : -
(4) Autotrophic nutrition (1) Mutualism (2) Commonsalism
Q.143 Which bacteria is utilized in Gober gas plant : - (3) Coperation (4) Co-evolution
(1) Methanogens Q.154 In which of the following notochord is present
(2) Nitrifying bacteria in embryonic stage : -
(3) Ammonifying bacteria (1) All chordates (2) Some chordates
(4) Denitrifying bacteria (3) Vertebrates (4) Non chordates
Q.155 In Angiosperm all the four microspores of tetrad Q.164 In Photosynthesis energy from light reaction to
are covered by a layer which is formed by : - dark reaction is transferred in the form of : -
(1) Pectocellulose (2) Callose (1) ADP (2) ATP
(3) Cellulose (4) Sporopollenin (3) RUDP (4) Chlorophyll
Q.156 In which of the animal dimorphic nucleus is Q.165 Which of the following absorb light energy for
found : - photosynthesis : -
(1) Amoeba proteus (1) Chlorophyll (2) Water molecule
(2) Trypanosoma gambiens (3) O2 (4) RUBP
(3) Plasmodium vivax Q.166 Seed dormancy is due to the : -
(4) Paramecium caudatum (1) Ethylene (2) Abscissic acid
Q.157 Two different species can not live for long duration (3) IAA (4) Starch
in the same niche or habitat. This law is : - Q.167 Edible part in mango is : -
(1) Allen's law (1) Mesocarp (2) Epicarp
(2) Gause's law (3) Endocarp (4) Epidermis
(3) Competitive exclusion principal Q.168 What is true for cleavage : -
(4) Weiseman's theory (1) Size of embryo increase
Q.158 Which of the following is a correct pair : - (2) Size of cells decrease
(1) Cuscuta – parasite (3) Size of cells increase
(2) Dischidia – insectivorous (4) Size of embryo decrease
(3) Opuntia – predator Q.169 Geocarpic fruit is : -
(4) Capsella – hydrophyte (1) Potato (2) Peanut
Q.159 Bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then (3) Onion (4) Garlic
what will be the trophic level of it : - Q.170 In which animal nerve cell is present but brain
(1) First trophic level (T1) is absent : -
(2) Second trophic level (T2) (1) Sponge (2) Earthworm
(3) Third trophic level (T3) (3) Cockroach (4) Hydra
(4) Fourth trophic level (T4) Q.171 In bacteria, plasmid is : -
Q.160 Which pigment absorbs the red and farred light (1) Extra chromosomal material
(1) Cytochrome (2) Phytochrome (2) Main DNA
(3) Carotenoids (4) Chlorophyll (3) Non functional DNA
Q.161 Opening and closing of stomata is due to the : - (4) Repetative gene
(1) Hormonal change in guard cells Q.172 Transformation experiment was first performed
(2) Change in Turgor pressure of guard cells on which bacteria : -
(3) Gaseous exchange (1) E. coli
(4) Respiration (2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
Q.162 How many ATP molecules produced by Aerobic (3) Salmonella
oxidation of one molecule of glucose : - (4) Pasteurella pestis
(1) 2 (2) 4 Q.173 Which statement is correct for bacterial
(3) 38 (4) 34 transduction : -
Q.163 Choose the correct match (1) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to
Bladderwert, sundew, venus flytrap : - another bacteria through virus
(1) Nepanthese, Dionea, Drosera (2) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to
(2) Nepanthese, Utricularia, Vanda another bacteria by conjugation
(3) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea (3) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
(4) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda (4) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external
source
Q.174 Which steroid is used for transformation : - Q.183 If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it
(1) Cortisol (2) Cholesterol becomes : -
(3) Testosteron (4) Progesteron (1) Triploid (2) Tetraploid
Q.175 Main function of lenticel is : - (3) Diploid (4) Monoploid
(1) Transpiration Q.184 What is the reason of formation of embryoid
(2) Guttation from pollen grain in tissue culture medium
(3) Gaseous exchange (1) Cellular totipotency
(4) Bleeding (2) Organogenesis
Q.176 Which of the following is the example of sex (3) Double fertilization
linked disease : - (4) Test tube culture
(1) AIDS Q.185 A plant of F1-generation with genotype
(2) Colour blindness "AABbCC". On selfing of this plant what is the
(3) Syphilis phenotypic ratio in F2-generation : -
(4) Gonorrhoea (1) 3 : 1
Q.177 Vessels are found in : - (2) 1 : 1
(1) All angiosperms and some gymnosperm (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) Most of the angiosperm and few (4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
gymnosperms Q.186 In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then
(3) All angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some what is the percentage of guanine : -
pteridophyta (1) 20% (2) 40%
(4) All pteridophyta (3) 30% (4) 60%
Q.178 In E. Coli, during lactose metabolism repressor Q.187 A diseased man marries a normal woman. They
binds to : - get three daughter and five sons. All the
(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene daughter were diseased and sons were normal.
(3) Structural gene (4) Promoter gene The gene of this disease is : -
Q.179 Four radial V.B. are found in : - (1) Sex linked dominant
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root (2) Sex linked recessive
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem (3) Sex limited character
Q.180 Which of the following is the example of (4) Autosomal dominant
pleiotropic gene ; - Q.188 Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types
(1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemea of amino acid it is called : -
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Colour blindness (1) Degeneracy of genetic code
Q.181 A gene said to be dominant if : - (2) Overlapping of gene
(1) It express it's effect only in homozygous (3) Wobbling of codon
stage (4) Universility of codons
(2) It expressed only in heterozygous condition Q.189 Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism in
(3) It expressed both in homozygous and E.Coli and proposed operon concept. Operon
heterozygous condition concept applicable for : -
(4) It never expressed in any condition (1)All prokaryotes
Q.182 Axillary bud and terminal bud derived from the (2) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
activity of : - (3) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
(1) Lateral meristem (4) All prokaryotes and some protozoanes
(2) Intercalary meristem Q.190 Collagen is : -
(3) Apical meristem (1) Fibrous protein (2) Globular protein
(4) Parenchyma (3) Lipid (4) Carbohydrate
Q.191 Lipids are insoluble in water because lipids Q.199 Introduction of food plants developed by
molecules are : - genetic engineering is not desirable because -
(1) Hydrophilic (2) Hydrophobic (1) Economy of developing countries may
(3) Neutral (4) Zwitter ions suffer
Q.192 Exon part of m-RNAs have code for : - (2) These products are less tasty as compared to
(1) Protein (2) Lipid the already existing products
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Phospholipid (3) This method is costly
Q.193 Which of the following statement is true : - (4) There is danger of coming viruses, allergens
(1) Vessels are multicellular and with wide and toxins with introduced crop
lumen Q.200 Nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic cell
(2) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. Then
lumen after the formation of organism, what shell be
(3) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow true : -
lumen (1) Organism will have extranuclear genes of
(4) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide the donor cell
lumen (2) Organism will have extra nuclear genes of
Q.194 Which of the following enzymes are used to join recipient cell
bits of DNA : - (3) Organism will have extra nuclear genes of
(1) Ligase both donor and recipient cell
(2) Primase (4) Organism will have nuclear genes of
recipient cell
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Endonuclease
Q.195 Which of the following crops have been brought
to India from New world : -
(1) Cashewnut, potato, rubber
(2) Mango, tea
(3) Tea, rubber, mango
(4) Coffee
Q.196 Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering
became possible due to the discovery of : -
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) DNA ligase
(3) Transcriptase
(4) Primase
Q.197 There are three genes a, b and c. The percentage
of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c
is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence
of genes on chromosome
(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b (4) None
Q.198 Which of the following reunites the exon
segments after RNA splicing : -
(1) RNA polymerase
(2) RNA primase
(3) RNA ligase
(4) RNA proteases
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 1
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 1 1 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 4 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 1 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 3
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 4 2
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

m 1
1. Q T = 2π ⇒K∝ 1 1
K T2 µ sin θc =
θc µ
In this case K = K1 + K2
µ2 – 1
1 1 1
= 2 + 2 ⇒ t0–2 = t1–2 + t2–2
t 02 t1 t2 µ2 – 1
⇒ cos θc =
µ
2. For damped oscillation amplitude A = A0e–bt
A0 1 Alternate solution (objective method)
= A0 e–b(100 T) ⇒ e–100bT =
3 3 for given condition µ = 1 + sin 2 θ
at t = 200 T, A = A0e–b(200 T) = A0(e–100bT)2
1 3
2 ⇒ µ = 1 + sin 2 45º = µ = 1+ =
1 A 2 2
⇒ A = A0   = 0
3 9
6. Extreme Mean Extreme
3. Density of iron is more than Aluminium.
position position position
4. For given condition snell's law give x=–a x=0 x=+a
1. sin 45º = µ.sin (90 – θc) P.E. (max) K.E. (Max.) (P.E.) Max.
45º h 1
9. Qλ= ∴λ∝
mv m
90-θc
13. Smooth surface is given so rolling motion is not
θc
90º
possible. Sphere will perform linear motion.
14. For the aparture, limit of resolution –
1 2 y λ λD
= µ cos θc = µ –1 ≥ ⇒ y ≥
2 D d d
⇒ µ2 = 1 +
1
⇒ µ2 =
3
⇒µ=
3 5 × 10 –7
y ≥ × 50 ≥ 1.25 cm.
2 2 2 2 × 10 –3
15. For image formation f ≤ d/4 26. fmax = µN = µMg = (0.5) (10) (10) = 50 N
18. P ∝ (T4 – T04) N
P2 (1500) 4 – (500) 4 500 4 (34 – 1)
= =
P1 4
(1000) – (500) 4
500 4 ( 2 4 – 1) F = 100 N
P2 80 f
= ⇒ P2 = 320 W
60 15
dQ KA Mg
19. Use = (T1 – T2)
dt L net force
⇒a=
 T  mass
20. %n = 1 – 2  × 100
 T1  100 – 50
=
50 500 10
For 50% =1– ⇒ T1 = 1000 K = 5 m/sec2
100 T1
60 T2 27. T = m(g + a) = 1000 (9.8 + 1)
For 60% =1– ⇒ T2 = 400 K = 10,800 N
100 1000
F 4 28.
23. a = = 2 t 2 î + t ˆj u=0 A B
m 3 5m/sec
2 4 ˆ uy = 0
dv= ( 2 t î + t j )dt
3
h
Integrate on both sides
 t3  4  t2 
v = 2   î +   ĵ For particle (A)
 3  3  2 
1
2 4 h = gt 2
at t = 3 sec. v = (3)3 î + (3) 2 ˆj 2
3 6
2h
= 18 î + 6 ˆj tA =
g
For particle (B) In vertical direction
24.
1
GMm Use s = ut + at 2
final G.P.E. = – 2
4R
1 2h
⇒h= g tB2 ⇒ tB =
h = 3R 2 g
GMm 29.
Initial G.P.E. = – y
R dx
R
O O x
3m
Change in G.P.E. = final energy – initial energy
Here ρ = kx where k is a constant mass of small
GMm GMm GMm  1 
=– + = 1– element of dx length is
4R R R  4  dm = kx.dx
3 GMm 3 GM 3 3
= = mR = gmR  x3 
4 R 4 R2 4 3
  27
25. xcm =
∫ x.dm = ∫ x(x dx)
0
=
 3  0
= 3 =2
∫ dm ∫ x.dx 9
3 3
Q  x2 
0   2
O  2  0
2R
O P
M
30. P1 = 2mE1 ; P2 = 2mE 2
πR
displacement PQ = ( PM ) 2 + (QM ) 2  300 
= 2m E1 + E1  = 2m(4E1 ) = 2P1
 100 
2 2 2
= (πR ) + (2R ) = π + 4 (Q R = 1m)
P2 – P1 2P2 – P1 µ0I
% change = × 100 = ×100 = 100% ⇒ B2 = 4 = 4B
P1 P1 2R
α
31. β= = 24 46. Lorentz forece FL = Fe + Fm
1– α
= q E + q( v × B )
33.
ωR 1 1
47. T = 2π ⇒T∝
R MB M
observer
ωR (stationary) case I : M1 = 2M + M
case II : M2 = 2M – M
 V   V 
nmax = n0   ; nmin = n0   T1 M 1
 V – ωR   V + ωR  = = ⇒ T2 = 3 T1
T2 3M 3
34.
PN 48. For electromagnetic wave
E
HP
LP
v wave = E × B
37. The value of ρ doesnot depends on geometry but B
increaes with increase in temperature.
38. In A.C. circuit power loss P = V I cos φ X0 t 30
P = VI = I2R ( Q φ = 0 at resonance) 49. t = nT, X = ,n= = =3
2n T 10
39. Inside the conductor E = 0 so potential remains
same. 4 × 1016
Active nuclei X = and
( 2) 3
40. T.P.D (V) = E – Ir(Remember it)
decayed nuclie X = (X0 – X) = 3.5 × 1016
 E  ER
V=E–  r = 16
 R + r  ( R + r) 50. 8O + 1H2 → ZXA + 2He4
from given conditions E = 2.2 & when R = 5 use converstion of change and mass
then TPD V = 1.8 V dN
2. 2 × 5 10 120. Rate of increase of bacteria →
therefore 1.8 = ⇒r= Ω dt
5+r 9 y
C1V1 + C 2 V2
42. Vcommon = = (Q V2 = 0) logN
C1 + C 2
C1V x
⇒ Vcommon =
C1 + C 2 t
dN
 1 (q )(– q )  – 4q 2 = µN ⇒ N = N0eµt
43. E.P.E = 8   = dt
 4π ∈0 ( 3b / 2)  3π ∈0 b ⇒ log N = log N0 + µt
3b (y = mx + c ; y = logN, m = µ ; x = t)
Note : distance between centre to any corner =
2
µ0 I
45. B1 = B =
2R
R
B2
B1 r
µ 0 ( 2 I)
B2 =
2r
Q 2 × 2πr = 2πR ∴ r = R/2
AIPMT - 2003
Q.1 If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed Q.7 The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A
u, the distance covered during the last ‘t’ seconds is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on
of its ascent is : planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the
1 2 surface of A. What is the height of jump by the
(1) ut (2) gt same person on the planet B.
2
1 2 (1) 2/9 m (2) 18 m
(3) ut – gt (4) (u + gt)t
2 (3) 6 m (4) 2/3 m
Q.2 A particle moves along a circle of radius Q.8 A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical
 20  rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25
 m with constant tangential acceleration. If kg is suspended from it but will break if the
 π
mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum
the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of
acceleration with which the monkey can climb
the second revolution after motion has begun, the
up along the rope ? (g = 10 m/s2)
tangential acceleration is : -
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(1) 40 m/s–2 (2) 640 π ms–2
(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 160 π ms–2 (4) 40 π ms–2
Q.9 A man weighs 80 kg He stands on a weighing
Q.3 A thin circular ring M and radius ‘r’ is rotating
scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
about its axis with a constant angular velocity ω.
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be
Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to
the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)
the opposite ends of two perpendicular diameters
(1) Zero (2) 400 N
of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will
be - (3) 800 N (4) 1200 N
Mω Mω Q.10 A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of
(1) (2) gyration of the ball about an axis passing
4m M + 4m
through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the
( M + 4 m )ω ( M + 4 m )ω
(3) (4) ball be R, then the fraction of total energy
M M + 4m associated with its rotational energy will be :
Q.4 A stationary particle explodes into two particles
of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite K2 + R2 K2
(1) (2)
directions with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of R2 R2
their kinetic energies E1/E2 is : K2 R2
(1) m2/m1 (2) m1/m2 (3) 2 2
(4)
K +R K + R2
2
(3) 1 (4) m1v2/m2v1
Q.11 The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to
Q.5 A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls their vector differences. In that case, the forces :
without slipping down an inclined plane of
(1) Are equal to each other
length L and height h. What is the speed of its
centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its (2) Are equal to each other in magnitude
bottom - (3) Are not equal to each other in magnitude
(4) Cannot be predicted
3
(1) 2gh (2) gh Q.12 Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in
4
air and the gravitational force between them is
4 F. The space around the masses in now filled
(3) gh (4) 4gh
3 with a liquid of specific density 3. The
Q.6 When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its gravitational force will now be :
potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by (1) 3F (2) F
10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be : (3) F/3 (4) F/9
(1) U/5 (2) 5 U (3) 10 U (4) 25 U
Q.13 A man throws ball with the same speed vertically Q.19 A equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along
upwards one after the other at an interval of (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure.
2 seconds. What should be the speed of the Let f, f' f" be the focal lengths of the complete
throw so that more than two balls are in the sky lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in
at any time ? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2) case (ii), respectively
(1) More than 19.6 m/s Y
(2) At least 9.8 m/s
(3) Any speed less than 19.6 m/s
X' O X
(4) Only with speed 19.6 m/s
Q.14 A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose
refractive index is equal to the refractive index of Y'
the lens. Then its focal length will
(1) Become zero Choose the correct statement from the
(2) Become infinite following-
(3) Become small, but non-zero (1) f' = f, f" = 2f (2) f' = 2f, f" = f
(4) Remain unchanged (3) f' = f, f" = f (4) f' = 2f, f" = 2f
Q.15 An observer moves towards a stationary source Q.20 We consider the radiation emitted by the human
of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of body. Which of the following statements is true :
sound. The wavelength and frequency of the (1) The radiation emitted is in the infrared
source emitted are λ and f respectively. The region
apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by (2) The radiation is emitted only during the day
the observer are respectively : (3) The radiation is emitted during the summers
(1) 1.2f, 1.2λ (2) 1.2f, λ and absorbed during the winters
(3) f, 1.2λ (4) 0.8f, 0.8λ (4) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet
region and hence is not visible
Q.16 The time period of a mass suspended from a
spring is T. If is the spring is cut into four equal Q.21 An ideal gas heat engine operates in a carnot
parts and the same mass is suspend from one of cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6
the parts, then the new time period will be - kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of
heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to -
(1) T/4 (2) T
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.2
(3) T/2 (4) 2T
Q.22 Consider a compound slab consisting of two
Q.17 A particle of mass m oscillates with simple
different materials having equal thicknesses and
harmonic motion between points x1 and x2, the
thermal conductivities K and 2K, respectively.
equilibrium position being O. Its potential
The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
energy is plotted. It will be as given below in the
is -
graph :
(1) 2/6 K (2) 2 K
(3) 3K (4) 4/3 K
(1) (2)
Q.23 The potential energy of a simple harmonic
x1 O x2 x1 O x2 oscillator when the particle is half way to its end
point is -
(3) (4) x (1) 2/3 E (2) 1/8 E
x1 O x2 1 O x2
(3) 1/4 E (4) 1/2 E
Q.18 In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave Q.24 A charge q is located at the centre of a cube.
becomes very sharp when the : The electric flux through any face is -
(1) Damping force is small 2πq 4πq
(1) (2)
(2) Restoring force is small 6(4πε 0 ) 6(4πε 0 )
(3) Applied periodic force is small πq q
(4) Quality factor is small (3) (4)
6(4πε 0 ) 6(4πε 0 )
Q.25 An electron is moving round the nucleus of a Q.31 In a Wheatstone's bridge all the four arms have
hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The equal resistance R. If the resistance of the
→ galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent
coulomb force F between the two is -
resistance of the combination as seen by the
e2 e2 battery is :
(1) K 2
r^ (2) − K r^
r r3 (1) R/4 (2) R/2
2 2 (3) R (4) 2R
e → e →
(3) K 3
r (4) − K 3
r
r r Q.32 Three capacitors each of capacity 4 µF are to be
1 connected in such a way that the effective
(where K = )
4πε 0 capacitance of 6µF. This can be done by -
Q.26 A long solenoid carrying a current produces a (1) connecting all of them in series
magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is (2) connecting them in parallel
doubled and the number of turns per cm is (3) connecting two in series and one in parallel
halved, the new value of the magnetic field is - (4) connecting two in parallel and one in series
(1) B/2 (2) B (3) 2B (4) 4B Q.33 Solar energy is mainly caused due to :
Q.27 A charged particle moves through a magnetic (1) burning of hydrogen in the oxygen
field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(2) fission of uranium present in the sun
(1) Speed of the particle remains unchanged
(3) fusion of protons during synthesis of heavier
(2) Direction of the particle remains unchanged
elements
(3) Acceleration remains unchanged
(4) gravitational contraction
(4) Velocity remains unchanged
Q.34 Fuse wire is a wire of
Q.28 A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's
magnetic field with a period T. What happens (1) high resistance and high melting point
to this period and motion if this mass is (2) high resistance and low melting point
quadrupled - (3) low resistance and low melting point
(1) Motion remains S.H. with time period = T/2 (4) low resistance and high melting point
(2) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 2T Q.35 The volume occupied by an atom is greater than
(3) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 4T the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about
(4) Motion remains S.H. with time and period (1) 101 (2) 105
remains nearly constant (3) 10 10
(4) 1015
Q.29 Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first Q.36 A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point
in series and then in parallel. Each time the source of light 1 m away. When the source is
combination is connected to a 220 volt a.c. shifted to 2m then -
supply line. The power drawn by the
(1) each emitted electron carries one quarter of
combination in each case respectively will be :
the initial energy
(1) 50 watt, 100 watt
(2) number of electrons emitted is half the initial
(2) 100 watt, 50 watt
number
(3) 200 watt, 150 watt
(3) each emitted electron carries half the initial
(4) 50 watt, 200 watt
energy
Q.30 An electric kettle has two heating coils. When
(4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of
one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source, the
the initial number
water in the kettle boils in 10 minutes. When the
other coil is used the water boils in 40 minutes. Q.37 A sample of radioactive element has a mass of
If both the coils are connected in parallel, the 10 gm at an instant t = 0. The approximate mass
time taken by the same quantity of water to boil of this element in the sample after two mean
will be : lives is :
(1) 8 min (2) 4 min (1) 1.35 gm (2) 2.50 gm
(3) 25 min (4) 15 min (3) 3.70 gm (4) 6.30 gm
Q.38 In which of the following systems will be radius Q.45 If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from
of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum - 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the
(1) Doubly ionized lithium ripple will be :
(2) Singly ionized helium (1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz
(3) Deuterium atom (3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz
(4) Hydrogen atom Q.46 Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does
Q.39 Reverse bias applied to a junction diode not depend on -
(1) Lowers the potential barrier (1) diode design (2) temperature
(2) raises the potential barrier (3) forward bias (4) doping density
(3) increases the majority carrier current Q.47 The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of
neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The
(4) increases the minority carrier current
4
binding energy of 2 He is (Given : helium
Q.40 J.J. Thomson's cathode-ray tube experiment
demonstrated that nucleus mass ≈ 4.0015 u)
(1) cathode rays are streams of negatively (1) 0.0305 J (2) 0.0305 erg
charged ions (3) 28.4 MeV (4) 0.061 u
(2) all the mass of an atom is essentially in the Q.48 The mass number of a nucleus is
nucleus (1) always less than its atomic number
(3) the e/m of electrons is much greater than the (2) always more than its atomic number
e/m of protons (3) sometimes equal to its atomic number
(4) the e/m ratio of the cathode ray particles (4) sometimes less than and sometimes more
changes when a different gas is placed in the than its atomic number
discharge tube
Q.49 A nuclear reaction given by
Q.41 Which of the following ray are not A
ZX → Z + 1YA + –1e0 + v
electromagnetic waves
represents
(1) X-rays (2) γ-rays
(1) β-decay (2) γ-decay
(3) β-rays (4) Heat rays
(3) fusion (4) fission
Q.42 A n-p-n transistor conducts when
Q.50 Following diagram performs the logic function
(1) both collector and emitter are positive with
of :
respect to the base
A
(2) collector is positive and emitter is negative y
B
with respect to the base
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
(3) collector is positive and emitter is at same
potential as the base (3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
(4) both collector and emitter are negative with Q.51 The ions O , F , Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ are
2– –
respect to the base isoelecronic. Their ionic radii show :

Q.43 According to Curie's law, the magnetic (1) A significant increase from O2– to Al3+
susceptibility of a substance at an absolute (2) A significant decrease from O2– to Al3+
temperature T is proportional to - (3) An increase from O2– to F– and then decrease
(1) 1/T (2) T from Na+ to Al3+
(3) 1/T2 (4) T2 (4) An decrease from O2– to F– and then increase
Q.44 Diamagnetic material in a magnetic field from Na+ to Al3+
moves : Q.52 Which one of the following compounds is not a
(1) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field protonic acid :
(2) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field (1) B(OH)3 (2) PO(OH)3
(3) perpendicular to the field (3) SO(OH)2 (4) SO2(OH)2
(4) in none of the above directions
–34
Q.53 The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10 Js. Q.59 The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K
The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which are 2.25 and 3.31 g cm–3, respectively. If the
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers standard free energy difference (∆Gº) is equal to
of a quantum of light with frequency of 1895 J mol–1, the pressure at which graphite will
8 × 1015 s–1 : be transformed into diamond at 298 K is -
(1) 2 × 10–25 (2) 5 × 10–18 (1) 9.92 × 108 Pa (2) 9.92 × 107 Pa
1
(3) 4 × 10 (4) 3 × 107 6
(3) 9.92 × 10 Pa (4) 9.92 × 105 Pa
Q.54 Which of the following statements is not correct Q.60 What is the entropy change (in JK–1 mol–1)
for sigma- and pi- bonds formed between two
when one mole of ice is converted into water at
carbon atoms :
0ºC ? (The enthalpy change for the conversion
(1) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
of ice to liquid water is 6.0 KJ mol–1 at 0ºC)
(2) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of
(1) 20.13 (2) 2.013
the order of 264 KJ/mol and 347 KJ/mol,
(3) 2.198 (4) 21.98
respectively
(3) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma bond is Q.61 The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction :
allowed but not in case of a pi-bond N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) Sigma-bond determines the direction between [ NH 3 ]2
is given by Q = . The reaction will
carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary [ N 2 ][H 2 ]3
effect in this regard
proceed from right to left if :
Q.55 The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
(1) Q = KC (2) Q < KC
SO32–, S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order -
(3) Q > KC (4) Q = 0
(1) S2O42– < SO32–< S2O62–
(where KC is the equilibrium constant)
(2) SO32– < S2O42– < S2O62–
(3) S2O42– < S2O62– < SO32– Q.62 The activation energy for a simple chemical
(4) S2O62– < S2O42– < SO32– reaction A → B is Ea in forward direction. The
Q.56 The pyknometric density of sodium chloride activation energy for reverse reaction :
crystal is 2.165 × 103 kg m–3 while its X-ray (1) Is negative of Ea
density is 2.178 × 103 kg m–3. The fraction of (2) Is always less than Ea
unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is : (3) Can be less than or more than Ea
(1) 5.96 (2) 5.96 × 10–2 (4) Is always double of Ea
–1
(3) 5.96 × 10 (4) 5.96 × 10–3 Q.63 Which of the following statements is not true :
Q.57 For the reaction : (1) Among halide ions, iodide is the most
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) at powerful reducing agent
constant temperature, ∆H – ∆E is : (2) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not
(1) + RT (2) – 3RT show a variable oxidation state
(3) + 3RT (4) – RT (3) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr
Q.58 In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 30 (4) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which Q.64 The method of zone refining of metals is based
yielded only 50% of the expected product. What on the principle of :
will be the composition of gaseous mixture (1) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that
under the above condition in the end :
of the impurity
(1) 20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen,
(2) Higher melting point of the impurity than
20 litres hydrogen
that of the pure metal
(3) Greater noble character of the solid metal
15 litres hydrogen
than that of the impurity
30 litres hydrogen (4) Greater solubility of the impurity in the
(4) 20 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, molten state than in the solid
15 litres hydrogen
Q.65 On the basis of the information available from 5
2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O in terms of
the reaction : 2
4 2 K1, K2 and K3 is :
Al + O 2 → Al 2 O 3 , ∆G = −827KJ mol −1 of
3 3 K 1K 2
(1) K1 K1 K3 (2)
O2, the minimum e.m.f. required to carry out K3
electrolysis of Al2O3 is (F = 96500 C mol–1)
K1K 32 K 2 K 33
(1) 2.14 V (2) 4.28 V (3) (4)
K2 K1
(3) 6.42 V (4) 8.56 V
Q.66 The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. Q.71 The molar heat capacity of water at constant
The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce pressure, C, is 75 JK–1 mol–1. When 1.0 KJ of
0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken heat is supplied to 100 g of water which is free
for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 to expand, the increase in temperature of water
mole of B is :
(1) 1 hour (2) 0.5 hour (1) 1.2 K (2) 2.4 K
(3) 0.25 hour (4) 2 hour (3) 4.8 K (4) 6.6 K
Q.67 The solubility product of AgI at 25ºC is Q.72 If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate
1.0 × 10–16 mol2 L–2. The solubility of AgI in 10– constant, the order of the reaction is -
4
N solution of KI at 25ºC is approximately (in (1) 0 (2) 1
mol L–1) : (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 1.0 × 10–16 (2) 1.0 × 10–12 Q.73 The temperature dependence of rate constant (k)
(3) 1.0 × 10 –10
(4) 1.0 ×10–8 of a chemical reaction is written in terms of
Q.68 Formation of a solution from two components Arrhenius equation, k = A.e–E*/RT. Activation
can be considered as : energy (E*) of the reaction can be calculated by
plotting
(i) Pure solvent → separated solvent molecules,
∆H1 1
(1) k vs T (2) k vs
(ii) Pure solvent → separated solvent molecules, log T
∆H2 1 1
(3) log k vs (4) log k vs
(iii) Separated solvent and solute molecules → T log T
solution, ∆H3 Q.74 IUPAC name of the compound given below is :
Solution so formed will be ideal if : - CH3
H3C
(1) ∆HSoln = ∆H1 + ∆H2 + ∆H3
CH3
(2) ∆HSoln = ∆H1 + ∆H2 – ∆H3
(3) ∆HSoln = ∆H1 – ∆H2 – ∆H3 CH3
(4) ∆HSoln = ∆H3 – ∆H1 – ∆H2 (1) 4-Ethyl-3-methyloctane
Q.69 For which one of the following equations is (2) 3-Methyl-4-ethyloctane
(3) 2, 3-Diethylheptane
∆H ºreact equal to ∆H fº for the product :
(4) 5-Ethyl-6-methylocatane
(1) N2(g) + O3(g) → N2O3(g)
Q.75 In this reaction :
(2) CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g) → CH2Cl2(l) + 2HCl(g)
CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN
(3) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) → XeF4(g) H.OH
→ CH3CH(OH)COOH
(4) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid
Q.70 The following equilibria are given :
obtained would be :
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 K1
(1) D-isomer
N2 + O2 2NO K2
(2) L-isomer
1 (3) 50% D + 50% L -isomer
H2 + O2 H2O K3
2 (4) 20% D + 80% L -isomer
The equilibrium constant of the reaction
Q.76 Which of the following pairs of compounds are Q.80 According to the adsorption theory of catalysis,
enantiomers : the speed of the reaction increase because :
CH3 CH3 (1) The concentration of reactant molecules at
H OH HO H the active centers of the catalyst becomes
(1) and high due to adsorption
HO H H OH (2) In the process of adsorption, the activation
CH3 CH3 energy of the molecules becomes large
CH3 CH3 (3) Adsorption produces heat which increases
the speed of the reaction
H OH HO H
(2) and (4) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of
HO H HO H the reaction.
Q.81 Which one of the following characteristics of
CH3 CH3 the transition metals is associated with their
CH3 CH3 catalytic activity :
H OH H OH (1) High enthalpy of atomization
(3) and
(2) Paramagnetic behaviour
HO H H OH
(3) Colour of hydrated ions
CH3 CH3 (4) Variable oxidation states
CH3 CH3 Q.82 The basic character of the transition metal
HO H HO H monoxides follows the order :
(4) and (1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
H OH HO H (2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
CH3 CH3 (3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
Q.77 In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded (4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
a product C. (Atomic nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
C H
CH3COOH + PCl5 → A   → B
6 6
Anh.AlCl3
Q.83 The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+,
C H MgBr Eu3+, and Lu3+ is : -
 
2 5
→ 'C', product C would be
ether (1) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+
(1) CH3CH(OH)C2H5 (2) CH3COC6H5
(2) Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
C2H5
| (3) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
(3) CH3CH(OH)C6H5 (4) CH 3 — C(OH)C 6 H 5 (4) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
CH 3 Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71.
| Q.84 According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium
Q.78 The compound CH 3 — C == CH — CH 3 on
nitroprusside is named as :
reaction with NaIO4 in the presence of KMnO4
(1) Sodium nitroferricyanide
given :
(2) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
(1) CH3COCH3
(3) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
(2) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH
(3) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO (4) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(4) CH3CHO + CO2 Q.85 The number of unpaired electrons in the
Q.79 The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1. complex ion [CoF6]3– is : (A + No = Co = 27)
Zn/SO4(0.01 M) || CuSO4(1.0 M)/Cu (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) zero
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and Q.86 Which one of the following octahedral
that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. is changed to complexes will not show geometric isomerism ?
E2. What is the relationship between E1 and E2 : (A and B are monodentate ligands)
(1) E1 > E2 (2) E1 < E2 (1) [MA2B4] (2) [MA3B3]
(3) E1 = E2 (4) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (3) [MA4B2] (4) [MA5B]
Q.87 Vitamin B12 contains : Q.92 When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with
(1) Fe(II) (2) Co(III) 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is
(are)
(3) Zn(II) (4) Ca(II)
COO– CH2OH
Q.88 Among the following which is not the π-bonded (1) +
organometallic compound :
(1) K[PtCl3(η2–C2H4)] OH OH
5 COO– CH2OH
(2) Fe(η –C5H5)2 (2) +
(3) Cr(η6–C6H6)2
(4) (CH3)4Sn Cl Cl
OH OH
Q.89 The radioisotope, tritium (13 H) has a half-life of
(3) CH – CH
12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is
32 mg, how many milligrams of its would
Cl Cl
remain after 49.2 years :
OH OH
(1) 1 mg (2) 2 mg
(4) CH – CH
(3) 4 mg (4) 8 mg
Q.90 Which one of the following is a free-radical
OH OH
substitution reaction :
Q.93 The correct order of reactivity towards the
CH3 Boiling CH2Cl electrophilic substitution of the compounds
(1) + Cl2
aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
CH3 (3) I < II > III (4) I > II > III
(2) + CH3Cl Anhy. AlCl3
Q.94 Which of the following orders of acid strength
is correct :
(3) CH2Cl CH2NO2
+ AgNO2 → (1) RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC ≡ CH
(2) RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡ CH
(4) CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN (3) RCOOH > HOH > HC ≡ CH > ROH
Q.91 The final product C, obtained in this reaction, (4) RCOOH > HC ≡ CH > HOH > ROH
would be : Q.95 Acrolein is a hard, horny and a high melting
NH2 point material. Which of the following represent
its structure :
Ac2O Br2 H2O
A CH3COOH B H+
C  — CH 2 — CH — 
(1)  | 
 CN 
CH3  n
NH2 COCH3  CH 3 
COCH3 Br  | 
(1) (2) (2)  — CH 2 — C — 
 | 
 COOC 
 2H5 n
CH3 CH3
NH2 NHCOCH3  — CH 2 — CH — 
(3)  | 
Br Br  COOC 2 H 5 
(3) (4)  n
 — CH 2 — CH — 
CH3 CH3 (4)  | 
 Cl 
 n
Q.96 A and B in the following reactions are : Q.102 Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated
HCN / KCN B
OH chromosomes because : -
R–C–R′    → A → R–C
CH2NH2 (1) They require both RNA and DNA
O R′ (2) They both need food molecules
OH (3) They both require oxygen for respiration
(1) A =RR′C , B = NH3
COOH (4) Both require the environment of a cell to
CN replicate
(2) A = RR′C , B = H3O⊕
Q.103 Given below are four matchings of an animal
OH
and its kind of respiratory organ :
(3) A =RR′CH2CN , B = NaOH
A. Silver fish – trachea
CN
(4) A = RR′C , B = LiAlH4 B. Scorpion – book lung
OH C. Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills
Q.97 Which one of the following monomers gives the D. Dolphin – skin
polymer neoprene on polymerization : -
The correct matchings are : -
(1) CH2 = CHCl
(1) A and D (2) A, B and C
(2) CCl2 = CCl2
(3) B and D (4) C and D
(3) Cl
Q.104 Convergent evolution is illustrated by : -
CH2=C–CH=CH2
(1) Rat and dog
(4) CF2 = CF2
(2) Bacterium and protozoan
Q.98 Glycolysis is : -
(3) Starfish and cuttle fish
(1) Oxidation of glucose to glutamate
(4) Dogfish and whale
(2) Conversion of pyruvate to citrate
Q.105 Which one of the following sequences was
(3) Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
(4) Conversion of glucose to haem
evolution : -
Q.99 Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with :-
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of
(1) Three carboxylic acid residues
population size, natural selection
(2) Two carboxylic acid residues and one
(2) Variations, constancy of population size,
phosphate group
overproduction, natural selection
(3) One carboxylic acid residue and two
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population
phosphate groups
size, variations, natural selection
(4) Three phosphate groups
(4) Variations, natural selection,
Q.100 Chargaff's rule states that in an organism : -
overproduction, constancy of population
(1) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of
thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) size
is equal to that of cytosine (C) Q.106 Random genetic drift in a population probably
(2) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of results from : -
guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) (1) Highly genetically variable individuals
is equal to that of cytosine (C) (2) Interbreeding within this population
(3) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of (3) Constant low mutation rate
cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) (4) Large population size
is equal to that of guanine (G) Q.107 Bundle of His is a network of : -
(4) Amounts of all bases are equal (1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the
Q.101 Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by :- heart walls
(1) Only gymnosperm cells (2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle
(2) All plant cells wall
(3) All eukaryotic cells (3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(4) Only bacterial cells (4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
Q.108 During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are Q.115 Test tube baby means a baby born when
the following organic compounds used up by the (1) It is developed in a test tube
body : - (2) It is developed through tissue culture method
(1) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly (3) The ovum is fertilised externally and
proteins thereafter implanted in the uterus
(2) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly (4) It develops from a non-fertilized egg
proteins Q.116 In which one of the following do the two names
(3) First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly refer to one and the same thing : -
lipids (1) Kreb's cycle and Calvin cycle
(4) First proteins, next lipids and lastly (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
carbohydrates (3) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
Q.109 Which one of the following contains the largest (4) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
quantity of extracellular material :- Q.117 Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of
(1) Striated muscle chromosome number 21. What percentage of
(2) Aerolar tissue offspring produced by an affected mother and a
(3) Stratified epithelium normal father would be affected by this disorder :-
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres (1) 100% (2) 75%
Q.110 If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian (3) 50% (4) 25%
nephron, which of the following is to be Q.118 Maximum application of animal cell culture
expected : - technology today is in the production of : -
(1) There will be no urine formation (1) Insulin
(2) There will be hardly any change in the (2) Interfereons
quality and quantity of urine formed (3) Vaccines
(3) The urine will be more concentrated (4) Edible proteins
(4) The urine will be more dilute Q.119 Escherichia coli is used as an indicator
Q.111 Which group of vertebrates comprises the organism to determine pollution of water with ;-
highest number of endangered species : - (1) Heavy metals
(1) Mammals (2) Fishes (2) Faecal matter
(3) Reptiles (4) Birds (3) Industrial effluents
Q.112 Fluoride pollutions mainly affects : - (4) Pollen of aquatic plants
(1) Brain (2) Heart Q.120 Which one of the following pairs correctly
(3) Teeth (4) Kidney matches a hormone with a disease resulting
Q.113 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and from its deficiency : -
development of every population. One of them (1) Relaxin – Gigantism
relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. (2) Prolactin – Cretinsim
The force opposing it is called : - (3) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(1) Morbidity (4) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(2) Fecundity Q.121 Carcinoma refers to : -
(3) Biotic potential (1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(4) Environmental resistance (2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous
Q.114 Which one of the following bacteria has found membrane
extensive use in genetic engineering work in (3) Malignant tumours of the colon
plants : -
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
(1) Clostridium septicum
Q.122 Which endangered animal is the source of the
(2) Xanthomonas citri world's finest, lightest, warmest and most
(3) Bacillus coagulens expensive wool-the shahtoosh : -
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (1) Nilgai (2) Cheetal
(3) Kashmiri goat (4) Chiru
Q.123 Which one of the following is a matching pair of Q.130 Which one of the following describes correctly
an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits : the homologous structures : -
(1) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism (1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
(2) Musca – Complete metamorphosis performing different functions
(3) Chameleon – Mimicry (2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but
(4) Taenia – Polymorphism performing same function
Q.124 Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to (3) Organs that have no function now, but had
foetus across placenta or through mother's milk an important function in ancestors
to the infant is categorised as :- (4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage
(1) Active immunity and disappearing later in the adult
(2) Passive immunity Q.131 Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception
(3) Cellular immunity in : -
(4) Innate non-specific immunity (1) Cockroach (2) Frog
Q.125 In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide (3) Humans (4) Sunflower
sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were Q.132 During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver
considered for the study of human evolution, fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary
because : - host at the following larval stage respectively :
(1) They are small, and therefore, easy to study (1) Redia and miracidium
(2) They are uniparental in origin and do not take (2) Cercaria and redia
part in recombination (3) Metacercaria and cercaria
(3) Their structure is known in greater detail (4) Miracidium and metacercaria
(4) They can be studied from the samples of Q.133 Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are
fossil remains best described as : -
Q.126 What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals : - (1) Unicellular or acellular
(1) There are three main types-cytotoxic T-cells, (2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells (3) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(2) These originate in lymphoid tissues (4) Multicellular having tissue organization, but
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular no body cavity
debris Q.134 During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
(4) These are produced in thyroid GTP molecule is needed in : -
Q.127 Industrial melanism is an example of : - (1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(1) Drug resistance (2) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from mRNA
industries (3) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings met-tRNA
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against (4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome
ultraviolet radiations
with initiation complex
Q.128 In a random mating population in equilibrium,
which of the following brings about a change in Q.135 In the genetic code dictionary, how many
gene frequency in a non-directional manner : - codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
amino acids : -
(1) Mutations (2) Random drift
(1) 20 (2) 64 (3) 61 (4) 60
(3) Selection (4) Migration
Q.136 Which of the following discoveries resulted in a
Q.129 Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not
Nobel Prize : -
believe in any role of which one of the following
in organic evolution : - (1) X-rays induce sex-linked recessive lethal
mutations
(1)Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(2) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(2) Survival of the fittest
(3) Recombination of linked genes
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Discontinuous variations (4) Genetic engineering
Q.137 The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruitfly Q.145 Which one of the following traits of garden pea
has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one studied by Mendel was a recessive feature : -
end and bobbed hair (b) gene at the other end. (1) Axial flower position
The recombination frequency between these two (2) Green seed colour
genes (y and b) should be : - (3) Green pod colour
(1) 60% (2) > 50% (4) Round seed shape
(3) ≤ 50% (4) 100% Q.146 Which one of the following conditions though
Q.138 Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from
generally located in : - a mosquito borne infectious disease :
(1) Chloroplast genome (1) Thalassaemia
(2) Mitochondrial genome (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Nuclear-genome (3) Pernicius anaemia
(4) Cytosol (4) Leukemia
Q.139 Systemic heart refers to : - Q.147 Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
(1) The heart that contracts under stimulation human males are examples of : -
from nervous system (1) Sex linked traits
(2) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher (2) Sex limited traits
vertebrates (3) Sex differentiating traits
(3) Entire heart in lower vertebrates (4) Sex-determining traits
(4) The two ventricles together in humans Q.148 Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to
Q.140 What used to be described as Nissel granules in a the : -
nerve cell are now identified as : - (1) First member of a codon
(1) Cell metabolites (2) Fat granules (2) Second member of a codon
(3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria (3) Entire codon
Q.141 Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1–3 in (4) Third member of a codon
number and : - Q.149 When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour
(1) Are always circular they : -
(2) Are always linear (1) Do not show a chromosome map
(3) Can be either circular or linear, but never (2) Show recombination during meiosis
both within the same cell (3) Do not show independent assortment
(4) Can be circular as well as linear within the (4) Induce cell division
same cell Q.150 During embryonic development, the establishment
Q.142 Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes of polarity along anterior/posterior, dorsal/ventral
or phenotypes in which the sources of the or medial/lateral axis is called : -
gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as : - (1) Organizer phenomena
(1) Test cross (2) Reciprocal cross (2) Axis formation
(3) Dihybrid cross (4) Reverse cross (3) Anamorphosis
Q.143 What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac (4) Pattern formation
operon : -
Q.151 During transcription, the DNA site at which
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase RNA polymerase binds is called : -
(3) Lac insect (4) The number 1,00,000 (1) Promoter (2) Regulator
Q.144 The genes controlling the seven pea characters (3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
studied by Mendel are now known to be located
Q.152 Christmas disease is another name for : -
on how many different chromosomes : -
(1) Haemophilia B (2) Hepatitis B
(1) Seven (2) Six
(3) Down's syndrome (4) Sleeping sickness
(3) Five (4) Four
Q.153 In Drosophila, the sex is determined by : - Q.160 The major portion of the dry weight of plants
(1) The ratio of number of X-chromosomes to comprises of : -
the sets of autosomes (1) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(2) X and Y chromosomes (2) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur
(3) The ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the (3) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
pairs of autosomes (4) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(4) Whether the egg is fertilized or develops Q.161 Which one of the following mineral elements
parthenogenetically plays an important role in biological nitrogen
Q.154 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly fixation : -
matched : -
(1) Copper (2) Manganese
(1) Vitamin C – Scurvy
(3) Zinc (4) Molybdenum
(2) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
Q.162 Stomata of CAM plants : -
(3) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
(1) Are always open
(4) Vitamin B6 – Beri-beri
(2) Open during the day and close at night
Q.155 What would happen if in a gene encoding a
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (3) Open during the night and close during the
(UAU) is mutated to UAA : - day
(1) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be (4) Never open
formed Q.163 In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids to : -
will be formed (1 ) Only the wall of the sporangium
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be (2) Both wall and the sporogenous cells
formed (3) Wall and the tapetum
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be (4) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
formed Q.164 Differentiation of shoot is controlled by : -
Q.156 During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, (1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio
such as in producing biogas, which one of the
(2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio
following is left undergraded : -
(3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio
(1) Lipids (2) Lignin
(4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
(3) Hemi-cellulose (4) Cellulose
Q.165 The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised
Q.157 Which one of the following concerns
photophosphorylation : - by : -
(1) Having dense cytoplasm and prominent
(1) ADP + AMP Lightenerg
  y
→ ATP
nuclei
(2) ADP + Inorganic PO4 Lightenerg
 y → ATP (2) Having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
(3) ADP + Inorganic PO4 → ATP (3) Dividing regularly to add to the corpus
(4) Dividing regularly to add to tunica
(4) AMP + Inorganic PO4 Lightenerg
 y
→ ATP
Q.166 In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid,
Q.158 The major role of minor elements inside living
in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is :-
organisms is to act as : -
(1) co-factors of enzymes (1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
(2) Building blocks of important amino acids (2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
(3) Constituent of hormones (3) Ribulose phosphate kinase
(4) Binder of cell structure (4) Fructose phosphatase
Q.159 Which element is located at the centre of the Q.167 Stomata of a plant open due to : -
porphyrin ring in chlorophyll : - (1) Influx of potassium ions
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (2) Efflux of potassium ions
(3) Potassium (4) Manganese (3) Influx of hydrogen ions
(4) Influx of calcium ions
Q.168 Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect Q.176 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long
on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone - days and N. tabacum flowers only during short
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin days. If raised in the laboratory under different
(3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at
Q.169 Which one of the following is wrong in relation the same time and can be cross-fertilized to
to photorespiration : - produce self-fertile offspring. What is the
(1) It occurs in chloroplasts best reason for considering N. sylvestris and
(2) It occurs in daytime only N. tabacum to be separate species : -
(3) It is a characteristic of C4 plants (1) They cannot interbreed in nature
(4) It is a characteristic of C3 plants (2) They are reproductively distinct
Q.170 In which one of the following nitrogen is not a (3) They are physiologically distinct
constituent : - (4) They are morphologically distinct
(1) Idioblast (2) Bacteriochlorophyll Q.177 In which kingdom would you classify the
(3) Invertase (4) Pepsin archaea and nitrogen-fixing organism, if the
five-kingdom system of classification is used :
Q.171 Diffuse porous wood is characteristics of those
plants which are growing in : - (1) Plantae (2) Fungi
(1) Alpine region (3) Protista (4) Monera
(2) Cold winter regions Q.178 Which of the following plants are used as green
manure in crop fields and in sandy soils : -
(3) Temperate climate
(1) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum
(4) Tropics
(2) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri
Q.172 The apical meristem of the root is present
(3) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
(1) Only in radicals
(4) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica
(2) Only in tap roots
Q.179 Which one pair of examples will correctly
(3) Only in adventitious roots
represent the grouping Spermatophyta
(4) In all the roots
according to one of the schemes of classifying
Q.173 Biosystematics aims at : -
plants : -
(1) The classification of organisms based on
(1) Acacia, Sugarcane (2) Pinus, Cycas
broad morphological characters
(3) Rhizopus, Triticum (4) Ginkgo, Pisum
(2) Delimiting various taxa of organism and
Q.180 Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses
establishing their relationships
and ferns are grouped under the general term : -
(3) The classification of organisms based on their
(1) Cryptogams (2) Bryophytes
evolutionary history and establishing their
(3) Sporophytes (4) Thallophytes
phylogeny on the totality of various
Q.181 The chief advantage of encystment to an
parameters from all fields of studies
Amoeba is : -
(4) Identification and arrangement of organisms
on the basis of cytological characteristics (1) The ability to survive during adverse
physical conditions
Q.174 Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon
(2) The ability to live for some time without
fruit develop from : -
ingesting food
(1) Exocarp
(3) Protection from parasites and predators
(2) Mesocarp
(4) The chance to get rid of accumulated waste
(3) Endocarp
products
(4) Mesocarp and endocarp
Q.182 Bartholin's glands are situated : -
Q.175 Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar
(1) On the sides of the head of some amphibians
radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids
(2) At the reduced tail end of birds
of the higher plants : -
(1) Blue and green (2) Green and red (3) On either side of vagina in humans
(3) Red and violet (4) Violet and blue (4) On either side of vas deferens in humans
Q.183 Chlorenchyma found in : - Q.192 Which one of the following statements about
(1) Cytoplasm of Chlorella viruses is correct : -
(2) Mycelium of a green mould such as (1) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
Aspergillus (2) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
(3) Spore capsule of a moss (3) Viruses are obligate parasites
(4) Pollen tube of Pinus (4) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
Q.184 Boron in green plants assists in : - Q.193 Which one of the following pairs of plants are
(1) Activation of enzymes not seed producers : -
(2) Acting of enzyme cofactor (1) Fern and Funaria
(3) Photosynthesis (2) Funaria and Ficus
(4) Sugar transport (3) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
Q.185 Which one of the following is categorised under (4) Punica and Pinus
living fossils : - Q.194 Species are considered as :-
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (1) Real basic units of classification
(3) Selaginella (4) Metasequoia (2) The lowest units of classification
Q.186 ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key
(3) Artificial concept of human mind which
reagent is : -
cannot be defined in absolute terms
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Real units of classification devised by
(2) Catalase
taxonomists
(3) DNA probe
Q.195 Which one of the following triplet codes, is
(4) RNase correctly matched with its specificity for an
Q.187 Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or
size : - 'stop' codon : -
(1) 300 × 10 nm (2) 300 × 5 nm (1) UCG – Start (2) UUU – Stop
(3) 300 × 20 nm (4) 700 × 30 nm
(3) UGU – Leucine (4) UAC – Tyrosine
Q.188 Mycorrhiza is an example of :-
Q.196 Coconut milk factor is : -
(1) Symbiotic relationship
(1) An auxin (2) A gibberellin
(2) Ectoparasitism
(3) Abscissic acid (4) Cytokinin
(3) Endoparasitism
Q.197 Gray spots of oat are caused by deficiency of : -
(4) Decomposers
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Mn (4) Fe
Q.189 In alcohol fermentation : -
Q.198 Genetic Map is one that : -
(1) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while
(1) Establishes sites of the genes on a
acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
chromosome
(2) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while
pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor (2) Establishes the various stages in gene
evolution
(3) There is no electron donor
(3) Shows the stages during the cell division
(4) Oxygen is the electron acceptor
Q.190 Phenetic classification is based on : - (4) Shows the distribution of various species in
a region
(1) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
Q.199 The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially
(2) Observable characteristics of existing organisms
rich in :-
(3) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(1) Proteins (2) Starch
(4) Sexual characteristics
(3) Lipids (4) Auxins
Q.191 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced
feature because it shows : - Q.200 The term "antibiotic" was coined by : -
(1) Different size of motile sex organs (1) Edward Jenner (2) Louis Pasteur
(2) Same size of motile sex organs (3) Selman waksman (4) Alexander Fleming
(3) Morphologically different sex organs
(4) Physiologically differentiated sex organs
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 1 2 1 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 1 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 4 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 1 4
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 3 3 4 4 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 1 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 3
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 2 4
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 1 4 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 3 3 4 2/4 1 3 1 1 2 4 3 1 1/2 4 4 3 1 1 3
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

u 1
1. Let time of flight be T then T = 5. mgh = mv2 (1 + K2/R2)
g 2
Let h be the distance covered during last 't' 2gh
⇒v=
second of its ascent (1 + K 2 / R 2 )
Velocity at point B = vB = u – g(T – t)
1 1
u  6. U= K(2)2; U′ = K(10)2 = 25U
= u – g  – t  = gt 2 2
g  7. Height of jump on the planet B
C g
= A × height of jump on the planets A
h gB
B H (Q mgh = constant)
u
A 8. Tmax = 25 g; ma = Tmax – mg
1 2 1 1 g 10
⇒ h = vBt – gt ⇒ h = gt2– gt2 = gt2 ⇒a= = = 2.5 m/s2
2 2 2 4 4
9. Reading of weighing scale = m(g + a)
dv
2. Here = constant = a (say) = 80 (10 + 5) = 1200 N
dt
Use v2 = u2 + 2as where 1
10. T.K.E. = mv2 (1 + K2/R2)
2
s = 2 × 2πr = 80 m, u = 0, v = 80 m/s
1
3. Use law of conservation of angular momentum. R.K.E. = mv2(K2/R2)
2
Mω
Mr2ω = (Mr2 + 4mr2)ω′ ⇒ ω′ =
M + 4m 11. (A + B ). (A – B ) = 0
4. m1v1 = m2v2 (P1 = P2); ⇒ A2 – A . B + B . A – B2 = 0
1 P12 ⇒ A = B (Q A . B = B . A )
m1v12
E1 2 2m m 12. Gravitational force does not depend on medium.
= = 21 = 2
E2 1 2 P m1
m2v2 2 In this case time of flight of a ball ≥ 2 × 2 = 4 sec.
2 2m 2
2u 1 1 a
2
E
Q Time of flight = ≥4 23. PE = Kx 2 = K  =
g 2 2 2 4
24. Electric flux through any face
Total flux (q / E 0 )
= =
number of faces 6
u man –
r e
⇒ u ≥ 2g ⇒ u ≥ 19.6 m/s (Q g = 9.8 m/s ) 2 r Ke 2
25. P Coulomb force = 2 (– r̂ )
1 r
14. Use =(µ – 1) (1/R1 – 1/R2),
f Ke 2 r
µconvex lens = – r
Here µ = =1 ∴f=∞ r3
µliquid n
26. B = µ0ni ; n′ = ; i′ = 2i ⇒ B′ = B
15. Source is stationary ⇒ λ = constant 2
v + vs  v   1 27. Here F ⊥ v ⇒ v = constant
&f′= f = 1 + s  f = 1 +  f = 1.2f
v  v  5
I
16. Kl = constant ⇒ K′ = 4K 28. Use T = 2π
MB
m T
& T = 2π ⇒ T′ = 4I
K 2 Q I ∝ mass ⇒ T′ = 2π = 2T
MB
1
17. PE in SHM = Kx2[equation of parabola] 29. If rated voltage = supply voltage then use
2
1 1 1
18. In forced vibration, the resonance wave = + (series connection) &
becomes very sharp when damping force is small P P1 P2
(i.e. negligible) P = P1 + P2 (parallel connection)
19. R1
30.
R2
~V
f f′=f f ′′ = 2f
20. A general body emits radiations of longer V2 V2 V2
Q= × t1 = × t2 = ×t
wavelength than absorbed radiations. R1 R2 R
UV VIBGYOR IR →λ 1 1 1 Q Q Q
1442443 14243 = + ⇒ 2 = 2 + 2
absorbed radiations emitted radiations R R1 R 2 V t V t1 V t 2
T2 W 1 1 1 tt
21. Use η = 1 – = ⇒ = + ⇒t= 1 2
T1 Q t t1 t 2 t1 + t 2
22. 10 × 40
= = 8 min.
T2 T2 10 + 40
l K 31.
Keq
2l R R
l 2K
T1 T1 R
2l l l R R
= +
K eq (A) 2KA KA
(series connection R = R1 + R2) E
4 Resistance seen by the battery = equivalent
⇒ Keq = K
3 resistance b/w A & B = R
32. 48. A ≥ Z [Equality sign → hydrogen nuclei]
4 µF 4 µF 49. Emission of electron (e–) + antineutrino (γ–)
A B ⇒ β-decay.
A X Y
50.
4 µF B
CAB = (2 + 4)µF = 6µF
X= A.B; Y =X = A.B=A . B
33. Solar energy → fusion of protons into helium.
⇒ AND gate.
34. Fuse wire must have high resistance (per unit length)
& low melting point.
3
Volume of atom  10 –10 
35. ~  –15  = 1015
volume of nucleus  10 
1
36. For a point source I ∝
r2
37. N = N 0 e – λt ⇒ m = m 0 e – λt = m 0 e – λ ( 2 / λ )
10
= = 1.35 gm.
e2
 n2 
38. rn = 0.529 Å  
 Z
39. Reverse bais increases the potential barrier.
e e
40.   >>  
 m  electron  m  proton
 e 1 e 
Q   =   
  m  proton 1837  m  electron 
FB RB
n p n
42.
In active region emitter base p-n junction is in FB &

base collector p-n junction is in RB.
1
43. Curie law χm ∝
T
44. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
from stronger to the weaker part of the field.
45. In FWR; ripple freq. = 2 × source Freq.
46. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not
depend on diode design.
47. BE = ∆m × 931
= [2(1.0087 + 1.0073) – 4.0015] × 931
= 28.4 MeV
AIPMT - 2004
Q.1 When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt Q.6 Which one of the following statements is true
rating are connected in series to a 200 volt for the speed 'v' and the acceleration 'a' of a
supply, the power drawn by them will be :- particle executing simple harmonic motion
(1) 180 watt (2) 10 watt (1) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the
(3) 20 watt (4) 60 watt value of 'v'
(2) When 'v' is zero, a is zero
Q.2 The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is
(3) When 'v' is maximum, a is zero
R. If its length and radius are both doubled, (4) When 'v' is maximum, a is maximum
then:- Q.7 Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are
(1) The resistance will be halved and the specific joined in series. The effective spring constant of
resistance will remain unchanged the combination is given by -
(2) The resistance will be halved and the specific (k1 + k 2 )
(1) (2) k1 + k2
resistance will be doubled 2
(3) The resistance and the specific resistance, k1k 2
(3) (4) k 1k 2
will both remain unchanged (k1 + k 2 )
(4) The resistance will be doubled and the
Q.8 Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams,
specific resistance will be halved
which one of the diode is reverse biased ?
Q.3 Resistances n, each of r ohm, when connected in +5V
parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. R

(1) (2) R
If these resistances were connected in series, the –10V
combination would have a resistance in ohms, +10V

–12V R
(3) R (4)
equal to
+5V –5V
R
(1) (2) R/n
n2 Q.9 A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car
(3) nR (4) n2R driver sounds a horn of frequency 'f'. The
reflected sound heard by the driver has a
Q.4 The unit of permittivity of free space ε0 is :- frequency 2f. If 'v' be the velocity of sound then
(1) Newton metre2/ Coulomb2 the velocity of the car, in the same velocity
(2) Coulomb2 /Newton metre2 units, will be -
(3) Coulomb2/ (Newton metre)2
(1) v/3 (2) v/4 (3) v/2 (4) v/ 2
(4) Coulomb/Newton metre
Q.10 The density of newly discovered planet is twice
Q.5 A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have :- that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at
(1) a high resistance in series with its coil the surface of the planet is equal to that at the
(2) a low resistance in parallel with its coil surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is
(3) a low resistance in series with its coil R, the radius of the planet would be :-
(4) a high resistance in parallel with its coil (1) 4R (2) ¼ R (3) ½ R (4) 2R
Q.11 A beam of light composed of red and green rays Q.15 In semiconductors at a room temperature
is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a (1) The valence band is completely filled and
rectangular glass slab. When coming out on the the conduction band is partially filled
opposite parallel face, the red and green rays (2) The valence band is completely filled
emerge from :- (3) The conduction band is completely empty
(1) Two points propagating in two different (4) The valence band is partially empty and the
parallel directions conduction band is partially filled
Q.16 The peak voltage in the output of a half wave
(2) One point propagating in two different
diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal
directions through slab without filter is 10V. The d. c. component of the
(3) One point propagating in the same direction output voltage is :-
through slab 10 20 10
(1) V (2) 10 V (3) V (4) V
(4) Two points propagating in two different non π π 2
parallel directions Q.17 A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5
Q.12 A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides
with a nearly weightless spring of force constant
v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the
with a velocity v2. Both of them have the same spring would be :-
momentum but their different kinetic energies
are E1 and E2 respectively.
If m1 > m2 then :
E1 m1
(1) = (2) E1 > E2 (1) 0.12 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 0.5 m (4) 0.15 m
E2 m2
(3) E1 = E2 (4) E1< E2 Q.18 If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the
Q.13 The refractive index of the material of a prism is fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the
resultant nucleus be m3, then
2 and its refracting angle is 30º. One of the (1) m3 = |m1–m2| (2) m3 < (m1 + m2)
refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror (3) m3 > (m1 + m2) (4) m3 = m1 + m2
inwards. A beam of monochromatic light
Q.19 According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
entering the prism from the other face will the graph between the kinetic energy of
retrace its path after reflection form the mirrored photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of
surface if its angle of incidence on the prism is :- incident radiation is :-
(1) 60º (2) 0º (3) 30º (4) 45º
(1) kinetic (2) kinetic
Q.14 A stone is tied to a string of length 'l' and is energy energy
whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of Frequency Frequency
the string as the centre. At a certain instant of
time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a (3) kinetic (4) kinetic
energy energy
speed 'u'. The magnitude of the change in
Frequency Frequency
velocity as it reaches a position where the string
A
is horizontal (g being acceleration due to gravity) Q.20 A nucleus represented by the symbol ZX has :-
is :- (1) Z protons and A –Z neutrons
(2) Z protons and A neutrons
(1) u 2 − gl (2) u − u 2 − 2gl
(3) A protons and Z –A neutrons
(3) 2gl (4) 2( u 2 − gl ) (4) Z neutrons and A –Z protons
Q.21 The dimensions of universal gravitational Q.28 A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its
constant are :- axis perpendicular to its plane and passing
(1) ML2 T–1 (2) M–2L3 T–2 through its centre is placed over another disc of
–2 2 –1
(3) M L T (4) M–1L3 T–2 moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular
Q.22 In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at velocity ω about the same axis. The final
angular velocity of the combination of discs is :-
220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the
Iω
resistance of a 60W bulb for use in India is R, (1) ω (2) 1
I1 + I 2
The resistance of a 60W bulb for use in USA
will be :- (3)
(I1 + I 2 )ω (4)
I 2ω
(1) 2R (2) R/4 (3) R/2 (4) R I1 I1 + I 2
Q.23 The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance Q.29 A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg
are dropped together from a 60 feet tall
R changes by an amount ∆φ in a time ∆t. Then
building. After a fall of 30 feet each towards
the total quantity of electric charges Q that
earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in
passes any point in the circuit during the time ∆t the ratio of-
is represented by :-
(1) 1: 4 (2) 1: 2 (3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1
∆φ ∆φ
(1) Q = (2) Q =
R ∆t Q.30 The half life of radium in about 1600 years. Of
100g of radium existing now, 25g will remain
∆φ 1 ∆φ
(3) Q = R . (4) Q = . undecayed after :-
∆t R ∆t
(1) 6400 years (2) 2400 years
Q.24 A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 µC. (3) 3200 years (4) 4800 years
Through what potential difference must it be
Q.31 MP denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of
accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a speed
a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy
of 10 m/s ?
B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass
(1) 50 kV (2) 5V (3) 50 V (4) 5kV M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by (c is velocity
Q.25 The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a of light )
pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a (1) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMP + Bc2
volume V, will be :- (2) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMP – B/c2
(1) PV = 5 RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT (3) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMP + B/c2
(3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32) RT (4) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMP – Bc2
Where is the gas constant. Q.32 A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm
Q.26 If λm denotes the wavelength at which the diameter and is situated at a distance of one
radioactive emission from a black body at a kilometer from two objects. The minimum
temperature T K is maximum, then :- distance between these two objects, which can
(1) λm is independent of T be resolved by the telescope, when the mean
wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of-
(2) λm ∝ T
(1) 5 m (2) 5 mm (3) 5 cm (4) 0.5 m
(3) λm ∝ T–1
(4) λm ∝ T–4 Q.33 The phase difference between two waves,
represented by
Q.27 The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular y1 = 10–6 sin {100t + (x/50) + 0.5}m
disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the  x 
y2 = 10–6 cos{100t +   }m
disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about  50 
a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is:- Where X is expressed in metres and t is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 5: 6 expressed in seconds, is approximately : -
(1) 2.07 radians (2) 0.5 radians
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 1.5 radians (4) 1.07 radians
Q.34 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge → → → →
Q.39 If A× B = 3 A . B then the value of
of inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the
→ →
wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the A + B is:-
block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be :-
(1) mg sin θ (2) mg 1/ 2
 AB 
(3) mg/cosθ (4) mg cosθ (1)  A 2 + B 2 + 
 3
Q.35 Three particles, each of mass m gram, are
(2) A + B
situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
ABC of side l cm. (as shown in the figure). The (3) (A2 + B2 + 3 AB)1/2
moment of inertia of the system about a line AX (4) (A2 + B2 +AB)1/2
perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in
gram cm2 units will be :- Q.40 The coefficient of static friction, µs, between
X mC block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in
l the figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum
l
mass value of block B so that the two blocks do
B not move ? The string and the pulley are
A
m l m
assumed to be smooth and massless.
2 5 3 3 (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 ml (2) ml2 (3) ml2 (4) ml2
4 2 4
2kg A
Q.36 Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal
−13.6 B
quantum number n is given by E = eV.
n2 (1) 4.0 kg (2) 0.2 kg (3) 0.4 kg (4) 2.0 kg
The energy of a photon ejected when the electron
jumps from n = 3 state to n = 2 state of hydrogen Q.41 In a p–n junction photo cell, the value of the
is approximately :- photo electromotive force produced by
(1) 0. 85 eV (2) 3.4 eV monochromatic light is proportional to: -
(3) 1.9 eV (4) 1.5 eV
(1) The intensity of the light falling on the cell
Q.37 A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg–m2 (2) The frequency of the light falling on the cell
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 (3) The voltage applied at the p–n junction
rpm about the axis. The torque which can stop
(4) The barrier voltage at the p–n junction
the wheel's rotation in one minute would be :-
π π Q.42 The Bohr model of atoms :-
(1) N−m (2) N−m
12 15 (1) Uses Einstein's photo electric equation
π 2π (2) Predicts continuous emission spectra for
(3) N−m (4) N−m
18 15
atoms
Q.38 Consider a system of two particles having (3) Predicts the same emission spectra for all
masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is types of atoms
pushed towards the mass centre of particles
(4) Assumes that the angular momentum of
through a distance 'd', by what distance would
electrons is quantized
the particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the
mass centre of particles at the original position :- Q.43 The output of OR gate is 1 :-
m (1) If either or both inputs are 1
(1) 1 d (2) d
m2 (2) Only if both inputs are 1
m m1 (3) If either input is zero
(3) 2 (4) d
m1 m1 + m 2
(4) If both inputs are zero
Q.44 An electric dipole has the magnitude of its Q.50 A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of
charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is a three metre long wire of uniform thickness
placed in a uniform electric field E. If its dipole
moment is along the direction of the field, the and resistance of 100 ohm. The difference of
force on it and its potential energy are potential between two points on the wire
respectively :- separated by a distance of 50 cm will be :-
(1) q. E and p. E
(1) 3 v (2) 1v (3) 1.5 v (4) 2 v
(2) zero and minimum
(3) q. E and maximum
Q.51 Lanthanoids are :-
(4) 2q. E and minimum
(1) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic
Q.45 A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel.
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt (2) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no.
battery. The time constant of the circuit is :- 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel
(1) 1/5 seconds (2) 40 seconds (3) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic
(3) 20 seconds (4) 5 seconds
no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel
Q.46 One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature (4) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no.
of T K does 6 R joules of work adiabatically. If
the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
5
pressure and at constant volume is , the final Q.52 Which of the following forms cationic micelles
3
above certain concentration :-
temperature of gas will be :-
(1) (T –2.4) K (2) (T + 4)K (1) sodium acetate
(3) (T – 4) K (4) (T + 2.4)K (2) Urea
Q.47 A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 (3) Cetyl trimethylammonium chloride
hours when the current flowing is 10A. The (4) Sodium dodecyl sulphonate
battery on discharge supplies a current of 5A for
15 hours. The mean terminal voltage during
discharges is 14 V. The "Watt hour" efficiency Q.53 Which of the following does not have a metal-
of the battery is :- carbon bond :-
(1) 80% (2) 90% (3) 87.5% (4)82.5% (1) C2H5MgBr (2) K[Pt (C2 H4)Cl3]
Q.48 Five equal resistances each of resistance R are (3) Ni(CO)4 (4) Al(OC2H5)3
connected as shown in the Figure. A battery of V
volts is connected between A and B. The current Q.54 Which one of the following is a chain growth
flowing in AFCEB will be polymer :-
C
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Polystyrene
(3) protein (4) Starch
R
R R
Q.55 The correct statement in respect of protein
F
haemoglobin is that it :-
A
R B (1) Maintains blood sugar level
D E (2) Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
R
(1) V/R (2) V/2R (3) 2V/R (4) 3V/R (3) Forms antibodies and offers resistance to
Q.49 A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 diseases
divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a
(4) Functions as a catalyst for biological
deflection of one division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 reactions
volts, it should be connected with a resistance of :-
(1) 245 Ω as a shunt Q.56 A sequence of how many nucleotides in
(2) 2550 Ω in series messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino
(3) 2450 Ω in series acid :-
(4) 2500 Ω as a shunt (1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
Q.57 The hormone that helps in the conversion of Q.64 Which one of the following can be oxidised to
glucose to glycogen is :- the corresponding carbonyl compound :-
(1) Bile acids (2) Adrenaline (1) o-Nitrophenol
(3) insulin (4) Cortisone (2) Phenol
(3) 2-methyl-2-hydroxy propane
Q.58 Which of the following is considered to be an
anticancer species :- (4) 2-hydroxy propane
Cl Cl H3N Cl Q.65 In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals
(1) Pt (2) Pt
Cl Cl H3N Cl involved involved in d2sp3 hybridization is :-
H3N Cl CH2 (1) dxz, dx2–y2 (2) dz2, dxz
Cl
(3) Pt (4) Pt CH2 (3) dxy, dyz (4) dx2–y2, dz2
Cl NH3 Cl Cl
Q.66 The frequency of radiation emitted when the
Q.59 If the bond energies of H–H, Br – Br and H –Br
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively the
atom will be (Given ionization energy of
∆Hº for the reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
H = 2.18 ×10–18 J atom –1 and h = 6.625 ×10–34 Js):
is-
(1) + 103 kJ (2) +261kJ (1) 1.03×1015 s–1 (2) 3.08×1015 s–1
(3) –103 kJ (4) –261 kJ (3) 2.00×1015 s–1 (4) 1.54×1015 s–1
Q.60 Which of the following is responsible for Q.67 Camphor is often used in molecular mass
depletion of the ozone layer in the upper strata of determination because :-
the atmosphere :- (1) It has a very high cryoscopic constant
(1) Ferrocene (2) Fullerenes (2) It is volatile
(3) Freons (4) Polyhalogens
(3) It is solvent for organic substances
Q.61 Among the following, the pair in which the two (4) It is readily available
species are not isostructural is :-
Q.68 Number of chiral carbons in β–D–(+)– glucose
(1) IO 3− and XeO3 (2) BH −4 and NH +4
is: -
(3) PF6− and SF6 (4) SiF4 and SF4
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
–2 –1
Q.62 The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10 mol L Q.69 The helical structure of protein is stabilized by:-
min–1at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The half
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Ether bonds
life of the reaction is :-
(3) Peptide bonds (4) Dipeptide bonds
(1) 23. 1min (2) 8.73 min
(3) 7.53 min (4) 0.383 min Q.70 Which of the following is least reactive in a
Q.63 Which one of the following structures represents nucleophilic substitution reaction :-
the peptide chain :- (1) CH2 = CHCl (2) CH3CH2Cl
H H (3) CH2 = CHCH2Cl (4) (CH3)3C–Cl
(1) –N–C–C–C–C–N–C–C–C –
O Q.71 H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is
H H H O because:-
(2) –N–C–C–N–C–C–N–C–C– (1) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
O O BeF2 is a discrete molecule
H O H (2) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
(3) –N–C–C–C–N–C–C–N–C–C–C (3) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
H O
(4) The electronegativity of F is greater than that
H O
of O
(4) –N–C–N–C–NH–C–NH–
O H
Q.72 Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic Q.79 Aniline when diazotized in cold and then treated
parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product.
any process is :- Its structure would be :-
(1) ∆Ssystem – ∆Ssurrounding > 0 –N=N– NH2
(1) CH3
(2) ∆Ssystem > 0 only
–N=N–
(3) ∆Ssurroundings > O only (2) (CH3)2N
(4) ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurrounding > 0
(3) (CH3)2N –NH–
Q.73 Ionic radii are :-
(1) Inversely proportional to square of effective (4) CH3NH –N=N– NH CH3
nuclear charge
(2) Directly proportional to effective nuclear Q.80 In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the
charge number of X–M–X bonds at 180º is :-
(3) Directly proportional to square of effective (1) Two (2) Six (3) Four (4) Three
nuclear charge
(4) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear Q.81 Which is the best description of the behavior of
charge bromine in the reaction given below:-
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
Q.74 CN– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the
(1) Both oxidized and reduced
fact that :-
(2) Oxidized only
(1) It is a pseudohalide
(3) Reduced only
(2) It can accept electrons from metal species
(3) It forms high spin complexes with metal (4) Proton acceptor only
species Q.82 The maximum number of molecules is present
(4) It carries negative charge in:-
Q.75 Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the (1) 5L of N2 gas at STP
number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O6)]2+ (2) 0.5 g of H2 gas
will be – (3) 10g of O2 gas
(At. no. of Mn = 25) (4) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(1) Five (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three
Q.83 A compound formed by elements X and Y
Q.76 The –OH group of an alcohol or the carboxylic crystallizes in a cubic structure in which the X
acid can be replaced by – Cl, using :- atoms are at the corners of a cube and the Y
(1) Hypochlorous acid
atoms are at the face-centers. The formula of the
(2) Chlorine
compound is :-
(3) Hydrochloric acid
(1) X3Y (2) XY (3) XY2 (4) XY3
(4) Phosphorous pentachloride
60
Q.77 Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of Q.84 The radioactive isotope 27 Co which is used in
peroxide gives :- the treatment of cancer can be made by (n, p)
(1) 3-bromo propane (2) Allyl bromide reaction. For this reaction the target nucleus is :-
(3) n-propyl bromide (4) Isopropyl bromide (1) 59
(2) 60
(3) 60
(4) 59
27 Co 28 Ni 27 Co 28 Ni
Q.78 Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of

Q.85 The enzyme which hydrolysis triglycerides to
(1) Nitric acid on chlorobenzene
fatty acids and glycerol is called :-
(2) Chlorine on picric acid
(3) Nitric acid on chloroform (1) Lipase (2) Zymase
(4) Steam on carbon tetrachloride (3) Pepsin (4) Maltase
Q.86 Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes Q.92 Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2–, [NiCl4]2–
for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are species, the hybridization states at the Ni atom
–1 –1 –1
–382.64 kJ mol and –145.6 JK mol , are, respectively :- (At. No. of Ni = 28)
respectively. Standard Gibbs energy change for (1) sp3, dsp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp3, dsp2
the same reaction at 298 K is :- (3) dsp2, sp3, sp3 (4) sp3, dsp2, dsp2
(1) –339.3 kJ mol–1 (2) – 439.3 kJ mol–1
–1 Q.93 Among the following series of transition metal
(3) –523.2 kJ mol (4) –221.1 kJ mol–1
ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2
Q.87 The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt electronic configuration is :-
–11
AX2 is 3.2 ×10 . Its solubility (in moles/litre) (1) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
is:- (2) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+
–4 –4
(1) 3.1×10 (2) 2 × 10 (3) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+
(3) 4 × 10–4 (4) 5.6 × 10–6 (4) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+
Q.88 Among K, Ca Fe and Zn, the element which can Q.94 Which of the following coordination
form more than one binary compound with compounds would exhibit optical isomerism
chlorine is :- (1) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
(1) Zn (2) K (3) Ca (4) Fe (2) Trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine)
chromium (III) chloride
Q.89 The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving
(3) Tris – (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at
(4) Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide
25ºC. The equilibrium constant of the reaction
would be :- Q.95 The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric
(1) 4.0 × 1012 (2) 1.0 × 102 point of an acid-base titration is the basis of
10 11
(3) 1.0 × 10 (4) 2.0 × 10 indicator detection. pH of the solution is related
(Given F = 96500 C mol–1; to ratio of the concentrations of the conjugate
–1 –1
R = 8.314 JK mol ) acid (HIn) and base (In–) forms of the indicator
by the expression -
Q.90 Which one of the following statements about the
[ HIn]
zeolites is false :- (1) log = pKIn – pH
[In − ]
(1) They have open structure which enables them
to take up small molecules [ HIn]
(2) log = pH – pKIn
(2) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having three [In − ]
dimensional network [In − ]
(3) log = pH – pKIn
(3) Some of the SiO 44 − units are replaced by [ HIn]
AlO54− and AlO96− ions in zeolites [In − ]

(4) log = pKIn – pH
[ HIn]
(4) They are used as cation exchangers.
Q.91 Which of the following will not form a yellow Q.96 Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of
precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution the following reactions produces ethylbenzene
of iodine :- (PhEt) :-
(1) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (1) CH3–CH = CH2 + C6 H6
(2) CH3OH (2) H2C = CH2 + C6 H6
(3) CH3CH2OH (3) H3C – CH3 + C6 H6
(4) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (4) H3C – CH2OH + C6 H6
Q.97 The molecular formula of diphenyl methane, Q.103 The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to
CH2 , is C13H12. function normally. The doctors find that an
artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is
How many structural isomers are possible when
likely that it will be grafted at the site of -
one of the hydrogens is replaced by a chlorine
(1) Purkinje system
atom :-
(2) Sinuatrial node
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6
(3) Atrioventricular node
Q.98 A solid compound 'X' on heating gives CO2 gas (4) Atrioventricular bundle
and a residue. The residue mixed with water
Q.104 What is a keystone species ?
forms 'Y'. On passing an excess of CO2 through
(1) A common species that has plenty of
'Y' in water, a clear solution, 'Z' is obtained. On
biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the
boiling 'Z', compound 'X' is reformed. The
community's organization
compound 'X' is :-
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on
(1) CaCO3 (2) Na2CO3 (3) K2CO3 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
the biomass and on other species in the
Q.99 The work done during the expansion of a gas community
from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a (3) A dominant species that constitutes a large
constant external pressure of 3 atm is :- proportion of the biomass and which affects
(1) –608 J (2) + 304 J (3) –304 J (4) –6 J many other species
(4) A species which makes up only a small
Q.100 In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy
proportion of the total biomass of a
equatorial positions to minimize :-
community, yet has a huge impact on the
(1) Bond pair – bond pair repulsion only
community's organization and survival
(2) Lone pair – lone pair repulsion and lone pair–
bond pair repulsion Q.105 The most thoroughly studied of the known
(3) Lone pair–lone pair repulsion only bacteria-plant interactions is the :-
(4) Lone pair–bond pair repulsion ony (1) Gall formation on certain angiosperms by
Agrobacterium
Q.101 Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually
(2) Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen
high quantity of carboxy-haemoglobin content.
fixing bacteria
Which of the following conclusions is most
(3) Plant growth stimulation by phosphate–
likely to be correct ? The patient has been
solubilising bacteria
inhaling polluted air containing unusually high
(4) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic
content of -
ferns
(1) Chloroform (2) Carbon dioxide
Q.106 Which one of the following preceeds re-
(3) Carbon monoxide (4) carbon disulphide
formation of the nuclear envelope during M
Q.102 You are required to draw blood from a patient phase of the cell cycle :-
and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood (1) Transcription from chromosomes and
corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided reassembly of the nuclear lamina
with the following four types of test tubes. (2) Formation of the contractile ring and
Which of them will you not use for the purpose? formation of the phragmoplast
(1) Chilled test tube (3) Formation of the contractile ring and
(2) Test tube containing heparin transcription from chromosomes
(3) Test tube containing sodium oxalate (4) Decondensation from chromosomes and
(4) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate reassembly of the nuclear lamina
Q.107 The richest sources of vitamin B12 are :- Q.113 One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day
(1) Chocolate and green gram and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered
(2) Rice and hen's egg while in the other set night phase was
(3) Carrot and chicken's breast
interrupted by flash of light and it did not
(4) Goat's liver and Spirulina
produce flower. Under which one of the
Q.108 In transgenics expression of transgene in target following categories will you place this plant ?
tissue is determined by :- (1) Darkness neutral (2) Day neutral
(1) Transgene (2) Promoter
(3) Short day (4) Long day
(3) Reporter (4) Enhancer
Q.114 Lead concentration in blood is considered
Q.109 A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind
alarming if it is -
is married to a normal man. The sons would be :-
(1) 50% colour-blind (1) 30 µg/100 ml (2) 4-6 µg/100 ml
(2) All normal (3) 10 µg/100 ml (4) 20 µg/100 ml
(3) All colour-blind
Q.115 In which one of the following enzymes, is
(4) 75 % colour-blind
copper necessarily associated as an activator -
Q.110 Age of fossils in the past was generally
(1) Tryptophanase (2) Lactic dehydrogenase
determined by radio-carbon method and other
(3) Tyrosinase (4) Carbonic anhydrase
methods involving radioactive elements found in
the rocks. More precise methods, which were Q.116 DNA fingerprinting refers to :-
used recently and led to the revision of the (1) Anlysis of DNA samples using imprinting
evolutionary periods for different groups of devices
organisms includes -
(2) Techniques used for molecular analysis of
(1) Study of the conditions of fossilization
different specimens of DNA
(2) Electron spin resonance (ESR) & fossil DNA
(3) Techniques used for identification of
(3) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
fingerprints of individuals
(4) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
(4) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA
Q.111 What kind of evidence suggested that man is
samples
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
other hominoid apes ? Q.117 Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(1) Comparison of chromosomes morphology differ in :-
only (1) Location in cell and mode of functioning
(2) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil (2) Microtubular organization and type of
mitochondrial DNA alone
movement
(3) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
(3) Microtubular organization and function
chromosomes, autosomes & mitochondria
(4) Type of movement & placement in cell
(4) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes
only Q.118 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young
Q.112 Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to - stage and radial pentamerous symmetry in the
(1) formation of pollen adult stage, belong to the phylum -
(2) Development of anther (1) Mollusca (2) Cnidaria
(3) Opening of flower bud (3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida
(4) Reception of pollen by stigma
Q.119 In Arthopoda, head and thorax are often fused to Q.126 The maximum growth rate occurs in :-
form cephalothorax, but in which one of the (1) Senescent phase
following classes, is the body divided into head, (2) Lag phase
thorax and abdomen ? (3) Exponential phase
(1) Myriapoda (4) Stationary phase
(2) Crustacea Q.127 Restriction endonucleases :-

(3) Arachnida and Crustacea (1) Are used in genetic engineering for ligating
(4) Insecta two DNA molecules
(2) Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis
Q.120 During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence
(3) Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their
of the DNA strand that is being coded is
defense mechanism
ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the
(4) Are present in mammalian cells for
mRNA would be -
degradation of DNA when the cell dies
(1) TCTGG (2) UAUGC
(3) UATGC (4) TATGC Q.128 In the resting state of the neural membrane,
diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
Q.121 In C3 plants, the first stable product of
allowed, would drive :-
photosynthesis during the dark reaction is :-
(1) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Na+ into the cell
(2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Na+ out of the cell
(3) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(4) K+ into the cell
(4) Malic acid
Q.129 Crossing over that results in genetic
Q.122 Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of
recombination in higher organisms occurs
presence of genes in -
between :-
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
(1) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(2) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(2) Two daughter nuclei
(3) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(3) Two different bivalents
(4) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(4) Sister chromatids of a bivalents
Q.123 Which one of the following hormones is a
Q.130 Which of the following statements is not true
modified amino acid ?
for retroviruses :-
(1) Progesterone (2) Prostaglandin
(1) Retroviruses carry gene for
(3) Estrogen (4) Epinephrine
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
Q.124 Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause (2) The genetic material in mature retroviruses
their lysis are called - is RNA
(1) Lipolytic (2) Lytic (3) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain
(3) Lysogenic (4) Lysozymes kinds of cancer in man
(4) DNA is not present at any stage in the life
Q.125 The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
cycle of retroviruses.
in humans are always-
(1) Sub-lethal Q.131 In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
(2) Expressed in males by guanine, it is a case of -
(3) Expressed in females (1) Transcription (2) Transition
(4) Lethal (3) Transversion (4) Frameshift mutation

Q.132 Ovulation in the human female normally takes Q.140 Dough kept overnight in warm weather
place during the menstrual cycle - becomes soft and spongy becauses of :-
(1) Just before the end of the secretory cycle (1) Fermentation
(2) At the beginning of the proliferative phase (2) Cohesion
(3) At the end of the proliferative phase
(3) Osmosis
(4) At the mid secretory phase
(4) Absorption of carbon dioxide from
Q.133 Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to atmosphere
affect -
Q.141 In the somatic cell cycle :-
(1) Gastrointestinal movements
(2) Pancreatic secretion (1) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(3) Cardiac movements (2) A short interphase is followed by a long
(4) Tongue movements mitotic phase
(3) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
Q.134 Which of the following hormones is not a
(4) In G1 phase DNA content is double the
secretion product of human placenta -
amount of DNA present in the original cell
(1) Prolactin
(2) Estrogen Q.142 A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
(3) Progesterone
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
(4) Human chorionic gonadotropin
hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his
Q.135 An ovule which becomes curved so that the sperms will be abh :-
nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the (1) 1/32 (2) 1/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/8
funicle is :-
(1) Campylotropous (2) Anatropous Q.143 India's wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was
(3) Orthotropous (4) Hemitropous possible primarily due to :-
(1) Increased chlorophyll content
Q.136 Angiosperms have dominated the land flora
(2) Mutations resulting in plant height reduction
primarily because of their -
(3) Quantitative trait mutations
(1) Property of producing large number of seeds
(4) Hybrid seeds
(2) Nature of self pollination
(3) Domestication by man Q.144 The most likely reason for the development of
(4) Power of adaptability in diverse habitat
resistance against pesticides in insects damaging
Q.137 Edible part of mango is :- a crop is :-
(1) Receptacle (2) Epicarp (1) Genetic recombination
(3) Mesocarp (4) Endocarp (2) Directed mutations
Q.138 In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- (3) Acquired heritable changes

(1) Inner membrane (2) Thylakoids (4) Random mutations
(3) Stroma (4) Outer membrane
Q.145 The following ratio is generally constant for a
Q.139 In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are
given species :-
removed by -
(1) T + C / G + A
(1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(2) NAD+ (2) G + C / A+ T
(3) Molecular oxygen (3) A + C / T + G

(4) ATP (4) A + G / C +T
Q.146 A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms :- Q.153 Which one of the following is the correct
(1) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes matching of a vitamin, its nature and its
(2) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes deficiency disease :
(3) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes (1) Vitamin K–Fat soluble Beri Beri
(4) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(2) Vitamin A–Fat soluble Beri Beri
Q.147 Lichens are well known combination of an alga (3) Vitamin K–Water soluble Pellagra
and a fungus where fungus has :- (4) Vitamin A–Fat soluble Night blindness
(1) An epiphytic relationship with the alga
(2) A parasitic relationship with the alga Q.154 Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
(3) A symbiotic relationship with the alga represents the following range of wave length
(4) A saprophytic relationship with the alga (1) 450-950 nm (2) 340-450 nm
(3) 400-700 nm (4) 500-600 nm
Q.148 Which of the following is expected to have the
highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland Q.155 The technique of obtaining large number of
ecosystem : - plantlets by tissue culture method is called –
(1) Tertiary production (1) Organ culture (2) Micropropagation
(2) Gross production (GP)
(3) Macropropagation (4) Plantlet culture
(3) Net production (NP)
(4) Secondary production Q.156 The most abundant element present in the plant
is :-
Q.149 Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to :- (1) Nitrogen (2) Manganese
(1) Recombination (3) Iron (4) Carbon
(2) Linkage
Q.157 Cell elongation in internodal regions of the
(3) Crossing over
green plants takes place due to :-
(4) Repulsion
(1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberellins
Q.150 In your opinion, which is the most effective way (3) Ethylene (4) Indole acetic acid
to conserve the plant diversity of an area :-
(1) By creating biosphere reserve Q.158 Diversification in plant life appeared :-
(2) By creating botanical garden (1) Due to abrupt mutations
(3) By developing seed bank (2) Suddenly on earth
(4) By tissue culture method (3) By seed dispersal
Q.151 If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are (4) Due to long periods of evolutionary changes
inactivated, then there will be no :-
Q.159 A terrestrial animal must be able to -
(1) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(1) Conserve water
(2) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
(2) Actively pump salts out through the skin
(3) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
(3) Excrete large amounts of salts in urine
(4) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(4) Excrete large amounts of water in urine
Q.152 In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place
Q.160 Mast cells of connective tissue contain -
because methyl isocyanate :-
(1) Heparin and histamine
(1) Reacted with ammonia
(2) Heparin and calcitonin
(2) Reacted with CO2
(3) Serotonin and melanin
(3) Reacted with water
(4) Reacted with DDT (4) Vasopressin and relaxin
Q.161 Uricotelism is found in - Q.167 Which one of the following pairs is not
(1) Fishes and Fresh water protozoans correctly matched :-
(2) Birds, reptiles and insects (1) Serratia – Drug addiction
(3) Frogs and toads (2) Spirulina – Single cell protein
(4) Mammals and birds (3) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
Q.162 ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is (4) Streptomyces – Antibiotic
located in - Q.168 Which one of the following pair's correctly

(1) Troponin (2) Myosin matches a hormone with a disease resulting
(3) Actin (4) Actinin from its deficiency :-
Q.163 Certain characteristic demographic features of (1) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
developing countries are - (2) Thyroxine – Tetany
(1) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising (3) Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes mellitus
mortality rate and very young age distribution (4) Luteinizing hormone – Failure of ovulation
(2) High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
Q.169 A major component of gobar gas is :-
population growth and a very young age
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
distribution
(3) Butane (4) Ammonia
(3) High mortality high density, uneven
population growth and a very old age Q.170 A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
distribution which can also form symbiotic association with
(4) High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality the water fern Azolla is :-
rate, rapid population growth and a very (1) Chlorella (2) Nostoc
young age distribution (3) Anabaena (4) Tolypothrix
Q.164 Duodenum has characteristic Brunner's glands
Q.171 In the ABO system of blood groups if both
which secrete two hormones called -
antigens are present but no antibody, the blood
(1) Secretin, Cholecystokinin
group of the individual would be :-
(2) Prolactin, parathormone
(1) O (2) AB (3) A (4) B
(3) Extradiol, progesterone
(4) Kinase, estrogen Q.172 Plants adapted to low light intensity have :-
(1) Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun
Q.165 Cancer cells are more easily damaged by
plants
radiation than normal cells because they are -
(2) More extended root system
(1) Undergoing rapid division
(3) Leaves modified to spines
(2) Different in structure
(3) Non-dividing (4) Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun
(4) Starved of mutation plants
Q.166 Which one of the following is not correctly Q.173 The Ti plasmid is often used for making
matched transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in
(1) Culex pipiens – Filariasis (1) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
(2) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever (2) Agrobacterium
(3) Anopheles culifaciens – Leishmaniasis (3) Yeast as a 2 µm plasmid
(4) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness (4) Azotobacter
Q.174 During replication of a bacterial chromosomes Q.181 Chemically hormones are :-
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin (1) Proteins, steroids & biogenic amines
site and :-
(2) Proteins only
(1) Is facilitated by telomerase
(3) Steroids only
(2) Moves in one direction of the size
(3) Moves in bi-directional way (4) Biogenic amines only
(4) RNA primers are involved
Q.182 When a fresh water protozoan possessing a
Q.175 In a plant red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over containing marine water, the vacuole will-
shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is
(1) Disappear (2) Increase in size
crossed with a plant that is rrtt
(3) Decrease in size (4) Increase in number
(1) 50% will be tall with red fruit
Q.183 One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in
(3) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit
its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
taken as a male. During segregation of F2
Q.176 After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
progenies that mutation is found in -
of an organism changes due to the change in :-
(1) None of the progenies
(1) DNA replication
(2) Protein synthesis pattern (2) All the progenies
(3) RNA transcription pattern (3) 50% of the progenies
(4) Protein structure (4) 1/3 of the progenies
Q.177 According to oparin, which one of the following

Q.184 An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
can recover after some time if damaging effect
the earth :-
(1) Oxygen (2) Hydrogen stops will be having -
(3) Water vapour (4) Methane (1) High stability and low resilience
(2) Low stability and low resilience
Q.178 When CO2 concentration in blood increases,
breathing becomes - (3) High stability and high resilience
(1) There is no effect on breathing (4) Low stability and high resilience
(2) Slow and deep
(3) Faster and deeper Q.185 In which of the following pairs is the specific
(4) Shallower and slow characteristic of a soil not correctly matched :-
Q.179 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (1) Terra rossa – Most suitable for roses
matched ? (2) Chernozems – Richest soil in the world
(1) Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite
(3) Black soil – Rich in calcium carbonate
(2) Vitamin B1 – Beri-beri
(4) Laterite – Contains aluminium compound
(3) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
(4) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious annemia Q.186 Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of
Q.180 One of the following is a very unique feature of
alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of alcohol
the mammalian body -
permitted for mixing in petrol :-
(1) Presence of diaphragm
(2) Four chambered heart (1) 10–15% (2) 10%
(3) Rib cage (3) 5% (4) 2.5%
(4) Homeothermy
Q.187 In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from Q.193 Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the clover leaf ?
following order :- (1) hn-RNA (2) m-RNA
(1) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell (3) t-RNA (4) r-RNA
enlargement
Q.194 A nutritionally wild type organism, which does
(2) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell
not require any additional growth supplement is
maturation, root cap
known as :-
(3) Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement,
(1) Holotype (2) Auxotroph
root cap (3) Prototroph (4) Phenotype
(4) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell
Q.195 Which of the following propagates through leaf-
maturation
tip :-
(1) Sprout-leaf plant (2) Marchantia
Q.188 Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates
(3) Moss (4) Walking fern
that :-
(1) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors Q.196 Common indicator organism of water pollution
is :-
(2) Frogs will have gills in future
(1) Eichhornia crassipes
(3) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors (2) Escherichia coli
(4) Fishes were amphibious in the past (3) Entamoeba histolytica
(4) Lemna pancicostata
Q.189 In oogamy fertilization involves -
Q.197 ELISA is used to detect viruses, where :-
(1) A large non-motile female gamete and a (1) Southern blotting is done
small motile male gamete (2) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
(2) A large non-motile female gamete and a (3) Catalase is the key reagent
small non-motile male gamete (4) DNA-probes are required
(3) A large motile female gamete and a small
Q.198 Phenetic classification of organisms is based
non-motile male gamete on:-
(4) A small non-motile female gamete and a (1) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
large motile male gamete (2) Dendogram based on DNA characteristics
(3) Sexual characteristics
Q.190 Which one of the following is living fossil - (4) Observable characteristics of existing
(1) Moss (2) Saccharomyces organisms
(3) spirogyra (4) Cycas
Q.199 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in
Q.191 In which one of the following habitats does the your class and are asked to count the
chromosomes which of the following stages can
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ?
you most conveniently look into :-
(1) Forest (2) Desert (1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
(3) Grassland (4) Shrub land (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
Q.192 The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes

Q.200 When a diploid female plant is crossed with a
consist of short sequences of -
tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in
(1) Cytosine rich repeats the resulting seed is :-
(2) Adenine rich repeats (1) Pentaploidy (2) Diploidy
(3) Guanine rich repeats (3) Triploidy (4) Tetraploidy
(4) Thymine rich repeats
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 1 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 3 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 4 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 3
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 1 2 4 4 2 1 4 1 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 1,3 2 1 1 1 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 3 4 2 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 2
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 1
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 3 1 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 1 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 4
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. If rated voltage = supply voltage then in series 6. IN SHM if v = vmax then a = 0
combination of bulbs v=0 then a = amax
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + + ...... 7. In series = + + ....
Peq P1 P2 P3 k eff k1 k 2
For this question
1 1 1 1 3 1 k1
= + + = = ⇒ Peq = 20watt
Peq 60 60 60 60 20
k2
2. Material same ⇒ ρ unchanged m

ρl ρl l
R= = ⇒R∝ 2 8. Diode is in FB if V1 > V2
A πa 2 a
V1 V2
2l
therefore R ' ∝ Diode is in RB if V2 > V1
(2a ) 2 9. According to given condition
R
⇒ R' = v
2
r cliff is stationary source of freq. f' where
3. According to question R = ⇒ r = nR
n  v 
f'=  f
Rseries = nr = n2R  v − v car 
 
Freq. heard by the driver
q1 q 2 Coulomb 2
4. F= ⇒ [∈0 ] =  v + v car   v + v car 
4π ∈0 r 2 Newton Meter 2 f " =  f ' =  f = 2f
v   v − v car 
   
high R
5. Voltmeter → G ⇒ v + vcar = 2v – 2vcar ⇒ 3vcar = v
⇒ vcar = v/3
4 17. According to question
G πR 3ρ
GM 4
10. g= = 3 2 = πGρR 1 1 m 0.5
R2 R 3 mv 2 = kx 2 ⇒ x = v = 1. 5 =
2 2 k 50
Now according to question gplanet = gearth
0.15m
4 4
⇒ πGρ planet × R planet = πGρ earth × R earth 18. Product is more stable so that its mass is less
3 3
than the sum of masses of reactants i.e.
R earth
⇒ Rplanet = (Q ρplanet = 2ρearth) m3 < (m1 + m2)
2
11.
GLASS SLAB
Red 19. hv = φ + KEmax ⇒ KEmax
Green v
Red + Green
20. Z = number of protons
Red and green rays emerge from two points, In A
ZX
propagating in two different parallel directions. A-Z = number of neutrons
2
P 1
12. QE= ∴ E ∝ if m1 > m2 then E1 < E2 Gm1m 2
2m m 21. QF=
r2
13. According to question from snaell's law
 Fr 2  MLT −2 L2
A ∴ [G] =  2  ≡
 m  M2
= M–1 L3 T–2
60º
i 
30º V 2 
22. Use power  P = and get required result
 R 
B C 
1 1 e 1  ∆φ  ∆Q ∆φ
1. sin i = µsin30º ⇒ sin i = 2× = 23. I= =  = ⇒Q=
2 2 R R  ∆t  ∆t R
⇒ i = 45º
1
14. 24. Use qVacc = mv 2 and get required result
2
Vp= u 2 − 2gl 5
25. PV = µRT where µ = moles
32
O l P
l 26. Wien's displacement law λm T = b
VA= u
A 5 2 
I disk = MR 2 = MK disk
→ → 4  K disk 5
Magnitude of change in velocity = | Vp − VA | 27. ⇒ =
3 K ring 6
I ring = MR 2 = MK 2ring 
→ → 2 
= Vp2 + VA2 (Qangle between Vp and VA is 90º)
= u 2 − 2gl + u 2 = 2( u 2 − gl )
16. For half wave diode rectifier (HWR)

Disk Ring
V 10
Vdc = 0 = volts
π π
28. form conservation of angular momentum N
θ
Iω 34. m
I1ω = (I1 + I2)ω' ⇒ ω' = 1 a FBD of m θ
I1 + I 2 smooth
θ ma
29. mg
30ft
mg
60 ft Here N cosθ = mg ⇒ N =
cos θ
X
V1 V2
35. l= sin30º =l/2
ground
Here V1 = V2 = 2gh l
30º l
1 60º
m1v12 A B
KE1 m 2 1
= 2 = 1 = = l
KE 2 1 m v 2 m 2 4 2 2
2 2 l ml 2 5
2 IAX = ml2 + m   = ml2 + = ml 2
2 4 4
M 0 = 100g (initial mass)  N 0 100
30. ⇒ = 36. Energy of photon = E3 – E2
M = 25 g (active mass)  N 25
2
∆=2 ⇒n=2 − 13.6  − 13.6  5
= − = × 13.6 = 1.9 eV
Therefore required time = 2×T1/2 = 3200 yrs 9  4  36
31. Mass of nucleus is slightly less than sum of 37. From τ = Iα and ω = ω0 + αt
masses of its constituents. This mass difference
60 × 2π
is equivalent to binding energy. Here ω0 = rad/sec. = 2π rad/sec.
60
E
∴ ∆m = 2 =(ZMP + NMn) –M(N,Z)
C ω  2π π
τ = I 0  = 2 × = N–m
B  I  60 15
Hence M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMP – 2
C 38.
d λ m1
32. θ= but θ ≈ CM m2
D a r1 r2
θ d
m1 CM m2
D r1-d r2-d'
1.22 m1r1 = m2r2 …(1)
(Note : - exact relation θ = λ)
a m1(r1– d) = m2(r2– d') ….. (2)
d λ λD m1
= ⇒d= from (1) and (2) we get d' = d
D a a m2
5000 × 10 −10 × 103
⇒d= = 5 mm → → → →
10 × 10 − 2 39. | A× B |= 3 A . B
x ⇒ ABsinθ = 3 ABcosθ
33. y1 = 10–6 sin {100t + + 0.5}
50
⇒ tanθ = 3
x
y2 = 10–6 cos {100t + }
50 θ = 60º
π x → →
= 10–6 sin { + 100t + } therefore | A + B |= A 2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
2 50
π = A 2 + B 2 + 2AB cos 60º
Phase difference between y1 & y2 = –0.5
2
= A 2 + B 2 + AB
= 1.58 – 0.5 = 1.08 radians.
2kg E out
47. % Watt hour efficiency = × 100
µ = 0.2 A E in
40. (14) (5) (15)

= × 100 = 87.5%
(15) (10) (8)
B mB 48. Given circuit can be reduced to
According to question R
C
R C
R R
T = mBg = µ(mAg) A B
≡ A B ≡ A B
R R R 2R
⇒ mB = µmA = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kg D D
R
V
41. Photo emf ∝ Current through cell required current =
2R
But current ∝ Intensity Rg
I R
so photo emf ∝ Intensity of light falling on the 49. G
cell. 25 volt
According to question 25 = I (R + Rg)
42. Bohr model of atoms assumes that the angular
= (4 × 10–4 × 25) (R + 50)
momentum of electrons is quantised.
⇒ R + 50 = 2500 ⇒ R = 2450Ω
43. The output of OR gate is 1 if either or both
50.
inputs are 1. 6V
dE
44. F= p = 0 (Q E = constant)
dr
→ → 3m , 100Ω
u = – p . E = –PE (minimum)
6
L 40 Voltage on 50 cm. = × 50 = 1 volt.
45. Time constant = = = 5 seconds. 300
R 8
46. ∆U = µCV ∆T and 0 = W + ∆U

⇒ ∆U = –6R (∴ W = 6R)
 R  3
Therefore –6R = 1  ∆T = R∆T
 γ −1  2
= ∆T = – 4 ⇒ Tfinal = (T – 4)K
AIPMT - 2005
Q.1 The work functions for metals A, B and C are Q.7 Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart,
respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According as shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is
to Einstein's equation, the metals which will emit moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm
photo electrons for a radiation of wavelength from C to D. The change in the potential energy
4100Å is/are- q3
(1) None (2) A only of the system is k , where k is –
4π∈0
(3) A and B only (4) All the three metals
q3
Q.2 Zener diode is used for:- C
(1) Rectification
40 cm
(2) Stabilisation
(3) Amplification q2
q1
(4) Producing oscillations in an oscillator 30 cm D
A B
2 3
→ 42 He + 10 n . If the (1) 8q2 (2) 6q2 (3) 8q1 (4) 6q1
Q.3 In the reaction 1 H + 1H
binding energies of 2 3
1 H, 1 H and 4
2 He are Q.8 An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B
(in MeV) released in this reaction is at the centre of the circle. The radius of the
(1) a + b + c (2) c + a – b circle is proportional to :
(3) c – a – b (4) a + b – c v v
(1) (2)
B B
Q.4 In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series
with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. B B
(3) (4)
The current leads the voltage by 45º. The value v v
of C is -
Q.9 A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a
1 1
(1) (2) maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The
2πf (2πf L − R ) 2πf (2πf L + R )
resistance of the fuse wire is :
1 1 (1) 5 ohm (2) 0.04 ohm
(3) (4)
πf (2πf L − R ) πf (2πf L + R ) (3) 0.2 ohm (4) 0.4 ohm
Q.5 Which of the following processes is reversible Q.10 As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed
(1) Transfer of heat by radiation at the origin O. Work done in taking another
(2) Transfer of heat by conduction point charge –Q from the point A coordinates
(3) Isothermal compression (0, a) to another point B coordinates (a, 0) along
(4) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire the straight path AB is
y
Q.6 Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal
resistance 2Ω and the other of emf 12 volt and A
internal resistance 1Ω, are connected as shown.
The voltmeter V will record a reading of.
V O x
B
2Ω
 − qQ 1 
18V (1)   2a
2 
(2) zero
1Ω  4πε 0 a 
12V  qQ 1  1  qQ 1 
(1) 18 volt (2) 30 volt (3)  
2 
(4)   2a
2 
(3) 14 volt (4) 15 volt  4πε 0 a  2  4πε 0 a 
Q.11 A very long straight wire carries a current I. At Q.18 A bomb of mass 30kg at rest explodes into two
the instant when a charge +Q at point P has pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity
→
of 18kg mass is 6ms–1. The kinetic energy of the
velocity V , as shown, the force on the charge is- other mass is :
y (1) 524 J (2) 256 J (3) 486 J (4) 324 J
Q.19 The nuclei of which one of the following pairs
Q of nuclei are isotones :
→ O x
P v (1) 34Se74, 31Ga71 (2) 38Sr84, 38Sr86
92 92
(3) 42Mo , 40Zr (4) 20Ca40, 16S32
I
Q.20 A photosensitive metallic surface has work
(1) Along ox (2) Opposite to oy function, h ν0. If photons of energy 2h ν0 fall on
(3) Along oy (4) Opposite to ox this surface, the electrons come out with a
maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the
Q.12 If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of photon energy is increased to 5hν0, then
diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and maximum velocity of photo electrons will be
ferromagnetic material are denoted by µd, µp and (1) 2 ×107 m/s (2) 2 × 106 m/s
5
(3) 8 × 10 m/s (4) 8 × 106 m/s
µf respectively, then
(1) µp = 0 and µf ≠ 0 (2) µd ≠ 0 and µp = 0 Q.21 As a result of change in the magnetic flux
linked to the closed loop shown in the figure, an
(3) µd ≠ 0 and µf ≠ 0 (4) µd = 0 and µp ≠ 0
e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work
Q.13 Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb
waves given by Y1 = 4 sin 500 πt and Y2 = 2 sin once along the loop is-
506 πt Number of beats produced per minute is
(1) 3 (2) 360 (3) 180 (4) 60
Q.14 When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l

and resistance R is bent into a complete circle,
(1) QV (2) QV/2
resistance between any two of diametrically
(3) 2QV (4) Zero
opposite points will be -
(1) R/2 (2) R/4 (3) R/8 (4) 4R Q.22 An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot
cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs
Q.15 A particle executing simple harmonic motion of 6 × 104 cals of heat at higher temperature.
amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 Amount of heat converted to work is:-
cm/s. The frequency of its oscillation is : (1) 4.8 × 104 cals (2) 2.4 × 104 cals
4
(3) 1.2 × 10 cals (4) 6 × 104 cals
(1) 1Hz (2) 3Hz (3) 2Hz (4) 4Hz
Q.23 A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
Q.16 The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple
side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a
is 620ºC and the neutral temperature is 300ºC. r
permanent magnet such that B is in place of the
What is the temperature of cold junction :
coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque
(1) 40ºC (2) 20ºC (3) 320ºC (4) –20ºC
τ acts on it, the side l of the triangle is-
Q.17 The ratio of the dimension of Planck's constant 2  τ  1 τ
(1)   (2)
and that of the moment of inertia is the 3  Bi  3 Bi
dimension of : 1 1
 τ 2 2  τ 2
(1) Velocity (2) Angular momentum (3) 2 
 (4)  
 3Bi  3  Bi 
(3) Time (4) Frequency
Q.24 If λv, λx and λm represent the wavelengths of Q.30 Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding
visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively, energy per nucleon in them-
then- (1) Decreases with mass number at low mass
numbers
(1) λm > λx > λv (2) λv > λm > λx
(2) Increases with mass number at low mass
(3) λv > λx > λm (4) λm > λv > λx numbers
(3) Decreases with mass number at high mass
Q.25 For a satellite moving in an orbit around the
numbers
earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
(4) Increases with mass number at high mass
energy is - numbers
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) Q.31 The angular resolution of a 10cm diameter
2 2
telescope at a wavelength of 5000Å is of the
Q.26 For the network shown in the figure the value of order of -
(1) 10–4 rad (2) 10–6 rad
the current i is – 6
(3) 10 rad (4) 10–2 rad
2Ω
Q.32 A network of four capacitors of capacity equal
4Ω to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are
4Ω
conducted to a battery as shown in the figure.
3Ω
The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is –
i 6Ω
V C2
18V 5V C3 C1
(1) (2) C4
5 9
9V 5V V
(3) (4)
35 18
7 22 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.27 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of 4 3 22 7
radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing from
Q.33 A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down
the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is- without slipping along an inclined plane of
1 7 angle θ. The frictional force-
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
2 2 (1) Decreases the rotational and translational motion
3 (2) Dissipates energy as heat
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 (3) Decreases the rotational motion
(4) Converts translational energy to rotational energy
Q.28 In any fission process the ratio
Q.34 A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is
mass of fission products
is- whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
mass of parent nucleus
speed. If the stone makes 22 revolution in 44
(1) Greater than 1 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of
(2) Depends on the mass of the parent nucleus acceleration of the stone-
(3) Equal to 1 (1) π2ms–2 and direction along the tangent to
(4) Less than 1 the circle
(2) π2ms–2 and direction along the radius
Q.29 Copper has face centered cubic (fcc) lattice with towards the centre.
interatomic spacing equal to 2.54Å. The value of π2
(3) ms–2 and direction along the radius
lattice constant for this lattice is- 4
(1) 3.59Å (2) 2.54 Å towards the centre.
(4) π2ms–2 and direction along the radius away
(3) 1.27 Å (4) 5.08 Å
from the centre.
Q.35 Choose the only false statement from the Q.41 Imagine a new planet having the same density
following- as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the
(1) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity
with increase in temperature
on the surface of earth is g and that on the
(2) Substances with energy gap of the order of
surface of the new planet is g', then -
10eV are insulators.
(1) g' = 3g (2) g' = 9g
(3) In conductors the valence and conduction
bands may over lap (3) g' = g/9 (4) g' = 27g
(4) The conductivity of a semiconductor → →
increases with increases in temperature. Q.42 If the angle between the vector A and B is θ,
→ → →
Q.36 The circular motion of a particle with constant the value of the product ( B × A ). A is equal to -
speed is-
(1) Zero (2) BA2 sin θ cos θ
(1) Periodic and simple harmonic
(2) Simple harmonic but not periodic (3) BA2 cos θ (4) BA2 sin θ
(3) Neither periodic nor simple harmonic
Q.43 A point source emits sound equally in all
(4) Periodic but not simple harmonic
directions in a non-absorbind medium. Two
Q.37 The total energy of an electron in the first excited points P and Q are at distance of 2m and 3m
state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4eV. Its
respectively from the source. The ratio of the
kinetic energy in this state is-
intensities of the waves at P and Q is -
(1) –6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 6.8 eV (4) –3.4 eV
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 9
Q.38 Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four
valence electrons each. Their valence and Q.44 A force F acting on an object varies with
conduction bands are separated by energy band distance x as shown here.
gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge F (N)
respectively. Which one of the following 3
relationships is true in their case 2
(1) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (2) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si 1
0
(3) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (4) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
x in (m)
Q.39 Which of the following circular rods, (given
The force is in N and x in m. The work done by
radius r and length l) each made of the same
energy material and whose ends are maintained the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x =
at the same temperature will conduct most heat 6 m is
(1) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (2) r = 2r0 ; l = l 0 (1) 18.0 J (2) 13.5 J
(3) r = r0 ; l = 2l 0 (4) r = r0 ; l = l 0 (3) 4.5 J (4) 9.0 J
Q.40 If a vector 2î + 3 ĵ + 8k̂ is perpendicular to the Q.45 Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction -
(1) Widens the depletion zone
vector 4 ĵ − 4î + αk̂ , then the value of α
(2) Increases the number of donors on the n side
1
(1) –1 (2) − (3) Increases the potential difference across the
2
1 depletion zone
(3) (4) 1
2 (4) Increases the electric field in the depletion
zone
Q.46 Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom Q.51 Which one of the following is an inner orbital
correspond to increasing values of energy i.e. complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour -
EA < EB < EC. If λ1, λ2 and λ3 are wave lengths (1) [Zn (NH3)6]2+ (2) [Ni (NH3)6]2+
3+
of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, (3) [Cr (NH3)6] (4) [Co (NH3)6]3+
B to A and C to A respectively, which of the
Q.52 Which one of the following oxides is expected
following relations is correct -
to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour -
(1) λ3 = λ1 + λ2 (2) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0 (1) CO2 (2) ClO2 (3) SO2 (4) SiO2
λ1λ 2
(3) λ23 = λ21 + λ22 (4) λ 3 = Q.53 The best method for the separation of
λ1 + λ 2
naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture
Q.47 The displacement x of a particle varies with time is -
t as x = ae–αt + beβt, where a , b, α and β are (1) Sublimation
positive constants. The velocity of the particle (2) Chromatograpy
will - (3) Crystallisation
(4) Distillation
(1) Be independent of α and β
(2) Go on increasing with time Q.54 Which one of the following forms micelles in
(3) Drop to zero when α = β aqueous solution above certain concentration -
(4) Go on decreasing with time (1) Glucose
(2) Urea
Q.48 Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a
(3) Dodecy1 trimetly1 ammonium chloride
ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts. (4) Pyridinium chloride
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with
velocity v1. The boy at A starts running Q.55 The aqueous solution containing which one of
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the the following ions will be colourless -
other boy in a time t, where t is - (1) Fe2+ (2) Mn2+ (3) Ti3+ (4) Sc3+
[Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 24,
a a2 Mn = 25]
(1) (2)
v 2 + v12 v 2 − v12
Q.56 A reaction occurs spontaneously if -
a a (1) T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S are –ve
(3) (4)
( v − v1 ) ( v + v1 ) (2) T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
(3) T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
Q.49 Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and
2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If (4) T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their Q.57 In a face –centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is
angular momentum will be in the ratio - shared equally by how many unit cells :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 :1 (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 Q.58 Which amongst the following is the most stable
carbocation :-
Q.50 A ball is thrown vertically up ward. It has a
+ +
speed of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of (1) CH 3 C H 2 (2) C H 3
its maximum height. How high does the ball CH3
+
rise? Take g = 10 m/s2 - (3) CH3 – C+ (4) CH3 – CH
(1) 5m (2) 15m CH3 CH3
(3) 10 m (4) 20 m
Q.59 Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the Q.65 The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the
following equilibria : reaction :
1 K1 MgO(s) +2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq)+H2O(1) will
NO(g) + O2 NO2 (g) and
2 be : -
K2 (1) 57.33 kJ mol–1
2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)
(2) –57.33 kJ mol–1
are related as -
(3) Greater than –57.33 kJ mol–1
1 K1 (4) Less than –57.33 kJ mol–1
(1) K2 = (2) K2 =
K1 2
Q.66 Which one of the following alkenes will react
1
(3) K2 = (4) K2 = K12 faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation
K12
conditions :-
Q.60 The mole fraction of the solute in one molal R R R R
(1) (2)
aqueous solution is :- R R H H
(1) 0.027 (2) 0.036 R R R H
(3) (4)
(3) 0.018 (4) 0.009 R H R H
[R = Alkyl substituent]
Q.61 The chirality of the compound
Br Q.67 A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) boils
C H at 100.18ºC at the atomospheric pressure. If Kf
is : -
H3C Cl and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512K kg mol–1
(1) E (2) R (3) S (4) Z respectively , the above solution will freeze at :-
(1) –6.54ºC (2) –0.654ºC
Q.62 Which one of the following arrangements (3) 6.54ºC (4) 0.654ºC
represents the correct order of electron gain
Q.68 The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given atomic
hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the
species :-
energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be :-
(1) F < Cl < O < S (2) S < O < Cl < F
(1) –1312 kJ mol–1 (2) –82 kJ mol–1
(3) O < S < F < Cl (4) Cl < F < S < O
(3) –41 kJ mol–1 (4) –164 kJ mol–1
Q.63 The vapour pressure of two liquids 'P' and 'Q' are
Q.69 The surface tension of which of the following
80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
liquid is maximum :-
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole
(1) C6H6 (2) H2O
of P and 2 mole of Q would be :-
(3) C2H5OH (4) CH3OH
(1) 68 torr (2) 140 torr
(3) 72 torr (4) 20 torr Q.70 Which one of the following pair represents
stereo isomerism :-
Q.64 The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving (1) Linkage isomerism and Geometrical
only carbondioxide) in the production of 270 kg isomerism
of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall (2) Chain isomerism and Rotational isomerism
process is :- (3) Optical isomerism and Geometrical
(1) 90 kg (2) 540 kg isomerism
(3) 180 kg (4) 270 kg (4) Structural isomerism and Geometrical
(Atomic mass : Al = 27) isomerism
Q.71 The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one Q.78 Which functional group participates in
mole of KI in alkaline medium is :- disulphide bond formation in proteins :-
(1) One (2) Two (3) Five (4) One fifth (1) Thioether (2) Thiol
(3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
Q.72 Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
substitution exclusively by SN1mechanism : Q.79 At 25ºC, the dissociation constant of a base,
(1) Ethyl chloride (2) Isopropyl chloride BOH, is 1.0 × 10–12. The concentration of
(3) Benzyl chloride (4) Chlorobenzene hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the
base would be :-
Q.73 Four successive members of the first row
(1) 1.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
transition elements are listed below with their
(2) 1.0 × 10–7 mole L–1
atomic numbers. which one of them is expected
(3) 2.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
to have the highest third ionization enthalpy :-
(4) 1.0 × 10–5 mole L–1
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(2) Manganese (Z = 25) Q.80 The correct order in which the O-O bond length
(3) Chromium (Z = 24) increases in the following is :-
(4) Iron (Z = 26) (1) O3 < H2O2 < O2 (2) O2 < O3 < H2O2
(3) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (4) H2O2 < O2 < O3
Q.74 Which one of the following is expected to
exhibit optical isomerism ? Q.81 Which of the following molecules has trigonal
(en = ethylenediamine) planner geometry ;
(1) cis – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (1) NH3 (2) BF3 (3) PCl3 (4) IF3
(2) cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]
Q.82 The main reason for larger number of oxidation
(3) trans – [Co(en)2Cl2]
states exhibited by the actinoids than the
(4) trans – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
corresponding lanthanoids, is :-
Q.75 A solution has a 1 :4 mole ratio of pentane to (1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d
hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
hydrocarbons at 20ºC are 440 mm Hg for (2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d
pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would (3) Greater reactive nature of the actinoids than
be- the lanthanoids
(1) 0.200 (2) 0.478 (3) 0.549 (4) 0.786 (4) Larger atomic size of actinoids than the
Q.76 The rate of reaction between two reactants A and lanthanoids
B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration
Q.83 Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly
of reactant B is doubled. The order of this
acidic medium gives :-
reaction with respect to reactant B is :-
(1) Aniline
(1) 2 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) –2
(2) p-Hydroxy aniline
Q.77 The monomer of the polymer : (3) N-Phenyl hydroxyl amine
CH3 CH3 (4) Nitroso benzene
CH2 – C – CH2 –C⊕ is :-
Q.84 Which one of the following compounds is most
CH3 CH3
acidic :-
(1) CH3CH = CH.CH3 OH OH
(2) CH3CH = CH2 (1) (2)
(3) (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2 NO2 CH3
CH3 OH
(4) H2C = C
CH3 (3) (4) Cl–CH2–CH2–OH
Q.85 For a first order reaction A → B the reaction rate Q.90 Which of the following pairs of a chemical
at reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous
2.0 × 10–5 mole L–1s–1. The half life period of the reaction -
(1) Endothermic and decreasing disorder
reaction is :-
(2) Exothermic and increasing disorder
(1) 300s (2) 30s
(3) Endothermic and increasing disorder
(3) 220s (4) 347s (4) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
Q.86 What is the correct relationship between the pHs Q.91 Products of the following reaction :
of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH1), CH3C ≡ CCH2CH3  
(i ) O
3
→ are -
( 2) Hydrolysis
sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium selenide (pH3)
and sodium telluride (pH4) ? (1) CH3COOH + CH3COCH3
(2) CH3COOH + HOOC. CH2CH3
(1) pH1< pH2 < pH3 < pH4
(3) CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO
(2) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
(4) CH3COOH + CO2
(3) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
Q.92 Which of the following would have a permanent
(4) pH1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4
dipole moment -
Q.87 The cell membranes are mainly composed of :- (1) BF3 (2) SF4 (3) SiF4 (4) XeF4
(1) Phospholipids (2) Proteins Q.93 Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D
(3) Fats (4) Carbohydrates NH2 CuCN
NaNo

HCl
2 → A → B
Q.88 The major organic product formed from the
following reaction HNO 2 H2
D ←  C
Ni
O (i)CH 3 NH 2
is - The structure of the product D would be -
(ii) LiAlH4 (ii)H 2 O
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
H (3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
NCH3
(1) (2) Q.94 The correct sequence of increasing covalent
NCH3
OH H character is represented by -
H (1) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
NCH3 (2) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
(3) (4) O–NHCH3
OH (3) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(4) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
Q.89 In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product Q.95 IUPAC Name of some compounds are given.
D Which one is incorrect -
CH3
CH3COOH SOCl
2 → A Benzene
 → B
Anhy.AlCl 3 (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH–CH–CH2CH3
HCN H 2O CH2CH3
→ C → D
3-Methyl-4-ethyl-heptance
The structure of D would be -
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
OH COOH
OH CH3
–C–COOH –CH2–C–CH3
(1) (2) 3-Methyl-2-butanol
CH3 OH
(3) CH3–CH2–C – CH–CH3
CN OH CH2 CH3
–C–CH3 –CH2–C–CH3
(3) (4) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-but-1-ene
OH CN
(4) CH3–C ≡ C–CH(CH3)2
4-Methyl-2-pentyne
Q.96 A nuclide of an alkaline earth metal undergoes Q.102 During which stage in the complete oxidation of
radioactive decay by emission of the α-particles glucose are the greatest number of ATP
molecules formed from ADP -
is succession. The group of the periodic table to
(1) Glycolysis
which the resulting daughter element would
(2) Krebs cycle
belong is :- (3) Electron transport chain
(1) Gr. 4 (2) Gr.6 (3) Gr.16 (4) Gr.14 (4) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
Q.97 4.5g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is deposited Q.103 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in -
at cathode from Al 3+
solution by a certain (1) Osmunda and Equisetum
(2) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae
quantity of electric charge. The volume of
(3) Marsilea and Botrychium
hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in
(4) Dicksonia and Maiden hair fern
solution by the same quantity of electric charge
Q.104 G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
will be -
with haemolysis of -
(1) 44.8L (2) 11.2L (3) 22.4L (4) 5.6L
(1) Leucocytes (2) Lymphocytes
Q.98 Which of the following is the electron deficient (3) Platelets (4) RBCs
molecule - Q.105 Which of the following statements regarding

(1) C2H6 (2) SiH4 (3) PH3 (4) B2H6 enzyme inhibition is correct -
(1) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
Q.99 H2S gas when passed through a solution of substrate competes with an enzyme for
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of binding to an inhibitor protein
second group of qualitative analysis but not (2) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the
enzyme irreversibly
those belonging to the fourth group. It is
(3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
because-
substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(1) Presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion active site on the enzyme
concentration. (4) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
(2) Sulphides of group IV cations are unstable in can be overcome by adding large amount of
HCl substrate
(3) Solubility product of group II sulphides is Q.106 In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show
more than that of group IV sulphides (1) Absence of body cavity
(4) Presence of HCl increases the sulphides ion (2) Presence of pseudocoel
concentration (3) Radial symmetry
(4) Bilateral symmetry
Q.100 The correct order of acid strength is -
Q.107 Which of the following represents the edible
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO part of the fruit of Litchi -
(2) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO (1) Endocarp (2) Pericarp
(3) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 (3) Juicy aril (4) Mesocarp
(4) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Q.108 Which one of the following pairs in
mismatched-
Q.101 Which of the following is the simplest amino
(1) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes
acid -
(2) Solar energy – green house effect
(1) Alanine (2) Asparagine (3) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2
(3) Glycine (4) Tyrosine (4) Biomass burning – release of CO2
Q.109 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be Q.114 Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
classified into a single category of biological with the following improved trait -
chemicals, because all of these - (1) High protein content
(1) Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a (2) High vitamin – A content
living organism as at present (3) High lysine (essential amino acid) content
(2) enhance oxidative metabolism
(4) Insect resistance
(3) Are conjugated proteins
(4) Help in regulating metabolism Q.115 In a type of apomixis known as adventive
embryony, embryos develop directly from the -
Q.110 E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac
(1) Synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
operon cannot grow in medium containing only
(2) Nucellus or integuments
lactose as the source of energy because -
(1) They cannot synthesize functional beta (3) Zygote
galactosidase (4) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

(2) They cannot transport lactose from the
Q.116 All of the following statements concerning the
medium into the cell
Actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in
Frankia are correct EXCEPT that Frankia -
these cells
(1) Forms specialized vesicles in which the
(4) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do
not utilize lactose nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a
chemical barrier involving triterpene
Q.111 The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only
hopanoids
affects growth of plants but also vital functions
(2) Can induce root nodules on many plant
such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial
species
electron flow. Among the list given below,
(3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host
which group of three elements shall affect most,
plant through root hair deformation and
both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron
transport - stimulates cell proliferation in the host's
(1) Ca, K, Na (2) Co, Ni, Mo cortex

(3) Mn, Co, Ca (4) Cu, Mn, Fe (4) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state
Q.112 Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the Q.117 In ornithine cycle which of the following wastes
pollen tube enter the embryo sac- are removed form the blood -
(1) Persistant synergid (1) CO2 and ammonia
(2) Egg cell (2) Ammonia and urea
(3) Central cell (3) CO2 and urea
(4) Degenerated synergid
(4) Urea and urine
Q.113 An acromian process is characteristically found Q.118 At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is
in the - 0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the
(1) Skull of frog frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
(2) Sperm of mammals population at equilibrium -
(3) Pelvic girdle of mammals (1) 0.24 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.36
(4) Pectoral girdle of mammals
Q.119 Four healthy people in their twenties got Q.126 Match items in Column I with those in
involved in injuries resulting in damage and Column II -
death of a few cell of the following. Which of the Column I Column II
cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells - (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo
(1) Osteocytes flagellation
(2) Liver cells (B) Living fossil (K) Macrocystes
(3) Neurons (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli
(4) Malpighian layer of the skin (D) Smallest
flowering plant (M) Selaginella
Q.120 Which one of the following makes use of RNA
(E) Largest (N) Wolffia
as a template to synthesize DNA -
Perennial alga
(1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(2) DNA polymerase Select the correct answer with the following
(3) Reverse transcriptase (1) A –L ; B –J; C –M ; D – N ; E – K
(4) RNA polymerase (2) A– K ; B – J; C – L ; D –M; E – N

(3) A– J ; B – K; C – N ; D –L; E – K
Q.121 A student wishes to study the cell structure under (4) A– N ; B – L; C – K ; D – N; E –J
a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X
objective. He should illuminate the object by Q.127 Using imprints from a plate with complete
which one of the following colours of light so as medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you
get the best possible resolution - can select streptomycin resistant mutants and
(1) Red (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) Blue prove that such mutations do not originates as
adaptation. These imprints need to be used -
Q.122 As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional
(1) On plates with and without streptomycin
molecules of ATP are needed for net production
(2) Only on plates with streptomycin
of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants -
(3) On plates with minimal medium
(1) Zero (2) Six
(4) Only on plates without streptomycin
(3) Two (4) Twelve
Q.128 Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the
Q.123 Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on
used for designing novel -
(1) Membrane potential
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants
(2) Accumulation of K ions
(2) Bio-mineralization processes
(3) Proton gradient
(3) Biofertilizers
(4) Accumulation of Na ions
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques
Q.129 Which one of the following experiments
Q.124 Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive
suggests that simplest living organisms could
hormones. They are secreted in -
not have originated spontaneously from non-
(1) Oesophagus (2) Ileum
living matter -
(3) Duodenum (4) Pyloric stomach
(1) Larva cound appear in decaying organic
Q.125 Grey crescent is the area - matter
(1) At the point of entry of sperm into ovum (2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept
(2) Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into sealed in a vessel
ovum (3) microbes did not appear in stored meat
(3) At the animal pole (4) Microbes appeared form unsterilized organic
(4) At the vegetal pole matter
Q.130 Which of the following is not used for Q.137 Which of the following is generally used for
disinfection of drinking water - induced mutagenesis in crop plants -
(1) Chlorine (2) Phenyl (1) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
(3) Chloramine (4) Ozone (2) Alpha particles
(3) X rays
Q.131 Which of the following characters is not typical (4) UV (260 nm)
of the class Mammalia -
Q.138 One of the most important functions of
(1) Alveolar lungs
botanical gardens is that -
(2) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (1) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ
(3) Seven cervical vertebrae plasm
(4) Thecodont dentition (2) They provide the natural habitat for wild life
(3) One can observe tropical plants there
Q.132 Identify the correctly matched pair -
(4) They provide a beautiful area for recreation
(1) Kyoto protocol – Climatic change
(2) Montreal Protocol - Global warming Q.139 The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to
(3) Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is -
(1) 20 mm Hg (2) 50 mm Hg
(4) Ramsar Convention – Ground water pollution
(3) 75 mm Hg (4) 30 mm Hg
Q.133 Auxospores and hormocysts are formed
Q.140 Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food
respectively, by -
absorption have on their surface -
(1) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms (1) Zymogen granules (2) Pinocytic vesicles
(2) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria (3) Phagocytic vesicles (4) Microvilli
(3) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
Q.141 If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which
(4) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
one of the following is unlikely -
Q.134 Which one of the following phenomena supports (1) Estrogen secretion further decreases
Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic (2) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(3) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
evolution -
(4) Primary follicle starts developing
(1) production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
(2) Development of organs from 'stem' cells for Q.142 The catalytic efficiency of two different
organ transplantation enzymes can be compared by the -
(3) Development of transgenic animals (1) The Km value
(4) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects (2) The pH optimum value
(3) Molecular size of the enzyme
Q.135 The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with- (4) Formation of the product
(1) Green Revolution (2) White Revolution
Q.143 Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
(3) Yellow Revolution (4) Blue Revolution Parliament in the year -
Q.136 Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. (1) 2002 (2) 1992 (3) 1996 (4) 2000
Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed Q.144 The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran
by - larva, are useful in gene mapping because -
(1) Base-sugar-OH (1) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
(2) Base-sugar-phosphate (2) These are fused
(3) Sugar-phosphate (3) These are easy to stain
(4) These are much longer in size
(4) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n
Q.145 Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the Q.150 Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
mature seed which bears only one embryo with phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain-
two cotyledons, are characteristic features of - (1) Lipase (2) protease
(1) Gamopetalous angiosperms (3) Exonuclease (4) Endonuclease
(2) Conifers
(3) Polypetalous angiosperms Q.151 Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules
(4) Cycads on earth, are produced by -
(1) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
Q.146 Which group of three of the following five (2) All bacteria, fungi and algae
statements (a-e) contain is all the three correct (3) Fungi, algae and green plants cells
statements regarding beri-beri -
(4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
(a) A crippling disease prevalent among the
native population of sub-Saharan Africa Q.152 Animals have the innate ability to escape from
(b) A deficiency disease caused by lack of predation. Examples for the same are given
thiamine (vitamin B1) below. Select the incorrect example
(c) A nutritional disorder in infants and young (1) Colour change in chameleon
children when the diet is persistently deficient (2) Poison fangs in snakes
in essential protein (3) Melanism in moths
(d) Occurs in those countries where the staple (4) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air
diet is polished rice in puffer fish
(e) The symptoms are pain from neuritis,
paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive Q.153 Which one of the following represents an ovule,
oedema, mental deterioration and finally where the embryo sac becomes horse- shoe
heart failure shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and d close to each other -
(3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e (1) Amphitropous (2) Anatropous
(3) Circinotropous (4) Atropous
Q.147 Which of the following unicellular organism has
a macronucleus for trophic function and one or Q.154 Three crops that contribute maximum to global
more micronuclei for reproduction - food grain production are -
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramecium (1) Wheat, rice and maize
(3) Euglena (4) Amoeba (2) Rice, maize and sorghum
(3) Wheat maize and sorghum
Q.148 Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs -
(1) On ribosomes presents in cytoplasm as well (4) Wheat, rice and barley
as in mitochondria Q.155 Telomerase is an enzyme which is a -
(2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as (1) RNA
well as in cytoplasm (2) Ribonucleoprotein
(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
(3) Repetitive DNA
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Simple protein
(4) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
Q.156 In order to find out the different types of
Q.149 Centromere is required for -
gametes produced by a pea plants having the
(1) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant
(2) Cytoplasmic cleavage
with the genotype -
(3) Crossing over
(1) AaBb (2) aabb (3) AABB (4) aaBB
(4) Transcription
Q.157 Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields Q.163 More than 70% of world's fresh water is
is likely to create the problem of - contained in –
(1) Aridity (2) Metal toxicity (1) Antarctica
(3) salinity (4) Acidity (2) Polar ice
Q.158 According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic (3) Glaciers and Mountains
model" cell membranes are semi-fluid, where (4) Greenland
lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly.
Q.164 A woman with normal vision, but whose father
In recent years, this model has been modified in
several respects. In this regard, which of the was colour bind, marries a colour blind man.
following statements are incorrect - Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was
(1) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop a boy. This boy -
movements in the lipid bilayer (1) Must have normal colour vision
(2) Many proteins remain completely embedded (2) May be colour blind or may be normal
within the lipid bilayer vision
(3) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within (3) Will be partially colour blind since he is
the lipid bilayer
heterozygous for the colour blind mutant
(4) Proteins can remain confined within certain
allele.
domains of the membranes
(4) Must be colour blind
Q.159 There exists a close association between the alga
and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus - Q.165 production of a human protein in bacteria by
(1) Provides food for the alga genetic engineering is possible because
(2) Provides protection, anchorage and (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
absorption for the alga reactions
(3) Fixes the atomospheric nitrogen for the alga (2) The mechanism of gene regulation is
(4) releases oxygen for the alga identical in humans and bacteria
Q.160 In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the (3) The human chromosome can replicate in
following parts will mainly consist of primary bacterial cell
tissues - (4) The genetic code is universal
(1) Stem and root
(2) All parts Q.166 Which of the following substances, if
(3) Shoot tips and root tips introduced into the blood stream, would cause
(4) Flowers, fruit and leaves coagulation of blood at the site of its
introduction -
Q.161 Which of the following is not a hereditary
(1) Thromboplastin (2) Fibrinogen
disease -
(1) Haemophilia (2) Cretinism (3) Heparin (4) Prothrombin
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Thalasasemia Q.167 The world's highly prized wool yielding
Q.162 Which of the following is the relatively most 'Pashmina' breed is -
accurate method for dating of fossils - (1) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
(1) Electron-spin resonance method (2) Goat
(2) Uranium-lead method (3) Sheep
(3) Potassium–argon method (4) Goat-sheep cross
(4) Radio-carbon method
Q.168 Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less Q.174 Which one of the following depresses brain
limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because activity and produces feelings of calmness,
(1) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via relaxation and drowsiness -
(1) Morphine (2) Valium
PEP carboxylase
(3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
(2) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath
cells Q.175 Why is vivipary an undersirable character for
(3) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 annual crop plants -
(1) It reduces the vigour of the plant
fixation products
(2) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(4) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for
(3) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant
CO2 (4) The seeds cannot be stored under normal
conditions for the next season
Q.169 One of the examples of the action of the
autonomous nervous system is - Q.176 There are two opposing views about origin of
(1) Knee-jerk reponse modern man. According to one view Homo
(2) Pupillary reflex erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
man. A study of variation of DNA however
(3) Peristalsis of the intestines
suggested African origin of modern man. What
(4) Swallowing of food
kind of observation of DNA variation could
Q.170 At what stage of the cell cycle are histone suggest this -
proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell - (1) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(2) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
(1) During telophase
(3) Variation only in Asia and no variation in
(2) During S-phase
Africa
(3) During G-2 stage of prophase (4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(4) During entire prophase
Q.177 Which of the following is not true for a species -
Q.171 During transcription holoenzyme RNA (1) Members of a species can interbreed
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the (2) Variations occur among members of a
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at the point. species
(3) Gene flow does not occur between the
What is the sequence called -
populations of a species
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box
(4) Each species is reproductively isolated from
(3) AAAT box (4) TATA box every other species.
Q.172 The main organelle involved in modification and Q.178 Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the
routing of newly synthesized proteins to their following range of wavelengths
destinations is - (1) 340-450 nm (2) 450-950 nm
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum (3) 500-600 nm (4) 400-700 nm
(2) Lysosome Q.179 Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human
(3) Mitochondria males than in human females because -
(4) Chloroplast (1) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive
mutation
Q.173 Damage to thymus in a child may lead to (2) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive
(1) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood mutation
(2) A reduction in stem cell production (3) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant
(3) Loss of antibody mediated immunity mutation
(4) Loss of cell mediated immunity (4) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
Q.180 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in - Q.187 At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
(1) Grana (2) Pyrenoid approximately equals heat loss through
(3) Stroma (4) Both (1) and (3) terrestrial radiation -
Q.181 AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects (1) 42 1 º North and South
2
(1) Activator B cells
(2) 22 1 º North and South
(2) T4 lymphocytes 2
(3) Cytotoxic T cells (3) 40º North and South
(4) All lymphocytes (4) 66º North and South
Q.182 Which one of the following pairs in Q.188 In a man, abduncens nerve is injured. Which
mismatched- one of the following functions will be affected
(1) Savanna - acacia trees (1) Swallowing
(2) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees (2) Movement of the eye ball
(3) Tundra - permafrost (3) Movement of the neck
(4) Prairie - epiphytes (4) Movement of the tongue
Q.183 In which one pair both the plants can be
Q.189 De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces -
evolution while working on -
(1) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(1) Oenothera lamarckiana
(2) Agave and Kalanchoe
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Asparaguns and Bryophyllum
(3) Pisum sativum
(4) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(4) Althea rosea
Q.184 parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by Q.190 Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
degeneration of brain neurons that are involved are generally located in -
in movement control and make use of (1) Nuclear genome
neurotransmitter - (2) Chloroplast genome
(1) Norepinephrine (2) Acetylcholine (3) Cytosol
(3) GABA (4) Dopamine (4) Mitochondrial genome
Q.185 A women with 47 chromosomes due to three Q.191 A patient is generally advised to specially
copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by - consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in
(1) Turner syndrome (2) Down syndrome diet only when he suffers from -
(3) Superfemaleness (4) Triploidy (1) Anemia (2) Scurvy
(3) Kwashiorkor (4) Rickets
Q.186 A man and a women, who do not show any
apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, Q.192 Barophilic prokaryotes -
have seven children (2 daughter and 5 sons). (1) Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes
Three of the sons suffer from the given disease at high altitudes
but none of the daughters are affected. Which of
(2) Grow and multiply in very deep marine
the following mode of inheritance do you
sediments
suggest for this disease
(3) Readily grow and divide in sea water
(1) Sex-limited recessive
enriched in any soluble salt of barium
(2) Autosomal dominant
(4) Occur in water containing high
(3) Sex-linked recessive
concentrations of barium hydroxide
(4) Sex-linked dominant
Q.193 An important step in the manufacture of pulp for Q.197 According to IUCN Red List, what is the status
paper industry from the woody tissues of plants of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) ?
is the - (1) Critically endangered species
(1) Removal of water form the wood by (2) Vulnerable species
prolonged heating at approximately 50º (3) Extinct species
(2) Treatment of wood with chemicals that break (4) Endangered species
down cellulose
Q.198 A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
(3) Removal of oils present in the wood by
urine will be found to contain abnormal
treatment with suitable chemicals
quantities of -
(4) Preparation of pure cellulose by removing
(1) Fats (2) Amino acids
lignin
(3) Ketones (4) Glucose
Q.194 Potometer works on the principle of -
Q.199 For retting of Jute the fermenting microbe used
(1) Potential difference between the tip of the
is -
tube and that of the plant
(1) Methophilic bacteria
(2) Amount of water absorbed equals the amount
(2) Helicobactor pylori
transpired
(3) Butyric acid bacteria
(3) Osmotic pressure
(4) Streptococcus lactin
(4) Root pressure
Q.200 From the following statements select the wrong
Q.195 The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture
one -
insects is due to -
(1) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(1) Rapid turgor pressure changes
(2) Milliepedes have two pairs of appendages in
(2) A passive process requiring no special ability
each segment of the body
on the part of the plant
(3) Animals belonging to Phylum porifera are
(3) Specialized "muscle-like" cells
exclusively marine
(4) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(4) Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum
Q.196 Which of the following pairs, is correctly cnidaria.
matched -
(1) Fibrous joint – between phalanges
(2) Cartilaginous joint – skull bones
(3) Gliding joint – between zygapophyses of the
successive vertebrae
(4) Hinge joint – between vertebrae
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 4 3 1 4
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 2 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 3
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 4 1 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 1 1 4
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 4
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 4 1 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 3
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
1. Energy of photon =
12400
≈ 3eV C q3
4100
3. Energy released in given reaction = BE of products – 40cm
BE of reactants = C – (a+ b) = C – a – b 50cm
q1 q2
4. Here XC –XL· = R
A 30cm B10cm D
1
⇒ = (R + 2πfL)
2πfc 1  q1q 3 q1q 2 q 2 q 3 
Ui =  + + 
4π ∈0  (0.4) (0.3) (0.5) 
1
⇒ C=
2π(2πfL + R ) 1  q1q 3 q1q 2 q 2q 3 
Ui =  + + 
VL 4π ∈0  (0.4) (0.3) (0.1) 
I
45º
Therefore ∆U = Uf – Ui =
1  1 1 
q 2q 3  − 
V 4π ∈0  0. 1 0.5 
VC
E1 E 2 q 2 q3 q
+ = (10 − 2 ) = 3 (8q 2 )
r1 r2 E r + E 2 r1 π ∈0 4π ∈0
6. Reading of voltmeter = = 12
1 1 r1 + r2
+ ⇒ K = 8q2
r1 r2
µ 0 I µ 0  e  µ 0  ev 
= 14 volt 8. B= =  =  
2R 2R  T  2R  2πR 
7.
µ 0 ev v
⇒ R2 = ⇒R∝
4πB B
P 1
9. P = I2 R ⇒ R = 2
= = 0.04 Ω
I 25
1  (−qQ) ( −qQ)  → → → →
10. Work done =
4π ∈0

 a
−
a 
=0 21. Q ∫ E .d l = V ∴ ∫ Q E .d l = QV
→ → → →
→ → → ^ ^ ^ But Q E = F & F . d l = dW ⇒ W = QV
11. F = q ( v × B) = qvB( i× (− k )) = qvB j ⇒ force on
W T  T 
the charge is along OY 22. η= = 1 – 2 ⇒ W = Q 1 − 2 
Q T1  T1 
12. µp ≠ 0, µf ≠ 0 & µd = 0 4
= 1.2 × 10 cals
13. Number of beats per second = n2 – n1 = 3 1/ 2
3 2  τ 
(Q n1 = 250, n2 = 253) 23. τ = MB = (IA) B = I lB⇒l= 2 
4  3BI 
⇒ Number of beats produced per minute 26.
= 3 × 60 = 180 2Ω
R/2
4Ω 4Ω
l
14. A B 3Ω
R
6Ω
R/2 R
⇒ RAB =  =
 2  4 i
ω V 31.4 V
15. Vmax = aω ⇒ f = = max =
2π 2πa 2π × 5 4 2
Here = ⇒ Balanced wheat stone Bridge
31.4 6 3
= = 1 Hz
10π Therefore given ckt. can be reduced to
16. Let e = α (θ – θC) + β (θ2 – θ C2 ) 2Ω
18
where θC = temperature of cold junction. at inversion 4Ω Ω
5
α 3Ω
temperature e = 0 ⇒ θi = – θC – at neutral
β
6Ω i
de
temperature =0 i
dθ V
V
α
⇒ θn = – 5V
2β ⇒ i=
18
α θ + θC MR 2 3
⇒ θi = – – θC = 2θn – θc ⇒ θ n = i 27. I = Icm + Md2 = + MR2 = MR2
β 2 2 2
620 + θ C 29. For FCC 4r = a 2 but 2r = 2.54 Å
⇒ 300 = ⇒ θC = –20ºC
2 so a = ( 2 ) (2.54) = 3.59 Å
h J − sec ML2T −1 1 31. use θ ~ λ /a ~ 10–6 rad.
17. ≡ ≡ = ≡ frequency 32.
I Kg − m 2 ML2 T
C2 = 2C
P 2 (18 × 6) 2
18. KE = = = 486 J
2m 2 × 12 3C C
19. Isotones → Number of neutrons are same . 4C = C4

1
20. 2hv0 = hv0 + m(4×106)2
2 V
1 1 6  6CV
5hv0 = hv0 + mv2 ⇒ 4 × m(4×106) Q4 = 4 V; Q2 =  C  V =
2 2  11  11
1 Q 6CV 1 3
= mv2 ⇒ v = 8 × 106 m/s ⇒ 2 = × =
2 Q4 11 4CV 22
 1
2 48.
34. ar = ω2r = (2πn)2 r =  2π ×  (1) = π2 C
 2
aT = 0 ⇒ option (2) is correct
37. K.E. = – T.E. = + 3.4 eV
v
l l v1
39. Use RHeat = =
KA Kπr 2 B
A a
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 1 Ac = vt, BC = v1t
40. ( 2 i + 3 j+ 8 k ). (4 j − 4 i + α k ) = 0 ⇒ α =
2
Q AB = AC 2 − BC 2
4
G π R 3ρ
GM 3 4 a
41. use g = 2
= 2
= πG ρR ∴a= v 2 t 2 − v12 t 2 ⇒ t =
R R 3 v − v12
2
→ → → → →
42. ( B× A ). A = (BA sin θ) ( n . A) = 0 L21 L22 L21 L2 L 1
49. = ⇒ = 2 ⇒ 1 =
→ → 2I1 2I1 2(I) 2(2I) L2 2
since n^ is perpendicular to both A & B
50.
1
43. Use I ∝
r2
10 m/s h/2
44. W= ∫ F. dx = Area under the curve
1 10 m/s
= (3× 3) + × (3) (3) = 13.5 J
2
h/2
46.
Ec
λ1
EB h 100
102 = 2(g)   ⇒ h = = 10 m
λ2 λ3 2 10
EA
Q (EC – EB) + (EB – EA) = (EC – EA)
hc hc hc  λλ 
⇒ = + ⇒ λ 3 =  1 2 
λ 3 λ1 λ 2  λ1 + λ 2 
47. x = ae–αt + beβt
dx
v= = −a ∝ e − αt + .bβeβt
dt
dv
= a α2 e–αt + bβ2 eβt
dt
dv
Q > 0 (Always)
dt
⇒ v is increasing function of t
⇒ option (2) is correct
AIPMT - 2006
Q.1 In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 Q.5 When a charged particle moving with velocity
r
watt power at 125V is being consumed. How V is subjected to a magnetic field of induction
much chlorine per minute is liberated ? E.C.E. of r
B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies the:-
chlorine is 0.367 × 10–6 kg/coulomb:- r r
(1) 17.6 mg (2) 21.3 mg (1) Angle between V and B is necessary 90º
r r
(3) 24.3 mg (4) 13.6 mg (2) Angle between V and B can have at value
other than 90º
r r
(3) Angle between V and B can have at value
Q.2 In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is other than zero and 180º
connected between points A and B, the current in r r
this wire will- (4) Angle between V and B is either zero or 180º
A
Q.6 Two cells, having the same e.m.f., are
4Ω 4Ω connected in series through an external
resistance R. Cell have internal resistances
r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. When the circuit
is closed, the potential difference across the first
1Ω 3Ω
cell is zero. The value of R is:-
B r +r
(1) r1 – r2 (2) 1 2
2
r1 − r2
V (3) (4) r1 + r2
2
(1) Flow from A to B
(2) Flow in the direction which will be decided
Q.7 A black body at 1227ºC emits radiations with
by the value of V maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000Å.
The temperature of the body is increased by
(3) Be zero 1000ºC, the maximum intensity will be
(4) Flow from B to A observe at:-
(1) 4000Å (2) 5000Å
Q.3 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross- (3) 6000Å (4) 3000Å
section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is
given a small vertical displacement from
Q.8 Two circular coil 1 and 2 are made from the
equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time
same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice
period T. Then:-
that of the 2nd coil. What potential difference in
1 volts should be applied across them so that the
(1) T ∝ ρ (2) T ∝
A magnetic field at their centres is the same-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2
1 1
(3) T ∝ (4) T ∝
ρ m
Q.9 A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit
with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and
Q.4 A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of
efficiency of 40%. By how much should the frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to
temperature of source be increased so as to 4C, the frequency will be:-
increase its efficiency by 50% of original f f f
efficiency:- (1) (2) 8f (3) (4)
4 2 2 2
(1) 275 K (2) 325 K
(3) 250 K (4) 380 K
Q.10 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and Q.17 The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
that of 42 He is 28MeV. If two deuterons are b
v = at + , where a, b and c are constants.
t+c
fused to form one 42 He then the energy released
The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively:-
is:-
(1) LT–2, L and T (2) L2, T and LT2
(1) 25.8 MeV (2) 23.6 MeV
(3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT and T2
(3) 19.2 MeV (4) 30.2 MeV
Q.18 A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece

Q.11 In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
R1 and at a later time t2, it is R2. If the decay cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the
constant of the material is λ, then mark. How should the microscope be moved to
(1) R1 = R2 e − λ ( t1 −t 2 ) (2) R1 = R2 e λ ( t1 − t 2 ) get the mark in focus again:-
(1) 1 cm upward (2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) R1 = R2 (t2/t1) (4) R1 = R2
(3) 1 cm downward (4) 2 cm upward
Q.12 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV.

Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited Q.19 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up
by monochromatic radiation of photon energy an inclined plane of height 10m. Taking
12.1 eV. According to Bohr's theory, the spectral g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is
lines emitted by hydrogen will be:- (1) 200 J (2) 100 J
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Zero (4) 1000 J
(3) Four (4) One
Q.20 A transistor is operated in common emitter

Q.13 The potential energy of a long spring when configuration at constant collector voltage
stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base
by 8 cm the potential energy stored in it is:- current from 100 µA to 150 µA produces a
U change in the collector current from 5 mA to
(1) 4U (2) 8U (3) 16U (4) 10 mA. The current gain (β) is:-
4
(1) 67 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 50
Q.14 For angles of projection of a projectile at angles
(45º – θ) and (45º + θ), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio of: Q.21 A forward biased diode is:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (1) –4V –3V
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 5V
(2) 3V
(3) –2V +2V

Q.15 A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force
which causes a displacement s in metres in it,
1 (4) 0V –2V
given by the relation s = t 2 , where t is in
3
seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is:-
Q.22 A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to
5 3 8 19
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J convert:-
19 8 3 5 (1) Change in the frequency of light into a
change in electric voltage
Q.16 A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a (2) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of change in photoelectric current
the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. (3) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
How long would the particle travel before change in the work function of the
coming to rest: - photocathode
(1) 24 m (2) 40 m (3) 56 m (4) 16 m (4) Change in the frequency of light into a
change in the electric current
Q.23 The core of a transformer is laminated because:- Q.28 A coil of inductive reactance 31Ω has a
(1) Energy losses due to eddy currents may be resistance of 8Ω. It is placed in series with a
minimised condenser of capacity reactance 25Ω. The
(2) The weight of the transformer may be combination is connected to an a.c. source of
reduced 110 volt. The power factor of the circuit is:-
(3) Rusting of the core may be prevented (1) 0.56 (2) 0.64
(4) Ratio of voltage in primary and secondary (3) 0.80 (4) 0.33
may be increased
Q.29 A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s
Q.24 Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30º with the
placed so close together that the effective flux in wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at
one coil is completely linked with the other. The the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the
mutual inductance between these coils is: wall for 0.25 seconds, the average force acting
(1) 10 mH (2) 6mH on the wall is:-
(3) 4 mH (4) 16 mH
30º
Q.25 In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas
produced due to collisions between:
(1) Positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules
30º
(2) Negative electrons and netural atoms/molecules
(3) Photons and neutral atoms/molecules
(4) Neutral gas atoms/molecules (1) 48 N (2) 24 N
(3) 12 N (4) 96 N
Q.26 When photons of energy hν fall on an aluminium
plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of Q.30 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis
frequency of the radiation is doubled, the touching the disc at its diameter and normal to
maximum kinetic energy of the ejected the disc is:-
photoelectrons will be
2
(1) K + E0 (2) 2K (1) MR2 (2) MR2
5
(3) K (4) K + hν
3 1
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
Q.27 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit
with two inputs A and B and the output C. The
voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown Q.31 The momentum of a photon of energy 1MeV in
below- kg m/s, will be-
A Logic gate (1) 0.33 × 106 (2) 7 × 10–24
C (3) 10–22
(4) 5 × 10–22
B circuit
1 Q.32 The radius of Germanium (Ge) nuclide is
measured to be twice the radius of 94 Be . The
A t
number of nucleons in Ge are:-
1
(1) 73 (2) 74 (3) 75 (4) 72
B t
1 Q.33 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of
7
an ideal gas is   R. The ratio of specific heat
C t 2
The logic circuit gate is: at constant pressure to that at constant volume is:-
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate 7 8 5 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate 5 7 7 7
Q.34 The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. Q.40 Which one of the following statements is true:
A platform is arranged at a height R from the (1) Both light and sound waves in air are
surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a
body from this platform is fv, where v is its transverse
escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. (2) The sound waves in air are longitudinal
The value of f is:- while the light waves are transverse
1 1 1 (3) Both light and sound waves in air are
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
2 3 2 longitudinal
(4) Both light and sound waves can travel in
Q.35 Two sound waves with wavelength 5.0 m and vacuum
5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with
velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following Q.41 Above Curie temperature:-
number of beats per second:-
(1)A ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
(1) 12 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 6
(2) A paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
(3) A diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
Q.36 Power dissipated across the 8Ω resistor in the
circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power (4) A paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic
dissipated in watt units across the 3Ω resistor is:-
Q.42 A convex lens and a concave lens, each having
1Ω 3Ω
same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to
i form a combination of lenses. The power in
dipoters of the combination is:-
(1) 25 (2) 50
8Ω (3) Infinite (4) Zero
(1) 2.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.5 (4) 3.0
r
Q.43 An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a
Q.37 Kirchhoff's first and second laws for electrical r
circuits are consequences of:- uniform electric field E . The work done in
(1) Conservation of energy rotating the dipole by 90º is:-
(2) Conservation of electric charge and energy pE
respectively (1) 2 pE (2)
2
(3) Conservation of electric charge
(3) 2pE (4) p E
(4) Conservation of energy and electric charge
respectively Q.44 A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a
potential difference of V volts. After
Q.38 A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is
disconnecting the charging battery the distance
represented by
between the plates of the capacitor is increased
π
y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – ) using an insulating handle. As a result the
4
potential difference between the plates:-
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
speed of the wave is:- (1) Decreases (2) Does not change
(1) 4π m/s (2) 0.5 π m/s (3) Becomes zero (4) Increases
π Q.45 A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track

(3) m/s (4) 8 m/s
4 of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every
circular lap. The average velocity and average
Q.39 The time of reverberation of a room A is one
speed for each circular lap respectively is:
second. What will be the time (in seconds) of
reverberation of a room, having all the (1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 10 m/s
dimensions double of those of room A- (3) 10 m/s, 10 m/s (4) 10 m/s, 0
1
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) (4) 1
2
Q.46 A square surface of side L metres is in the plane Q.51 Identify the correct statement for change of
r
of the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m), Gibbs energy for a system (∆Gsystem) at constant
also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to temperature and pressure:-
the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). (1) If ∆Gsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous
The electric flux in SI units associated with the (2) If ∆Gsystem = 0, the system has attained
surface is:- equilibrium
(3) If ∆Gsystem = 0, the system is still moving in
r a particular direction
E (4) If ∆Gsystem < 0, the process is not
spontaneous
Q.52 A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea
(1) EL2/(2ε0) (2) EL2/2
(molecular mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with a
(3) Zero (4) E L2 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute. The
molecular mass of this nonvolatile solution is:
Q.47 A tube of length L is filled completely with an (1) 250 g mol–1 (2) 300 g mol–1
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at (3) 350 g mol–1 (4) 200 g mol–1
both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a
horizontal plane about one of its ends with a Q.53 A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption
uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with
the liquid at the other ends is:- slope equal to:
(1) – log K (2) n
MLω2 ML2 ω
(1) (2) 1
2 2 (3) (4) log K
n
ML2 ω2
(3) M Lω2 (4) Q.54 Assume each reaction is carried out in an open
2
container. For which reaction will ∆H = ∆E ?
(1) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
Q.48 A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to
rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod (2) C(s) + 2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
initially in horizontal position is released. The (3) PCl5(g)→ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
initial angular acceleration of the rod is (Moment (4) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
ml 2 Q.55 In a set off reactions propionic acid yielded a
of inertia of rod about A is ):
3 compound D.
l CH3CH2COOH SOCl
2 → B NH
3 → C
A B
KOH
→ D
3g 2l 3g l Br2
(1) (2) (3) (4) mg
2l 3g 2l 2 2 The structure of D would be:-
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(3) CH2CH2NHCH3 (4) CH3CH2NH2
r r
Q.49 The vectors A and B are such that Q.56 During the process of digestion, the proteins
r r r r
| A + B | = | A − B | .The angle between the two present in food materials are hydrolysed to
vectors is:- amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the
process:
(1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 75º (4) 45º
Proteins Enzyme
 (A)
→ Polypeptides
Q.50 Two bodies, A(of mass 1kg) and B(of mass 3kg), Enzyme
 ( B)
→ Amino acids,
are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m
are respectively-
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
to reach the ground is:- (1) Amylase and Maltase
5 12 5 4 (2) Diastase and Lipase
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) Pepsin and Trypsin
4 5 12 5
(4) Invertase and Zymase
Q.57 The human body does not produce:- Q.65 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
(1) DNA (2) Vitamin halides is generally due to :
(3) Hormones (4) Enzymes (1) F-centres (2) Schottky defect
(3) Frenkel defect (4) Interstitial positions
Q.58 CsBr crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice.
The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the Q.66 The general molecular formula, which
atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu represents the homologus series of alkanols is:-
and Avogadro number being 6.02 × 1023 mol–1,
(1) CnH2nO2 (2) CnH2nO
the density of CsBr is:-
(3) CnH2n+1O (4) CnH2n+2O
(1) 42.5 g/cm3 (2) 0.425 g/cm3
3
(3) 8.25 g/cm (4) 4.25 g/cm3 Q.67 If E ºFe2+ / Fe = – 0.441 V and
Q.59 More number of oxidation states are exhibited by
the actinoids than by the lanthonoids. The main E ºFe3+ / Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF
reason for this is:- of the reaction : Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ will be:
(1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d (1) 0.330 V (2) 1.653 V
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals (3) 1.212 V (4) 0.111 V
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d
orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals Q.68 For the reaction :
(3) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids 2A + B → 3C + D
than that of the corresponding actinoids Which of the following does not express the
(4) More active nature of the actinoids reaction rate:-
Q.60 Given: The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10–31Kg d[C] d[B]
(1) − (2) −
Planck constant is 6.626 × 10–34Js, the uncertainty 3dt dt
involved in the measurement of velocity within a d[D] d[A]
distance of 0.1Å is:- (3) (4) −
dt 2dt
(1) 5.79 × 106 ms–1 (2) 5.79 × 107 ms–1
(3) 5.79 × 108 ms–1 (4) 5.79 × 105ms–1 Q.69 For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Q.61 Copper sulphate dissolved in excess of KCN to
give:- ∆Hr = – 170.8 kJ mol–1
(1) CuCN (2) [Cu(CN)4]3– Which of the following statements is not true:-
(3) [Cu(CN)4] 2–
(4) Cu(CN)2 (1) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g)
and H2O(l) are not equal
Q.62 In which of the following pairs are both the ions
(2) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
coloured in aqueous solution-
[CO 2 ]
(1) Ni2+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Ti3+ given by KP =
3+ 2+ [CH 4 ] [O 2 ]
(3) Sc , Co (4) Ni2+, Cu+
[At. No. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27] (3) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium
will cause a shift to the right
Q.63 Al2O3 can be converted to anhydrous AlCl3 by (4) The reaction is exothermic
heating:-
(1) Al2O3 with HCl gas Q.70 [NH(CH2)NHCO(CH2)4CO]n is a:-
(2) Al2O3 with NaCl in solid state (1) copolymer
(3) A mixture of Al2O3 and carbon in dry Cl2 gas (2) Addition polymer
(4) Al2O3 with Cl2 gas (3) Thermosetting polymer
(4) Homopolymer
Q.64 The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g) Q.71 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen
are 30 kJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on
The temperature at which the reaction will be in hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of
equilibrium is:- α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is:
(1) 285.7K (2) 273 K (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone
(3) 450 K (4) 300 K (3) diethyl ketone (4) Formaldehyde
Q.72 Which one of the following is a peptide Q.78 Which of the following is not chiral:-
hormone:- (1) 2-Butanol
(1) Glucagon (2) Testosterone (2) 2,3-Dibromopentane
(3) Thyroxin (4) Adrenaline (3) 3-Bromopentane
(4) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
Q.73 The major organic product in the reaction,
CH3–O–CH(CH3)2 + HI → Product is: Q.79 [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits:-
(1) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI (1) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
(2) ICH2OCH(CH3)2 and optical isomerism
(3) CH3OC(CH3)2 (2) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
and geometrical isomerism
I (3) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism
(4) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH and optical isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism
Q.74 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most and optical isomerism
favoured in:-
O Q.80 [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at. No. of Cr = 24) has a
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2C–CH3 magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct
distribution of 3d electrons in the Chromium of
(2) (CH3)2C = O the complex is:-
(3) CH3CH2CHO 1
(1) (3d x2 – y2)1, 3d z 2 , 3d xz1
(4) CH3CHO
(2) 3d xy1, (3d x2 – y2)1, 3d yz1
(3) 3dxy1, 3d yz1, 3d xz1
Q.75 The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is 1
–119.5 kJ mol–1. If resonance energy of benzene (4) 3d xy1, 3d yz1, 3dz 2
is –150.4 kJ mol–1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation
would be:-
Q.81 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass
(1) –508.9 kJ mol–1 (2) –208.1 kJ mol–1 250g mol–1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene.
(3) –269.9 kJ mol–1 (4) –358.5 kJ mol–1 If the freezing point depression constant Kf of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1, the freezing point
Q.76 Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate of benzene will be lowered by:-
in presence of sodium ethoxide yields:- (1) 0.4 K (2) 0.3 K
(1) Ethyl butyrate (3) 0.5 K (4) 0.2 K
(2) Acetoacetic ester
(3) Methyl acetoacetate Q.82 Which of the following pairs constitutes a
(4) Ethyl propionate buffer:-
(1) HNO2 & NaNO2 (2) NaOH & NaCl
Q.77 Consider the reaction (3) HNO3 & NH4NO3 (4) HCl & KCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
d[ NH 3 ] Q.83 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10–8M HCl
The equality relationship between and aqueous solution at 298 K (KW = 10–14) is:-
dt
d[H 2 ] (1) 1.0 × 10–6 M (2) 1.0525 × 10–7 M
− is :- (3) 9.525 × 10 M (4) 1.0 × 10–8 M
–8
dt
d[ NH 3 ] 1 d[H 2 ]
(1) =− Q.84 A solution of acetone is ethanol:-
dt 3 dt
(1) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
d[ NH 3 ] 2 d[ H 2 ]
(2) + =− (2) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
dt 3 dt
(3) Behaves like a near ideal solution
d[ NH 3 ] 3 d[H 2 ]
(3) + =− (4) Obeys Raoult's law
dt 2 dt
d[ NH 3 ] d[H 2 ]
(4) =−
dt dt
Q.85 A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown Q.91 The correct order of the mobility of the alkali
below: metal ions in aqueous solution is:
Θ ⊕ (1) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
A | A + ( xM) || B+ ( yM) | B
(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+
The emf measured is +0.20V. The cell reaction is: (3) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+
(1) A+ + B → A + B+ (4) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(2) A+ + e– → A; B+ + e– → B
(3) The cell reaction cannot be predicted Q.92 The correct order regarding the electronegativity of
(4) A + B+ → A+ + B hybrid orbitals of carbon is:-
(1) sp > sp2 < sp3 (2) sp > sp2 > sp3
2 3
Q.86 Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard (3) sp < sp > sp (4) sp < sp2 < sp3
reagent yields:-
(1) Secondary alcohol Q.93 Which of the following species has a linear
(2) Tertiary alcohol shape:-
(3) Cyclopropyl alcohol (1) NO −2 (2)SO2 (3) NO +2 (4)O3
(4) Primary alcohol
Q.94 Which of the following is the most basic oxide:-
Q.87 During osmosis, flow of water through a (1) Al2O3 (2) Sb2O3
semipermeable membrane is:-
(3) Bi2O3 (4) SeO2
(1) From solution having higher concentration
only
Q.95 The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by:-
(2) Form both sides of semipermeable membrane
with equal flow rates (1) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) From both sides of semipermeable membrane (2) Spin quantum number
with unequal flow rates (3) Magnetic quantum number
(4) From solution having lower concentration (4) Principal quantum number
only
Q.96 Which of the following is not a correct
Q.88 Which of the following is more basic than statement:-
aniline:- (1) The electron-deficient molecules can act as
(1) Diphenlamine (2) Triphenylamine Lewis acids
(3) p-Nitroaniline (4) Benzylamine (2) The canonical structures have no real
existence
Q.89 In which of the following molecules all the (3) Every AB5 molecule does infact have square
bonds are not equal:- pyramid structure
(1) CIF3 (2) BF3 (4) Multiple bonds are always shorter than
corresponding single bonds
(3) AlF3 (4) NF3
Q.97 The number of unpaired electrons in a

Q.90 The electronegativity difference between N and
paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element
F is greater than that between N and H yet the
with atomic number 16 is:-
dipole moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that
of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because:- (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
(1) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole
and bond dipole are in the same direction Q.98 Which one of the following orders is not in
(2) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole according with the property stated against it ?
are in the same direction whereas in NF3 (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Oxidising power
these are in opposite directions (2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF ; Acidic property in water
(3) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and (3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Electronegativity
bond dipole are in opposite directions (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Bond dissociation energy
(4) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole
are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3
these are in the same direction
Q.99 Which of the following is not isostructural with Q.106 The 'blue baby' syndrome results from-
SiCl4:- (1) Excess of chloride
(1) SCl4 (2) SO 24− (2) Methemoglobin
(3) Excess of dissolved oxygen
(3) PO 34− (4) NH +4
(4) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
Cl Q.107 Praying mantis is a good example of-

Q.100 The IUPAC name of is:- (1) Mullerian mimicry
O (2) Warning colouration
(1) 3,4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride (3) Social insects
(2) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane (4) Camouflage
(3) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
(4) 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride Q.108 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not
Q.101 What would be the number of chromosomes in vice verse
the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species (2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity,
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids ? and nervous system regulates endocrine
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 8 glands
(3) Neither hormones control neural activity nor
Q.102 Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from- the neurons control endocrine activity
(1) a unilocular polycarpellary flower (4) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity,
(2) a multipistillate syncarpous flower but not vice versa
(3) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a
common axis Q.109 Examination of blood of a person suspected of
(4) a multilocular monocarpellary flower having anemia, shows large, immature,
nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
Supplementing his diet with which of the
Q.103 Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. following is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?
When released for cultivation, it will help in (1) Thiamine
(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency (2) Folic acid and cobalamine
(2) Pest resistance (3) Riboflavin
(3) Herbicide tolerance (4) Iron compounds
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice
Q.110 Farmers in a particular region were concerned
Q.104 Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by- that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse
(1) Removing androecium of flowers before crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which
pollen grains are released treatment could be most beneficial to obtain
(2) Treating the plants with low concentrations maximum seed yield ?
of gibberellic acid and auxins (1) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(3) Raising the plants from vernalized seeds (2) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins
(4) Treating the plants with phenylmercuric alongwith a small dose of nitrogenous
acetate fertilizer
(3) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying
Q.105 How does pruning help in making the hedge the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5-
dense ? trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(1) It induces the differentiation of new shoots (4) Application of iron and magnesium to
from the rootstock promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(3) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning Q.111 In which of the following fruits is the edible
part the aril ?
(4) It released wound hormones
(1) Custard apple (2) Pomegranate
(3) Orange (4) Litchi
Q.112 Which one of the following amino-acids was not Q.121 Which one of the following is not included
found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ? under in-situ conservation ?
(1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid (1) Sanctuary (2) Botanical garden
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine (3) Biosphere reserve (4) National park
Q.113 Crop plants grown in monoculture are- Q.122 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
(1) Low in yield tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
(2) Free from intraspecific competition synthesis ?
(3) Characterised by poor root system (1) Erythromycin (2) Neomycin
(4) Highly prone to pests (3) Streptomycin (4) Tetracycline
Q.114 Montreal Protocol which calls for appropriate Q.123 Phenotype of an organism is the result of-
action to protect the ozone layer from human (1) Mutations and linkages
activities was passed in the year- (2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(1) 1986 (2) 1987 (3) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(3) 1988 (4) 1985 (4) Genotype and environment interactions
Q.115 The formula for exponential population growth is- Q.124 Photochemical smog pollution does not contain-
(1) dt/dN = rN (2) dN/rN = dt (1) Ozone
(3) rN/dN = dt (4) dN/dt = rN (2) Nitrogen dioxide
(3) Carbon dioxide
Q.116 Which one of the following is not used for (4) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
construction of ecological pyramids ?
(1) Dry weight Q.125 Moss peat is used as a packing material for
(2) Number of individuals sending flowers and live plants to distant places
(3) Rate of energy flow because-
(4) Fresh weight (1) It is easily available
(2) It is hygroscopic
Q.117 Niche overlap indicates- (3) It reduces transpiration
(1) Active cooperation between two species (4) It serves as a disinfectant
(2) Two different parasites on the same host
(3) Sharing of one or more resources between the Q.126 A common structural feature of vessel elements
two species and sieve tube elements is-
(4) Mutualism between two species (1) Thick secondary walls
(2) Pores on lateral wall
Q.118 In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is- (3) Presence of p-protein
(1) Ferredoxin (4) Enucleate condition
(2) Cytochrome Q.127 The thalloid body of a slime mould
(3) Plastocyanin (Myxomycetes) is known as-
(4) An iron sulphur protein (1) Protonema (2) Plasmodium
(3) Fruiting body (4) Mycelium
Q.119 Treatment of seed at low temperature under
moist conditions to break its dormancy is called - Q.128 In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(1) Sclarification (2)Vernalization more maternal influence among the offspring ?
(3) Chelation (4) Stratification (1) Autosomal (2) Cytoplasmic
(3) Y-linked (4) X-linked
Q.120 Which one of the following is the most suitable Q.129 What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?
medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ? (1) Basal (2)Axile
(1) Moist bread (2) Agar-agar (3) Free central (4) Marginal
(3) Ripe banana (4) cow dung
Q.130 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end Q.138 Bowman's glands are found in-
of a young cob of maize are- (1) Olfactory epithelium
(1) Anthers (2) Styles (2) External auditory canal
(3) Ovaries (4) Hairs (3)Cortical nephrons only
(4) Juxtamedullary nephrons
Q.131 Conifers differ from grasses in the-
(1) Production of seeds from ovules Q.139 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
(2) Lack of xylem tracheids causes botulism is-
(3) Absence of pollen tubes (1) A facultative anaerobe
(4) Formation of endosperm before fertilization (2) An obligate anaerobe
(3) A facultative aerobe
Q.132 How many different kinds of gametes will be (4) An obligate aerobe
produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? Q.140 Which one of the following is the correctly
(1) Three (2) Four matched pair of an endangered animal and a
(3) Nine (4) Two National Park ?
(1) Lion – Corbett National Park
Q.133 In Maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by- (2) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga National Park
(1) Bombarding the protoplast with DNA (3) Wild Ass – Dudhwa National Park
(2) Crossing of two inbred parental lines (4) Great Indian – Keoladeo National Park
(3) Harvesting seeds from the most productive Bustard
plants
(4) Inducing mutations Q.141 A person showing unpredictable moods,
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
Q.134 Which of the following statements regarding and conflicts with others is suffering from-
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? (1) Schizophrenia
(1) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds (2) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)
of molecules (3) Mood disorders
(2) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain (4) Addictive disorders
are embedded in the outer membrane
(3) The inner membrane is highly convoluted Q.142 Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum
forming a series of infoldings growth and productivity in-
(4) The outer membrane resembles a sieve (1) Pulse crops (2) Cereals
(3) Fibre crops (4) Oilseed crops
Q.135 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
decided by the sequence of- Q.143 Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or
(3) cDNA (4) rRNA berry, are characteristic features of-
(1) Asteraceae (2) Brassicaceae
Q.136 How many ATP molecules could maximally be (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
generated from one molecule of glucose, if the
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to Q.144 In a moss the sporophyte-
CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
(1) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
chemical energy available in the high energy
phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ? (2) produces gametes that given rise to the
(1) Two (2) Thirty gametophyte
(3) Arises from a spore produced from the
(3) Fifty-seven (4) One
gametophyte
Q.137 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and (4) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for
essential for its activity is called - the gametophyte
(1) Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme (4) isoenzyme
Q.145 Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the Q.152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of-
activity of- (1) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(1) Bacteria (2) Mycorrhiza (2) Echinodermata and Annelida
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi (3) Annelida and Arthropoda
(4) Mollusca and Chordata
Q.146 People living at sea level have around 5 million
RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas Q.153 Which of the following pairs of an animal and a
those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have plant represents endangered organisms in India-
around 8 million. This is because at high
(1) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
altitude-
(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and (2) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
more oxygen is available (3) Cinchona and Leopard
(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more (4) Banyan and Black buck
RBCs are needed to absorb the required
amount of O2 to survive Q.154 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances characterized by-
RBC production (1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first
(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore birds appear
more RBCs are formed (2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal
like reptiles
Q.147 An important evidence in favour of organic (3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
evolution is the occurrence of- appear
(1) Homologous and vestigial organs (4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs only Q.155 What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca,
(4) Homologous and analogous organs Monocystis and Giardia-
(1) These are all unicellular protists
Q.148 Which one of the following is not a living fossil- (2) They have flagella
(1) King crab (2) Sphenodon (3) They produce spores
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Peripatus (4) These are all parasites
Q.150 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells Q.156 Which of the following statements regarding
came with the development of electron cilia is not correct -
microscope. This is because- (1) The organized beating of cilia is controlled
(1) The resolution power of the electron by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane
microscope is much higher than that of the (2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
light microscope (3) Microtubules of cilia are composed of
(2) The resolving power of the electron tubulin
microscope is 200-350 nm as compared to (4) Cilin contain an outer ring of nine doublet
0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope microtubules surrounding two single
(3) Electron beam can pass through thick microtubules
materials, whereas light microscopy requires
thin sections Q.157 Two microbes found to be very useful in
(4) The electron microscope is more powerful genetic engineering are-
than the light microscope as it uses a beam (1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
of electrons which has wavelength much tumefaciens
longer than that of photons
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
Q.151 Which one of the following is a matching set of
(3) Diplococcus sp.and Pseudomonas sp.
phylum and its three examples ?
(4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
(1) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
elegans
(2) Platyhelminthes-Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(3) Mollusca-Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(4) Porifera-Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
Q.158 Which of the following environmental Q.166 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
conditions are essential for optimum growth of involving ATPase activity is-
Mucor on a piece of bread ? (1) Tropomyosin (2) Myosin
A. Temperature of about 25ºC (3) α-Actin (4) Troponin
B. Temperature of about 5ºC
C. Relative humidity of about5% Q.167 Which one of the following is not a second
D. Relative humidity of about 95% messenger in hormone action ?
E. A shady place (1) cGMP (2) Calcium
F. A brightly illuminated place (3) Sodium (4) cAMP
Choose the answer from the following options
(1) A, C and E only (2) A, D and E only Q.168 In Mendel's experiments with garden pea, round
(3) B, D and E only (4) B, C and F only seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled
seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant
Q.159 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as- over green cotyledon (yy). What are the
(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the
(3) Paleontology (4) Ontogeny cross RRYY × rryy ?
(1) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
Q.160 Which of the following is considered a hot-spot (2) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
of biodiversity in India ?
(3) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(1) Western Ghats
(4) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and
(2) Indo-Gangetic Plain wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(3) Eastern Ghats
(4) Aravalli Hills Q.169 One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by-
Q.161 During photorespiration the oxygen consuming
reaction (s) occur in- (1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase
(1) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria (3) A.Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(3) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes Q.170 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately-
(4) Stroma of chloroplasts
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm
Q.162 Which one of the following is an example of (3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm
polygenic inheritance ?
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa Q.171 Test cross involves-
(2) Production of male honey bee (1) Crossing between two genotypes with
(3) Pod shape in garden pea recessive trait
(4) Skin colour in humans (2) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
Q.163 Which one of the following does not act as a (3) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
neurotransmitter ? recessive genotype
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Epinephrine (4) Crossing between two genotypes with
dominant trait
(3) Norepinephrine (4) Cortisone
Q.164 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary Q.172 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
hormone known as- that-
(1) FSH (2) GH (1) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(3) Prolactin (4) LH (2) The phosphate groups of two DNA stands,
at their ends, share the same position
Q.165 A steroid hormone which regulates glucose (3) The phosphate groups at the start of two
metabolism is- DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)
(1) Cortisol (4) One strand turns clockwise
(2) Corticosterone
(3) 11-deoxycorticosterone
(4) Cortisone
Q.173 Areolar connective tissue joins- Q.181 Which of the following is an accumulation and
(1) Fat body with muscles release centre of neurohormones ?
(2) Integument with muscles (1) Posterior pituitary lobe
(3) Bones with muscles (2) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(4) Bones with bones (3) Hypothalamus
(4) Anterior pituitary lobe
Q.174 Mast cells secrete-
(1) Hippurin (2) Myoglobin Q.182 Withdrawal of which of the following hormones
(3) Histamine (4) Heamoglobin is the immediate cause of menstruation ?
(1) Estrogen (2) FSH
Q.175 If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned (3) FSH-RH (4) Progesterone
man, their sons will be -
(1) All normal visioned Q.183 Which one of the following statements is
(2) One-half colourblind and one-half normal incorrect ?
(3) Three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal (1) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases
the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(4) All colourblind
(2) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs,
increases the efficiency of respiration in
Q.176 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by birds
the-
(3) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal distribute oxygen to tissues
Y-bearing sperm
(4) The principle of countercurrent flow
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5 facilitates efficient respiration in gills of
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5 fishes
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome Q.184 Which one of the following has an open
circulatory system ?
Q.177 Restriction endonuclease - (1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly (3) Hirudinaria (4) Octopus
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the Q.185 Which hormone causes dilation of blood
nucleus vessels, increased oxygen consumption an
(4) Synthesizes DNA glucogenesis ?
(1) ACTH (2) Insulin
Q.178 Antibodies in our body are complex- (3) Adrenalin (4) Glucagon
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids
(3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins Q.186 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a-
(1) Bacterium (2) Prion
Q.179 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution (3) Worm (4) Virus
Control Board for the discharge of industrial and
municipal waste waters into natural surface Q.187 The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
waters, is - tube members is supported by-
(1) < 3.0 ppm (2) <10 ppm (1) Root pressure and transpiration pull
(3) < 100 ppm (4) < 30 ppm (2) P-proteins
(3) Mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
Q.180 Earthworms are - (4) Cytoplasmic streaming
(1) Ureotelic when plenty of water is available
(2) Uricotelic when plenty of water is available Q.188 Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are
the characteristics of-
(3) Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
(1) Starfish and sea anemone
(4) Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available.
(2) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(3) Aurelia and Paramecium
(4) Hydra and starfish
Q.189 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal Q.196 In which one of the following sets of animals do
embryo sac in the dicot plants is- all the four give birth to young ones ?
(1) 2 + 4 + 2 (2) 3 + 2 + 3 (1) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
(3) 2 + 3 + 3 (4) 3 + 3 + 2 (2) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
(3) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
Q.190 An enzyme that can stimulate germination of (4) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris
barley seeds is-
Q.197 Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from
(1) α- amylase (2) Lipase
the African population because-
(3) Protease (4) Invertase
(1) It is controlled by recessive genes
(2) It is not a fatal disease
Q.191 In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo
(3) It provides immunity against malaria
is represented by -
(4) It is controlled by dominant genes
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Scutellum
(3) Prophyll (4) Coleoptile
Q.198 Two common characters found in centipede,
Q.192 The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our cockroach, and crab are-
body cells is transported to the lungs- (1) Compound eyes and anal cerci
(1) Dissolved in the blood (2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(2) As bicarbonates (3) Green gland and tracheae
(3) As carbonates (4) Book lungs and antennae
(4) Attached to hemoglobin
Q.199 Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea
Q.193 Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has are-
been obtained by crossing wheat with (1) Bacteria-related diseases
(1) Rye (2) Pearl millet (2) Congenital disorders
(3) Sugarcane (4) Barley (3) Pollutant-induced disorders
(4) Virus-related diseases
Q.194 In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue
culture the best method is- Q.200 Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and
(1) Protoplast culture secreted by-
(2) Embryo rescue (1) Macula densa cells
(3) Anther culture (2) Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(4) Meristem culture (3) Liver cells
(4) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
Q.195 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) Leucocytes
(3) Thrombocytes (4) Helper T-lymphocytes
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 1 2 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 1 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 4 4 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 3 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 4
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 2 2 3
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

P  100  7. By Wiens displacement law λm T = b we have
1. m = ZIt = (Z)   (t) = (0.367 × 10–6)   (60)
V  125  (5000) (1500) = (λ'm) (1500 +1000)
= 1.76 × 10–5 kg = 17.6 mg (5000)(1500)
⇒ λ'm = = 3000 Å
(2500)
  V    V 
2. VA – VB = V −  × 4  − V −  × 1 8. Let r1 and r2 are the radius of coil 1 & 2. If B1
  8     4  and B2 are magnetic induction at their centre,
V V V then
=– + =− ⇒ VB > VA ⇒ Ans (4) µ I µ I
2 4 4 B1 = 0 1 ; and B2 = 0 2
2r1 2r2
3. Restoring force = Axρg = kx ⇒ k = Aρg
Since B1 = B2 ; and r1 = 2r2 therefore I1 = 2I2
m Again if R1 and R2 are resistance of the coil 1
⇒ T = 2π ⇒ Ans(2)
Aρg and 2 then R1 = 2R2 (as R ∝ length = 2πr) and if
V1 and V2 are the potential difference across
T2 300 them respectively, then
4. η=1– ⇒1– = 0.4 ⇒ T1 = 500 K
T1 T1 V1 I1R1 ( 2I 2 ) ( 2R 2 )
= = =4
50 V2 I 2 R 2 I2R 2
now η∋ = 0.4 + 0.4 × = 0.6
100 1 1
9. f= &f'=
300 2π LC 2π 2L(4C)
Therefore 0.6 = 1 –
500 + ∆T
 1  1 f
⇒ 500 + ∆T = 750 ⇒ ∆T = 250 K Therefore f ' =   =
r  2 2  2π LC 2 2
r r
5. F = q ( v × B) = avB sinθ n̂
Therefore when θ = 0º or θ = 180º, F = 0 10. Energy released = 28 – 2 × 2.2 = 28 – 4.4 = 23.6 MeV
6 According to question 11. R1 = R 0e −λt1 & R2 = R 0 e − λt 2
E+E E 2E R1 e − λt1
E–Ir1 = 0 & I = ∴ = ⇒ = = e −λ ( t1 − t 2 ) ⇒ R1 = R2 e − λ ( t1 − t 2 )
r1 + r2 + R r1 r1 + r2 + R R 2 e −λ t 2
⇒ r1 + r2 + R = 2r1 ⇒ R = r1 – r2
 1 1  19. By using work energy theorem W = ∆KE
12. According to question 12.1 = 13.6  2 − 2 
l n  (here ∆KE = 0) ⇒ 300 – Wgravity – Wfriction = 0
13.6 ⇒ Wfriction = 300 –mgh
⇒ n2 = ≈9 ⇒n=3
1. 5 = 300 – (2) (10) (10) = 100J
No. of spectral lines emitted ∆I C (10 − 5) × 10 −3
20. β= = = 100
n (n − 1) (3)(2) ∆I B (150 − 100) × 10 −6
= = =3
2 2
24. By using M = K L1L 2 Here K = 1, L1 = 2mH
1 1
13. U= K(2)2 & U' = K(8)2
2 2 L2 = 8mH ⇒ M = 16 = 4 mH
U'  8 
2 26. According to given situation
⇒ =   = 16 ⇒ U' = 16U hν = E0 + K & 2hν = E0 + K' ⇒ K' = K + hν
U 2
27. In given situation output C is high only when
14. For complementary angles, range will be same
both inputs A and B are high so logic ckt gate is
OR AND gate.
 u 2 sin 2(45 − θ)  R 8
  28. Power factor = cos φ = =
R1  g  u 2 sin(90 − 2θ) | Z| 8 + (31 − 25) 2
2
= =
R 2  u 2 sin 2(45 + θ)  u 2 sin(90 + 2θ)
  8 8
 g  = = = 0.8
2
8 +6 2 10
cos 2θ
= =1 ∆p 2mv sin 30º
cos 2θ 29. F= = = 24 N
∆t 0.25
15. By using work energy theorem 30.
1 1 1
W = ∆KE = mv 22 – mv12 2
2 2
1 2 2
Now s = t ⇒v= t
3 3
2 4
⇒ v1 = 0, v2 = × 2 = ms–1 3
3 3 I2 = I1 + MR2 = MR2
2
2
1 4 1 8 31. For a photon E = pc
Therefore W = × 3  − × 3 ×(0)2 = J
2 3 2 3
E 106 × 1.6 × 10 −19
dx ⇒ p = = = 5.33 × 10–22
16. x = 40 + 12t – t3 ⇒ v = 12 – 3t2 c 3 × 108
dt kgms–1
⇒v=0 at t = 2 sec 3
R 
Distance travelled by particle before coming to 32. R = R0A1/3 ⇒ AGe =  Ge  (ABe) = (2)3(9)
rest  R Be 
= x (at t = 2) – x (at t = 0) = 8 × 9 = 72
3 7 5 C 7
= [40 + 12 × 2 – 2 ] – [40] = 16 m 33. CP = R ⇒ CV = CP – R = R⇒ γ = P =
2 2 CV 5
b
17. v = at + ⇒ [c] [t] = T; 34. According to question and by using COME
t+c
GMm 1
[ v] – + m(fv)2 = 0 + 0
[v] = [at] ⇒ [a] = = LT–2; R+R 2
[t]
GM 2GM
[b] = (LT–1) T = L ⇒ fv = but v =
R R
18. Shifting in microscope = upward shifting in mark
2GM GM 1
 1  1  Therefore f = ⇒f=
= t 1 −  = 31 −  = 1 cm R R 2
 µ   1.5 
35. Number of beats per second
48. A B
v v 1 1 
= – = 330  −  = 66 – 60 = 6 α
λ1 λ 2  5 5. 5  mg
36. As voltage drop across
Here τ = I α
 V 2 
8Ω = 2 × 8 = 4V Q P =  l   ml 
2
3g
 R  ⇒ (mg)   =  (α) ⇒ α =

 2   3  2l
Therefore voltage drop across 3Ω = 3V r r r r r r r r
49. | A + B | = | A − B | ⇒ | A + B |2 = | A − B |2
[Q 4V is divided in ratio of resistances
between 1Ω and 3Ω] ⇒ A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ
⇒ cos θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90º
(3) 2
Hence power dissipated in 3Ω = = 3 watt 1 2 t h1 16 4
3 50. ∴h= gt ∴ 1 = = =
ω 4π 2 t2 h2 25 5
38. V= = = 8 ms–1
k 0. 5π 51. If ∆G system < 0, the process is spontaneous
V If ∆G system > 0, the process is nonspontaneous
39. Time of reverberation ∝ (sabine's formula)
A If ∆G system = 0, the process is in equilibrium
Where V = volume of room and A = area of room 52. For isotonic solution π1 = π2
1 1 1 1 or C1 = C2 (conc. in mol/lit.)
42. P = P1 + P2 = + = + =0
f1 f 2 25 (−25) (Urea solution) (unknown solution)
43. Work done in rotating a dipole from θ 1 to θ2 is 10 5 × 1000
=
W = pE (cos θ1 – cos θ2) 60 m w × 100
Here θ1 = 0º and θ2 = 90º therefore W = pE mw = 300 gm mol–1
44. According to question
Q = constant and C↓ therefore V↑ 54. For H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
Displacement 0 Q ∆ng = 0
45. Average velocity = = =0
Time taken 62.8 ∴ ∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT
Distance 2πr ⇒ ∆H = ∆E
Average speed = =
Time taken T
(2π) (100) 55. CH3CH2COOH SOCl
2 → CH3CH2COCl
= = 10ms–1
(62.8) (B)
r r r
46. φ = E · S = ES cos 90º = 0 (∴ area vector is ⊥r to E ) NH3
47.
KOH
dm =
M
dx
CH3CH2NH2 ← CH3CH2CONH2
Br2
L
(D) (C)
x 58. For CsBr no. of formulas/unit cell

dx
n = 1 (like CsCl type)
Consider a small mass element dm at distance x
from axis n × M M = 133 + 80 = 213 
C.D. =  
V × N A V = a 3 = (436.6 × 10 −12 ) 3 
∫ dF = ∫ (dm)(ω )(x)
2
Required force F =
1× 213 gm
C.D.= = 4.25gm/cm3
L M 2 Mω 2 L 83.22 × 10 −24 cm 3 × 6.02 × 10 23
= ∫ 0 L
ω xdx =
2
h 73.
60. ∆x × ∆V ≥
4πm SN2
CH3–O–CH–CH3+HI CH3I + CH3–CH–OH
Q ∆x = 0.1 Å
= 1 × 10–11 m CH3 CH3
h
∆V ≥ 1
4πm × ∆x 74. Reactivity ∝
steric − Hinderence
6.626 × 10 −34 J sec
∆V ≥ 75. Q Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohaxene
4 × 3.14 × 9.11× 10 −31 kg × 10 −11 m
6
∆V ≥ 5.79 × 10 m sec –1 = – 119.5 kJ/mol
∴ Heat of hydrogenation of benzene
61. 2KCN + CuSO4 → K2SO4 + Cu(CN)2 = 3 × – 119.5 = – 358.5 KJ/mol
Cu(CN)2 → CuCN + (CN)2 Resonance energy
unstable = Observed ∆H – Calculated ∆H
CuCN + 3KCN → K3[Cu(CN)4] i.e. [Cu(CN)4]3–
–150.4 = – 358.5 – x
64. For the reaction x = – 208.1 KJ

Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g)
∆H = 30 kJ/mol 76.
α
∆S = 105 JK–1 mol–1 CH3–C–OC2H5 + H–CH2–C–OC2H5
For at equilibrium ∆G = 0 O C2H5ONa,–C2H5OH O
∴ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆H = T∆S CH3–C–CH2–C–OC2H5
−1
∆H 30 × 1000J mol O(AAE)O
T= = = 285.7K
∆S 105 JK −1mol −1
77. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
−d[ N 2 ] 1 d 1 d
65. Due to F centre defect colourless ionic crystal =− ([H2]) = ([NH3])
Converts into coloured ionic crystal dt 3 dt 2 dt
d 2 d
∴ ([NH3]) = – ([H2])
67. For the cell reaction dt 3 dt
Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ t2g eg
Anode reaction is Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– 80. Cr +3
3+ – 2+
3d(xy, yz, xz)
Cathode reaction is 2Fe + 2e → 2Fe
81. ∆Tf = molality × Kf
º º
E Cell = E Cathode − E ºAnode (Eº is reduction potential)  1× 1000 
∆Tf =   × 5.12
= 0.771 – (–0.441)  250 × 51.2 
º ∆Tf = 0.4 K
E Cell = 1.212 V
83 [H+] = 10–8 M
⊕
HCN H /H2O Due to dilute solution.
71. CH3–C–H CH3–CH–CN
[H+] = 10–8 + 10–7 M
O OH
= 10–7 [0.1 + 1]M
= 1.1 × 10–7 M
*
CH3–CH–COOH = 1.1 × 10–7 M
OH ~
(Rac. mixture) – 1.0525 × 10–7 M
85. A/A+ (xM) | | B+(yM)/B 89. In the ClF3, Cl atom is sp3d hybridised, having
Ecell = + 0.20 V ∴∆G = – Ve trigonal bipyramidal geometry, in which axial
bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.
Therefore given cell reaction is spontaneous
91. Charge density ∝ hydration. Therefore hydrated
At Anode A → A+ + e–
size of Li+ is large and having less mobility.
At Cathode B+ + e– → B
Down the group degree of hydration decreases.
Cell reaction A + B+ → A+ + B +
86. 93. O = N → O sp hybridization hence Linear
R 94. Al2O3 and Sb2O3 are amphoteric, SeO2 is acidic

+δ –δ +δ and Bi2O3 is basic.
CH2—CH2 + R–MgX CH2–CH2
97. Element of At. no. = 16 is sulphur, its diatomic
O
–δ O—MgX molecule is like O2 which have two unpaired e–
H OH according to MOT.
R
100.
CH2–CH2 4
Cl
OH 5 3 2 1
88. O
·· 2 +M
CH2–NH ··NH2 2-3-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride
Benzyl amine Aniline

* Benzylamine has localised lone pair therefore
it is more basic.
AIPMT - 2007
Q.1 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, Q.7 A wheel as angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2
in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of and initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a
time T and of current I, would be:- time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in
(1) ML2T–3I–2 (2) ML2T–3I–1 radian) of :
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12
(3) ML2T–2 (4) ML2T–1I–1 r r
Q.8 A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle
r r r r
Q.2 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration between them, if | A × B | = 3 (A.B) the value
 t of θ is:-
f, at time t, given by f = f0 1 −  , where f0 and (1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 45º (4)30º
 T 
T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero Q.9 The position x of a particle with respect to time
velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the t along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is
instant when f = 0, the particle's velocity (vx) is: in metres and t in seconds. What will be the
1 1 position of this particle when it achieves
(1) f0T (2) f0T (3) f0T2 (4) f0T2 maximum speed along the + x direction ?
2 2
(1) 24 m (2) 32 m (3) 54m (4) 81m
Q.3 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed
vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The Q.10 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to
average speed for this round trip is:- a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown
v + vd 2vd v u in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan
(1) u (2) is negligible. When pressed slightly and
2 vd + v u released the mass executes a simple harmonic
vd v u motion. The spring constant is 200N/m. What
(3) v u vd (4) should be the minimum amplitude of the motion
vd + v u
so that the mass gets detached from the pan
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Q.4 A particle staring from the origin (0, 0) moves in m
a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates
at a later time are ( 3 ,3) . The path of the particle
makes with the x-axis an angle of:-
(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º (1) 4.0 cm
(2) 8.0 cm
Q.5 A block B is pushed momentarily along a (3) 10.0 cm
horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If µ (4) Any value less than 12.0 cm
is the coefficient of sliding friction between B
and the surface, block B will come to rest after a Q.11 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane
time:- with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If
v the angular momentum of the particle with
B
respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB
(1) v/g (2) v/(gµ) (3) gµ/v (4) g/v when it is at B, then :
Y
Q.6 A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed B
A
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on
the spring so that the spring is compressed by a
O X
distance d. The net work done in the process is:-
1 1 (1) LA < L
(1) mg(h − d ) + Kd 2 (2) mg(h + d ) + Kd 2 (2) LA > LB
2 2
1 1 (3) LA = LB
(3) mg(h + d ) − Kd (4) mg(h − d ) − Kd 2
2
(4) The relationship between LA and LB depends
2 2
upon the slope of the line AB
Q.12 A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free Q.18 The phase difference between the instantaneous
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
rest in the horizontal position. Given that the
simple harmonic motion is:-
ml 2
moment of inertia of the rod about A is ,
3 (1) Zero (2) 0.5 π
the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be:-
(3) π (4) 0.707π
l Q.19 The particle executing simple harmonic motion

B
has a ienetic energy K0 cos2ωt. The maximum
values of the potential energy and the total
energy are respectively:-
(1) K0 and K0 (2) 0 and 2K0
3g 2g l 3
(1) (2) (3) mg (4) gl K0
2l 3l 2 2 (3) and K0 (4) K0 and 2K0
2
Q.13 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in
the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the Q.20 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation
mass of S2. Which one of the following with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is
statements is true ?
(1) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are T. The minimum time taken by the particle to
equal travel half of the amplitude from the
(2) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2 equilibrium position is:
(3) The potential energies of earth and satellite in
the two cases are equal (1) T/2 (2) T/4 (3) T/8 (4) T/12
(4) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
Q.21 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic
Q.14 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer wave are:-
surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at
temperature tºC, the power received by a unit (1) in phase and perpendicular to each other
surface, (normal to the incident rays) at distance (2) in phase and parallel to each other
R from the centre of the Sun is:-
Where σ is the Stefan's Constant. (3) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each
(1) r2σ (t + 273)4/R2 other
(2) 4πr2σt4/R2
(4) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
(3) r2σ (t + 273)4 /4πR2
(4) 16π2r2σ t4/R2 Q.22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a
Q.15 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from
temperature of sink is reduced by 62ºC, its
the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid
efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is-
(1) 99ºC (2) 124ºC and moves along its surface (see figure)
(3) 37ºC (4) 62ºC 3cm
Q.16 A black body is at 727ºC. It emits energy at a
4cm
rate which is proportional to:

(1) (727)4 (2) (727)2
4
(3) (1000) (4) (1000)2 Coin
Q.17 The frequency of a light wave in a material is How fast is the light traveling in the liquid ?
2 × 1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The (1) 1.2 × 108 m/s (2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
refractive index of material will be:- 8
(3) 2.4 × 10 m/s (4) 3.0 × 108 m/s
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.40 (3) 1.50 (4) 3.00
Q.23 Charge +q and –q are placed at points A and B Q.27 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit
respectively which are at distance 2L apart, C is the shown here is:-
midpoint between A and B. The work done in
moving a charge + Q along the semicircle CRD is:- 6Ω
R
3Ω
4Ω 18V
A C B D (1) 4W (2) 16W
qQ qQ (3) 40W (4) 54W
(1) − (2)
6π ∈0 L 4π ∈0 L
Q.28 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a
qQ qQ copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the
(3) (4)
2π ∈0 L 6π ∈0 L electrochemical equivalent of copper is
30 × 10–5 gm coulomb–1, the mass of copper
Q.24 A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within deposited on the electrode will be: -
it. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
(1) 0.27 gm (2) 0.40 gm
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in units of (3) 0.50 gm (4) 0.67 gm
voltmeter will be-
B Q.29 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at
C A 0ºC and the hot junction is kept at TºC, then the
relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and
temperature of inversion (Ti) is:
q 1 q 
(1) −φ (2)  − φ  (1) Tn = Ti + T (2) Tn = Ti/2
∈0 2  ∈0  (3) Tn = 2Ti (4) Tn = Ti – T
q φ
(3) (4) Q.30 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an
2 ∈0 3
unknown resistance S form the four arms of a
Q.25 Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of
points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0,y = 0, z = 0) 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets
and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The balanced. What is the value of S ?
magnitude and direction of the electric dipole
(1) 1Ω (2) 2Ω (3) 3Ω (4) 6Ω
moment vector of this charge assembly are:-
(1) 2 qa along + x direction Q.31 The resistance of an ammeter is 13Ω and its
scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps.
(2) 2 qa along + y direction After and additional shunt has been connected
to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure
(3) 2 qa along the line joining points
currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) value of shunt-resistance is-
(4) qa along the line joining points (1) 2 kΩ (2) 20Ω (3) 2Ω (4) 0.2Ω
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0 )
Q.32 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field
Q.26 Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius
C R with constant speed v. The time period of the
of capacity , are connected to a V-volt battery,
2 motion-
as shown- (1) depends on R and not on v
(2) depends on v and not on R
C
V C (3) depends on both R and v
2
(4) is independent of both R and v
The work done in charging fully both the Q.33 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a
condensers is: circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
1 associated magnetic moment µ is given by:
(1) CV2 (2) 2CV2
2 (1) q v R (2) q v R/2
1 3 (3) q v R2 (4) qv R2/2
(3) CV2 (4) CV 2
4 4
Q.34 A beam of electrons passes undeflected through Q.40 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
fields. It the electric field is switched off, and the 2 × 10–3W. The number of photons emitted, on
same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons the average, by the source per second is:-
move: (1) 5 × 1014 (2) 5 × 1015
(1) along a straight line (3) 5 × 1016
(4) 5 × 1017
(2) in an elliptical orbit
(3) in a circular orbit Q.41 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the
(4) along a parabolic path masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated
by an electric potential V and then made to
Q.35 The primary and secondary coils of a transformer describe semicircular paths of radius R using a
have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant,
magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is  Charge on the ion 
the ratio   will be
given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is  mass of the ion 
time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output
proportional to:-
voltage across the secondary coil is:
1 1
(1) 30 volts (2) 90 volts (1) R (2) (3) 2 (4) R2
R R
(3) 120 volts (4) 220 volts
27
Q.36 What is the value of inductance L for which the Q.42 If the nucleus 13 Al has a nuclear radius of
current is a maximum in a series LCR circuit about 3.6 fm, the 125
52 Te would have its radius
with C = 10 µF and ω = 1000s–1 ?
approximately as:-
(1)10 mH
(1) 4.8 fm (2) 6.0 fm
(2) 100 mH
(3) 9.6 fm (4) 12.0 fm
(3) 1 mH
(4) cannot be calculated unless R is known
Q.43 In radioactive decay process, the negatively
charged emitted β-particles are:-
Q.37 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110V (1) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is (2) the electrons present inside the nucleus
approximately- (3) the electrons produced as a result of the
(1) 10% (2) 30% (3) 50% (4) 90% decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
(4) the electrons produced as a result of
Q.38 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room collisions between atoms
temperature. If the temperature is increased
beyond Curie temperature then it will show:- Q.44 A nucleus AZ X has mass represented by
(1) diamagnetism M(A,Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of
(2) paramagnetism proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the
(3) anti ferromagnetism binding energy in MeV, then:
(4) no magnetic property (1) B.E. = M(A,Z) – ZMp – (A–Z) Mn
(2) B.E. = [M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z) Mn]C2
Q.39 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of (3) B.E. = [ZMp + (A – Z)Mn – M(A, Z)]C2
wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it (4) B.E. = [ZMp + AMn – M(A, Z)]C2
liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive
metallic surface. When the source is moved to a Q.45 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay
distance of 1.0m, the number of photo electrons constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they
liberated will : have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of
(1) be reduced by a factor of 2 number of nuclei of A to those of B will be
2
(2) be reduced by a factor of 4 1
  after a time interval:-
(3) be reduced by a factor of 8 e
(4) be reduced by a factor of 16 1 1
(1) (2) (3) 4λ (4) 2λ
2λ 4λ
Q.46 The total energy of electron in the ground state Q.50 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the
of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The kinetic following relations indicating the cell
energy of an electron in first excited state is:- characteristics is correct:
(1) 1.7 eV (2) 3.4 eV (1) a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90º
(2) a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90º
(3) 6.8 eV (4) 13.6 eV
(3) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90º
(4) a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90º
Q.47 In the energy band diagram of a material shown
below, the open circles and filled circles denote Q.51 With which of the following electronic
holes and electrons respectively. The material is:- configuration of an atom has the lowest
Ec ionization enthalpy:
(1) 1s22s22p6 (2) 1s22s22p5
2 2 3
(3) 1s 2s 2p (4) 1s22s22p53s1
Eg
Q.52 An element, X has the following isotopic
composition;
200
X : 90%
Ev 199
X : 8.0%
202
X : 2.0%
(1) an n-type semiconductor The weighted average atomic mass of the
(2) a p-type semiconductor naturally-occurring element X is closest to:
(3) an insulator (1) 199 amu (2) 200 amu
(3) 201 amu (4) 202 amu
(4) a metal
Q.53 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98%
Q.48 A common emitter amplifier has voltage gain of H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 g.mL–1.
Volume of acid required to make 1 litre of
50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is:
impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the (1) 5.55 mL (2) 11.10 mL
amplifier is:- (3) 16.65 mL (4) 22.20 mL
(1) 100 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 1250
Q.54 Consider the following sets of quantum number:
n l m s
Q.49 In the following circuit, the output Y for all (a) 3 0 0 +½
possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth (b) 2 2 1 +½
table:- (c) 4 3 –2 –½
A A (d) 1 0 –1 –½
Y (e) 3 2 3 +½
B B
Which of the following sets of quantum number
A B Y A B Y is not possible:
0 0 0 0 0 0 (1) a and c (2) b, c and d
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0 (3) a, b, c and d (4) b, d, and e
1 0 1 1 0 0 Q.55 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
1 1 1 1 1 1 needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in
acidic solution is:
A B Y A B Y 3 4 2
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
0 0 1 0 0 1 5 5 5
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0 Q.56 In a first order reaction A → B, if k is rate
1 0 1 1 0 0 constant and initial concentration of the reactant
A is 0.5 M then the half-life is:
1 1 0 1 1 0
ln 2 0.693 log 2 log 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
k 0.5k k k 0.5
Q.57 The reaction of hydrogen an iodine monochloride is Q.63 Given that bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are
given as 430 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively and
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g) ∆fH for HCl is –90 kJ mol–1. Bond enthalpy of
This reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) HCl is :
and ICl(g), following mechanisms were proposed (1) 245 kJ mol–1 (2) 290 kJ mol–1
–1
Mechanism A: (3) 380 kJ mol (4) 425 kJ mol–1
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
Mechanism B : Q.64 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced
H2(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + HI(g) ; Slow using the assumption:
HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I2(g) ; Fast (1) The adsorbed molecules interact with each
Which of the above mechanism(s) can be other
consistent with the given information about the (2) The adsorption takes place in multilayer
reaction: (3) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their
(1) A only (2) B only ability to adsorb the particle
(3)A and B both (4) Neither A nor B (4) The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
Q.58 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in Q.65 The following equilibrium constants are given-
60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ; K1
completed in approximately: N2 + O 2 2NO; K2
(1) 40 minutes (2) 50 minutes H2 + ½O2 H2O ; K3
(3) 45 minutes (4) 60 minutes The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) the NH3 by oxygen to give NO is:
K1K 2 K 2 K 33
Q.59 The equilibrium constant of the reaction: (1) (2)
K3 K1
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);
º
E = 0.46V at 298 K is: K 2 K 32 K 22 K 3
(3) (4)
(1) 4.0 × 1015 (2) 2.4 × 1010 K1 K1
10
(3) 2.0 × 10 (4) 4.0 × 1010
Q.66 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25ºC that
contains 1× 10–10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. H3O+;
Q.60 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX)
(1) 1.000 (2) 7.000
is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1,
the lowering in freezing point of the solution is: (3) 4.000 (4) 9.000
(1) –0.56 K (2) –1.12 K Q.67 A weak acid HA has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5. If
(3) 0.56 K (4) 1.12 K 0.100 mol of this acid is dissolved in one litre of
water the percentage of acid dissociated at
Q.61 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by : equilibrium is closest to :
∆S ∆H ∆G ∆G (1) 0.100% (2) 99.0%
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 1.00% (4) 99.9%
∆G ∆G ∆S ∆H
Q.68 The fraction of total volume occupied by the
Q.62 Consider the following reactions: atoms present in a simple cube is:
(a) H (+aq ) + OH (−aq ) = H 2O (1) , ∆H = −X1kJ mol −1 π π
(1) (2)
4 6
1
(b) H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(l), ∆H = – X2kJ mol–1 π π
2 (3) (4)
3 2 4 2
(c) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O(l) – X3 kJ mol–1
5 Q.69 Identify the correct order of the size of the
(d) C2H2(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l)+X4kJ mol–1 following:
2
(1) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(1) is:
(2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
(1) + X1 kJ mol–1 (2) – X2 kJ mol–1
–1 (3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
(3) + X3 kJ mol (4) – X4 kJ mol–1
(4) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
Q.70 In which of the following pairs, the two species Q.77 Which one of the following anions is present in
are iso-structural ? the chain structure of silicates:
(1) BrO3− and XeO3 (2) SF4 and XeF4 (1) SiO 44− (2) Si 2 O 67−
(3) SO 32− and NO3− (4) BF3 and NF3 (3) (Si 2 O52− ) n (4) (SiO 32− ) n
Q.71 The correct order of C–O bond length among Q.78 Which one of the following orders correctly
CO, CO 32− , CO2 is: represents the increasing acid strengths of the
given acids:
(1) CO < CO2 < CO32− (1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl
(2) CO2 < CO 32− < CO (2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3)HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(3) CO < CO 32− < CO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
(4) CO 32− < CO 2 < CO
Q.79 Which of the following oxidation states are the
Q.72 Which one of the following ionic species has the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively:
greatest proton affinity to form stable compound: (1) +2, +2 (2) +4, +2
(3) +2, +4 (4) +4, + 4
(1) I– (2) HS– (3) NH −2 (4) F–
Q.80 Identify the incorrect statement among the

Q.73 In which of the following the hydration energy is following:
higher than the lattice energy:
(1) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
(1) SrSO4 (2) BaSO4
(2) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms
(3) MgSO4 (4) RaSO4 or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
(3) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation
Q.74 Which of the following statements, about the of successive shrinkages
advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before (4) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the
reduction is not true : properties of 4d series of the transition
(1) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is elements have no similarities with the 5d
thermodynamically feasible series of elements.
(2) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducting
agents for metal sulphides Q.81 Which one of the following ions is the most
(3) The ∆fGθ of the sulphide is greater than those stable in aqueous solution ?
for CS2 and H2S (1) Mn3+ (2) Cr3+ (3) V3+ (4) Ti3+
(4) The ∆fGθ is negative for roasting for sulphide (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
ore to oxide
Q.82 The d electron configuration of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+
Q.75 The correct order of increasing thermal stability and Ni2+ are 3d4, 3d5, 3d6 and 3d8 respectively.
of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is: Which one of the following aqua complex will
(1) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3 exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour ?
(2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3 (1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
2+
(3) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 (3) [Fe(H2O)6] (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(4) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn= 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
Q.76 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated Q.83 Which of the following will give a pair of
by Froth Flotation process. Which one of the enantiomorphs:
following sulphide ores offers and exception and (1) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]
is concentrated by chemical leaching ? (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
(1) Sphalerite (2) Argentite (3) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(3) Galena (4) Copper pyrite (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(en = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2)
Q.84 If NaCl is doped with 10–4 mole% of SrCl2, the Q.89 Which one of the following on treatment with
concentrate of cation vacancies will be: 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
(NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) corresponding alcohol and acid:
(1) 6.02 × 1014 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 O
(3) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (1) CH3–C–CH3 (2) C6H5CH2CHO
(3) C6H5CHO (4) CH3CH2CH2CHO
Q.85 Which of the following presents the correct order
of the acidity in the given compounds: Q.90 Which one of the following on reduction with
lithium aluminium hydride yield a secondary
(1) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH amine:
> CH3COOH (1) Methyl Cyanide (2) Nitroethane
(2) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (3) Methylisocyanide (4) Acetamide
> FCH2COOH
(3) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH
> ClCH2COOH Q.91 The order decreasing reactivity towards an
electrophilic reagent, for the following:
(4) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
> CH3COOH (a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
Q.86 The product formed in Aldol condensation is: (c) Chlorobenzene and
(1) An alpha, beta unsaturated ester (d) Phenol
(2) A beta-hydroxy acid Would be:
(3) A beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy (1) d > b > a > c (2) a > b > c > d
ketone (3) b > d > a > c (4) d > c > b > a
(4) An alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Q.92 Predict the product C obtained in the following
Q.87 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into reaction of butyne-1:
HI
hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl CH3–CH2–C ≡ CH + HCl 
→ B → C
is called: I
(1) Wolff-Kishner Reduction
(1) CH3CH2–C–CH3
(2) Clemmensen Reduction
(3) Cope Reduction Cl
(4) Dow Reduction (2) CH3CH–CH2–CH2I
Cl
Q.88 Consider the following compounds: I
(i) C6H5COCl
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–C–H
(ii) O2N COCl Cl
I
(iii) H3C COCl (4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2Cl
(vi) OHC Q.93 Which of the compounds with molecular

COCl
formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis:
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity (1) 2-Methyl-1-butene (2) 2-Methyl-2-butene
towards hydrolysis is: (3) 3-Methyl-1-butene (4) Cyclopentane
(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Q.94 If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by
(2) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i) a compound in a specific solvent, through to the
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) chiral, it may mean that :
(4) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (1) The compound may be a racemic mixture
(2) The compound is certainly a chiral
(3) The compound is certainly meso
(4) There is no compound in the solvent
Q.95 For the following: Q.101 Biological organization starts with:-
(a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br– (1) Atomic level
The increasing order of nucleophilicity would be: (2) Submicroscopic molecular level
(1) Br– < Cl– < I– (2) I– < Br– < Cl– (3) Cellular level
– – –
(3) Cl < Br < I (4) I– < Cl– < Br– (4) Organismic level
Q.102 About 98 percent of the mass of every living
Q.96 CH3–CHCl–CH2–CH3 has a chiral centre, which organism is composed of just six elements
one of the following represents its R including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
configurations: and:
CH3 C2H5 (1) Calcium and phosphorus
(1) H–C–Cl (2) H3C–C–Cl (2) Phosphorus and sulphur
(3) Sulphur and magnesium
C2H5 H
(4) Magnesium and sodium
C2H5 C2H5
Q.103 Which one of the following is an example of
(3) H–C–CH3 (4) Cl–C–CH3
negative feedback loop in humans ?
Cl H (1) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction
of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
Q.97 In the reaction (2) Constriction of skin blood vessels and
CH3 contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold
CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH3+HI (3) Secretion of tears after falling of sand
Heated
 → ………. particles into the eye
Which of the following compounds will be (4) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious
formed ? food
CH3 Q.104 What is common to whale, seal and shark ?
(1) CH3–CH–CH2OH + CH3–CH2–I (1) Homoeiothermy
CH3 (2)Seasonal migration
(3) Thick subcutaneous fat
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–I + CH3CH2OH
(4) Convergent evolution
(3) CH3–CH–CH3 + CH3CH2OH
Q.105 Which one of the following is not a constituent
CH3 of cell membrane ?
(4) CH3–CH–CH2OH + CH3CH3 (1) Phospholipids (2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipids (4) Proline
CH3
Q.106 Select the wrong statement from the following:
Q.98 Which one of the following vitamins is water- (1) The chloroplasts are generally much larger
soluble: than mitochondria
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
an inner and an outer membrane
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
Q.99 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their internal compartment, the thylakoid space
chirality is due to: bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(1) D-sugar Component (4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
(2) L-sugar component DNA
(3) Chiral bases Q.107 The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and
(4) Chiral phosphate ester units the electron transport system is the formation
of:-
Q.100 Which one of the following polymers is prepared (1) Nucleic acids
by condensation polymerization ? (2) ATP in small stepwise units
(1) Styrene (2) Nylon-66 (3) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber (4) Sugars
Q.108 If the mean and the median pertaining to a Q.115 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the
certain character of a population are of the same three of which one of the following sets ?
value, the following is most likely to occur:- (1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
(1) A skewed curve
(2) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(2) A normal distribution
(3) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(3) A bi-modal distribution
(4) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
(4) a T-shaped curve
Q.109 Which one of the following is a slime mould ? Q.116 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
(1) Anabaena (2) Rhizopus (1)The microsporangium in which pollen grains
(3) Physarum (4) Thiobacillus develop
(2) A cell in the pollen grain in which the
Q.110 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, sperms are formed
which one of the following pairs is suitable? (3) A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
(1) Wheat and maiden hair fern are stored after pollination
(2) Sugarcane and sunflower (4) An opening in the megagametophyte
(3) Teak and pine through which the pollen tube approaches
(4) Deodar and fern the egg
Q.111 Which one of the following statements about Q.117 Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided
mycoplasma is wrong? by :
(1) They cause diseases in plants (1) Peristome teeth (2) Elaters
(2) They are also called PPLO (3) Indusium (4) Calyptra
(3) They are pleomorphic
(4) They are sensitive to penicillin
Q.118 Which pair of the following belongs to
Basidiomycetes ?
Q.112 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the
(1) Morchella and Mushrooms
antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.
As a result: (2) Birds' nest fungi and Pufballs
(1) Self fertilization is prevented (3) Pufballs and Claviceps
(2) There is no change in success rate of fertilization (4) Peziza and Stink horns
(3) There is high degree of sterility
(4) One can conclude that the plant is apomictic Q.119 ICBN stands for :
(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Q.113 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to
(2) Indian Congress of Biological Names
the same species if they :
(3) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
(1) Have same number of chromosomes
(2) Can reproduce freely with each other and (4) International Congress of Biological Names
form seeds
(3) Have more than 90 percent similar genes Q.120 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:-
(4) Look similar and possess identical secondary (1) Claviceps (2) Phytophthora
metabolites. (3) Uncinula (4) Ustilago
Q.114 If you are asked to classify the various algae into Q.121 When two species of different genealogy come
distinct groups, which of the following to resemble each other as a result of adaptation,
characters you should choose ? the phenomenon is termed:-
(1) Chemical composition of the cell wall (1) Convergent evolution
(2) Types of pigments present in the cell (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Nature of stored food materials in the cell (3) Microevolution
(4) Structural organization of thallus (4) Co-evolution
Q.122 Adaptive radiation refers to:- Q.128 Among the human ancestors the brain size was
(1) Power of adaptation in an individual to a more than 1000 CC in:-
variety of environments (1) Homo habilis
(2) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation (2) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Evolution of different species from a (3) Homo erectus
common ancestor (4) Ramapithecus
(4) Migration of members of a species to
different geographical areas Q.129 Which of the following pairs are correctly
Q.123 The living organisms can be unexceptionally matched ?
distinguished from the non-living things on the Animals Morphological
basis of their ability for:- features
(1) Growth and movement (A) Crocodile 4-chambered heart
(2) Responsiveness to touch (B) Sea Urchin Parapodia
(3) Interaction with the environment and (C) Obelia Metagenesis
progressive evolution (D) Lemur Thecodont
(4) Reproduction (1) Only A and B (2) A, C and D
Q.124 The finches of Galapogas islands provide an (3) B, C and D (4) Only A and D
evidence in favour of-
(1) Biogeographical Evolution Q.130 Select the correct statement from the following:
(2) Special Creation (1) Mutations are random and directional
(3) Evolution due to Mutation (2) Darwinian variations are small and
(4) Retrogressive Evolution directionless
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
Q.125 One of the important consequences of geographical adapt and gets selected by nature
isolation is:- (4) All mammals except whales and camels
(1) Random creation of new species have seven cervical vertebrae
(2) No change in the isolated fauna
(3) Preventing Speciation Q.131 Which one of the following is a matching pair
(4) Speciation through reproductive isolation of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?
(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion
Q.126 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered (2) Post-anal tail – Octopus
moth proves that:- (3) Ventral central – Leech
(1) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature nervous system
(2) The true black melanic forms arise by a (4) Pharyngeal gill slits – Chamaeleon
recurring random mutation
Absent in embryo
(3) The melanic form of the moth has no
selective advantage over lighter form in Q.132 What is common between parrot, platypus and
industrial area kangaroo ?
(4) The lighter-form the moth has no selective (1) Ovoparity
advantage either in polluted industrial area
(2) Homoiothermy
or non-polluted area
(3) Toothless jaws
Q.127 The concept of chemical evolution is based on- (4) Functional post-anal tail
(1) Possible origin of life by combination of
chemicals under suitable environmental Q.133 What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach
conditions and Silver fish ?
(2) Crystallization of chemicals (1) They all belong to the same phylum
(3) Interaction of water, air and clay under (2) They all have jointed paired appendages
intense heat (3) They all possess dorsal heart
(4) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals (4) None of them is aquatic
Q.134 Which one of the following statement is correct ? Q.141 Which one of the following pairs, is not
(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny correctly matched ?
(2) Stem cells are specialized cells (1) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(3) There is no evidence of the existence of gills (2) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
during embryogenesis of mammals (3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
(4) All plant & animal cells are totipotent (4) Cytokinin – Cell division
Q.135 "Foolish Seedling" disease of rice led to the Q.142 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established
discovery of :- for the first time in:
(1) IAA (2) GA (1) Diplococus pneumoniae
(2) Neurospora crassia
(3) ABA (4) 2, 4-D
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Escherichia Coli
Q.136 Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in:-
(1) Central region of style through which the
Q.143 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the
pollen tube grows towards the ovary. division of:
(2) Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid (1) Microspore mother cell
transport of water from cortex to pericycle
(2) Microspore
(3) Phloem elements that serve as entry points (3) Generative cell
for substances for transport to other plant
(4) Vegetative cell
parts
(4) Testa of seeds to enable emergence of
Q.144 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has
growing embryonic axis during seed
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm
germination. and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has
osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm
Q.137 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result
chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:- will be:-
(1) Quinone (2) Cytochrome (1) Movement of water from cell A to B
(3) Iron-sulphur protein (4) Ferredoxin (2) Movement of water from cell B to A
(3) No movement of water
Q.138 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the (4) Equilibrium between the two
mitochondrial matrix except one which is located
in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes Q.145 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation
and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:- during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of :
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase (1) Epidermis (2) Mesophyll
(2) Lactate dehydrogenase (3) Bundle Sheath (4) Phloem
(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(4) Malate dehydrogenase Q.146 Which of the following is a flowering plant with
nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing
microorganism ?
Q.139 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of
(1) Cicer arietinum
phytochrome is:-
(2) Casuarina equisetifolia
(1) 620 nm (2) 640 nm
(3) Crotalaria juncea
(3) 680 nm (4) 720 nm
(4) Cycas revoluta
Q.140 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
Q.147 Which one of the following is surrounded by a
(1) Autonomic movement of growth callose wall ?
(2) Autonomic movement of locomotion (1) Pollen grain
(3) Autonomic movement of variation (2) Microspore mother cell
(4) Paratonic movement of growth (3) Male gamete
(4) Egg
Q.148 Which one of the following elements is not an Q.156 A drop of each of the following, is placed
essential micronutrient for plant growth ? separately on four slides. Which of them will
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Zn (4) Cu not coagulate ?
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
Q.149 If you suspect deficiency of antibodies in a
person, to which of the following would you (2) Blood plasma
look for confirmatory evidence ? (3) Blood serum
(1) Haemocytes (4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
(2) Serum albumins system
(3) Serum globulins
(4) Fibrinogen in the plasma Q.157 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared
resident of seventh floor of a multistoried
Q.150 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly.
vitamin and its related deficiency disease ? Which hormone initiated this action ?
(1) Calciferol – Pellagra (1) Gastrin (2) Thyroxin
(2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy (3) Adrenaline (4) Glucagon
(3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(4) Cobalamine – Beri-beri Q.158 A person who is on a long hunger strike and is
surviving only on water, will have:-
Q.151 Which one of the following mammalian cells is (1) Less urea in his urine
not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon-
dioxide aerobically ? (2) More sodium in his urine
(1) Red blood cells (3) Less amino acids in his urine
(2) White blood cells (4) More glucose in his blood
(3) Unstriated muscle cells
(4) Liver cells Q.159 Which one of the following pairs of structures
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell ?
Q.152 Compared to a bull a bullok is docile because of:- (1) Nucleus and mitochondria
(1) Lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its (2) Perikaryon and dendrites
blood (3) Vacuoles and fibres
(2) Higher levels of thyroxin
(4)Flagellum and medullary sheath
(3) Higher levels of cortisone
(4) Lower levels of blood testosterone Q.160 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
endocrine gland after ovulation ?
Q.153 In the human female, menstruation can be
deferred by the administration of:- (1)Vitelline membrane
(1)FSH only (2) Graffian follicle
(2) LH only (3) Stroma
(3) Combination of FSH and LH (4) Germinal epithelium
(4) Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Q.161 During the transmission of nerve impulse
Q.154 In human body, which one of the following is through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
anatomically correct ? side of the plasma membrane has which type of
(1) Cranial nerve – 10 pairs electric charge ?
(2) Floating ribs – 2 pairs (1) First positive, then negative and again back
(3)Collar bones – 3 pairs to positive
(4) Salivary glands – 1 pair (2) First negative, then positive and again back
to negative
Q.155 In which one of the following preparations are
you likely to come across cell junctions most (3) First positive, then negative and continue to
frequently ? be negative
(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Ciliated epithelium (4) First negative, then positive and continue to
(3) Thrombocytes (4) Tendon be positive
Q.162 A person is having problems with calcium and Q.170 Geometric representation of age structure is a
phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one characteristic of :-
of the following glands may not be functioning (1) Ecosystem (2) Biotic community
properly ? (3) Population (4) Landscape
(1) Thyroid (2) Parathyroid
(3) Parotid (4) Pancreas Q.171 Which one of the following pairs of organisms
are exotic species introduced in India ?
Q.163 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and (1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
the particular animal concerned : (2) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(1) Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass (3) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(2) Dachigam National Park – Snow Leopard (4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
(3) Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger
(4) Periyar – Elephant Q.172 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal
plants is that of:-
(1) Nepenthes (2) Podophyllum
Q.164 In which one of the following the BOD
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), (3) Ocimum (4) Garlic
distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE)
Q.173 A genetically engineered micro-organism used
and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
in ascending order ?
species of-
(1) S < DE < PE < SE
(1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas
(2) SE < S < PE < DE
(3) Trichoderma (4) Xanthomonas
(3) SE < PE < S < DE
(4) PE < S < SE < DE Q.174 A sequential expression of a set of human genes
occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:-
Q.165 Which one of the following ecosystem types has (1) Ribosome (2) Transfer RNA
the highest annual net primary productivity ? (3) Messenger RNA (4) DNA sequence
(1) Temperate deciduous forest
(2) Tropical rain forest Q.175 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:-
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (1) Polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and
explain 3'- to 5' DNA replication
(4) Temperate evergreen forest
(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3'-to-5' direction and
Q.166 Which one of the following is being utilized as a
forms replication fork
source of biodiesel in the Indian country side ?
(1) Pongamia (2) Euphorbia (4) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
replication
(3) Beetroot (4) Sugarcane
Q.176 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid(n) and
Q.167 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic basic(x) numbers of chromosomes are:
precipitators are installed to control emission of:- (1) n = 21 and x = 7 (2) n = 7 and x = 21
(1) CO (2) SO2 (3) NOx (4) SPM (3) n = 21 and x = 21 (4) n = 21 and x = 14
Q.168 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator Q.177 Molecular basis of organ differentiation
of water pollution ? depends on the modulation in transcription by-
(1) Sewage fungus (2) Sludge-worms (1) Anticodon (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Blood-worms (4) Stone flies (3) Ribosome (4) Transcription factor
Q.169 A high density of elephant population in an area Q.178 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the
can result in :- function of eukaryote chromosomes because
they:
(1) Predation on one another
(1) Prevent chromosome loss
(2) Mutualism
(2) Act as replicons
(3) Intra specific competition
(3) Are RNA transcription initiator
(4) Inter specific competition
(4) Help chromosome pairing
Q.179 Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an Q.186 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds
example of:- the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
(1) Codominance cells. How is this DNA accommodated ?
(2) Chromosomal aberration (1) Through elimination of repetitive DNA
(3) Point mutation (2) Deletion of non-essential genes
(4) Polygenic inheritance (3) Super-coiling in nucleosomes
(4) DNase digestion
Q.180 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid
is by:- Q.187 In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out
(1) Crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent of the mother's womb and:-
(2) Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent (1) From this upto eight identical twins can be
(3) Crossing of one F2 progeny with female produced
parent (2) The egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells
(4) Studying the sexual behaviour of F1 which are implanted into the womb of other
progenies cows
(3) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated
Q.181 During transcription, RNA polymerase and cultured until small embryos are
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and formed which are implanted into the womb
assumes a saddle-like structure. What is it's of other cows.
DNA-binding sequence ? (4) In the eight cell stage the individual cells
(1) TATA (2) TTAA are separated under electrical field for
(3) AATT (4) CACC further development in culture media
Q.182 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the Q.188 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When (1) At present it is not possible to grow maize
RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 without chemical fertilizers
segregation will show:- (2) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may
(1) Higher number of the parental types lead to eutrophication of nearby water
(2) Higher number of the recombinant types bodies
(3) Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio (3) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
(4) Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
plants
Q.183 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:- (4) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and
nostoc are important mobilizers of
(1) Inducing mutations
phosphates and potassium for plant
(2) Bombarding the seeds with DNA nutrition in soil
(3) Crossing of two inbred parental lines
(4) Harvesting seeds from the most productive Q.189 The population of an insect species shows an
plants explosive increase in numbers during rainy
season followed by its disappearance at the end
Q.184 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a of the season. What does this show ?
developing organism, is associated with- (1) The population of its predators increases
(1) Deletion of genes enormously
(2) Developmental mutations (2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(3) Differential expression of genes (3) The food plants mature and die at the end
(4) Lethal mutations of the rainy season
(4) Its population growth curve is of J-type
Q.185 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of Q.190 The two polynucleotide chain in DNA are:-
yellow and green seeded plants would you (1) Semiconservative
expect in F1 generation ? (2) Parallel
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 50 : 50 (3) Discontinuous
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (4) Antiparallel
Q.191 A plant requires magnesium for: Q.196 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Cell wall development matched ?
(2) Holding cells together (1) Coliforms – Vinegar
(3) Protein synthesis (2) Methanogens – Gobar gas
(4) Chlorophyll synthesis (3) Yeast – Ethanol
(4) Streptomycetes – Antibiotic
Q.192 Probiotics are-
(1) Live microbial food supplement Q.197 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(2) Safe antibiotics (1) Bombyx mori – Silk
(3) Cancer inducting microbes (2) Pila globosa – Pearl
(4) New kind of food allergens (3) Apis indica – Honey
(4) Kenia lacca – Lac
Q.193 Bowman's glands are located in the
(1) Olfactory epithelium of our nose Q.198 Which one of the following is a viral disease of
(2) Proximal end of uriniferous tubules poultry ?
(3) Anterior pituitary (1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis
(4) Female reproductive system of cockroach (3) Coryza (4) New Castle disease
Q.194 Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are Q.199 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed
related to: into human body for sonography ?
(1) Low temperature (1) 45 – 70 MHz (2) 30 – 45 MHz
(2) Hot and humid environment (3) 15 – 30 MHz (4) 1 – 15 MHz
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers Q.200 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen and tears, destroys:
(1) Most virus – infected cells
Q.195 A human male produces sperms with the
genotypes AB, Ab, AB, and ab pertaining to two (2) Certain fungi
diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is (3) Certain types of bacteria
the corresponding genotype of this person ? (4) All viruses
(1) AABB (2)AaBb
(3) AaBB (4) AABb
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 4 2 1 4
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 2 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 4
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 1
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 3 3 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 4 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 4 3
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

V J ML2T −2
1. R= = ≡ = ML2T–3I–2 5. By using v = u + at,
I IC I 2T
v
dv  t 0 = v –µgt ⇒ t =
2. Acceleration = f = f0 1 −  µg
dt  T
T
6. Net work done = work done by gravitational
v t
⇒ ∫ 0
dv = f 0 ∫ 0
1 − dt
 T
force + work done by spring force
1
T = mg(h + d) – Kd 2
 t 2   2  2
⇒ v = f0  t − = f  T − T  = 1 f 0T
 0  2T  2 1 2 1
 2T  0  7. θ = ωt + αt = (2) (2) + (3)(2)2
2 2
Total distance = 4 + 6 = 10 rad
3. Average speed =
Total time
2d 2vd v u r r r r
= = 8. Q | A × B | = 3 (A.B)
d d vd + v u
+
vu vd ∴ AB sinθ = 3AB cos θ
⇒ tanθ = 3 ⇒ θ = 60º
4.
y 9. x = 9t2 – t3 ∴ v = 18t – 3t2
( 3 ,3) dv
⇒ = 18 – 6 t
dt
3 dv d2v
for maximum speed = 0 , and 2 negative
3 3 dt dt
so 18 – 6t = 0 ⇒ t = 3s
θ
x at t = 3s, x = 9(3)2 – (3)3 = 81 – 27 = 54 m
(0, 0) 3
3 10. For given conditions mg = mω2a = ka
tan θ = = 3
3 mg 2 × 10
⇒a= = = 0.1 = 10 cm
⇒ θ = 60º k 200
11. As perpendicular distance from origin is constant 22.
so LA = LB
3
l  ml 2
3g
12. Q τ = Iα ∴ (mg) = α⇒α= .
2  3  2l θC
5
GMm 4
13. K.E. = ⇒ Kinetic energies are unequal θC
2r
2πr 3 / 2
T= ⇒ Time period are equal 1 3 5
GM = sinθC = ⇒ µ =
µ 5 3
GMm
P.E. = – ⇒ Potential energies are unequal c 3 × 108 9
r ⇒v= = = × 108
µ 5/3 5
GM
v= ⇒ Orbital speeds are equal = 1.8 × 108 ms–1
r
σ( 4πr 2 )T 4 σr 2 ( t + 273) 4 23. W = ∆U = Q(VD – VC) here VC = 0
14. Solar constant = =
(4πR 2 ) R2  q q  − Qq
=Q  − − 0 =
T2 1 T  4 π ∈0 (3L ) 4 π ∈0 ( L )  6 π ∈0 L
15. η=1– ⇒ = 1− 2
T1 6 T1
1 (T − 62) 1 T 62 q
and = 1− 2 ⇒ = 1− 2 + 24. φtotal = φcurved + φplane surfaces =
3 T1 3 T1 T1 ∈0
1 1 62 1 62 q 1 q 
⇒ = + = = φ + 2φA = ⇒ φA =  − φ 
3 6 T1 6 T1 ∈0 2  ∈0 
16. E = σT4 ∴ E ∝ (727 + 273)4 ⇒ E ∝ (1000)4

25. Magnitute = p 2 + p 2 = 2 p = 2qa
c c
17. Refractive index µ = = Direction is shown in figure.
v vλ
Direction of
3 × 108 y Resultant dipole
= =3
2 × 10 × 5000 × 10 −10
14
moment
q
18. If v = v0sinωt then a = a0 cosωt (0, a, 0) (a, a,0)
r
π p2
⇒ phase difference = = 0.5π
2 –q q
19. Q K.E. = K0cos2ωt –q r x
p1 (a, 0, 0)
∴ Maximum P.E. = Maximum K.E.
26. Work done
in charging fully both the
= Total energy = K0
1 1C 3
20. Q x = asinωt condensers = CV 2 +  V 2 = CV 2
2 2 2  4
a π
∴ = aisnωt ⇒ ωt = 27.
2 6
 2π  π T 6Ω
⇒  t = ⇒ t = ≡
2Ω
≡
6Ω
 T  6 12 3Ω
r r 4Ω 18V
4Ω 18V 18V
21. In EM waves E and B are in same phase and
perpendicular to each other. V 2 (18) (18)
Total power dissipated = =
R 6
= 54 W
28. m = ZIt = (30 × 10–5) (1.5) (10 × 60) = 0.27 gm 38. Above curie temperature ferromagnetic material
behaves as paramagnetic material.
TC + Ti T 1
29. Q Tn = & TC = 0ºC ∴ Tn = i 39. No. of photoelectrons or intensity ∝
2 2 ( distance ) 2
30. for balanced wheatstone bridge circuit P 2 × 10 −3

40. n= = = 5 × 1015
2 2 hv 6.62 × 10 −34 × 6 × 1014
= ⇒ S + 6 = 3S ⇒ S = 3Ω
2  6S  41. Radius of semicircular path
 
S+6
mv 2mqV
R= =
qB qB
31.
100A 13Ω
As V and B are constant so
mq q 1
650A
Rα ⇒ ∝ 2
R q m R
13 × 100 = 650 × R 42. Q R = R0A1/3
⇒ R = 2Ω 1/ 3 1/ 3
R Te  125   53  5
∴ =  =  3  =
R Al  27  3  3
2πm
32. T= which is independent of both R and v.
qB 5
⇒ RTe =   (3.6) = 6 fm
3
 qv  2
33. Magnetic moment M = IA =  (πR ) N A N 0 e −λ A t e −5λt
 2πR  45. = = −λt
qvR
N B N 0 e −λ B t e
=
2 1 1 1
⇒ = ⇒t=
34. In magnetic field a charged particle moves in a e 4 λt e 2 2λ
circular orbit.
46. Total energy in first excited state
35. Induced emf in primary coil 13.4
=– = – 3.4 eV
4
dφ d
EP = = (φ0 + 4 t ) = 4 volt K.E. in first excited state = – total energy in that
dt dt state = – (–3.4) = 3.4 eV
Induced emf in secondary coil
R 
ES NS E 1500 48. Voltage gain = (β)  0  = 50
= ⇒ S = ⇒ ES = 120 volt  Ri 
EP NP 4 50
(50)(100)
⇒β= = 25
(200)
R   200 
36. Current is maximum at resonance Power gain = (β2)  0  = (25) 2  
 Ri   100 
1 1
⇒ ω2 = ⇒L= 2 = 625 × 2 = 1250
LC ωC
1 49. For given logic circuit
= = 0.1H = 100mH
(1000) (10 × 10 −6 )
2
Y = A + B = A + B ⇒ OR gate
37. The efficiency of transformer 50. For cubic crystal structure

VI 100 a = b = c & α = β = γ = 90º
η = S S × 100 = × 100 ≈ 90%
VP I P 220 × 0.5
AIPMT - 2008
Q.1 A particle of mass m is projected with velocity Q.7 A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a
v making an angle of 45º with the horizontal charge + Q. The electric field at the centre O of
from level ground. When the particle lands on the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of
the level ground the magnitude of the change in the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due
its momentum will be - to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is -
(1) mv 2 (2) zero A
K
(3) 2 mv (4) mv/ 2
C B
Q.2 A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current O
of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the
solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb. The self-inductance of D
the solenoid is - (1) E along KO (2) 3E along OK
(1) 1.0 henry (2) 4.0 henry (3) 3 E along KO (4) E along OK
(3) 2.5 henry (4) 2.0 henry
Q.8 Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio
Q.3 A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities
energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic would be -
→
(1) (3)1/3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
field of induction B . After 3 seconds the (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
kinetic energy of the particle will be -
(1) T (2) 4 T Q.9 If M (A, Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of
(3) 3 T (4) 2 T the nucleus A
, proton and neutron
ZX
respectively in units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV/C2)
Q.4 The distance travelled by a particle starting
and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV,
from rest and moving with an acceleration
then -
4 –2
ms , in the third second is - (1) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
3 (2) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE/C2
10 19 (3) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE/C2
(1) m (2) m
3 3 (4) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE
(3) 6m (4) 4m
Q.10 A particle moves in a straight line with a
Q.5 A particle of mass 1 mg has the same constant acceleration. It changes its velocity
wavelength as an electron moving with a from 10 ms–1 to 20 ms–1 while passing through a
velocity of 3 × 106 ms–1. The velocity of the distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is -
particle is : (1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 1.8
(mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (2) 2.7 × 10–21 ms–1 Q.11 A particle shows distance-time curve as given in
(3) 2.7 × 10–18 ms–1 (4) 9 × 10–2 ms–1 this figure. The maximum instantaneous
velocity of the particle is around the point :
Q.6 Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the
rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the D
Distance
belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s S C

will be -
Mv A B
(1) newton (2) zero
2 t Time
(3) Mv newton (4) 2 Mv newton
(1) D (2) A (3) B (4) C
Q.12 An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. Q.18 Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass
How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water through a region at the same time in the same
from temperature 20ºC ? The temperature of direction. the sum of the maximum and
minimum intensities is -
boiling water is 100ºC.
(1) 12.6 min (2) 4.2 min (1) ( I1 – I 2 )2 (2) 2(I1 + I2)
(3) 6.3 min (4) 8.4 min (3) I1 + I2 (4) ( I1 + I 2 )2
Q.13 In the phenomenon of electric discharge through Q.19 If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat
gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the added, change in internal energy and the work
tube appears as a result of - done by a closed cycle process, then :
(1) collisions between the charged particles (1) E = 0 (2) Q = 0
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of (3) W = 0 (4) Q = W = 0
the gas
(2) collision between different electrons of the Q.20 In the circuit shown, the current through the 4Ω
atoms of the gas resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are
(3) excitation of electrons in the atoms connected to a D.C. voltage source. The
(4) collision between the atoms of the gas potential difference between the points M and N
is -
Q.14 The circuit is equivalent to - 4Ω
NOR NAND NOT
3Ω
P• •M
(1) NOR gate (2) OR gate
(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate •
0.5Ω N 1Ω
Q.15 If the error in the measurement of radius of a
sphere is 2 % then the error in the determination 0.5Ω
of volume of the sphere will be - (1) 0.5 volt (2) 3.2 volt
(1) 8 % (2) 2 % (3) 1.5 volt (4) 1.0 volt
(3) 4 % (4) 6 %
Q.21 On a new scale of temperature (which is linear)
Q.16 A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling
points of water are 39º W and 239º W
midpoint into two halves so that the angle
respectively. What will be the temperature on
between them is 90º. The moment of inertia of
the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of
the bent rod about an axis passing through the
39ºC on the Celsius scale ?
bending point and perpendicular to the plane
(1) 200ºW (2) 139ºW
defined by the two halves of the rod is - (3) 78ºW (4) 117ºW
ML2 2 ML2
(1) (2)
6 24 Q.22 The wave described by y = 0.25 sin (10 πx –
ML2
ML2 2πf), where x and y are in metres and t in
(3) (4) seconds, is a wave travelling along the -
24 12
(1) + ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and
Q.17 A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a wavelength λ = 0.2 m
(2) –ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and
band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of
wavelength λ = 0.2 m
the radiation that can be absorbed by the
(3) – ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
material is nearly :
(4) + ve x direction with frequency π Hz and
(1) 1 × 1014 Hz (2) 20 × 1014 Hz
14 wavelength λ = 0.2m
(3) 10 × 10 Hz (4) 5 × 1014 Hz
Q.23 The electric potential at a point in free space Q.30 A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing
due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. Sunlight on a piece of paper using an
The electric field at that point is - equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The
(1) 4πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its
(2) 12πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m.
What is the diameter of the Sun’s image on the
(3) 4πε0 Q × 1022 volt/m
paper ?
(4) 12πε0 Q × 1020 volt/m (1) 6.5 × 10–5 m (2) 12.4 × 10–4 m
–4
(3) 9.2 × 10 m (4) 6.5 × 10–4 m
Q.24 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a
medium of permittivity ε0 and permeability µ0 is Q.31 A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed
given by : in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
1 µ0 forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2
(1) (2) and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the
µ 0ε0 ε0 paper and along the directions shown, the force
ε0 on the segment QP is :
(3) (4) µ0ε0 Q
µ0
P
Q.25 Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and
15 m from the source of oscillation. The period F1 F3
of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the
wave is 300 m/s. What is the phase difference
between the oscillations of two points ? S R
(1) π (2) π/6 (3) π/3 (4) 2π/3
F2
Q.26 Two simple Harmonic Motions of angular (1) (F3 − F1 ) − F22 (2) F3 – F1 – F2
2
frequency 100 and 1000 rad s–1 have the same

(3) F3 – F1 – F2 (4) (F3 − F1 ) 2 + F22
displacement amplitude. The ratio of their
maximum accelerations is - Q.32 A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly
(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104 by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific
(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102 resistance become respectively -
(1) both remain the same
Q.27 If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure (2) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
is 3.6 Å, then the atomic radius in fcc crystal is - (3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(1) 2.92 Å (2) 1. 27 Å (4) 1.21 times, same
(3) 1.81 Å (4) 2.10 Å
Q.33 Curie temperature is the temperature above
Q.28 Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of which -
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to (1) paramagnetic material becomes
frictional forces are 10 % of energy. How much ferromagnetic material
power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 (2) ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
material
m/s2)
(3) ferromagnetic material becomes
(1) 12.3 kW (2) 7.0 kW
paramagnetic material
(3) 8.1 kW (4) 10.2 kW (4) paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
material
Q.29 The energy required to charge a parallel plate
condenser of plate separation d and plate area of Q.34 Which two of the following five physical
cross-section A such that the uniform electric parameters have the same dimensions ?
field between the plates is E, is : (a) Energy density (b) Refractive index
1 (c) Dielectric constant (d) Young’s modulus
(1) ε0E2 Ad (2) ε0E2 Ad
2 (e) Magnetic field
1 (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (e)
(3) ε0 E2/Ad (4) ε0E2/Ad (3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (e)
2
Q.35 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 3

–13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first (1) N (2) 3N
4
excited state, its excitation energy is -
(3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 N
(1) 10.2 eV (2) zero
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
Q.41 A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2Ω
Q.36 The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9 % resistor shown in the circuit. The power
negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain dissipated in the 5Ω resistor is -
without feedback will be - 2Ω
(1) 1.25 (2) 100 (3) 90 (4) 10
4Ω
Q.37 A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected
to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of
1Ω 5Ω
2950 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 30
divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In
order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, (1) 1 watt (2) 5 watt
the resistance in series should be - (3) 4 watt (4) 2 watt
(1) 6050 Ω (2) 4450 Ω
(3) 5050 Ω (4) 5550 Ω Q.42 Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have
decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. If
Q.38 A shell of mass 200 g is ejected from a gun of initially they have the same number of nuclei,
mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to
kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is - 1
(1) 40 ms–1 (2) 120 ms–1 that of X2 will be after a time -
–1
e
(3) 100 ms (4) 80 ms–1 1 e 1
(1) (2) (3) λ (4) λ
4λ λ 2
Q.39 In an A.C. circuit the emf (e) and the current (i)
at any instant are given respectively by :
Q.43 The work function of a surface of a
e = E0 sin ωt
photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The
i = I0 sin (ωt – φ) wavelength of the incident radiation for which
The average power in the circuit over one cycle the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the :
of A.C. is - (1) Infrared region (2) X-ray region
E I (3) Ultraviolet region (4) Visible region
(1) 0 0 cos φ (2)E0I0
2
E I E I Q.44 A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of
(3) 0 0 (4) 0 0 sin φ
2 2 period T and the equation of motion is given by
x = a sin (ωt + π/6). After the elapse of what
Q.40 Three forces acting on a body are shown in the fraction of the time period the velocity of the
figure. To have the resultant force only along point will be equal to half of its maximum
the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum velocity ?
additional force needed is - (1) T/3 (2) T/12
y (3) T/8 (4) T/6
1N
4N Q.45 Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in
contact and coaxial. The power of the
30º combination is -
f + f2 f + f2
60º (1) 1 (2) 1
x 2 f1f 2
f1 f2
(3) (4)
2N f2 f1
Q.46 At 10ºC the value of the density of a fixed mass Q.52 If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At indicates that :
110ºC this ratio is - (1) kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
10 283 (2) number of the molecules of gas increases
(1) x (2) x
110 383 (3) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
383 (4) pressure of the gas increases
(3) x (4) x
283
Q.53 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can
Q.47 A roller coaster is designed such that riders be represented as :
experience "weightlessness" as they go round 2AB2 (g) 2AB(g) + B2(g)
the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small
20m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is compared to 1. The expression relating the
between - degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium
(1) 16 m/s and 17 m/s (2) 13 m/s and 14 m/s constant Kp and total pressure P is -
(3) 14 m/s and 15 m/s (4) 15 m/s and 16 m/s (1) (2Kp/P)1/2 (2) (Kp/P)
(3) (2Kp/P) (4) (2Kp/P)1/3
Q.48 A circular disc of radius 0.2 metre is placed in a
1  Wb  Q.54 The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid
uniform magnetic field of induction   solution is represented by this equation.
π  m2 
in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60º CH3COCH3(aq.) + Br2(aq.) →
→ CH3COCH2Br(aq.) + H+ (aq.) + Br– (aq.)
with B . The magnetic flux linked with the disc These kinetic data were obtained from given
is - reaction concentrations.
(1) 0.08 Wb (2) 0.01 Wb Initial concentrations, (M)
(3) 0.02 Wb (4) 0.06 Wb [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
0.30 0.05 0.05
Q.49 The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular 0.30 0.10 0.05
disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass 0.30 0.10 0.10
and radius around their respective axes is - 0.40 0.05 0.20
(1) 2 :1 (2) 2 : 3 Initial rate, disappearance of Br2, Ms–1
5.7 × 10–5
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
5.7 × 10–5
1.2 × 10–4
Q.50 A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 3.1 × 10–4
cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and Based on these data, the rate equation is :
without being short circuited through a (1) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
resistance of 10 Ω. Its internal resistance is - (2) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
(1) 2.0 ohm (2) zero (3) Rate = k[CH3COCH3] [H+]
(3) 1.0 ohm (4) 0.5 ohm (4) Rate = k[CH = COCH3] [Br2]
Q.51 Which one of the following arrangements does Q.55 If the concentration of OH– ions in the reaction,
not give the correct picture of the trends Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+ (aq.) + 3OH– (aq.)
indicated against it ? 1
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Bond dissociation energy is decreased by times, then equilibrium
4
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Electronegativity concentration of Fe3+ will increase by -
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Oxidizing power (1) 64 times (2) 4 times
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Electron gain enthalpy (3) 8 times (4) 16 times
Q.56 What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at Q.63 If uncertainty in position and momentum are
0ºC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely one equal, then uncertainty in velocity is -
litre, of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the (1) 1/m (h / π) (2) ( h / π)
same conditions ?
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L (3) 1/2m (h / π) (4) (h / 2π)
(3) 7 L (4) 6 L
Q.64 How many stereoisomers does this molecule
Q.57 Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 have ?
and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
ion concentration in the mixture ? (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 3.7 × 10–3 M (2) 1.11 × 10–3 M
–4 Q.65 On the basis of the following Eº values, the
(3) 1.11 × 10 M (4) 3.7 × 10–4 M
strongest oxidizing agent is :
[Fe(CN)6]4– → [Fe(CN)6]3– + e–1, Eº = – 0.35 V
Q.58 The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–1, Eº = – 0.77 V
towards nucleophilic substitution are in the
(1) Fe3+ (2) [Fe(CN)6]3–
order of - (3) [Fe(CN)6] 4–
(4) Fe2+
(1) acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
(2) acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide Q.66 The correct order of decreasing second
(3) acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide ionization enthalpy of Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24
(4) ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride and Mn = 25 is -
(1) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
Q.59 In DNA, the complementary bases are - (2) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(1) adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine (3) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(2) uracil and adenine, cytosine and guanine (4) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(3) adenine and thymine, guanine and cytosine
Q.67 Which one of the following is most reactive
(4) adenine and thymine, guanine and uracil
towards electrophilic attack ?
Cl
Q.60 Base strength of - OH
Θ Θ
(i) H3 C CH 2 (ii) H2C = C H and (1) (2)
Θ
(iii) H–C ≡ C CH2OH NO2
is in the order of - (3) (4)
(1) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (2) (i) > (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
Q.68 Four diatomic species are listed below in
Q.61 Equimolar solutions of the following were different sequences. Which of these presents the
correct order of their increasing bond order ?
prepared in water separately. Which one of the
solutions will record the highest pH ? (1) C 22− < He +2 < NO < O −2
(1) MgCl2 (2) CaCl2 (2) He +2 < O −2 < NO < C 22−
(3) SrCl2 (4) BaCl2 (3) O −2 < NO < C 22− < He +2
Q.62 The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous (4) NO < C 22− < O −2 < He +2
solutions is -
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+ Q.69 How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be
formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
and 3.2 g of HCl ?
(3) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(1) 0.011 (2) 0.029
(4) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ (3) 0.044 (4) 0.333
Q.70 The stability of carbanions in the following : Q.75 Which one of the following statements is not
Θ
Θ
•• true ?
(i) R–C ≡ C (ii) (1) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and
styrene
Θ Θ
(iii) R2C= C H (iv) R3C– C H 2 (2) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of isoprene
is in the order of : (3) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur
(1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) bridges between different chains make
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) rubber harder and stronger
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (4) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
every double bond
Q.71 Acetophenone when reacted with a base,

Q.76 In a reaction of aniline a coloured product (C)
C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has
was obtained.
the structure : NH2
CH3 CH3 NaNO2
(B)
HCl
C C (A)
(1) CH3
OH OH N
CH3
(C)
CH CH Cold
(2) The structure of (C) would be -
OH OH CH3
C CH C NH NH N
(3) (1) CH3
CH3 O
CH3
(4) CH CH2C N N N
(2) CH3
CH3 O
N N CH2 N
Q.72 Volume occupied by one molecule of water (3)
CH3
(density = 1g cm–3) is :
CH3 CH3
(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3 (2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
–23 3
(3) 9.0 × 10 cm (4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3 (4) N N
Q.73 Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl

are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol–1 respectively. Q.77 For the gas phase reaction,
Enthalpy of formation of HCl is - PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(1) –93 kJ mol–1 (2) 245 kJ mol–1 Which of the following conditions are correct ?
–1 (1) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
(3) 93 kJ mol (4) –245 kJ mol–1
(2) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
(3) ∆H = 0 and ∆S < 0
Q.74 Which of the following complexes exhibits the
(4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(1) [Co(OX)2 (OH)2]– Q.78 The measurement of the electron position is
(2) [Ti (NH3)6]3+ associated with an uncertainty in momentum,
(3) [V(gly)2 (OH)2(NH3)2]+ which is equal to 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The
(4) [Fe (en) (bpy) (NH3)2]2+ uncertainty in electron velocity is :
Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and (Mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28 g)
(1) 1 × 105 cm s–1 (2) 1 × 1011 cm s–1
bpy = bipyridyl moities 9 –1
(3) 1 × 10 cm s (4) 1 × 106 cm s–1
(Atomic number Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
Q.79 The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) Q.85 Green chemistry means such reactions which -
consists of - (1) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(1) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(2) study the reactions in plants
(2) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(3) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds (3) produce colour during reactions
(4) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds (4) reduce the use and production of hazardous
chemicals
Q.80 Percentage of free space in a body centered
cubic unit cell is -
Q.86 Which of the following statements is not
(1) 34 % (2) 28 %
(3) 30 % (4) 32 % correct ?
(1) The number of carbon atoms in an unit cell
Q.81 The value of equilibrium constant of the of diamond is 4
reaction,
(2) The number of Bravais lattices in which a
HI(g) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2I2 (g) is 8.0.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction, crystal can be categorized is 14
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) will be - (3) The fraction of the total volume occupied by
(1) 16 (2) 1/8 the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48
(3) 1/16 (4) 1/64
(4) Molecular solids are generally volatile
Q.82 The value of K p1 and K p2 for the reactions

Q.87 In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
X Y+Z ....(1) and
A 2B ....(2) R–Br+Cl– DMF
→ R–Cl+Br–
are in ratio of 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of Which one of the following has the highest
X and A be equal, then total pressure at
relative rate ?
equilibrium (1) and (2) are in the ratio :
(1) 36 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 CH 3
|
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 9 (1) CH3– C – CH 2 Br (2) CH3CH2Br
|
Q.83 Which one of the following is an amine CH 3
hormone ? (3) CH3–CH2–CH2Br (4) CH3 – CH–CH2Br
(1) Insulin (2) Progesterone |
(3) Thyroxine (4) Oxypurin CH3
Q.88 The correct order of increasing bond angles in
Q.84 Kohlrausch's Law states that at : the following triatomic species is :
(1) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to conductance of an (1) NO +2 < NO 2 < NO −2
electrolyte whatever be the nature of the
(2) NO 2+ < NO 2− < NO 2
other ion of the electrolyte
(2) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite (3) NO 2− < NO 2+ < NO 2
contribution to equivalent conductance of
an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the (4) NO 2− < NO 2 < NO +2
other ion of the electrolyte
(3) finite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to equivalent conductance of Q.89 With which one of the following elements
an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of
other ion of electrolyte semiconductor?
(4) infinite dilution each ion makes definite
(1) Selenium (2) Boron
contribution to equivalent conductance of
an electrolyte depending on the nature of (3) Germanium (4) Arsenic
the other ion of electrolyte
Q.90 H3C—CH—CH=CH2+HBr (X) Q.96 Number of moles of MnO −4 required to oxidize

CH3 one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
Here (X) (predominantly) is : medium will be :
(1) CH3—CH—CH—CH3 (1) 7.5 mole (2) 0.2 mole
Br CH3 (3) 0.6 mole (4) 0.4 mole
(2) CH3—CH—CH—CH3
Q.97 The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different
CH3 Br
reactions are 1016.e–2000/T and 10.15.e–1000/T,
(3) CH3—CH—CH2—CH2 Br
respectively, the temperature at which k1=k2,, is:
CH3 (1) 2000K (2) 1000/2.303 K
Br (3) 1000 K (4) 2000/2.303 K
(4) CH3—C—CH2CH3
Q.98 A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen from:
CH3 (1) ketone (2) alkane
(3) alkene (4) amine
Q.91 An organic compound contains carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis Q.99 Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol)
gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical
formula of the compound would be : at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for H2O(l),
(1) CHO (2) CH4O CO2(g) and pentane(g) respectively The value
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O of Eοcell for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is:
(1) 1.0968 V (2) 0.0968 V
Q.92 In which of the following co-ordination entities
the magnitude of ∆O (CFSE in octahedral field) (3) 1.968 V (4) 2.0968 V
will be maximum?
(1) [Co(CN )6 ]3− [
(2) Co(C 2 O 4 )3 ]3− Q.100 If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic
(3) [Co(H 2 O )6 ]3+ (4) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]

3+ systems : simple cubic, body centered cubic and
face centered cubic, then the ratio of radii of the
(Atomic number of Co=27)
spheres in these systems will be respectively.
Q.93 The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the l 3 2
direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The (1) a: a: a (2) la : 3a : 2a
2 2 2
thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in
which of the following orders? l 3 l l l
(3) a: a: a (4) a : 3a : a
(1) NaH>LiH>KH>RbH>CsH 2 4 2 2 2 2
(2) LiH>NaH>KH>RbH>CsH
(3) CsH>RbH>KH>NaH>LiH
(4) KH>NaH>LiH>CsH>RbH Q.101 A competitive inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase is :
Q.94 Which of the following are not state functions?
(1) α-ketoglutarate (2) malate
(I) q+w (II) q
(III) w (IV) H-TS (3) malonate (4) oxaloacetate
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (IV) (4) (II), (III) and (IV) Q.102 Senescence as an active developmental cellular
process in the growth and functioning of a
Q.95 In the hydrocarbon,
6 5 4 3 2 1 flowering plant, is indicated in:
CH3—CH=CH—CH2—C≡CH (1) Annual plants
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 (2) Floral parts
are in the following sequence :
(1) sp,sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, sp2, sp (3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation
(3) sp2, sp,sp3 (4) sp, sp3, sp2 (4) Leaf abscission
Q.103 Which one of the following statements is Q.109 The length of different internodes in a culm of
incorrect about menstruation? sugarcane is variable because of:
(1) At menopause in the female, there is (1) size of leaf lamina at the node below each
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic internode
hormones (2) intercalary meristem
(2) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation
(3) shoot apical meristem
is called menarche
(4) position of axillary buds
(3) During normal menstruation about 40 ml
blood is lost
(4) The menstrual fluid can easily clot Q.110 Which one of the following is not observed in
biodiversity hotspots ?
Q.104 Which one of the following conditions in (1) Lesser inter-specific competition
humans is correctly matched with its (2) Species richness
chromosomal abnormality/linkage? (3) Endenism
(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis (4) Accelerated species loss
— X-linked
(2) Down syndrome — 44 autosomes + XO Q.111 Which one of the following is the correct
(3) Klinfelter's syndrome percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
— 44 autosomes + XXY
greenhouse gases that contribute to the total
(4) Colour-blindness — Y-linked
global warming ?
(1) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
Q.105 In leaves of C-4 plants malic acid synthesis
during CO2 fixation occurs in: (2) Methane 20%, N2O 18%
(1) bundle sheath (2) guard cells (3) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(3) epidermal cells (4) mesophyll cells (4) CO2 40%, CFCs 30%
Q.106 What is true about the isolated small tribal Q.112 The two subunits of ribosome remain united at a
populations? critical ion level of :
(1) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles (1) magnesium (2) calcium
in their life time pass their character on to (3) copper (4) manganese
their progeny
(2) There is no change in population size as they
Q.113 Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
have a large gene pool
modes of action (1-4) in achieving
(3) There is a decline in population as boys
contraception. Select their correct matching
marry girls only from their own tribe
(4) Hereditary disease like colour-blindness do from the four options that follow:
not spread in the isolated population Method Mode of Action
(1) The pill (a) Prevents sperms
Q.107 The Replum is present in the ovary of flower of: reaching cervix
(1) sunflower (2) pea (2) Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(3) lemon (4) mustard (3) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovaulation
(4) Copper-T (d) Semen contains no sperms
Q.108 Unisexuality of flowers prevents: Answer codes :
(1) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy (1) 1 = (c), 2 = (d), 3 = (a), 4 = (b)
(2) autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) 1 = (b), 2 = (c), 3 = (a), 4 = (d)
(3) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(3) 1 = (c), 2 = (a), 3 = (d), 4 = (b)
(4) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(4) 1 = (d), 2 = (a), 3 = (b), 4 = (c)
Q.114 The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of Q.119 World Summit on Sustainable Development
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that (2002) was held in:
Adenosine Tri-Phosphate (ATP) is formed (1) Argentina (2) South Africa
because: (3) Brazil (4) Sweden
(1) A proton gradient forms across the inner
membrane Q.120 Darwin's Finches are an excellent examples of:
(2) There is a change in the permeability of the (1) brood parasitism (2) connecting links
inner mitochondrial membrane toward (3) adaptive radiation (4) seasonal migration
Adenosine Di-Phosphate (ADP)
(3) High energy bonds are formed in Q.121 Polysome is formed by:
mitochondrial proteins (1) a ribosome with several subunits
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the (2) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
intermembrane space arrangement
(3) several ribosomes attached to a single
Q.115 The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with mRNA
the plasmid vector became possible with:
(4) many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Exonucleases
endoplasmic reticulum
(3) DNA ligase (4) Endonucleases
Q.122 Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
Q.116 The rupture and fractionation do not usually
bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids
the category mentioned against it?
during the ascent of sap because of :
(1) Guanine, Adenine — Purines
(1) weak gravitational pull
(2) Adenine, Thymine — Purines
(2) transpiration pull
(3) Thymine, Uracil — Pyrimidines
(3) lignified thick walls
(4) Uracil, Cytosine — Pyrimidines
(4) cohesion and adhesion
Q.117 Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita Q.123 The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior
are examples of: ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in :
(1) vestigial organs (1) guava (2) cucumber
(2) retrogressive evolution (3) pomegranate (4) orange
(3) analogous organs
(4) homologous organs Q.124 Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo
in the seed of:
Q.118 Consider the following four measures (1-4) that (1) pea (2) maize
could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in (3) coconut (4) castor
an area where bacterial blight disease is
common: Q.125 In the DNA molecule:
(i) Spray with Bordeaux mixture (1) the proportion of adenine in relation to
(ii) Control of the insect vector of the disease thymine varies with the organism
pathogen (2) there are two strands which run antiparallel
(iii) Use of only disease-free seeds one in 5' → 3' direction and other in 3' → 5'
(iv) Use of varieties resistant to the disease (3) the total amount of purine nucleotides and
Which two of the above measures can control pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
the disease? (4) there are two strands which run parallel in
(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iv) the 5' → 3' direction
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
Q.126 Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of Q.131 Which one of the following pairs of codons is
a single loop of human cochlea: correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular amino acid?
A (1) AUG, ACG — Start/Methionine
B
(2) UUA, UCA — Leucine
C (3) GUU, GCU — Alanine
A D (4) UAG, UGA — Stop
Which one of the following options correctly Q.132 Select one of the following pairs of important
represents the names of three different parts? features distinguishing Gnetum form Cycas and
(1) D:Sensory hair cells, A:Endolymph, Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms:
B:Tectorial membrane
(1) perianth and two integuments
(2) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane,
(2) embryo development and apical meristem
C: Endolymph
(3) absensce of resin duct and leaf venation
(3) B:Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph,
D:Secretory cells (4) presence of vessel elements and absence of
(4) C:Endolymph, D:Sensory hair cells, archegonia
A:Serum
Q.133 Earthworms have no skeleton but during
Q.127 Which type of white blood cells are concerned burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and
with the release of histamine and the natural acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to:
anti-coagulant heparin? (1) gut peristalsis (2) setae
(3) coelomic fluid (4) blood
(1) Eosinophils (2) Monocytes
(3) Neutrophils (4) Basophils
Q.134 Which one of the following is the true
description about an animal concerned?
Q.128 Thermococcus, Methanococcus and (1) Rat — Left kidney is slightly
Methanobacterium exemplify: higher in position than
(1) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively the right one
supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as (2) Cockroach — 10 pairs of spiracles
well as mitochondria (2 pairs on thorax and
(2) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and 8 pairs on abdomen)
ribosomes (3) Earthworm — The alimentary canal
(3) archaebacteria that contain protein consists of a sequence
of pharynx, oesophagus,
homologous to eukaryotic core histones
stomach, gizzard and
(4) archaebacteria that lack any histones
intestine
resembling those found in eukaryotes but (4) Frog — Body divisible into
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled. three regions-head, neck
and trunk
Q.129 Which one of the following is being tried in
India as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels? Q.135 Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
(1) Musa (2) Aegilops prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
(3) Jatropa (4) Azadirachta uterus?
(1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion
(3) Chorion (4) Allantois
Q.130 Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary is: Q.136 About 70% of total global carbon is found in:
(1) berry (2) cremocarp (1) Oceans (2) Forests
(3) caryopsis (4) cypsela (3) Grasslands (4) Agroecosystems
Q.137 Human insulin is being commercially produced Q.144 Consider the following four statements (1-4) about
from a transgenic species of: certain desert animals such as kangaroo-rat.
(1) Rhizobium (2) Saccharomyces (i) They have dark colour and high rate of
(3) Escherichia (4) Mycobacterium reproduction and excrete solid urine
(ii) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow
Q.138 Vacuole in a plant cell: rate to conserve water and have their body
(1) lacks membrane and contains air covered with thick hairs
(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and (iii) They feed on dry seeds and do not required
excretory substances drinking water
(iv) They excrete very concentrated urine and do
(3) is membrane-bound and contains storage
not use water to regulate body temperature
proteins and lipids
Out of these four, which two are correct-
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and
(1) (iii) and (i) (2) (i) and (ii)
excretory substances
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
Q.139 Quercus species are the dominant component in: Q.145 Which one of the following is NOT a
(1) Scrub forests characteristic of phylum Annelida?
(2) Tropical rain forests
(1) Pseudocoelom
(3) Temperate deciduous forests
(2) Ventral nerve cord
(4) Alpine forests
(3) Closed circulatory system
(4) Segmentation
Q.140 Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
from:
Q.146 In human adult females oxytocin:
(1) periblem (2) dermatogen (1) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(3) phellogen (4) plerome (2) causes strong uterine contractions during
parturition
Q.141 Gel electrophoresis is used for: (3) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining (4) stimulates growth of mammary glands
with cloning vectors
(2) isolation of DNA molecule Q.147 The most active phagocytic white blood cells
(3) cutting of DNA into fragments are:
(4) separation of DNA fragments according to (1) eosinophils and lymphocytes
their size (2) neutrophils and monocytes
(3) neutrophils and eosinophils
Q.142 Which one of the following pairs of organs (4) lymphocytes and macrophages
includes only the endocrine glands?
(1) Thymus and testes Q.148 In which one of the following, male and female
gametophytes do not have free-living
(2) Adrenal and ovary
independent existence?
(3) Parathyroid and adrenal (1) Polytrichum (2) Cedrus
(4) Pancreas and parathyroid (3) Pteris (4) Funaria
Q.143 Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies Q.149 What is vital capacity of our lungs?
than the diploids. This is because: (1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
(1) haploids are more abundant in nature than reserve volume
diploids (2) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(2) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive (3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
are expressed in haploids
(4) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve
(3) haploids are reproductively more stable than
diploids volume
(4) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
Q.150 Which one of the following is hetero-sporous?
effectively than in diploids
(1) Adiantum (2) Equisetum
(3) Dryoptris (4) Salvinia
Q.151 The blood calcium level is lowered by the Q.156 In the light of recent classification of living
deficiency of: organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
(1) both calcitonin and parathormone archaea and eukarya), which one of the
(2) calcitonin following statements is true about archaea?
(3) parathormone (1) Archaea completely differ from both
(4) thyroxine
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q.152 The C4 plants are photosynthetically more (2) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
efficient than C3 plants because: (3) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(1) the CO2 efflux is not prevented (4) Archaea have some novel features that are
(2) they have more chloroplasts absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(3) the CO2 compensation point is more
(4) CO2 generated during photorespiration is Q.157 Which one of the following proved effective for
trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase biological control of nematodal disese in plants?
Q.153 Which one of the following phyla is correctly (1) Gliocladium virens
matched with its two general characteristic? (2) Paecilomyces lilacinus
(1) Echinoderamata — Pentamerous radial (3) Pisolithus tinctorius
symmetry and
mostly internal (4) Pseudomonas cepacia
fertilization
(2) Mollusca — Normally oviparous and Q.158 A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of
development through fishes within a few days. Consider the following
a trochophore or reasons for this?
veliger larva
(i) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were
(3) Arthropoda — Body divided into head,
thorax and abdomen used in the crops in the vicinity
and respiration by (ii) the area was sprayed with DDT by an
tracheae aircraft
(4) Chordata — Notochord at some (iii) The lake water turned green and stinky
stage and separate (iv) Phytoplankton populations in the lake
anal and urinary declined initially thereby greatly reducing
openings to the photosynthesis
outside Which two of the above were the main causes
of fish mortality in the lake?
Q.154 In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded (1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii)
exclusively in the: (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv)
(1) peroxisomes (2) mitochondria
(3) proplastids (4) glyoxysomes
Q.159 The table below gives the populations
Q.155 Which one of the following is the correct (in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas
difference between Rod cells and Cone cells of (a-d) consisting of the number of habitats given
our retina? within brackets against each. Study the table
Rod cells Cone cells and answer the question which follows:
(1) Overall function Vision in Colour Area and Species, and their populations (in thousands) in the
poor light vision and Number areas
detailed of
A B C D E F G H I J
vision in Habitats
bright light a (11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6.0 - 3.1 1.1 9.0 - 10.3
b (11) 10.2 - 0.62 - 1.5 3.0 - 8.2 1.1 11.2
(2) Distribution More Evenly
c (13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
concent- distributed d (12) 3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11.3 2.1
rated in all over
centre of retina Which area out of a to d shows maximum
retina
species diversity?
(3) Visual acuity High Low
(4) Visual pigment lodopsin Rhodopsin (1) d (2) a
contained (3) b (4) c
Q.160 During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the Q.165 Which one of the following is incorrect about
action potential results from the movement of: the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
(1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic
extracellular fluid origin of life?
(2) Na+ ions from extracelluar fluid to (1) They were partially isolated from the surru-
intracellular fluid ounding
(3) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to (2) They could maintain an internal environ-
intracellular fluid ment
(4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to (3) They were able to reproduce
extracellular fluid (4) They could separate combinations of mole-
cules from the surroundings
Q.161 Consider the following statements concerning
food chains: Q.166 In humans, blood passes from the post caval to
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:
in greatly increased growth of vegetation (1) stimulation of the sino auricular node
(ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted (2) pressure difference between the post caval
in an increased population of deers and atrium
(iii) The length of food chains is generally (3) pushing open of the venous valves
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy (4) suction pull
loss
(iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2 Q.167 Which one of the following is resistant to
to 8 trophic levels enzyme action?
(1) (i), (iv) (2) (i), (ii) (1) Pollen exine (2) Leaf cuticle
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv) (3) Cork (4) Wood fibre
Q.162 Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations Q.168 According to Central Pollution Control Board
of: (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in
(1) thermoacidophiles (2) thermophiles micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible
(3) acidophiles (4) alkaliphiles for greatest harm to human health?
(1) 1.0 or less (2) 5.2-2.5
Q.163 What is antisense technology? (3) 2.5 or less (4) 1.5 or less
(1) When a piece of RNA that is complementary
in sequence is used to stop expression of a Q.169 Cellulose is the major component of cell walls
specific gene of :
(2) RNA polymerase producing DNA (1) Pseudomonas (2) Saccharomyces
(3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for (3) Pythium (4) Xanthomonas
synthesis of antigens
(4) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue Q.170 What does the filiform apparatus do at the
cultures entrance into ovule?
(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
Q.164 Cornea transplant in humans is almost never (2) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
rejected. This is because: (3) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
(1) It is composed of enucleated cells synergid
(2) It is a non-living layer (4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen
(3) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria tube into the embryo sac
(4) It has no blood supply
Q.171 Match the disease in Column I with the Q.176 Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/ species of:
treatment) in Column II. (1) Alternaria (2) Erwinia
Column I Column II (3) Xanthomonas (4) Pseudomonas
(A) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema
pallidium
Q.177 Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
(B) Diphtheria (ii) Use only
microorganism for:
sterilized food
and water (1) gene transfer in higher plants
(C) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine (2) biological control of soil-borne plant
(D) Syphilis (iv) Use oval rehydration pathogens
therapy (3) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv) (4) reclamation of wastelands
(2) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(3) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv) Q.178 Which one of the following pairs of items
(4) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii) correctly belongs to the category of organs
mentioned against it?
Q.172 Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in
(1) Nephridia of earthworm — Excretory
plant storage organs. Which of the following
five (1-5) properties of starch make it useful as and malpighian tubules organs
a storage material? of cockroach
(1) Easily translocated (2) Wings of honeybee — Homologous
(2) Chemically non-reactive and wings of crow organs
(3) Easily digested by animals (3) Thorn of Bougainvillea — Analogous
(4) Osmotically inactive and tendrils of Cucurbita organs
(5) Synthesized during photosynthesis (4) Nictitating membrane — Vestigial
(1) (1), (3) and (5) (2) (1) and (5) and blind spot in organs
(3) (2) and (3) (4) (2) and (4) human eye
Q.173 The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in
Q.179 To which type of barriers under innate
nature is due to their:
(1) anaerobic environment around them immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the
(2) low cellulose content tears from the eyes, belong?
(3) low moisture content (1) Physiological barriers
(4) poor nitrogen content (2) physical barriers
(3) Cytokine barriers
Q.174 Cry1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus (4) Cellular barriers
thuringiensis are effective against:
(1) Nematodes (2) Boll worms Q.180 Which one of the following groups of three
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Flies
animals each is correctly matched with their one
Q.175 Consider the statements given below regarding characteristic morphological feature?
contraception and answer as directed thereafter: Animals Morphological feature
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) (1) Scorpion, Spider, — Ventral solid
during first trimester is generally safe Cockroach central nervous system
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil (2) Cockroach, — Metameric
until mother breast-feeds the infant upto
Locust, segmentation
two years
Taenia
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
effective contraceptives (3) Liver fluke, — Bilateral symmetry
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one Sea anemone,
week after coitus to prevent conception Sea cucumber
Which two of the above statement are correct? (4) Centipede, Prawn, — Jointed appendages
(1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii) Sea urchin
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv)
Q.181 A transgenic food crop which may help in Q.186 The energy-releasing process in which the
solving the problem of night-blindness in substrate is oxidized without an external
developing countries is: electron acceptor is called:
(1) Bt. Soybean (1) aerobic respiration (2) glycolysis
(2) Golden rice (3) fermentation (4) photorespiration
(3) Flaver Saver tomatoes
(4) Starlink maize Q.187 The haemoglobin of a human foetus:
(1) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
Q.182 Which one of the following is the correct (2) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of
matching of the site of action on the given an adult
substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end (3) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of
product? an adult
(1) Small intestine — Proteins Pep
 sin
→ (4) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of
Amino acids an adult
(2) Stomach — Fats Lipase
→ Micelles
Q.188 Which one of the following pairs of plant
(3) Duodenum — Triglycerides Tryp
 sin
 →
structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
Monoglycerides
(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(4) Small intestine — Starch α−amylase
 → (2) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
Disaccharide (Maltose) (3) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(4) Egg cell and antipodal cells
Q.183 What will happen if the secretion of parietal
cells of gastric glands is blocked with an Q.189 Which one of the following items gives its
inhibitor? correct total number?
(1) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive (1) Types of diabetes —3
pepsinogen is not converted into the active (2) Cervical vertebrae in humans —8
enzyme pepsin (3) Floating ribs in humans —4
(2) Enterokinase will not be released from the (4) Amino acids found in proteins — 16
duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not
converted to trypsin
Q.190 Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
following statements is correct with respect to
the movement of lipids and proteins from one
Q.184 Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-
brought about by:
flop movement)?
(1) Frankia (2) Azorhizobium
(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
(3) Bradyrhizobium (4) Clostridium
(2) neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
Q.185 Which one of the following is the correct
(4) While lipids can rarely flip-flop proteins
statement regarding the particular psychotropic
drug specified? cannot
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions Q.191 Which one of the following is linked to the
(2) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular
euphoria fungicide?
(3) Hashish causes after thought perceptions (1) Loose smut of wheat
and hallucinations (2) Black rust of wheat
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system and (3) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
causes hallucinations (4) Downy mildew of grapes
Q.192 Main objective of production/use of herbicide

resistant GM crops is to: Q.196 In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
(1) encourage eco-friendly herbicides division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the:
(2) reduce herbicide accumulation in food
(1) spermatids
articles for health safety (2) spermatogonia
(3) eliminate weeds from the field without the (3) primary spermatocytes
use of manual labour (4) secondary spermatocytes
(4) eliminate weeds from the field without the
Q.197 Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of
use of herbicides photosystem II are accepted first by:
(1) Quinone (2) Ferredoxin
Q.193 Which one of the following in birds, indicates (3) Cytochrome-b (4) Cytochrome-f
their reptilian ancestry?
(1) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in Q.198 Importance of day length in flowering of plants
their digestive tract was first shown in:
(2) Eggs with a calcareous shell (1) Cotton (2) Petunia
(3) Scales on their hind limbs (3) Lemna (4) Tobacco
(4) Four-chambered heart
Q.199 The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses
Q.194 Consider the following statements about a number of:
biomedical technologies, (1) berries (2) mericarps
(i) During open heart surgery blood is (3) achenes (4) samaras
circulated in the heart-lung machine
(ii) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed Q.200 Which one of the following scientist's name is
by angiography correctly matched with the theory put fourth by
(iii) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) him?
shows detailed internal structure as seen in (1) deVries — Natural selection
a section of body. (2) Mendel — Theory of pangenesis
(iv) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of (3) Weismann — Theory of continuity
organs like prostate glands and lungs of germplasm
Which two of the above statements are correct? (4) Pasteur — Inheritance of acquired
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) characters
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
Q.195 Ascaris is characterized by :

(1) presence of true coelom but absence of
metamerism
(2) presence of true coelom and metamerism
(metamerisation)
(3) absence of true coelom but presence of
metamerism
(4) presence of neither true coelom nor
metamerism
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 4 2 1 2
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 2 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 4 2 4 3 2 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 1 3
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 3 4 4 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 3 4 4 1 2 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 2 1 3 4 3 4
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 1 1 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 2 1 1 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 4 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 3 3
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

y 2. Flux linkage = Flux through each turn
1. Only vertical component of velocity
changes during projectile motion so, × number of turns
there is change in momentum in x φ = 500 × 4 × 10 −3 = 2 Wb
vertical direction only. O
since φ = Li
φ 2
⇒ L= = = 1H
i 2
45º ν cos 45°
O ν cos 45°
→ → →
3. F = q ν × B , i.e. magnetic force is
ν sin 45°  
→ perpendicular to both velocity and magnetic
Change in momentum = ∆ P →
∧ ∧ field. A force ⊥ r , to V does no work or no
= ∆Px i + ∆Py j, since ∆Px = 0
→
→ → power delivered by force which is ⊥ r , V
= ∆Py ĵ = Pƒ y – Piy ;
hence no kinetic energy or speed will change.
Piy = mν sin 45°, Pfy = −mν sin 45°
→ →
→ since P = F .V = 0
∆ P = − mν sin 45°,−mν sin 45°
→ → →
→
As F ⊥ r , V ⊥ r , dr .
= −2mν sin 45° = − 2 mν j ∆ P
→ →
or dW = F . dr = 0
= 2mν
−νe sign shows the direction of change in
momentum in −νe y-direction.
th
4. Distance covered in n second, 7. Electric field due to the given charged ring is
1
S n = u + a (2n − 1); zero at centre 'O'. So electric field due to AKB is
2 equal and opposite to electric field due to
1 4
= 0 + × (2 × 3 − 1) ACDB, from the principle of superposition.
2 3 A
1 4 10
= × ×5 = m E
2 3 3
O
C B
5. de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron
moving with velocity ν , E
h
λ=
mν D
h → →
So, λ e = −31 Since E is field strength of O along KO So
9.1 × 10 × 3 × 10 6
electric field strength due to ACDB along
Wavelength of particle of mass 1 mg moving
with velocity ν .
→
OK and it is equal to E.
h
λ p = −3
10 × ν
8. R = R 0 ⋅ A1 3
As given, λ e = λ p
A⋅m
h h So nuclear density =
⇒ = ν
10 −3 × ν 9.1 × 10 −31 × 3 × 10 6
m = mass of each nucleon, A = mass number
3m
27.3 × 10 −25 = = independent of A.
ν= m s = 2.73 × 10 −21 m s 4πR 30
10 −3
dp d(mν ) 9. Mass defect

6. Fext. = = ;
dt dt ∆m = ZM p + (A − Z )M n − M (A, Z )
m = mass of system as conveyor belt with sand 2
drops at time t. Binding energy= ∆mC
Fext. = m
dν
+ν
dm [
BE = ZM p + (A − Z )M n − M(A, Z ) .C 2 ]
dt dt
BE
but ν → constant, so,
dν
=0 M(A, Z) = ZM p + (A − Z)M n −
dt C2
dm
Fext = ν = Mν
dt 10. For constant acceleration
→
Fext. is in direction of ν of belt. ν 2 = u 2 + 2as
OR (20)2 = (10)2 + 2 × a × 135
dν
Since m. = Fext + Freaction ......(i) 300
dt a= ms − 2
270
Consider belt as a system with variable mass
dν As ν = u + at
= 0, m = mass of system at time t 20 = 10 + a × t
dt
dm dm 10 = at
Freaction = ν rec . = −ν ......(ii)
dt dt 300
10 = ×t
dm 270
⇒ Fext. = ν ⋅ = Mν.
dt t = 9 sec
→ →
Fext is in direction of ν to keep belt moving
with constant velocity.
11. In distance-time graph, the speed at instant is M(L 2)2 M(L 2 )2
expressed by slope at that instant. The slope is l= +
3 3
maximum at C.
D ML2 ML2 ML2
= + =
C 12 12 6
S
B 17. Frequency corresponding to 2eV is given by

A
E = hν
t
⇒ 2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = 66 × 10 −34 × ν
12. Heat required to boil water 3.2 × 10 −19
Q = mc∆T ν= = 5 × 1014 Hz
6.6 × 10 −34
= 1 × 1 × (100 – 20) = 80kcal
Heat given by supply
H = V.i.t = 220 × 4 × t 18. I = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos φ
H=Q
⇒ 220 × 4 × t = 80,000 I max = (I 1 + I2 ) 2
=( I )
80,000 2
t= I min − I2
220 × 4 1
1000 I max + I min

= sec
11
1000 = ( I1 + I 2 ) +( 2
I1 − I 2 )
2
=
( I I ) + (I )
= 1.5 min
11 × 60 = I1 + I 2 + 2 1 2 1 + I 2 − 2 I1 I 2
13. In the phenomenon of electric discharge tube = 2(I1 + I 2 )

through gases at low pressure, the coloured
glow in the tube appears as a result of collisions 19. In cyclic process since initial and final states are
between the charged particles emitted from same internal energy is a state function
cathode and the atoms of the gas.
therefore initial and final internal energies are
14. The output is the output of NOR gate hence the also same. So change in internal energy is zero
combination will act as a NOR gate. hence E = 0.
A A+B A+B A+B 20. i1 = 1 amp = current through 4Ω

B i 2 = current through 3Ω and
i1 3 4
4 3 = ⇒ i 2 = amp
15. V= πr i2 4 3
3
∆V  ∆r  4 7
× 100 = 3 ×  × 100  i 3 = i1 + I 2 = 1 +
= amp
V 3 3
 r 
% error in volume = 3×% error in radius i 34 7 12 5
and 3 = ⇒ × = i4 ×
= 3 × 2 = 6% i 4 12 7 3 7 4
4Ω
16.
3Ω
P
L/2 L/2 0.5Ω M
1Ω
0.5Ω
N
Moment of inertia of the system

⇓
When sign of coefficient of t and x are opposite
i3 12/7 Ω dx
it means = V > 0 i.e., wave is propagating
M dt
P
in the direction of growing x.
N
i4 1/4 Ω 1Ω 23. Since
Q Q
16 V= and E = ;
∴ i4 = amp = 3.2 amp 4πε 0 r 4πε 0 r 2
5
Given V = Q × 1011 = Q 4πε0r
VNM = P.D. across N and M = i4 × 1Ω
1
= 3.2 × 1 = 3.2 volt ⇒ r=
Second approach. 4πε 0 × 1011
VPM = 1 A × 4Ω = 4 volt V
i.e., E=
VPN 1 r
= and VPN + VNM = 4 V QV
VNM 4 ⇒ E= = Q × 1011 × 4πε0 × 1011
r
1 = 4πε0Q × 1022 volt m–1
.VNM + VNM = 4
4
16 1
∴ VNM = V = 3.2 V 24. C = = velocity of em wave through
5 µ0 ε0
21. medium having permittivity (ε0) and
0ºC Scale W Scale permeability (µ0).
B.P. 100ºC 239ºW
25. Path difference ∆x = x1 – x2 = 15 – 10 = 5 m
λ = υT = 300 × 0.05 = 15 m
C = 39ºC W 2π 2π 2π
∆φ = . ∆x = ×5=
λ 15 3
F.P. 0ºC 39ºW 26. Maximum acceleration a = – ω2 A

a1 ω2 A (100) 2 1
W is the temperature on new scale = 12 = = 2
a2 ω2 A (1000) 2 10
corresponding to 39ºC on ºC scale.
C−0 W − 39
So, = 27. Lattice parameter
100 − 0 239 − 39 4r
C W − 39 a=
⇒ = 2
100 200
C 2a 2 × 3.6
or W = × 200 + 39 r= =
100 4 4
= 0.9 × 1.41 = 1.27 Å
39
= × 200 + 39 = 78 + 39 = 117
100 28. Energy used per sec–1 to operate turbine
So, temperature on new scale is 117ºW = mgh = 15 × 10 × 60 joule
corresponding to 39ºC. = 9000 joule
Power supplied to turbine = 9000 joule sec–1
22. Given y = 0.25 sin (10πx – 2πt) Power loss due to friction = 900 joule sec–1
Comparing with equation of wave Power generated by turbine
y = A sin (kx – ωt) = (9000 – 900) joule sec–1
A = 0.25, k = 10π, ω = 2π = 8100 joule sec–1 = 8.1 kW
2π Second approach
= 10π 2πƒ = 2π 90 mgh 90
λ Pgenerated = Pinput × = ×
ƒ = 1 Hz 100 t 100
1 15 × 10 × 60 × 90
λ = = 0.2 m = = 8.1 kW
5 100
29. Energy stored in capacitor for field ρl
32. R=
1 A
E = CV2
2 l 11l
Now, l = l + =
1  ε0 A  10 10
=   (E . d)2
2  d 
10A
and therefore, A =
11
1
= ε0AE2d  11l 
2 P×  2
So R′ =  10  = ρl × (11) = 1.21 R
Energy stored in capacitor + Energy loss in the 2
 10A  A (10)
process of charging = Energy given by cell.  
 11 
 A ε0  2
=   V Now resistance becomes 1.21 times of initial
 d  and specific resistance is the intrinsic property
= 2 × Energy stored in capacitor so remains same.
Since energy stored in capacitor = Energy loss
in the process of storing the charge in capacitor. 33. Curie temperature is that temperature above
which a ferromagnet becomes paramagnet.
30.
34. Energy density and Young's modulus have same
dimensions and equal to [ML–1T–2]
Dielectric constant and refractive index are
F dimensionless.
35. Since E0 = – 13.6 eV ; Energy in the excited

11 state
u = 1.5 × 10 m
–13.6
u = ƒ = 10 cm = 0.1 m = = – 3.4 eV
4
υ h ∆E = Excitation energy
= i
u h0 = Energy needed to raise the electron from
0.1 hi ground state to higher level
⇒ = = – 3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV
1.5 × 10 11
1.39 × 10 9
1.39 × 10 8 AV
hi = = 9.2 × 10–4 m 36. Voltage gain = ,
1.5 × 10 11 1 + β .A V
9
where β = = 0.09, voltage gain = 10
31. Total force on the current carrying closed loop 100
should be zero, if placed in uniform magnetic AV
⇒ 10 =
field. 9
1+ .AV
F1 F2 100
10
F3 ⇒ AV = = 100
0.1
Fhorizontal = (F3 – F1)
Fvertical = F2 37. Current through galvanometer
→ → → → 3V
Resultant of F1 , F2 and F3 is F I= = 10–3 A
50Ω + 2950Ω
where F = (F3 − F1 ) 2 + F22 Current for 30 division = 10–3 A
20
Since total force = 0, hence force on QP is equal Current for 20 division = × 10–3
30
→
to F in magnitude but opposite direction. 2 3
= × 10–3 A =
3 50 + R
FQP = ( F3 − F1 ) 2 + F22 ⇒ R = 4450 Ω
–5λt
38. m1υ1 = m2υ2 42. x1 = N0 e
gun shell
x2 = N0 e–λt
200
4 × υ1 = × υ2 x1
1000 = e–5λt + λt
x2
υ2
= 20 ...(1) 1
υ1 = e–4λt
e
1 1
m1 υ12 + m2 υ 22 = 1.05 × 103 1
2 2 e–1 = e–4λt ⇒ t =
1 4λ
2 υ12 + υ 22 = 1.05 ×103 ...(2)
10
By equation (1) and (2) 43. Eincident = W + Kmax ; Kmax = eV0
υ2 = 100 m/s hv = hv0 + eV0 ; stopping potential = V0
hc
39. e = E0 sin ωt = 6.2e + 5e
λ
i = I0 sin (ωt – φ)
Pav. = Erms . Irms . cos φ h×c 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 10 8
λ= −19
=
E I 11.2 × 1.6 × 10 11.2 × 1.6 × 10 −19
= 0 . 0 . cos φ = E0I0 cos φ
2 2 = 1.1 × 10–7 m
Hence the wavelength of ultraviolet region.
40. 4N and 2N are opposite
So net = 4 – 2 = 2N
 π
Now figure becomes 44. x = a sin  ωt + 
2N 1N 4N 1N  6
dx  π
υ= = aω cos  ωt + 
dt  6
30º 30º 30º 30º
υmax = aω
60º 60º
aω  π
= aω cos  ωt + 
2  6
2N π π π
ωt + = ⇒ ωt =
Horizontal component of 2N along –ve 6 3 6
x-direction is x1 = 2 sin 30º = 1 N π π×T T
Horizontal component of 1 N along +ve t= = =
6ω 6 × 2π 12
1
x-direction is x2 = 1 cos 60º = N
2 1 1
1 45. P = P1 + P2 = +
So, net horizontal force is N along –ve ƒ1 ƒ 2
2
1 ƒ1 + ƒ 2
x-direction, hence N is required in +ve P=
2 ƒ 1 .ƒ 2
x-direction
41. Voltage across all three branches are same, i.e., PV 1
46. PV = nRT or = RT
3A 2Ω M M0
P RT ρ 1
4Ω or = ⇒ ∝
ρ M0 P T
1Ω 5Ω ρ1 ρ 2 T x 383
⇒ / = 2 or =
i P1 P2 T1 ρ 2 / P2 283
ρ2 283
or = x
P2 383
3 × 2 = i × (5 + 1)
i = 1A
Power dissipated in 5Ω
P = i2 R
= (1)2 × 5 = 5 watt
mv 2 52. The average translational KE of one molecule

47. mg – N = of an ideal gas is as follows :
r
N KE 3 / 2 RT 3
Kt = = = KT
NA NA 2
When R/NA = Boltzmann constant
i.e., Et ∝ T
Thus, at constant temperature KE of molecules
mg
remains same.
When N = 0, for weightlessness
mv 2 53. 2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g)
= mg
r 2 0 0 initially
2 2(1 – x) 2x x at eq.
⇒ υ = rg = 20 × 10 = 200
υ = 14.14 Total amount of moles at equilibrium
= 2 (1 – x) + 2x + x = 2 + x
48. A = πr2 = 0.04π [ PAB ] 2 [PB2 ]
Kp =
φ = BA cos θ [PAB2 ] 2
1
= × 0.04 π × cos 60º = 0.02 Wb 2
π  2x   x 
 2 + x × P ×  2 + x × P
   
Kp =
49. MK 12 = MR2  2(1 − x ) 
2
K1 = R  2 + x × P
 
MR 2
MK 22 = 4x 3
2 ×P
R Kp = 2 + x 2
K2 = 4(1 − x )
2
4x 3 × P 1
K2 2 1 Kp = × (As 1 – x ~ 1 and 2 + x ~ 2)
= = 2 4
K1 R 2 x = (8Kp/4P)1/3 = (2Kp/P)1/3
E 54. According to the given data, when

50. E ∝ l1 and E – . r ∝ l2
R+r concentration of Br2 is doubled, the initial rate
r+R l of disappearance of Br2 remains unaffected. So
⇒ = 1
R l2 order of reaction with respect to Br2 is zero. The
rate law for the reaction will be :
l 
⇒ r =  1 −1 . R k [CH3COCH3] [H+]
l
 2 
110 − 100 55. Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+ (aq.) + 3OH–(aq.)
= × 10 = 1Ω 3+ − 3
100 [ Fe ] [OH ]
K=
[Fe(OH) 3 ]
51. In case of diatomic molecules (X2) of halogens
K = [Fe3+] [OH–]3
the bond dissociation energy decreases in the (as activity of solid is taken unity)
order : Concentration of OH– ion in the reaction is
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 decreased by 1/4 times then equilibrium
The oxidizing power, electronegativity and concentration of Fe3+ will be increased by
64 times in order to keep the value of K
reactivity decrease in the following order :
constant.
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Electron gain enthalpy fo halogens decreases in
the following order : 56. C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 1 5 3 4 (Volume)
So 1 volume or 1 litre of propane requires 5
The low value of electron gain enthalpy of
volume or 5 litre of O2 to burn completely.
fluorine is due to small size of fluorine atom.
+
57. pH = – log10 [H ] 61. Equimolar solutions of the given chlorides
[H+] = 10–pH when prepared in water forms their respective
[H+] of solution 1 = 10–3 hydroxides. Be(OH)2 is amphoteric, but the
[H+] of solution 2 = 10–4 hydroxides of other alkaline earth metals are
[H+] of solution 3 = 10–5 basic. The basic strength increases down the
Total concentration of [H+] group. Therefore higher the basic character
The volume taken in each case is 1 L higher will be the pH.
= 10–3 (1 + 1 × 10–1 + 1 × 10–2 62. As smaller the size of cation, higher will be
1 1 1  hydration and its effective size will increase so
= 10–3  + + 
 1 10 100  mobility in aqueous solution will decrease.
 111 
= 10–3   = 1.11 × 10
–3
63. According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle
 100  h
Therefore, H+ ion concentration in mixture of ∆p . ∆x ≥
4π
equal volume of these acid solutions
h
1.11 × 10 −3 m∆υ.∆x ≥
= = 3.7 × 10–4 M 4π
3
h
(m.∆υ)2 ≥
58. The relative reactivities of acyl compound 4π
towards nucleophilic substitution will depend 1
upon the nature of leaving group ability. Weak ∆υ ≥ (h / π)
2m
bases are good leaving group.
O 64. Given compound,
|| – CH3CH CHCH2CHBrCH3
:
Cl < R—C—O– < R—O– < NH2

–
may also be written as follows :
Basic strength increases CH3 H H
O C C |
|| H CH2—C*—CH3
|
:
Cl > R—C—O– > R—O– > NH

–
– 2
∴ Br
Leaving group abilities increases Both geometrical isomerism (cis-trans form)
O and optical isomerism is possible in this
O ||
|| R—C compound.
∴ R—C—Cl O Number of optical isomer = 2n = 21 = 2
R—C (Here n = number of asymmetric carbon)
||
O Therefore, total number of stereoisomers
O O =2+2=4
|| ||
R—C—OR R—C—NH2
65. [Fe(CN)6]3– → [Fe(CN)6]4–, Eº = +0.35 V
59. DNA contains two types of nitrogenous bases, Fe3+ → Fe2+ , Eº = +0.77 V
i.e., Higher the positive reduction potential, stronger
is the oxidizing agent. Oxidizing agent oxidizes
Purine → Adenine (A), Guanine (G)
other compounds and gets itself reduced easily.
Pyrimidine → Cytosine (C), Thymine (T)
Adenine pairs with thymine (A : T) by two 66. As ionization enthalpy (both first and second)
hydrogen bonds and Guanine with Cytosine (G : increases from left to right across the period.
C) by three hydrogen bonds. Only chromium is exceptional due to the stable
configuration (3d5) so the correct order is :
60. H—C C—H > CH2 CH2 > CH3—CH3 Cr > Mn > V > Ti
sp sp sp2 sp2 sp3 sp3
(Acidic character)
66. The electron density of 'phenol ring' is most
Conjugate base of the given acid is as follows : among chloro benzene, benzyl alcohol and
CΘC—H < ΘCHCH2 < ΘCH2—CH3 nitrobenzene.
(Basic character) In phenol, due to 'OH' group there will be both
So conjugate base of stronger acid is weaker +M and "–I". But +M-effect of 'OH' dominates
and vice-versa. over its "–I".
23
68. He +2 < O −2 < NO < C 22− 72. Weight of 6.023 × 10 molecules of water = 18 g
Bond order 0.5 1.5 2.5 3.0 As volume occupied by 6.023 × 1023 molecules
of water (density = 1 g cm–3) will be
69. PbO + 2HCl → PbCl2 + H2O 18g
x mole 2x moles x mole
=
1g cm −3
6.5 3. 2
mole mole = 18 cm3 or mL
224 36.5
= 0.029 mole = 0.087 mole So volume occupied by one molecule of water
Thus, 0.029 mole of lead (II) chloride will be 18
= = 2.988 × 10–23
formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO 6.023 × 10 23
and 3.2 g of HCl. = 3.0 × 10–23 cm3
70. More is the electronegativity of hybrid atom,

73. H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
more will be its tendency to retain the (–)ve
charge. ∆Hreaction = Σ(BE)reactant – Σ(BE)product
= [(BE)H—H + (BE)Cl—Cl] – [2(BE)H—Cl]
:
:
:
R—C Cl R—C CH2 = 434 + 242 – (431) × 2

(sp) | (sp )
R = – 186 kJ
R As ∆Hreaction = – 186 kJ
| So enthalpy of formation of HCl
R—C CH3 2
| (sp ) −186 kJ
=
R 2
The electronegativity of hybrid orbitals, = – 93 kJ mol–1
depends on their 's' character. It follows given
order, 74. The oxidation state of Co in [Co(OX)2(OH)2]– is
sp > sp 2 > sp3
←  +5. This is not possible. The oxidation state of
electronegativity increases
Ti in [Ti(NH3)6]3+ is +3. Ti3+ has just one
unpaired electron. O.S. of 'V' in
71. Acetophenone when reacted with base like +
[V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2] is again +3 and it means
C2H5ONa, will undergo aldol condensation
the number of unpaired electrons is 2. Oxidation
reaction with simultaneous loss of H2O
state of Fe in [Fe(en) (bpy) (NH3)2]2+ is +2. So it
molecule.
H O contains 4 unpaired electron. More is the
O
|| | || oxidation number of unpaired electron more
H3C—C H2C—C
| (α) | will be the paramagnetic character.
C2H5ONa 75. Natural rubber is cis-1,3-polyisoprene and has

only cis-configuration at energy double bond.
OH OH
| | N NCl
H3C—C——–CH—C—Ph NH2 NaNO
| ||  2 →
HCl
O 76.
(B)
(A)
–H2O
N(CH3)2 Cold
O
||
H3C—C CH—C—Ph CH3
| N N N
CH3
(C), Butter yellow
p-dimethyl amino azobenzene
77. PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (PB ) 2 [(2α / 1 + α) × P2 ]2
Kp2 = =
∆H = ∆E + ∆nRT PA [1 − α / 1 + α] × P2
Here, ∆n = Change in number of moles of
K p1 P1
product and reactant =
Kp2 4P2
As ∆n = +ve, so ∆H = +ve
∆S = Sproduct – Sreactant P1 36
= = 36 : 1
∆S = +ve P2 1
78. Uncertainty in momentum 83. Thyroxine and adrenaline are amine hormone.
(m∆υ) = 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1 These are water soluble hormones having amino
Uncertainty in velocity groups.
1 × 10 −18
(∆υ) = = 1.1 × 109 cm s–1 84. According to Kohlrausch's law "At infinite
9 × 10 −28
dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to
molar conductance of an electrolyte whatever be
79. The angular shape of ozone molecule consists
the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte"
of 2 sigma and 1 pi-bond.
Λ∞m = λ∞+ + λ∞−
80. For body centered cubic structure, packing λ∞+ and λ∞− are molar ionic condutance at
fraction = 0.68, i.e., 68% of the unit cell is
occupied by atoms and 32% is empty. infinite dilution for cations and anions,
respectively.
81. HI(g) 1/2H2(g) + 1/2I2(g)
1/ 2
85. Green chemistry means such reaction which
[H 2 ] [I 2 ]1/ 2
K= =8 reduce the use and production of hazardous
[ HI] chemicals.
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
2 86. Packing fraction for a cubic unit cell is
[HI]
K′ = = (1/8)2
[H 2 ][ I 2 ] z × 4 / 3πr 3
ƒ=
K′ = 1/64 d3
Here a = edge length, r = radius of cation and
82. X Y+Z ...(1) anion
A 2B ...(2) Efficiency of packing in simple cubic or
X Y+Z primitive cell = π/6 = 0.52
Initially 1 0 0 i.e., 52% of unit cell is occupied by atoms and
At eq. 1–α α α 48% is empty.
Total no. of moles at equilibrium
= 1 – α + 2α = 1 + α 87. As primary is more reactive than secondary and
A 2B tertiary alkyl halides so CH3CH2Br has the
highest relative rate.
Initially, when t = 0 1 0
At eq. 1–α 2α
Total no. of moles at equilibrium 88. NO2 > NO+2 > NO−2
= 1 – α + 2α = 1 + α 132º 130º 115º (Bond angles)
89. If silicon is doped with any of the element of

PY × PZ [(α / 1 + α)P1 ][α / 1 + α) × P1 ]
Kp1 = = group III (B, Al, Ga etc.) of the periodic table,
PX [1 − α / 1 + α] × P1
p-type of semiconductor will be obtained.
90. The reaction occurs as follows : 93. The ionic character of the bonds in hydrides
CH3 increase from LiH to CsH so thermal stability of
| H δ +  Br δ −
CH3—CH—CH CH2   → (A) these hydrides decreases as follows :
3-methyl but-1-ene
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
Mechanism :
CH3
| 94. State functions or state variables depend only on
CH3—C—CH CH2 + H+ the state of the system.
|
H Here 'w' represents work done and 'q' represents
amount of heat so both of these are not state
CH3 functions.
| +
CH3—C—CH—CH3
| 95. In the following hydrocarbon
H
6 5 4 3 2 1
2º carbocation CH3—CH CH—CH2—C CH
(less stable) sp3 sp2 sp2 sp3 sp sp
1,2-hydride shift The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5

CH3 are sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively.
|+
CH3—C—CH2—CH3
3º carbocation 96. [5e + MnO4– + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O ...(i)] × 2
(more stable)
[ C 2 O 24− → 2e + 2CO2 ...(ii)] × 5
+ Br– MnO −4 + 16H+ + 5 C 2 O 24− → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2
CH3
| As 2 moles of MnO −4 required to oxidize
CH3—C—CH2—CH3
| 5 moles of oxalate.
Br
(major product) So number of moles of MnO −4 required to
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
oxidize 1 mole of oxalate = 2/5 = 0.4.
91. Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1 and O = 16

97. k1 = 1016 e–2000/T
% Mole Simple k2 = 1015 e–1000/T
Element
composition ratio ratio The temperature at which k1 = k2 will be
C 38.71 38.71/12 3.22/3.22 1016 e–2000/T = 1015 e–1000/T
= 3.22 =1 e −2000 / T 1015
H 9.67 9.67/1 9.67/3.22 =
e −1000 / T 1016
= 9.67 =3 e –1000/T
= 10 –1
O 51.62 51.62/16 3.22/3.22 loge e–1000/T = loge 10–1

= 3.22 =1 2.303 × log10 e–1000/T = 2.303 × log10 10–1
−1000
Thus empirical formula of the compound is × log10 e = – 1
T
CH3O. On solving, we get
T = 1000/2.303 K
92. CFSE in octahedral field depends upon the
nature of ligands. Stronger the ligands larger 98. A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen from
will be the value of ∆oct. aldehyde and ketones to form a carbanion or the
enolate ion.
99. C5H12(g) + 8O2(g) → 5CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) 100. For simple cubic :

∆Gº = [(–394.4 × 5) + (–237.2 × 6)] a
r +/r – =
– [(–8.2) + (8 × 0)] 2
= –3387.5 kJ Here a = edge length and
The standard free energy change of elementary r +/r – = interatomic distance
substances is taken as zero.
For body centered :
For the fuel cell, the complete cell reaction is :
a 3
C5H12(g) + 8O2(g) → 5CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) r +/r – =
4
This reaction is the combination of the
For face centered :
following two half reactions :
a
C5H12(g) + 10H2O(l) → r +/r – =
5CO2(g) + 32H+ + 32e 2 2
8O2(g) + 32H+ + 32e → 16H2O(l) Therefore ratio of radii of the three will be
As the number of electrons exchanged is 32 a a 3 a
: :
here, so n = 32 2 4 2 2
∆Gº = – nFEº
–3387.5 × 103 J = –32 × 96500 J/volt × Eº
On solving, we get
Eº = 1.09698 V
AIPMT - 2009
Q.6 A block of mass M is attached to the lower end
Q.1 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given
by [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be : of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a
(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass
(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 is released from rest with the spring initially
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 unstretched. The maximum extension produced
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2 in the length of the spring will be :

(1) Mg/2k (2) Mg/k
Q.2 A particle starts its motion from rest under the
action of a constant force. If the distance covered (3) 2 Mg/k (4) 4 Mg/k
in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the
first 20 seconds is S2 then : Q.7 Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position
(1) S2 = S1 (2) S2 = 2S1 vectors î + 2ˆj + k̂ and − 3î − 2 ĵ + k̂ , respectively.
(3) S2 = 3S1 (4) S2 = 4S1 The centre of mass of this system has a position
vector :
Q.3 A bus is moving with a speed of 10ms–1 on a
(1) − î + ˆj + k̂ (2) − 2î + 2k̂
straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km (3) − 2î − ˆj + k̂ (4) 2î − ˆj − 2k̂
from the scooterist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus ?
Q.8 Four identical thin rods each of mass M and
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 length l, from a square frame. Moment of inertia
(3) 40 ms–1 (4) 25 ms–1 of this frame about an axis through the centre of
the square and perpendicular to its plane is :
Q.4 The mass of lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in 1 2 4 2
(1) Ml (2) Ml
the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its 3 3
acceleration is : 2 2 13 2
(3) Ml (4) Ml
(1) 14 ms–2 upwards 3 3
(2) 30 ms–2 downwards
Q.9 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is
(3) 4 ms–2 upwards
rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
(4) 4 ms–2 downwards
vertical to its plane with a constant angular
Q.5 An explosion blows a rock into three parts Two velocity ω, If two objects each mass m be
parts go off at right angles to each other. These attached gently to the opposite ends of a
two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of diameter of the ring, the ring, will then rotate
12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a with an angular velocity :
velocity of 8 ms–1. If the thirds part files off with ωM ω(M − 2m)
(1) (2)
a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be : M+m M + 2m
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg ωM ω(M + 2m)
(3) (4)
(3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg M + 2m M
Q.10 A body, under the action of a force Q.15 The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform
r
F = 6î − 8 ĵ + 10k̂ , acquires an acceleration of cross-sectional area A are kept at two
temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). The rate of
1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be :
dQ
(1) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10 kg heat transfer, , through the rod in a steady
dt
(3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg state is given by :
r
Q.11 If F is the force acting on a particle having dQ kA (T1 − T2 )
r r (1) =
position vector r and τ be the torque of this dt L
force about the origin, then : dQ kL(T1 − T2 )
r r (2) =
r r dt A
(1) r ⋅ τ = 0 and F ⋅ τ ≠ 0
r r r r dQ k (T1 − T2 )
(2) r ⋅ τ ≠ 0 and F ⋅ τ = 0 (3) =
r r dt LA
r r
(3) r ⋅ τ > 0 and F ⋅ τ < 0
dQ
r r r r (4) = kLA(T1 – T2)
(4) r ⋅ τ = 0 and F ⋅ τ = 0 dt
Q.12 The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice Q.16 In thermodynamic processes which of the
the shaded are SAB. It t1 is the time for the following statements is not true ?
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
(1) In an adiabatic process PVγ = constant
move from A to B then
(2) In an adiabatic process the system is
m v insulated from the surroundings
B C (3) In an isochoric process pressure remains
constant
S
D (4) In an isothermal process the temperature
A
remains constant
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2 Q.17 A black body at 227ºC radiates heat at the rate
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2 of 7 cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727ºC, the
Q.13 An engine pumps water continuously through a rate of heat radiated in the same units will be :
hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and (1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 112
m is the mass per unit length of the water jet.
What is the rate which kinetic energy is imparted Q.18 The internal energy change in a system that has
to water ? absorbed 2 k cal of heat and done 500 J of work
is :
1 2 2 1
(1) mv (2) mv3 (1) 7900 J (2) 8900 J
2 2
(3) 6400 J (4) 5400 J
1
(3) mv3 (4) mv2
2 Q.19 The driver of a car traveling with speed 30
Q.14 A body of mass 1 kg of thrown upwards with a m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency
velocity 20 m/s. It momenetarily comes to rest 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330
after attaining a height of 18m. How much m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard
energy is lost due to air friction ? by driver is :
(g = 10 m/s2) (1) 500 Hz (2) 550 Hz
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J (3) 555.5 Hz (4) 720 Hz
Q.20 A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic Q.24 Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and
motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force.
period T. The speed of the pendulum at Mass per unit length of both the strings is same
x = a/2 will be : and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings
vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is :
πa 3 πa 3
(1) (2)
T 2T (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 8
πa 3π 2 a
(3) (4)
T T Q.25 Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of
breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
Q.21 Which one of the following equations of motion
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
represents simple harmonic motion ?
combination will be :
(1) Acceleration = kx
C V
(2) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2 (1) 3C, 3V (2) ,
3 3
(3) Acceleration = – k (x + a)
V C
(4) Acceleration = k(x + a) (3) 3C, (4) , 3V
3 3
Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive
Q.26 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per metre is bent
to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The
Q.22 The electric field part of an electromagnetic resistance between its two diametrically
wave in a medium is represented by : opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure,
Ex = 0 is :
N  rad   − 2 rad  
Ey = 2.5 cos  2π × 10 6  t –  π × 10 x 
C  m   s   A B
Ez =0. The wave is :

(1) 6 Ω (2) 0.6 πΩ (3) 3 Ω (4) 6 πΩ
(1) Moving along –x direction with frequency
106 Hz and wavelength 200m
(2) Moving along y direction with frequency Q.27 A bar magnet having a magnetic movement of
6
2π×10 Hz and wavelength 200m 2 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal
plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10–4
(3) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
T exists in the space. The work done in taking
Hz and wavelength 100m
the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to
(4) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
the field to a direction 60º from the field is :
Hz and wavelength 200m
(1) 2 J (2) 0.6 J (3) 12 J (4) 6 J
Q.23 A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The

Q.28 The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
wave travels in the +ve direction of x-axis with a
of charge – 2µc in a magnetic field of 2T acting
speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete
in y direction, when the particle velocity is
waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The
equation describing the wave is ( 2î + 3ˆj) × 106 ms–1, is :
(1) y = (0.02)m sin (7.58x – 1005 t) (1) 8N in z – direction
(2) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85x + 1005 t) (2) 8N in z – direction
(3) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x – 2010 t) (3) 4N in z – direction
(4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010 t) (4) 8N in y – direction
Q.29 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform Q.33 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field,
magnetic field 0.04T with its plane perpendicular a charged particle moves with constant speed V
to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop in a circle of radius R. The time period of
starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in rotation of the particle :
the loop when the redius is 2 cm is : (1) Depends on both v and R
(1) 1.6 πµv (2) 3.2 πµv (2) Depends on v and not on R
(3) 4.8 πµv (4) 0.8 πµv (3) Depends on R and not on v
(4) Is independent of both v and R
Q.30 The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given
by V = – x2y – xz3 + 4 Q.34 Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit
r connected to an a.c. source of emf ε is :
The electric field E at that point is :
r 2
(1) E = î (2 xy − z 3 ) + ĵxy 2 + k̂ 3z 2 x  1 
(1) ε 2 R R 2 +  Lω − 
 Cω 
r
(2) E = î (2 xy + z 3 ) + ĵx 2 + k̂ 3xz 2
  1  
2
r (2) ε 2 R R 2 +  Lω −  
(3) E = î 2 xy + ˆj( x 2 + y 2 ) + k̂ (3xz − y 2 )   Cω  

r
(4) E = î z + ˆjxyz + k̂z 2
  1  
2
(3) ε 2 R 2 +  Lω −   R
  Cω  
Q.31 See the electrical circuit shown in this figure.
Which of the following equations is a correct   1  
2
ε 2 R 2 +  Lω −  
equation for it ?   Cω  
(4) 
R R
∈1 r1
i1 Q.35 Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b,
and c(a < b < c) and have surface charge
i2 densities σ, –σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB
r2 ∈2 and VC denote the potentials of the three shells,
then, for c = a + b, we have :
(1) ∈1– (i1 + i2)R + i1r1 = 0
(1) VC = VB = VA (2) VC = VA ≠ VB
(2) ∈1– (i1 + i2)R – i1r1 = 0
(3) VC = VB ≠ VA (4) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA
(3) ∈2–i1r2 – ε1 – i1r1 = 0
(4) –∈2– (i1 + i2)R + i2r2 = 0
Q.36 A student measures the terminal potential
difference (V) of a cell (of emf ε and internal)
Q.32 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω resistance r) as a function of the current (I)
shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 flowing through it. The slope and intercept
amp passes through it. It can be converted into of the graph between V and I, then respectively
an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by : equal to :
(1) Putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω (1) – ∈and r (2) ∈ and – r
(2) Putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω (3) – r and ∈ (4) r and – ∈
(3) Putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω
(4) Putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω
Q.37 A rectangular, a square, a circular and an Photo current
elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are
moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a b
r a
constant velocity, V = v ⋅ î . The magnetic field is c
directed along the negative z-axis direction. The Retarding potential Anode potential
induced emf, during the passage of these loops, (1) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident
come out of the field region, will not remain radiations same frequencies having same
constant for : intensity.
(1) any of the four loops (2) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident
(2) The rectangular, circular and elliptical loops radiations of different frequencies and
different intensities
(3) The circular and the elliptical loops
(3) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident
(4) Only the elliptical loop
radiations of same frequencies but of
different intensities
Q.38 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the (4) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident
north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is : radiations of different frequencies and
(1) Attracted by both the poles different intensities
(2) Repelled by both the poles Q.42 The number of beta particles emitted by a
radioactive substance is twice the number of
(3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by
alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting
the south pole
daughter is an :
(4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by
(1) Isotope of parent (2) Isobar of parent
the south pole
(3) Isomer of parent (4) Isotone of parent
Q.39 The number of photoelectrons emitted for light
of a frequency v (higher than the threshold Q.43 The ionization energy of the electron in the
frequency v0) is proportional to : hydrogen atom in its grounds state is 13.6 eV.
The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to
(1) Frequency of light (v)
emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum
(2) v – v0
wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
(3) Threshold frequency (v0) the transition between :
(4) Intensity of light (1) n = 4 to n = 3 states
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 states
Q.40 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is
produced by a helium neon laser. The power (3) n = 3 to n = 1 states
emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states
arriving per second on the average at a target
Q.44 In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a
irradiated by this beam is :
projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches
(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 9 × 1017 a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the
(3) 3 × 1016 (4) 9 × 1015 distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of
the projectile is :
Q.41 The figure shows a plot of photo current versus (1) Directly proportional to mass M1
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for (2) Directly proportional to M1 × M2
three different radiations. Which one of the
(3) Directly proportional to Z1Z2
following is a correct statement ?
(4) Inversely proportional to Z1
Q.45 In the nuclear decay given below : (1) (i), (iii), (iv)
A A−4 A−4 (2) (iii), (iv), (ii)
A
ZX
→ Z+1 Y 
→ Z−1 B* 
→ Z−1 B
(3) (iv), (i), (iii)
The particles emitted in the sequence are : (4) (iv), (ii), (i)
(1) α,β,γ (2) β,α,γ (3) γ,β,α (4) β,γ,α
Q.50 A transistor is operated in common-emitter
configuration at VC = 2V such that a change in
Q.46 The mean free path of electrons in a metal is
the base current from 100 µA to 200 µA
4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on
produces a change in the collector current from
an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is :
metal will be in units of V/m : (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 150
7 7
(1) 5 × 10 (2) 8 × 10
–11
(3) 5 × 10 (4) 8 × 10–11 Q.51 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be -
Q.47 Sodium has body centred packing. Distance
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol
between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice
(3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
parameter is :
(1) 8.6 Å (2) 6.8 Å (3) 4.3 Å (4) 3.0 Å Q.52 Oxidation number of P in PO 34− , of S in SO 24−
and that of Cr in Cr2 O 72− are respectively :

Q.48 A p–n photodiode is fabricated from a (1) +3, +6 and +6
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can (2) +5, +6 and +6
detect a signal of wavelength : (3) +3, +6 and +5
(1) 496 Å (2) 6000 Å (4) +5, +3 and +6
(3) 4000 nm (4) 6000 nm
Q.53 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell or
an atom is determined by the following :
Q.49 The symbolic representation of four logic gates (1) 2n2
are given below : (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 2
(i)
(4) 4l – 2
(ii) Q.54 Which of the following is not permissible

arrangement of electrons in an atom ?
(iii) 1
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –
2
(iv) 1
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –
2
1
The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND (3) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +
2
gates are respectively :
1
(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –
2
Q.55 From the following bond energies : Q.60 For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3,
H – H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1 d[ NH 3 ]
–1
If = 2 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1, The value of
C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol dt
C – C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1 −d[H 2 ]
would be -
C – H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol –1 dt
Enthalpy for the reaction, (1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
H H H H (2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
C=C + H–H → H–C–C–H
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
H H H H
will be :
Q.61 For the reaction A + B → products, it is
(1) 553.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 1523.6 kJ mol–1
observed that :
(3) –243.6 kJ mol–1 (4) –120.0 kJ mol–1
(1) On doubling the initial concentration of A
only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
Q.56 The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide (2) On doubling the initial concentration of both
is 1.77×10–5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the
ammonium chloride - rate of the reaction.
(1) 5.65 × 10–12 (2) 5.65 × 10–10 The rate of this reaction is given by :
–12
(3) 6.50 × 10 (4) 5.65 × 10–13 (1) rate = k[A] [B]
(2) rate = k[A]2[B]
Q.57 Given : (3) rate = k[A][B]2
2+ –
(i) Cu + 2e → Cu, Eº = 0.337 V (4) rate = k[A]2[B]2
2+ – +
(i) Cu + e → Cu , Eº = 0.153 V
Electrode potential Eº for the reaction, M
Q.62 The equivalent conductance of solution of a
+ – 32
Cu + e → Cu, will be :
weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 and at
(1) 0.38 V (2) 0.52 V
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2, The
(3) 0.90 V (4) 0.30 V dissociation constant of this acid is -
(1) 1.25 × 10–4
–
Q.58 What is the [OH ] in the final solution prepared (2) 1.25 × 10–5
by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0
(3) 1.25 × 10–6
mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2 ? -
(4) 6.25 × 10–4
(1) 0.12 M (2) 0.10 M
(3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M
Q.63 A 0.0020 M aqueous solution of an ionic
Q.59 The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a compound Co(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at
substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond energy per – 0.00732ºC. Number of moles of ions which
molecule is 4.0 × 10–19 J. The kinetic energy of 1 mole of ionic compound produces on being
the molecule per atom will be : dissolved in water will be : (kf = 1.86ºC/m) -
(1) 4.0 × 10–20 J (2) 2.0 × 10–20 J (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 2.2 × 10 –19
J (4) 4 × 10 –19
J (3) 3 (4) 4
Q.64 In the reaction Q.69 In which of the following molecules / ions BF3,
BrO3− (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ → 3Br2(l) + 3H2O(l) NO −2 , NH −2 and H2O, the central atom is sp2
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is hybridized ?
related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions
as following (1) BF3 and NO −2
d(Br2 ) 3 d (Br − ) (2) NO −2 and NH2

(1) =
dt 5 dt
(3) NH −2 and H2O,
d(Br2 ) 3 d (Br − )
(2) =–
dt 5 dt (4) NO −2 and H2O
d(Br2 ) 5 d (Br − )
(3) =–
dt 3 dt Q.70 Among the following which is the strongest
d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br − ) oxidizing agent ? -
(4) =
dt 3 dt (1) Cl2 (2) F2
(3) Br2 (3) I2
Q.65 Lithium metal crystallizes in a body centred
cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit
Q.71 According to MO theory which of the following
cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of
lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of
lithium will be :
increasing bond order :
(1) 300.5 pm (2) 240.8 pm
(3) 151.8 pm (4) 75.5 pm (1) N 2− < N 22− < N 2 (2) N 2− < N 2 < N 22−
(3) N 22− < N 2− < N 2 (4) N 2 < N 22− < N −2

Q.66 The dissociation constants for acetic acid and
HCN at 25ºC are 1.5 × 10–5 and 4.5 × 10–10,
respectively. The equilibrium constant for the Q.72 In the case of alkali metals, the covalent
equilibrium –
character decreases in the order :
CN– + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO–
(1) MI > MBr > MCl > MF
would be :
(1) 3.0 × 104 (2) 3.0 × 105 (2) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(3) 3.0 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–4 (3) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(4) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
Q.67 The values of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction,
C(graphite) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and Q.73 Which of the following oxides is not expected
170 JK–1 respectively. This reaction will be to react with sodium hydroxide ?
spontaneous at - (1) BeO (2) B2O3 (3) CaO (4)SiO2
(1) 510 K (2) 710 K
(3) 910 K (4) 1110 K Q.74 Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low
potentials and high currents. If 4.0 × 104
Q.68 Half-life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 amperes of current is passed through molten
seconds. The specific rate constant of the Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is
reaction is : produced ? (Assume 100% current efficiency,
at. mass of Al = 27 g mol–1) -
(1) 5.0 × 10–2 s–1 (3) 5.0 × 10–3 s–1
(1) 1.3 × 104 g (2) 9.0 × 103 g
(4) 0.5 × 10–2 s–1 (4) 0.5 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 8.1 × 104 g (4) 2.4 × 105 g
Q.75 The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in Q.81 Which one of the elements with the following
the sequence : outer orbital configurations may exhibit the
(1) Ga < In < Al < Tl (2) Al < Ga < In < Tl largest number of oxidation states ?
(3) Tl < In < Ga < Al (4) In < Tl < Ga < Al (1) 3d24s2 (2) 3d34s2
(3) 3d54s1 (4) 3d54s2
Q.76 Copper crystallizes in a face-centred cubic lattice
Q.82 Which of the following molecules acts as a
with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the
Lewis acid ?
radius of copper atom in pm ?
(1) (CH3)3N (2) (CH3)3B
(1) 108 (2) 128 (3) 157 (4)181
(3) (CH3)2O (4) (CH3)3P
Q.77 What is the dominant intermolecular force or
bond that must be overcome in converting liquid
Q.83 Amongst the element with following electronic
CH3OH to a gas -
configurations, which one of them may have the
(1) London dispersion force highest ionization energy ?
(2) Hydrogen bonding (1) [Ne]3s23p1 (2) [Ne]3s23p3
(3) Dipole-dipole interaction (3) [Ne]3s23p2 (4) [Ar]3d104s2 4p3
(4) Covalent bonds
Q.84 The straight chain polymer is formed by –

Q.78 Which of the following complex ions is expected
(1) hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed by
to absorb visible light ?
condensation polymerization
(At no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
(2) hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed by
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+ condensation polymerization
(3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by
condensation polymerization
Q.79 Out of TiF62− and CoF63− , Cu2Cl2 and NiCl 24− (4) hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition
(Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the polymerization
colourless species are : - Q.85 The IUPAC name of the compound having the
(1) CoF63− and NiCl 24− formula CH≡C–CH=CH2 is -
(1) 1-butene-3-yne (2) 3-buten-1-yne
(2) TiF62− and CoF63−
(3) 1-butyn-3-ene (4) but-1-yn-3-ene
(3) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl 24−
Q.86 Which of the following compounds will exhibit
(4) TiF62− and Cu2Cl2 cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism ?
(1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butene
Q.80 Which of the following does not show optical (3) 2-Butanol (4) 2-Butyne
isomerism -
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ Q.87 H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid
+ gives :
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]
H
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]o (1) 2 C=O (2) 2CO2
+ H
(4) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]
(en = Ethylenediamine) CHO
(3) 2HCOOH (4)
CHO
Q.88 Consider the following reaction Q.93 Structures of some common polymers are given
PBr alc. KOH which one is not correctly presented ?
Ethanol 3 → X   → Y
(1) Nylon 66
(i ) H SO room temperature
 2 4     → Z; – NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4 – CO –
(ii ) H 2 O, Heat 2
The product Z is : (2) Teflon
(1) CH3CH2–OH ( CF2 – CF2 )n
(2) CH2 = CH2 (3) Neoprene

(3) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3 – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – CH2 –
(4) CH3CH2–O–SO3H Cl n
(4) Terylene
Q.89 Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of – OOC – – COOCH2 – CH2 –n
anhydrous AlCl3 to form -
(1) Xylene Q.94 Predict the product :
(2) Toluene NHCH3 + NaNO2 + HCl → Product
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Benzylchloride
OH
Q.90 Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene N–CH3

(1)
by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and
conc. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as
a/an - CH3
(1) catalyst N–N=O
(2)
(2) reducing agent
(3) acid
CH3
(4) base
N–NO2
(3)
Q.91 Which of the following reactions is an example
of nucleophilic substitution reaction ? NO
(1) RX + Mg → RMgX NHCH3 NHCH3
(2) RX + KOH → ROH + KX
NO
(4) +
(3) 2RX + 2Na → R – R + 2NaX
(4) RX + H2 → RH + HX NO
Q.92 Which one of following is employed as a Q.95 Propionic acid with Br2 / P yields a dibromo
tranquilizer ? product, Its structure would be -
(1) Chlorpheninamine Br
(2) Equanil (1) CH3–C–COOH (2) CH2Br–CHBr–COOH
(3) Naproxen Br
(4) Tetracycline
Br
(3) H–C–CH2COOH (4) CH2Br–CH2–COBr
Br
Q.96 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with Q.100 Which of the following hormones contains
chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and iodine ?
produces - (1) Thyroxine (2) Insuline
(1) Cl (3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline

CH Cl
CCl3 Q.101 Which one of the following has haplontic life
Cl cycle ?
(2) Cl C Cl (1) Wheat (2) Funaria
CH2Cl (3) Polytrichum (4) Ustilago
Cl
Q.102 T.O.Diener discovered a :
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Free infection DNA
(3) Cl C Cl
(3) Free infectious RNA
H
(4) Infectious protein
OH
(4) Cl C Cl
Q.103 Mannitol is the stored food in -
Cl
(1) Gracillaria (2) Chara
Q.97 Consider the following reaction :
(3) Porphyra (4) Fucus
Zn dust CH 3Cl
Phenol  
→ X     → Y
Anhydrous AlCl3
Alkaline KMnO
Q.104 Which one of the following is a vascular
    
4 → Z, the product Z is :
cryptogram ?
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene
(1) Cedrus (2) Equisetum
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
(3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia
Q.98 The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of
the hydrocarbon – Q.105 Phylogenetic system of classification is based
CH3 CH3 on:
CH3–C–CH=CH–CH–C≡CH (1) Floral characters
7 6 5 4 2 1
CH3 (2) Evolutionary relationships
is in the following sequence : (3) Morphological features
(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3 (4) Chemical constituents
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
Q.99 The segment of DNA which acts as the Q.106 Which one of the following groups of animals is
instrument manual for the synthesis of the bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?
protein is : (1) Sponges
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide (2) Coelentrates (Cnidarians)
(3) Ribose (4) Gene
(3) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(4) Ctenophores
Q.107 Peripatus is a connecting link between : Q.113 Middle lamella is composed mainly of :
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera (1) Phosphoglycerides (2) Hemicellulose
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes (3) Muramic acid (4) Calcium pectate
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda Q.114 Cytoskeleton is made up of :
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
Q.108 Which one of the following pairs of animals (2) Calcium carbonate granules
comprises 'Jawless fishes' ?
(3) Callose deposits
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(4) Cellulose microfibrils
(2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu
Q.115 The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes junctions are found in :
(1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue
Q.109 If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
its outer surface without damaging its gut, the
fluid that comes out is :
Q.116 The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
(1) Slimy mucus (2) excretory fluid
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
(3) Coelomic fluid (4) haemolymph found in -
(1) tip of the nose (2) vertebrae
Q.110 Plasmodesmata are : (3) nails (4) ear ossicles
(1) Connection between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells Q.117 The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface
(3) Locomotory structures of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is :
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal
plasmalemma
(3) Glandular (4) Ciliated
Q.111 Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant Q.118 Given below is a schematic break-up of the
contains : phases / stages of cell cycle :
(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Light-independent reaction enzymes
(3) Light-dependent reaction enzymes
(4) Ribosomes
Q.112 Synapsis occurs between :

(1) two homolog chromosomes
(2) a male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
Which one of the following is the correct
(4) spindle fibres and centromere indication of the stage / phase in the cell cycle ?
(1) A-Cytokinesis (2) B-Metaphase
(3) C-Karyokinesis (4) D-Synthetic phase
Q.119 What is not true for genetic code? Q.125 Sickel cell anemia is :
(1) It is unambiguous (1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non- with a nucleus
contiguous fashion (2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) It is nearly universal (3) Caused by substitute of valine by glutamic
acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) It is degenerate
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of
Q.120 Removal of introns and joining the exons in a
DNA
defined order in a transcription unit is called :
(1) Capping (2) Splicing Q.126 Study the pedigree chart given below :
(3) Tailing (4) Transformation
Q.121 Semiconservative replication of DNA was first
demonstrated in :
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
What does it show ?
(3) Escherichia coli
(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
like haemophilia
Q.122 Whose experiments cracked the DNA and (2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a metabolism like phenylketonuria
"triplet" ?
(3) Inheritance of a condition like
(1) Beadle and Tatum phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei trait
(3) Hershey and Chase (4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant possible
Q.127 The most popularly known blood grouping is
Q.123 Point mutation involves :
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not
(1) Deletion ABC, because "O" in it refers to having :
(2) Insertion (1) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(3) Change in single base pair (2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(4) Duplication (3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for
A and B types
Q.124 In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) (4) One antibody only-either anti-A and anti-B
the black-coloured from became dominant over on the RBCs
the light-coloured form in England during
industrial revolution. This is an example of - Q.128 Select the incorrect statement from the
following :
(1) Inheritance of darker colour character
acquired due to the darker environment (1) Baldness is a sex limited trait
(2) Natural selection whereby the darker forms (2) Linkage is an exception to the principle of
were selected. independent assortment in heredity.
(3) Appearance of the darker coloured (3) Galactosemia is an inborn error of
individuals due to very poor sunlight metabolism
(4) Protective mimicry (4) Small population size results in random
genetic drift in a population
Q.129 Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts
Q.136 The floral formula K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) is
in - +
(1) Cashew nut and litchi that of :
(1) Tobacco (2) Tulip
(2) Groundnut and pomegranate
(3) Soybean (4) Sunnhemp
(3) Walnut and tamarind
(4) French bean and coconut
Q.137 An example of axile placentation is -
(1) Marigold (2) Argemone
Q.130 An example of a seed with endosperm,
(3) Dianthus (4) Lemon
perisperm and caruncle is -
(1) Castor (2) Cotton
Q.138 In barley stem vascular bundles are -
(3) Coffee (4) Lily
(1) Closed and radial (2) Open and scattered
(3) Closed and scattered (4) Open and in a ring
Q.131 Guard cells help in :
(1) Fighting against infection Q.139 Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately
(2) Protection against grazing termed :-
(3) Transpiration (1) Anabolic (2) Catabolic
(4) Guttation (3) Parabolic (4) Amphibolic
Q.132 Manganese is required in : Q.140 Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of -

(1) Chlorophyll synthesis (1) Gram (2) Sorghum
(2) Nucleic acid synthesis (3) Mustard (4) Soybean
(3) Plant cell wall formation
(4) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis Q.141 Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue
and cuticle is characteristic of :
Q.133 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in :
(1) Hydrophytes (2) Xerophytes
(1) Chlorobium (2) Chromatium
(3) Mesophytes (4) Epiphytes
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Rhodospirillum
Q.142 Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is

Q.134 A fruit developed from hypanthodium
distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by :
inflorescence is called :
(1) Position of protoxylem
(1) Caryopsis (2) Hesperidium
(2) absence of secondary xylem
(3) Sorosis (4) Syconus
(3) Absence of secondary phloem
(4) Presence of cortex
Q.135 The annular and spirally thickened conducting
elements generally develop in the protoxylem
when the root or stem is - Q.143 Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
formation of :
(1) Differentiating
(1) ATP
(2) Maturing
(2) NADPH
(3) Elongating
(3) ATP and NADPH
(4) Widening
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2
Q.144 In a standard ECG which one of the following Q.151 a young infant may be feeding entirely on
alphabets is the correct represention of the mother's milk which is white in colour but the
respective activity of the human heart ? stools which the infant passes out is quite
(1) P-depolarisation of the atria yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?
(1) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
(2) R-repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Intestinal juice
(3) S-start of systole
(3) Bile pigments passed through bile juice
(4) T-end of diastole
(4) Undigested milk protein casein
Q.145 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of
the excretory products of -
Q.152 Globulins contained in human blood plasma are
(1) Frog (2) Man
primarily involved in -
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach (1) Clotting of blood
Q.146 Which one of the following pairs of food (2) Defence mechanisms of body
compounds in humans reaches the stomach (3) Osmotic balance of body fluids
totally undigested - (4) Oxygen transport in the blood
(1) Starch and cellulose (2) Protein and starch
(3) Starch and fat (4) Fat and cellulose Q.153 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :
Q.147 Which one of the following is correct pairing of (1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor
a body part and like kind of muscle tissue that calcium
moves it ? (2) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
(1) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle (3) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(2) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle (4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(3) Biceps of upper arm – smooth muscle fibres calcium
(4) Abdominal wall – smooth muscle

Q.154 Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a
Q.148 Compared to blood our lymph has :
portion of human male reproductive system.
(1) More RBCs and less WBCs
Select the correct set of the names of the parts
(2) No plasma labelled A, B, C, D.
(3) Plasma without proteins
(4) More WBCs and no RBCs
Q.149 What will happen if the stretch receptors of the
urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?
(1) There will be no micturition
(2) Urine will continue to collect normally in A B C D
bladder
(1) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(3) Micturition will continue vesicle gland
(4) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(2) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbouretharal
Q.150 Which part of human brain is concerned with the vesicle gland
regulation of body temperature ?
(3) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(1) Hypothalamus deferens vesicle gland
(2) Medulla Oblongata
(4) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral Prostate
(3) Cerebellum deferens vesicle gland
(4) Cerebrum
Q.155 Which one of the following is the correct Q.160 One of the synthetic auxin is :
matching of three items and their grouping (1) IBA (2) NAA (3) IAA (4) GA
category ?
Q.161 Which one of the following acids is a derivative
Items Groups of carotenoids ?
(1) Cytosine, uracil, Pyrimidines (1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole butyric acid
thiamine
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid
(2) Malleus, incus, Ear ossicles
Q.162 Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by :
cochlea
(1) Sucker (2) Runner
(3) ilium, ischium Coxal bones of
pubis pelvic girdle (3) Offset (4) Rhizome
(4) Actin, myosin, Muscle proteins Q.163 Which one of the following plants is
rodopsin monoecios ?
Q.156 Which one of the following statement is true (1) Papaya (2) Marchantia
regarding digestion and absorption of food in (3) Pinus (4) Cycas
humans : Q.164 Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by induced by
salivary amylase in our mouth (1) Differentiation of mammary glands
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
proenzyme pepsinogen (3) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
(3) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta
through intestinal mucosa with the help of Q.165 Which of the following is the correct matching
carrier ions like Na+ of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles (1) Menstruation Breakdown of
that are transported from intestine into blood myometrium and
ovum not fertilized
capillaries
(2) Ovulation LH and FSH attain
Q.157 Which one of the following correctly described
peak level and sharp
the location of some body parts in the earthworm fall in the secretion
Pheretima ? of progesterone
(1) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16–18 (3) Proliferative Rapid regeneration
segments phase of myometrium and
maturation of
(2) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments. Grafian follicle
(3) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4–7 segments (4) Development Secretory phase and
(4) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental of corpus increased secretion
luteum of progesterone.
septum of 14th and 15 th segments.
Q.166 Which one of the following is the most likely
Q.158 Elbow joint is an example of :
root cause why menstruation is not taking place
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Pivot joint
in regularly cycling human female ?
(3) Hinge joint (4) Gliding joint (1) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
Q.159 Which one of the following is considered (2) Fertilization of the ovum
important in the development of seed habit ? (3) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
(1) Free-living gametophyte endometrial lining
(2) Dependent sporophyte (4) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
(3) Heterospory hormones in the blood stream
(4) Haplontic life cycle
Q.167 The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages Q.174 The correct sequence of plants in hydrosere is :
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature (1) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla →
human testis is : Pistia → Scirpus
(1) Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-
(2) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia →
sperms
Hydrilla → Volvox
(2) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-
(3) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus →
sperms
Lantana → Oak
(3) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-
(4) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla →
sperms
Oak → Lantana
(4) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-
sperms Q.175 A country with a high rate of population growth
took measures to reduce it. The figure below
Q.168 A change in the amount of yolk and its
shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B
distribution in the egg will effect :
twenty years apart. Select the correct
(1) Fertilization
interpretation about them : –
(2) Formation of zygote
(3) Pattern of cleavage
(4) Number of blastomeres produced
Q.169 When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive
food low in proteins and calories, the infants
below the age of one year are likely to suffer
from :
(1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
(3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor
Q.170 Which one of the following types organisms
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
ecosystem ?
(1) Frog (2) Phytoplankton
(3) Fish (4) Zooplankton
Q.171 Which one of the following has maximum
genetic diversity in India ?
(1) Tea (2) Teak
(3) Mango (4) Wheat
Q.172 Montreal protocol aims at :
(1) Control of CO2 emission (1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has
(2) Reduction of ozone depleting substances occurred in the growth rate
(3) Biodiversity conservation (2) "A" is more recent shows slight reduction in
(4) Control of water pollution the growth rate
Q.173 Chipko movement was launched for the (3) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized
protection of - growth rate
(1) Wet lands (2) Grasslands (4) "B" is more recent showing that population
(3) Forests (4) Livestock is very young
Q.176 Step taken by the Government of India to control Q.182 Which of the following is not used as a
air pollution include : biopesticide ?
(1) Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural (1) Xanthomonas Campestris
Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and (2) Bacillus thringiensis
trucks
(3) Trichoderma harzianum
(2) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (4) Nuclear Polyhedral Virus (NPV)
(3) Compulsary PUC (Pollution Under Control) Q.183 Which of the following plant species you would
certification of petrol driven vehicles which select for the production of bioethanol ?
tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons (1) Jatropa (2) Brassica
(4) Permission to use only pure diesel with a (3) Zea Mays (4) Pongamia
maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for Q.184 Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen
vehicles fixer ?
Q.177 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
(1) Azolla (2) Glomus
water :
(1) Increases when sewage gets mixed with (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
river water Q.185 A health disorder that results from the
(2) Remains unchanged when algal bloom deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
occurs characterized by (i) a low metabolic rate (ii)
(3) has no relationship with concentration of increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to
oxygen in the water retain water in tissues is :
(4) Gives a measure of Salmonella in the water (1) Cretinism (2) Hypothyroidism
Q.178 DDT residues are rapidly passed through food (3) Simple goiter (4) Myxoedema
chain causing biomagnification because DDT is : Q.186 Which one of the following statement is
(1) Water soluble correct ?
(2) Lipo soluble
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(3) Moderately toxic
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are
(4) Non-toxic to aquatic animals
given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Q.179 Global agreement in specific control strategies to
reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, (3) Benign tumours show the property of
was adopted by : metastasis
(1) The Vienna Convention (4) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(2) Rio de Janeiro Conference Q.187 Which of following is a pair of viral diseases ?
(3) The Montreal Protocol
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(4) The Kyoto Protocol
(2) Ringworm, AIDS
Q.180 Somaclones are obtained by : -
(1) Genetic engineering (3) Common Cold, AIDS
(2) Tissue culture (4) Dysentery, Common Cold
(3) Plant breeding
Q.188 A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized
(4) Irradiation Genetic engineering
by administering :
Q.181 Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease
and its causal organism ? (1) Weakned germs
(1) Root-knot of vegetables : Meloidogyne sp (2) Dead germs
(2) Late blight of potato : Alternaria solani (3) Preformed antibodies
(3) Black rust of wheat : Puccinia graminis (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(4) Loose smut of wheat : Ustilago nuda
Q.189 Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick Q.196 What is true about Bt toxin ?
relief from - (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(1) Headache (2) Allergy (2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into
(3) Nausea (4) Cough active form in the insect gut
Q.190 Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with (3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
the deficiency of : Bacillus
(1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the
(2) Dopamine pest to sterillise it and thus prevent its
multiplication.
(3) Glutamic acid
Q.197 The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(4) Acetylcholine
deficiency may be cured permanently by
Q.191 which one of the following is commonly used in
transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ? (1) Enzyme replacement therapy
(1) Penicillium expansum (2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
(2) Trichoderma harzianum lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Meloidogyne incognita (3) Administering adenosine deaminase
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens activators
Q.192 The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely (4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing
used in contemporary biology as - ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
(1) Source of industrial enzyme Q.198 There is no DNA in :

(1) Hair root
(2) Indicator of water pollution
(2) An enucleated ovum
(3) Insecticide
(3) Mature RBCs
(4) Agent for production of dairy products
(4) A mature spermatozoan
Q.193 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
Q.199 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to :
matched ?
(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
(1) Textile – amylase
(3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
(2) Detergents – lipase
Q.200 Tiger is not a resident in which one of the
(3) Alcohol – nitrogenase
following National Park ?
(4) Fruit juice – pectinase
(1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor
Q.194 Polyethylene glycol method is used for :
(3) Sunderbans (4) Gir
(1) Energy production from sewage
(2) Gene transfer without a vector
(3) Biodiesel production
(4) Seedless fruit production
Q.195 Transgenic plants are the ones -
(1) Grown in artificial medium after
hybridization in the field
(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial
medium
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to
a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artifical
medium
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 4 1 4 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 1 4 1 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 3 2 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 2 2
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 4 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 1 1 1 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 2
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 4
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

r r r
F  MLT −2  –1 –2
5. P1 + P2 + P3 = 0
1. [P] = =   = [ML T ]
A  L2  r r r
| P3 | = | P1 + P2 |
1 2
2. s= at m×4= P12 + P22
2
2
s2  20  = 12 2 + 16 2
=   =4
s1  10  m = 5 kg
s2 = 4s1 6. Loss in grav. PE = gain in spring PE
At maximum elongation
3. Sr = vrt 1 2
Mgx = kx
1000 = (v – 10) × 100 2
v = 20 m/s 2Mg
x =
k
r r r
4. ΣF = ma m r + m 2 r2
7. R cm = 1 1 = – 2 î – ˆj + k̂
⇒ T – mg = ma m1 + m 2
T − mg
a= = 4 m/s2
m
 Ml 2 2 17. P ∝ T4
l
8. I = 4 ×  + M   the parallel axis
 12  2   4
P2  1000 
= 
4
P1  500 
theorem = Ml 2
3 P2 = 16P1 = 112
9. Apply conservation of angular momentum. 18. dU = Q – W = 8400 – 500 = 7900 J

Li = Lf
MR ω = (M + 2m)R2ω'
2
c+u 
19. n' = ν 
Mω c−u 
ω' =
M + 2m
 330 + 30 
r = 600   = 720 Hz
10. F = 6î − 8ˆj + 10k̂  330 − 30 
r
|F| = 6 2 + 8 2 + 10 2 = 10 2
r 20. v = ω A2 − x 2
| F | 10 2
m = = = 10 2 kg
a 1 2π 2 a 2 πa 3
= a − =
r r r T 4 T
11. τ = r×F
r r r 21. In SHM, Frestoring ∝ – x
τ is perpendicular to r and F.
22. As the coefficient of x is negative, it is moving
along +ve x-axis and equating the equation
12. Kepler's 2nd law
Ey = 2.5 cos[(2π × 106)t – (π × 10–2)x]
 ∆A 
⇒   = constant with y = A cos(ωt – kx)
 ∆t  planet
ω = 2π × 106
A1 A
= 2 ω
t1 t2 ⇒ f = = 106 Hz
2π
2A A k = π × 10–2
⇒ =
t1 t2
2π
⇒ λ =
⇒ t1 = 2t2 k
dm du dm 2π
13. mv = × = = Rate of flowing mass = = 200m
du dt dt π × 10 − 2
dm v (mv) v mv 2 23. 5λ = 4
Fav = × = =
dt 2 2 2 4
λ=
dK mv 2 mv3 5
p= = ×v=
dt 2 3 2π 10π
k= = = 7.85
1 λ 4
14. Loss of energy = mv2 – mgh = 20 J
2 wave moves along positive X-direction
dQ kA (T1 − T2 )
15. For steady state =
dt L
16. Isochoric → Volume constant
V V V 1 1  31.
24. ∆ν = – =  − 
2l 1 2l 2 2  l1 l 2 
1 T1 1 
=  − 
2 µ  l1 l 2 
C
25. In series, Ceq = ,
3
Veq = 3V
For loop (3)
26. Total resistance of wire = 12 Ω × 2π × 10 –1 E1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1r1 = 0
= 2.4π For loop (4)

– E1 + i1r1 – i2r2 + E2 = 0
2.4π
Resistance of each half = = 1.2π For loop (1)
2
and as about diameter both parts are in parallel E2 – (i1 + i2) R – i2r2 = 0
1.2π 32. Ig = 1.0A, G = 60q, I = 5.0 A

Req. = = 0.6 πΩ
2 Ig
S = G
27. W = MB (cosθ1 – cosθ2) I − Ig
= 2 × 104 × 6 × 10–4 (cosθ – cos60º) 1.0

G = = 60
1 5.0 − 1.0
= 12 × =6J
2 = 15 Ω in parallel
r r r
28. F = q (ν × B)
2πm
= – 2 × 10–6 [(2î + 3ˆj) × 10 6 × 2 ĵ] 33. T=
2B
= – (8N) k̂ T is time period
34. Pav = Erms . Irms cos φ
dφ d
29. e = = (Bπr2) ε R ε2R
dt dt = ε. . =
z z z2
dr
= 2πrB ε2R
dt =
2
 1 
= 2 × π × 2 × 10–2 × 4 × 10–2 × 2 × 10–3 R 2 +  ωL − 
 ωC 
= 3.2 × 10–6 πVol = 3.2 πµV
35. qA = 4πa2σ,
30. V = – x2y – xz3 + 4
qB = – 4πb2σ,
r  δ ˆ δ δ 
E = – V = –  î + j + k̂  qC = 4πc2σ, c = a + b
 δx δy δz
1  qA qB qC 
VA =  + + 
( − x 2 − xz 3 + 4) 4π ∈0  a b c 
= (2xy + z3) î + x2 ĵ + 3xz2 k̂ 2σa

=
∈0
1  qA qB qC 
VB =  + + 
4π ∈0  a b c 
σ  a 2  n (n − 1)
= − b + c 43. =6
∈0  b 

2
⇒ n=4
σ  2 
= a + a  For maximum wavelength energy difference
∈0  b 
  between states should be minimum because
1  qA qB qC  hc
VC =  + +  λ=
4π ∈0  a b c  ∆E
 a2 − b  2σa So, transition state in n = 4 to n = 3

σ 
= + c =
∈0  c  ∈0
 
1 Z1Z 2
So, VC = VA ≠ VB 44. Energy =
4π ∈0 r0
36. E = V + Ir
β α γ
⇒ V = E – Ir 45. ZX
A
→ Z+1 Y A → Z−1 B A − 4 
 →
Comparing with y = mx + c A−4

Z−1 B
Slope = – r, intercept = E 46. qV = 2eV
⇒ 1.6 × 10 V = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 V
–19
37. Out of the four structures, when the circular and

⇒ V = 2V
elliptical loops come out from the field, equal
V
are is not traced in equal interval of time. So any E =
d
induced in both is not constant.
2V
⇒ E = = 5 × 107
4 × 10 −8
38. As diamagnetic substances have negative
intensity of magnetisation, they are weekly 3a
47. = 3.7 Å
repelled by the external field. 2
39. No. of photoelectrons emitted is independent of 2 × 3.7
⇒ a = = 4.3 Å
frequency but depends on intensity. 3
E hc
40. No. of photons = 48. λmax =
(hc / λ ) eV
9 × 10 −3 × 6.67 × 10 −7 1242 eVÅ
= = = 4960 Å
6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 2.5 eV
= 3 × 1016
49.
41. As a and b have same stopping potential and c
has greater stopping potential, then vc > va = vb (OR) (NOT) (NAND)
as b and c have same saturation current and a has 50. ∆IB = 100 µA
lesser value.
∆IC = 5 mA
So Ia < Ib = Ic
∆I C 5 × 10 −3
A α A −4 2β A−4 β = = = 50
42. ZX → Z− 2 Y → Z P ∆I B 100 × 10 −6
As the resulting daughter and parent nucleus has
same atomic number. So they are isotope.
51. H 2 + 1 / 2O 2 → H 2 O 58. 20 mL of 0.50 M HCl = 20×0.050 m mol
2g 16g 18g
= 1.0 m mol = 1.0 meq. of HCl
10g H2 required O2 = 80 which is not present 64 30 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2
g O2 required 8 g of H2 and H2 left = 2g. Thus,
= 30 × 0.1 m mol
O2 is the limiting reactant and H2 is excess
= 3m mol = 3 × 2 meq
reactant.
= 6 meq Ba(OH)2
Hence, H2O formed from 64 of O2
1 meq of HCl will neutralize 1 meq of Ba(OH)2
18
= × 64 Ba(OH)2 left = 5 meq.
16
Tatal volume = 50 mL
72
= 72 g = mole Ba(OH)2 conc. in final solution
18
= 4 mole 5
= N = 0.1 N = 0.05 M
50
52. PO 34− , oxidation no. of P ⇒ +5
[OH–] = 2 × 0.05 M = 0.10 M
SO 24− , oxidation no. of S ⇒ +6 Alternatively,
Cr2 O 72− , oxidation no. of Cr ⇒ +6 Ba(OH)2 + 2HCl → BaCl2 + 2H2O

2 m mol of HCl neutralize 1 m mole of
53. Maximum no. of electrons in any subshell
Ba(OH)2
= 4l + 2
1 m mol of HCl neutralize 0.5 m mol of
54. m value – l to + l
Ba(OH)2
55. ∆H = dissociation energy of reactant – Bond Ba(OH)2 left = 3 – 0.5 m mol = 2.5 m mol
dissociation of energy of product.
2.5
∆H = (606.10 + 4 × 410.5 + 431.37) [Ba(OH)2] = M = 0.05 M
50
– (6 × 410.50 + 336.49) or [OH]– = 2 × 0.05 = 0.1 M
= – 120.0 kJ/mol 59. KE = 4.4 × 10–19 – 4.0 × 10–19
−14
Kw 10 KE/molecule = 0.4 × 10–19
56. Kh = = = 5.65 × 10–10
Kb 1.77 × 10 −5
0.4 × 10 −19
2+ – KE/atom =
57. Cu + 2e → Cu 2
Eº = 0.337 V = 2 × 10–20 J
∆G = – nFEºcell 1 −d[H 2 ] 1 [ NH 3 ]
60. =
= – 2 × F × 0.337 3 dt 2 dt
= – 0.674 −d[H 2 ] 3 d[ NH 3 ]
=
2+
Cu → Cu + e 2+ – dt 2 dt
Eº = – 0.153 V −d[H 2 ] 3
= × 2 × 10–4
dt 2
∆G = +1 × F × 0.153
Final = 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
61. Rate = k[A][B]2
Cu+ + e– → Cu
= k[2A][2B]2
∆G = – 0.52 V
= k × 8[A][B]2
∆G = – nFEºcell
Eºcell = 0.52 V
A 8 0.693 0.693
62. α= C = 68. K= = = 0.5 × 10–3 S–1
A∞ 400 t1 / 2 1386
Ka = Cα2
69. Both BF3 and NO −2 is sp2 hybridized.
1 8 8
= × × 70. F2 → reduction potential very high so strongest
32 400 400
oxidizing agent.
= 1.25 × 10–5
63. ∆Tf = ikf . m 71. N2 = 14e = B.O. = 3
∆Tf N −2 = 15e = B.O. = 2.5

i=
k f .m
N 22− = 16e = B.O.= 2
0.00732 0.00732
= =
1.86 × 0.002 0.00372 72. MI > MBr > MCl > MF
i =2 Down the group increases covalent character
Compound will be [Co(NH3)5]NO5NO2]Cl 73. Since CaO itself is basic, It will not react with
Total possible ions = 2 NaOH
−
1 d (Br ) 1 d (Br2 ) E
64. − = − 74. W = ×I×t
4 dt 3 dt 96500
d (Br2 ) 3 d (Br − ) 9
= − W = × 4.0 × 104 × 6 × 3600
dt 5 dt 96500
65. for bcc type of unit cell
= 8.1 × 104 g
3a = 4r 75. +I stability down the group increase due to inert
3 pair effect
r = a
4 Al < Ga < In < Tl
1.732 × 351
= 76. Cu → fcc lattice
4
= 151.98
1
66. Kc = K a (CH 3COOH ) ×
K a ( HCN )
1
= 1.5 × 10–5 ×
4.5 ×10 −10
4 4r = 2 a
≅ 3 ×10
1
r= a
67. For a spontaneous reaction 2 2
∆G = –ve
Or ar eq. ∆G = 0 1
r= × 361 = 128
∆H = T∆S 2 2
∆H
T =
∆S
77. Inter molecular force in alcohol is mainly
170 × 103
= H-bonding
170
= 1000 K
78. Cr3+ → Is2, 2s22p6,3s23p63d3 86. CH3CH=CH–CH3
Can exists as
3d3
H–C–CH3
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ H–C–CH3
cis
3d3 4s 4p H–C–CH3
And
CH3–C–H
Trans
Unpaired Six lone pair of
electron ligand ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
CH2 OH
Unpaired electron shows colour so absorb visible 87. + HIO4 2HCHO + HIO3+H2O
light. CH2 OH
PBr3
88. CH3–CH2–OH CH3–CH2–Br
79. In both TiF62− and Cu 2 Cl 2 , these no d- Alc. KOH
(i) H2SO4
electrons or no unpaired electrons so, these are CH3–CH2–OH Room temp.
CH2=CH2
colourless. (ii) H2O, heat
80. As complexes of the type [MA3B3] can show

geometrical isomerism knows as facmer
89.
isomerism and not optical isomerism. So here
[Co(NH3)3Cl3]0 can not show optical isomerism. CH3
81. 7th group → largest number of oxidation state. Anhydrous

+ CH3Cl + HCl
AlCl3
82. (CH3)3B → is electron efficient compound, so Toluene
behaves as Lewis acid.
90. HNO3 on nitrating mixture acts as a base.
83. [Ne]3s23p3 has highest ionization energy
91. R – X + KOH → R – OH + KX
(half-filled)
X– replaced by OH– show nucleophilic
CH3 CH3 substitution reaction
84. OH–
nCl Si Cl nHO Si OH 92. Equanil is a diasaccharide [Everday life]
CH3 CH3 93. Neoprene is
CH3 – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – CH2 –

Polymerise
O Si O
Cl n
CH3 n
85. CH ≡ C – CH = CH2 N CH3

4 3 2 1
94. + NaNO2 + HCl
1-butene-3-yne H
CH3
N
N O
O OH
P
95. CH3–CH2–C–OH + Br2 CH3Cl
H.V.Z. reaction 97.
Zn dust Anhydrous
Br AlCl3
CH3–C–COOH OH COOH
Br Alkaline
KMnO4
Cl H
96. 98. C2 having → 2-σ bond → sp
O = C – CCl3 →
Cl H C3 having → 4-σ bond → sp3
C5 having → 3-σ bond → sp2
Cl CH Cl C6 having → 4-σ bond → sp3
CCl3 99. Gene
DDT 100. Thyroxine contains iodine. Its structure is
I I
HO O CH2–CH–COOH
NH2
I I
AIPMT - 2010
Q.1 A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C Q.5 The displacement of a particle along the x-axis
as shown in figure – is given by x = a sin2ωt. The motion of the
α particle corresponds to –
(1) simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π
(2) simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π
C m (3) non simple harmonic motion
(4) simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π
Q.6 The radii of circular orbits of two satellite A and

B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively speed
The coefficient of static friction between the of satellite A is 3V, then the speed satellite B
block and the cart is µ. The acceleration α of the will be –
cart that will prevent the block from falling (1) 3V/4 (2) 6 V
satisfies – (3) 12 V (4) 3 V/2
mg g
(1) α > (2) α > Q.7 A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed.
µ µm
Electric (E) and Magnetic fields (B). The fields
g g are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected.
(3) α ≥ (4) α < The specific charge of the cathode rays is given
µ µ
by –
Q.2 The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than B2 2VB 2
(1) 2
(2)
the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The 2VE E2
binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is 2VE 2 E2
(3) (4)
nearly – B 2
2VB 2
(1) 46 MeV (2) 5.6 MeV (where V is the potential difference between
(3) 3.9 MeV (4) 23 MeV cathode and anode)
Q.3 A circular disk of moment of inertia it is rotating Q.8 A ball is droped from a high rise platform at t =
in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, 0 starting fro rest. After 6 seconds another ball
with a constant angular speed ωi. Another disk of is thrown downwards from the same platform
moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s.
the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has What is the value of v ?
zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks (take g = 10 m/s2)
rotate with a constant angular speed ωf. The (1) 75 m/s (2) 55 m/s
energy lost by the initially rotating disc to (3) 40 m/s (4) 60 m/s
friction is –
1 I 2b 1 I 2t Q.9 A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium
(1) ωi2 (2) ωi2 of refractive index µ, falls on a surface
2 (I t + I b ) 2 (I t + I b )
separating the medium from air at an angle of
Ib – It 1 IbIt incidence of 45º. For which of the following
(3) ωi2 (4) ωi2
(I t + I b ) 2 (I t + I b ) value of µ the ray can undergo total internal
reflection -
Q. 4 Which one of the following statement is FALSE ? (1) µ = 1.33 (2) µ = 1.40
(1) Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives (3) µ = 1.50 (4) µ = 1.25
a p-type semiconductor
(2) Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor Q.10 The period of oscillation of a mass M
are holes suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T.
(3) Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor If along with it another mass M is also
are electrons suspended, the period of oscillation will now be
(4) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor (1) T (2) T/ 2
decreases with increase of temperature
(3) 2T (4) 2T
Q.11 A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with Q.17 Which one of the following bonds produces a
two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an solid that reflects light in the visible region and
amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is whose electrical conductivity decreases with
melted and the material is formed into a rod of temperature and has high melting point ?
half the radius of the original rod. What is the (1) metallic bonding
amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when (2) vander Waal's bonding
placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs (3) ionic bonding
in time t ? (4) covalent bonding
Q Q Q.18 A particle moves a distance x in time t
(1) (2)
4 16 according to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The
Q acceleration of particle is proportional to –
(3) 2Q (4) (1) (velocity)3/2 (2) (distance)2
2 –2
(3) (distance) (4) (velocity)2/3
Q.12 A ball moving with velocity 2m/s collides head Q.19 A conducting circular loop is placed in a
on with another stationary ball of double the uniform magnetic field, B = .025 T with its
mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, the plane perpendicular to the loop The radius of
their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be – the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1
(1) 0, 1 (2) 1, 1 mms–1. The induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2
(3) 1, 0.5 (4) 0, 2 cm, is –
(1) 2 πµV (2) πµV
Q.13 A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin π
(3) µV (4) 2 µV
(ωt – kx). For what value of the wavelength is 2
the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle
velocity – Q.20 The activity of a radioactive sample is measured
(1) πA/2 (2) πA as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts
per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in
(3) 2πA (4 ) A minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its
value is –
Q.14 ( )
A particle has initial velocity 3î + 4ˆj and has (1) loge2/5
( )
acceleration 0.4î + 0.3ˆj .Its speed after 10 s is – (2)
5
log e 2
(1) 7 units (2) 7 2 units (3) 5 log102
(3) 8.5 units (4) 10 units (4) 5 loge2
Q.15 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Q.21 Two particles which are initially at rest, move
Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with towards each other under the action of their
a velocity of 2 /s. The mass per unit length of internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at
any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of
water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power
the system will be –
of the engine – (1) 2v (2) zero
(1) 400 W (2) 200 W (3) 1.5v (4) v
(3) 100 W (4) 800 W
Q.22 A particle of mass M is situated at the center of
Q.16 A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates a
gravitational potential at a point situated at
about its axis with a constant frequency of f 2
revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in distance from the centre, will be –
Wb/m2 at the centre of the ring is – 3GM 2GM
(1) – (2) –
µ qf µ q a a
(1) 0 (2) 0
2πR 2πfR GM 4GM
(3) – (4) –
µ 0q µ 0 qf a a
(3) (4)
2fR 2R
Q.23 The device that can act as a complete electronic → →
Q.26 Six vectors, a through f have the magnitudes
circuit is – and directions indicated in the figure. Which of
(1) Junction diode the following statements is true?
→
(2) Integrated circuit
c
(3) Junction transistor
→
(4) Zener diode b
→ →
a f
Q.24 A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The
→
potential gradient across the potentiometer wire, →
d e
is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the
→ → →
circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is (1) b + c = f
switched off. The balance points, when the key → → →
(2) d + c = f
between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is → → →
plugged in, are found to be at lengths l1cm and (3) d + e = f
→ → →
l2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the (4) b + e = f
resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal
Q.27 A galvanometer has a coil of resistance
respectively to –
100 Ω and gives a full scale deflection for 30
+ – mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30
volt range, the resistance required to be added
will be –
(1) 900 Ω (2) 1800 Ω
(3) 500 Ω (4) 1000 Ω
A B
1
G
2 Q.28 A gramophone record is revolving with angular
3 velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r from
the centre of the record. The static coefficient of
R X friction is µ. The coin will revolve with the
–
A record if –
+ ω2
+ – (1) r = µgω2 (2) r <
µg
(1) k (l2 – l1) and kl2 µg µg
(3) r ≤ (4) r ≥
(2) kl1 and k (l2 – l1) ω2 ω2
(3) k (l2 – l1) and kl1 Q.29 Which of the following statement is false for the
(4) kl1 and kl2 properties of electromagnetic
waves ?
(1) both electric and magnetic field vectors
Q.25 A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats attain the maxima and minima at the same
per second with the vibrating string of a string of place and same time
(2) The energy in electromagnetic wave is
a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats
divided equally between electric and
per second, when the tension in the piano string magnetic vectors
is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano (3) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are
string before increasing the tension was – parallel to each other and perpendicular to
the direction of propagation of wave
(1) 510 Hz (2) 514 Hz (4) These waves do not require any material
(3) 516 Hz (4) 508 Hz medium for propagation
Q.30 The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground Q.36 If ∆U and ∆W represent the increase in internal
state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of He+ ion in the energy and work done by the system
first excited state will be – respectively in a thermodynamical process,
(1) – 13.6 eV (2) – 27.2 eV which of the following is true ?
(3) – 54.4 eV (4) – 6.8 eV (1) ∆U = – ∆W, in a adiabatic process
(2) ∆U = ∆W, in a isothermal process
1 (3) ∆U = ∆W, in a adiabatic process
Q.31 The dimension of ∈0E2, where ∈0 is
2 (4) ∆U = – ∆W, in a isothermal process
permittivity of free space and E is electric field,
is – Q.37 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to
(1) ML2T–2 (2) ML–1T–2 the direction of incidence, received at a distance
2 –1
(3) ML T (4) MLT–1 R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose
outer surface radiates as a black body at a
temperature TK is given by –
(1) σr2T4/R2
(2) σ r2T4/4πr2
Q.32 In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW (3) σ r4T4/r4
power at 125 V is being consumed. How much (4) 4π σ r2T4/R2
chlorine per minute is liberated (E.C.E. of (Where σ is Stefan's Contant)
chlorine is 0.367 × 10–6 kg/C) –
(1) 1.76 × 10–3 kg Q.38 In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1
(2) 9.67 × 10–3 kg and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
(3) 17.6 1× 10–3 kg voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively –
(4) 3.67 × 10–3 kg R = 100 Ω
L C
Q.33 A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free
space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He V1 V2 V3
throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a A
speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor,
the distance of the man above the floor will be –
(1) 9.9 m (2) 10.1 m
~
(3) 10 m (4) 20 m 220 V, 50 Hz
(1) 150 V, 2.2 A (2) 220 V, 2.2 A
1 (3) 220 V, 2.0 A (4) 100 V, 2.0 A
Q.34 An alpha nucleus of energy mv2 bombards a
2
Q.39 A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer.
heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the
The output circuit draws a current of 2.0
distance of closest approach for the alpha
ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the
nucleus will be proportional to –
transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the
1 primary windings of the transformer is –
(1) (2) v2
Ze (1) 3.6 ampere (2) 2.8 ampere
1 1 (3) 2.5 ampere (4) 5.0 ampere
(3) (4) 4
m v
Q.40 A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per
Q.35 A lens having focal length f and aperture of second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source
diameter d forms an image of intensity I. S2 is producing 1.02 × 1015 photons per second
of wavelength 5100 Å.
d
Aperture of diameter in central region of lens Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to –
2 (1) 1.00 (2) 1.02
is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens (3) 1.04 (4) 0.98
and intensity of image now will be respectively –
I 3f I Q.41 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain
(1) f and (2) and
4 4 2 of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an
3I f I output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of
(3) f and (4) and the amplifier is –
4 4 2
(1) 500 (2) 1000
(3) 1250 (4) 50
Q.42 A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic Q.47 Electromagnets are made of soft iron because
meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet soft iron has –
executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec (1) low retentivity and high coercive force
in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 (2) high retentivity and high coercive force
microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 (3) low retentivity and low coercive force
microtesla is produced opposite to the earth's (4) high retentivity and low coercive force
field by placing a current carrying wire, the new
time period of magnet will be – Q.48 A square current carrying loop is suspended in a
(1) 1s (2) 2s uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the
(3) 3s (4) 4s →
loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F ,
Q.43 Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are the net force on the remaining three arms of the
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of loop is –
repulsion between the ions, the number of → →
(1) 3 F (2) – F
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being → →
the charge on an electron) – (3) – 3 F (4) F
4πε 0 Fd 2 4πε 0 Fe 2
(1) 2
(2) Q.49 Consider the following two statements –
e d2
(A) Kirchhoff's junction law follows from the
4πε 0 Fd 2 4πε 0 Fd 2 conservation of charge
(3) (4) (B) Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the
e2 q2
conservation of energy
Which of the following is correct ?
Q.44 The potential difference that must be applied to (1) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
stop the fastest photo electrons emitted by a nickel (2) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when (3) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct
ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be – (4) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(1) 2.4 V (2) – 1.2 V
(3) – 2.4 V (4) 1.2 V Q.50 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown
Q.45 A square surface of side L meter in the plane of below, the input must be –
the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E A
(volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle
B Y
θ with the horizontal side of the square as shown C
in figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, A B C
in units of volt-m, is – (1) 0 1 0
E (2) 0 0 1
θ (3) 1 0 1
(4) 1 0 0
1
Q.51 For the reaction N2O5(g)→2NO2(g)+ O (g) the
2 2
(1) EL2 (2) EL2 cos θ value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given
(3) EL2 sin θ (4) Zero as 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of formation
of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as:
Q.46 A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of (1) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and
value C1, is charged by a source of potential
difference 4V. When another parallel 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is (2) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and
charged by a source of potential difference V, it
is has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and
first combination has. The value of C2, in terms
(3) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and
of C1, is then –
2C1 n 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(1) (2) 16 2 C1
n 1n 2 n1 (4) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and
n2 16C1 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 2 C1 (4)
n1 n 1n 2
Q.52 Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a Q.60 Which one of the following compounds has the
mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by most acidic nature?
(1) Oxidation
(2) Cracking CH2OH
(1)
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure
(4) Hydrolysis
OH
Q.53 In which of the following pairs of molecules/ (2)
ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridization?
–
(1) NO2 and NH3
– OH
(2) BF3 and NO2 (3)
–
(3) NH2 and H2O
–
(4) BF3 and NH2
OH
Q.54 Which one of the following does not exhibit the CH
phenomenon of mutarotation? (4)
(1) (+) Sucrose (2) (+) Lactose
(3) (+) Maltose (4) (–) Fructose
Q.61 In a set of reactions, ethyl benzene yielded a
Q.55 Which one of the following species does not product D.
exist under normal conditions?
(1) Be2+ (2) Be2 CH2CH3 KMnO4 Br2 C2H5OH 'D'
(B) (C) (D)
KOH FeCl3 H+
(3) B2 (4) Li2
would be :
Q.56 Which of the following complex ion is not
CH2 – CH – COOC2H5
expected to absorb visible light? (1)
(1) [Ni (CN)4]2– Br
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ Br
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Ni (H2O)6]2+
(2)
Q.57 Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II) 2,4,6- Br
trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the CH2COOC2H5
order of decreasing acidic character will be COOH
(1) III > II > IV > I
(2) II > III > I > IV
(3) II > III > IV > I (3)
(4) III > IV > II > I OCH2CH3
COOC2H5
Q.58 If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12,
the value of its K(SP) is
(1) 4.00 × 10–6 M3 (4)
(2) 4.00 × 10–7 M3 Br
(3) 5.00 × 10–6 M3
(4) 5.00 × 10–7 M3
Q.62 What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20
Q.59 The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH?
FeCl3 gives 'X' and reaction in presence of light Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5.
gives 'Y'. Thus, 'X' and 'Y' are (1) 3.5 × 10–4 (2) 1.1 × 10–5
–5
(1) X = Benzal chloride, (3) 1.8 × 10 (4) 9.0 × 10–6
Y = o-chlorotoluene
(2) X = m– chlorotoluene, Q.63 For an endothermic reaction, energy of
Y = p- chlorotoluene activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is ∆H
(3) X = o-and p- chlorotoluene (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea
Y = Trichloromethyl benzene will be:
(4) X = Benzyl chloride, (1) less than ∆H (2) equal to ∆H
Y = m- chlorotoluene (3) more than ∆H (4) equal to zero
Q.64 The correct order of increasing reactivity of C–X Q.69 Acetamide is treated with the following reagents
bond towards nucleophile in the following separately. Which one of these would yield
compounds is:
methyl amine?
X X
NO2
(1) NaOH – Br2 (2) Sodalime
(CH3)3C – X (CH3)2CH – X
(3) Hot conc. H2SO4 (4) PCl5
Q.70 An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which

NO2
change will cause the vapour pressure of the
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
solution to increase?
(1) I < II < IV < III (2) II < III < I < IV (1) addition of NaCl
(3) IV < III < I < II (4) III < II < I < IV
(2) addition of Na2SO4
Q.65 For the reduction of silver ions with copper (3) addition of 1.00 molal KI
metal, the standard cell potential was found to be
+ 0.46 V at 25°C. The value of standard Gibbs (4) addition of water
energy. ∆G° will be (F = 96500 C mol–1). Q.71 A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol–
(1) –89.0 kJ (2) –89.0 J 1
) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of
(3) –44.5 kJ (4) –98.0 kJ
sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point
Q.66 In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp of the solution obtained will be : (Kf for water =
are not equal?
1.86 K kg mol–1)
(1) 2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) (1) –0.372°C (2) –0.520°C
(3) + 0.372°C (4) – 0.570°C
(2) SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO (g)
Q.72 Which of the following alkaline earth metal
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g) sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the
lattice enthalpy?
(4) 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) (1) CaSO4 (2) BeSO4
Q.67 Which of the following ions will exhibit colour (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4
in aqueous solutions?
(1) La3+ (z = 57) (2) Ti3+ (z = 22) Q.73 Which one of the following ions has electronic
(3) Lu3+ (z = 71) (4) Sc3+ (z =21) configuration [Ar] 3d6?
(1) Ni3+ (2) Mn3+
Q.68 Aniline in a set of the following reactions 3+
(3) Fe (4) Co3+
yielded a coloured product 'Y'.
NH2 (At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
Q.74 An increase in equivalent conductance of a

NaNO2/ HCl N, N-dimethylaniline
X Y
(273-278K) strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:
The structure of 'Y' would be: (1) increase in ionic mobility of ions
CH3 (2) 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal
(1) N=N N
CH3 dilution
CH3 CH3
(3) increase in both i.e. number of ions and
(2) ionic mobility of ions
HN NH NH
(4) increase in number of ions
(3) H 3C N=N NH2 Q.75 Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin
d4 octahedral complex is
CH3 CH3
(4) (1) –1.8 ∆0 (2) –1.6 ∆0 + P
HN N=N NH
(3) –1.2 ∆0 (4) –0.6 ∆0
Q.76 Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7, Q.84 During the kinetic study of the reaction,
are respectively: 2A + B → C + D, following results were
(1) +3, +5, + 4 (2) +5, +3, +4 obtained:
(3) +5, +4, +3 (4) +3, +4, +5 Initial rate of
Q.77 Which of the following statements about primary Run [A]/mol L–1 [B]/mol L–1 formation of
amines is 'False'? D/mol L–1 min −1
(1) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than
I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10 −3 Bas
aryl amines −2
(2) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10
produce alcohols III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10 −1
(3) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10 − 2
produce phenols
(4) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ed on the above data which one of the following
ammonia is correct?
(1) rate = k [A]2 [B]
Q.78 The correct order of increasing bond angles in (2) rate = k [A] [B]
the following species is: (3) rate = k [A]2 [B]2
–
(1) Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2 (4) rate = k [A] [B]2
–
(2) ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO2
–
(3) Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2 Q.85 Which of the following pairs has the same size?
–
(4) ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO2 (1) Fe2+, Ni2+ (2) Zr4+, Ti4+
4+ 4+
(3) Zr , Hf (4) Zn2+, Hf 4+
Q.79 Among the given compounds, the most
susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl Q.86 The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii
group is : among the following isoelectronic species is :
(1) CH3COOCH3 (2) CH3CONH2 –
(1) Ca2+ > K+ > S2– > Cl
(3) CH3COOCOCH3 (4) CH3COCl –
(2) Cl > S2– > Ca2+ > K+
Q.80 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved (3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If (4) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–
sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar
concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate Q.87 In which one of the following species the
ions, CO32– are respectively central atom has the type of hybridization which
(Molar mass of Na2CO3= 106 g mol–1) is not the same as that present in the other three?
–
(1) 0.955 M and 1.910 M (1) SF4 (2) I3
2–
(2) 1.910 M and 0.955 M (3) SbCl5 (4) PCl5
(3) 1.90 M and 1.910 M
(4) 0.477 and 0.477 M Q.88 Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40
and 50 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. For the reaction
Q.81 In a buffer solution containing equal 1 3
X2 + Y2 XY3, ∆H = –30 kJ to be at
concentration of B– and HB, the Kb for B– is 10– 2 2
10
. The pH of buffer solution is: equilibrium, the temperature should be:
(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4 (1) 750 K (2) 1000 K
(3) 1250 K (4) 500 K
Q.82 The existence of two different coloured complexes
Q.89 Which of the following represents the correct
with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to
order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
(1) linkage isomerism
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?
(2) geometrical isomerism
(1) Cl < F < O < S
(3) coordination isomerism
(2) O < S < F < Cl
(4) ionization isomerism
(3) F < S < O < Cl
(4) S < O < Cl < F
Q.83 Property of the alkaline earth metals that
increases with their atomic number: Q.90 Which one of the following compounds is a
(1) Solubility of their hydroxides in water peroxide?
(2) Solubility of their sulphates in water (1) KO2 (2) BaO2
(3) Ionization energy (3) MnO2 (4) NO2
(4) Electronegativity
Q.91 Which one is most reactive towards electrophilic Q.97 AB crystrallizes in a body centred cubic latticve
reagent? with edge length 'a' equal to 387 pm. The
CH3 CH3 distance between two oppositively charged ions
in the lattice is:
OH CH2OH
(1) (2) (1) 335 pm (2) 250 pm
(3) 200 pm (4) 300 pm
CH3 CH3
Q.98 The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic
NHCOCH3 OCH3 gas is : (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(3) (4) (1) 6.026 × 1022 (2) 1.806 × 1023
23
(3) 3.600 × 10 (4) 1.800 × 1022
Q.92 Which one of the following is employed as a Q.99 Which one of the following molecular hydrides
Tranquilizer drug? acts as a Lewis acid?
(1) Promethazine (2) Valium (1) NH3 (2) H2O
(3) Naproxen (4) Mifepristone (3) B2H6 (4) CH4
Q.100 The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave
Q.93 In the following the most stable conformation of
as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:
n-butane is:
(1) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
CH3 CH3
(2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
H CH3 H H
(1) (2) (3) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
(4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
H H H H
H CH3 Q.101 In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
CH3 CH3 transfer of which one of the following into the
CH3 H
(3) (4) fallopian tube?
(1) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
H H
H HH H H3C H (2) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
stage
Q.94 Which of the following reactions will not result (3) Embryo of 32 cell stage
in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds? (4) Zygote only
(1) Reimer-Tieman reaction
Q.102 Which one of the following structures between
(2) Cannizaro reaction
two adjacent cells is an effective transport
(3) Wurtz reaction
pathway?
(4) Friedel-Crafts acylation
(1) Plasmodesmata
(2) Plastoquinones
Q.95 Which of the following structures represents
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
Neoprene polymer?
(4) Plasmalemma
(1) (CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2 ) n
|
Cl Q.103 Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
CN (1) Protista (2) Fungi
| (3) Archaea (4) Monera
(2) (CH 2 – CH ) n
Q.104 The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India
Cl has been developed for:
|
(3) (CH 2 – CH ) n (1) Insect-resistance
(2) Enhancing shelf life
(4) (CH − CH 2 ) n
| (3) Enhancing mineral content
C6H5 (4) Drought-resistance
Q.105 In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the
Q.96 Which one is most reactive towards SN1 placentation is:
reaction? (1) Marginal (2) Basal
(1) C6H5CH (C6H5)Br (3) Free Central (4) Axile
(2) C6H5CH (CH3)Br Q.106 An element playing important role in nitrogen
(3) C6H5C(CH3) (C6H5) Br fixation is:
(4) C6H5CH2Br (1) Molybdenum (2) Copper
(3) Manganese (4) Zinc
Q.107 Sertoli cells are found in : Q.113 The chief water conducting elements of xylem
(1) ovaries and secrete progesterone in gymnosperms are :
(2) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline (1) Vessels (2) Fibres
(3) seminiferous tubules and provide (3) Transfusion tissue (4) Tracheids
nutrition to germ cells
(4) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin Q.114 Ringworm in humans is caused by :
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
Q.108 Which one of the following cannot be explained (3) Nematodes (4) Viruses
on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
(1) The discrete unit controlling a particular Q.115 Which one of the following is not a
character is called a factor micronutrient?
(2) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, (1) Molybdenum (2) Magnesium
and the other recessive (3) Zinc (4) Boron
(3) Alleles do not show any blending and both Q.116 Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
the characters recover as such in F2 (1) Saccharomyces
generation (2) Streptococcus
(4) Factors occur in pairs (3) Chalamydomonas
(4) Plasmodium
Q.109 Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from :
(1) Synergids Q.117 Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:
(2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (1) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(3) Antipodal cells (2) Rete testis to vas deferens
(4) Diploid egg (3) Vas deferens to epididymis
(4) Epididymis to urethra
Q.110 One example of animals having a single opening
Q.118 Select the correct statement from the following:
to the outside that serves both as mouth as well
(1) Biogas is produced by the activity of
as anus is
aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(1) Octopus
(2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic
(2) Asterias
bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(3) Ascidia
(3) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is
(4) Fasciola
pure methane
Q.111 Select the correct statement from the ones given (4) Activated sludge-sediment in
below : settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant
(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
them tell the truth
Q.119 Select the two correct statements out of the four
(2) Morphine is often given to persons who
(a-d) given below about lac operon.
have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and
repressor and inactivate it
heart rate
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds
(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as
with the operator region
it stimulates recovery
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
Q.112 Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d)
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal
Jacque Monod
human adult:
The correct statements are :
Respiratory Respiratory
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
capacities volumes
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL.
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL Q.120 Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
(c) Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL (1) Gulmohur (2) Cassia
volume (3) Calotropis (4) Bean
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL Q.121 The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
Which one of the following is the correct walls of blood vessels is:
matching of two capacities and volumes? (1) cuboidal epithelium
(1) (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL (2) columnar epithelium
(2) (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL (3) ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL (4) squamous epithelium
(4) (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
Q.122 Which one of the following has its own DNA? Q.129 Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
(1) Mitochondria vitamins and proteins is called –
(2) Dictyosome (1) Somatic hybridisation
(3) Lysosome (2) Biofortification
(4) Peroxisome (3) Biomagnification
(4) Micorpropagation
Q.123 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the Q.130 A common biocontrol agent for the control of
stigma of another flower of the same plant is plant diseases is –
called : (1) Baculovirus (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) Xenogamy (3) Glomus (4) Trichoderma
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Karyogamy Q.131 Widal test is used for the diagnosis of –
(4) Autogamy (1) Malaria (2) Pneumonia
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Typhoid
Q.124 The genotype of a plant showing the dominant Q.132 Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect
phenotype can be determined the secretion of which one of the following ?
by – (1) Aldosterone
(1) Test cross (2) Both Androstenedione and
(2) Dihybrid cross Dehydroepiandrosterone
(3) Pedigree analysis (3) Adrenaline
(4) Back cross (4) Cortisol
Q.125 PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was Q.133 Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of
discovered in photosynthesis of – (1) Tetany
(1) Bryophyte (2) Anaemia
(2) Gymnosperm (3) Angina pectoris
(3) Angiosperm (4) Gout
(4) Algae Q.134 Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched –
Q.126 Study the four statements (a–d) given below and (1) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
select the two correct ones out of them – (2) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on (3) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
grain are ecologically similar in being (4) Insuling – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
consumers
(b) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining Q.135 Select the correct statement from the ones given
species diversity of some invertebrates below with respect to dihybrid cross –
(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of (1) Tightly linked genes on the same
prey species chromosome show higher recombinations
(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, (2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
strychnine by the plants are metaboilic show very few recombinations
disorders (3) Genes loosely linked on the same
The two correct stament are- chromosome show similar recombinations
(1) a and d (2) a and b as the tightly linked ones
(3) b and c (4) c and d (4) Tightly linked genes on the same
chromosome show very few recombination
Q.127 Seminal plasma in human males is rich in – Q.136 Which one of the following statements regards
(1) fructose and calcium to the excretion by the human kidneys is
(2) glucose and calcium correct –
(3) DNA and testosterone (1) Descending limb of Loop of Henly is
(4) ribose and potassium impermeable to water
(2) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable in
Q.128 ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by reabsorbing HCO3
the gene I. It has three alleles – IA, IB and i. (3) nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate
Since there are three different alleles, six is reabsorbed by the renal tube
different genotypes are possible. How many (4) Ascending limb of Loop of Henly is
phenotypes can occur – impermeable to electrolytes
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Four (4) Two
Q.137 The nerve centres which control the body Q.145 Which one of the following statements is
temperature and the urge for eating are contained correct with respect to AIDS ?
in – (1) The HIV can be transmitted through eating
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Pons food together with an infected person
(3) Cerebellum (4) Thalamus (2) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
Q.138 The biomass available for consumption by the infection
herbivores and the decomposers is called – (3) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per
(1) Net primary productivity cent with proper care and nutrition
(2) Secondary productivity (4) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
(3) Standing crop T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
(4) Gross primary productivity
Q.146 Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven
Q.139 If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the distribution of –
tricuspid value of the human heart is partially (1) Gibberellin
non-functional, what will be the immediate (2) Phytochrome
effect – (3) Cytokinins
(1) The flow of blood into the arota will be (4) Auxin
slowed down
(2) The pacemaker will stop working
Q.147 The figure given below is a diagrammatic
(3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left
representation of response of organisms to
atrium
abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent
(4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
respectively –
will be reduced
Q.140 Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of – b
Internal level
(1) Guava (2) Plum
(3) Brinjal (4) Cucumber a
c
Q.141 which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) Baculovirus External level
(2) Salmonella typhimurium (a) (b) (c)
(3) Rhizopus nigricans (1) conformer regulator partial
(4) Retrovirus regulator
(2) regulator partial conformer
Q.142 The one aspect which is not a salient feature of regulator
genetic code, is its being – (3) partial regulator conformer
(1) Degenerate regulator
(2) Ambiguous (4) regulator conformer partial
(3) Universal Regulator
(4) Specific Q.148 Male and female gametophytes are independent
and free-living in –
Q.143 Which one of the following is an example of ex- (1) Mustard
situ conservation ? (2) Castor
(1) Wild life sanctuary (3) Pinus
(2) Seed bank (4) sphagnum
(3) Sacred groves
(4) National park Q.149 The technical term used for the androecium in a
Q.144 Which one of the following palindromic base flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the (1) Monoadelphous
middle by some particular restriction enzyme? (2) Diadelphous
(1) 5' _____ CG TTCG ______ 3' (3) Polyandrous
3' ______ATGGTA ______5' (4) Polyadelphous
(2) 5'______GATATG ______3'
3'______CTACTA ______5' Q.150 Virus envelope is known as –
(3) 5'______GAATTC ______3' (1) Capsid
3'______CTTAAG______5' (2) Virion
(4) 5'______CACGTA______3' (3) Nucleoprotein
3'______CTCAGT______5' (4) Core
Q.151 The permissible use of the technique
aminocentesis is for – Q.158 Which stages of cell division do the following
figures A and B represent respectively ?
(1) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(2) artificial insemination
(3) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a
surrogate mother
(4) Detecting any genetic abnormality
Q.152 During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to

disappear at –
(1) Late prophase (1) Metaphase - Telophase
(2) Early metaphase (2) Telophase - Metaphase
(3) Late Anaphase - Prophase
(3) Late metaphase
(4) Prophase - Anaphase
(4) Early prophase
Q.153 One of the free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is Q.159 The main arena of variuos types of activites of a
(1) Beijernickia cell is –
(2) Rhodospirillum (1) Plasma membrane
(2) Mitochondrian
(3) Rhizobium
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Azotobacter
(4) Nucleus
Q.154 DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive Q.160 The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is –
moleculer is called – (1) Rhizobium (2) Azospirillum
(1) Vector (3) Oscillatoria (4) Frankia
(2) Probe
(3) Clone Q.161 The principal nitrogenous excretory compound
(4) Plasmid in humans is synthesised –
(1) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through
Q.155 Darwin's finches are a good example of – liver
(1) Industrial melanism (2) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
(2) Connecting link (3) in liver and also eliminated by the same
(3) Adaptive radiation through bile
(4) Convergent evolution (4) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through
kidneys
Q.156 The signals for parturition orginate from –
(1) placenta only Q.162 Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of
(2) placenta as well as fully developed foetus substances like –
(3) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (1) amino acids and glucose
(4) fully developed foetus only (2) glucose and fatty acids
(3) fatty acids and glycerol
Q.157 What is true about RBCs in humans ? (4) fructose and some amino acids
(1) They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2
Q.163 Which one of the following symbols and its
(2) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
representation, used in human pedigree
(3) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen analysis is correct –
only and the rest 20 per cent of its (1) = meting between relatives
transported in dissolved state in blood (2) = unaffected male
plasma
(3) = unaffected female
(4) They do not carry CO2 at all
(4) = male affected
Q.164 Which two of the following changes (a – d) Q.170 The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or
usualy tend to occur in the plain dvellers when maize is comparable to which part of the seed
they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more) ? in other monocotyledons?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size (1) Cotyledon
(b) Increase in red blood cell production (2) Endosperm
(3) Aleurone layer
(c) Increased breathing rate
(4) Plumule
(d) Incrase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are – Q.171 Which one of the following kinds of animals
(1) (b) and (c) are triploblastic?
(2) (c) and (d) (1) Flat worms (2) Sponges
(3) (a) and (d) (3) Ctenophores (4) Corals
(4) (a) and (b)
Q.172 Which one of the following statements about
Q.165 Toxic agents present in food which interfere certain given animals is correct –
with thyroxine synthesis lead to the (1) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are
development of – pseudocoelomates
(1) toxic goitre (2) Molluces are acoelomates
(2) cretinism (3) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(3) simple goitre (4) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(4) thyrotoxicosis
Q.173 Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Uterine Devices (IUDs) –
Q.166 If for some reason our goblet cells are non- (1) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
functional, this will adversely affect – (2) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(1) production of somatostatin (3) suppress sperm motility
(2) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous (4) prevent ovulation
glands
(3) maturation of sperms Q.174 The energy-releasing metabolic process in
(4) smooth movement of food down the intestine which substrate is oxidised without an external
electron acceptor is called –
(1) Glycolysis
Q.167 The plasma membrane consists mainly of –
(2) Fermentation
(1) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer (3) Aerobic respiration
(2) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer (4) Photorespiration
(3) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
molecules Q.175 Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –
(4) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer (1) make cuts at specific positions within the
DNA molecule
Q.168 Which one of the following statements about all (2) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for
the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and binding of DNA ligase
Penguin is correct – (3) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
polymerase
(1) Penguin is homoiothermic while the
(4) remove nucleotides from the ends of the
remaining three are poikilothermic DNA molecule
(2) Leech is fresh water form while all others
are marine Q.176 Which one of the folliwng is not a lateral
(3) Spongilla has special collared cells called meristem ?
(1) Intrafascicular cambium
choanocytes, not found in the remaining
(2) Interfascicular cambium
three (3) Phellogen
(4) All are bilaterally symmetrical (4) Intercalary meristem
Q.169 The first movements of the foetus and Q.177 A renewable exhaustible natural resource is –
appearance of hair on its head are usually (1) Coal
(2) Petroleum
observed during which month of pregnancy?
(3) Minerals
(1) Fourth month (2) Fifth month (4) Forest
(3) Sixth month (4) Third month
Q.178 Photoperiodism was first characterised in – Q.186 The second maturation division of the
(1) Tobacco (2) Potato mammalian ovum occurs –
(3) Tomato (4) Cotton (1) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum
makes entry into the Fallopian tube
Q.179 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis (2) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by
than C3 plants due to – a sperm
(1) Higher leaf area (3) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused
(2) Presence of large number of chloroplasts in with that of the ovum
the leaf cells (4) in the Grafian follicle following the first
(3) Presence of thin cuticle maturation division
(4) Lower rate of photorespiration Q.187 Which one of the following does not follow the
central dogma of molecular biology ?
Q.180 Alage have cell wall made up of – (1) Pea (2) Mucor
(1) Cellulose, galactans and mannans (3) Chlamydomonas (4) HIV
(2) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(3) Pectins, cellulose and proteins Q.188 Which one of the following statements about
(4) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins human sperm is correct –
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure
Q.181 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two resulting in fertilisation
groups – (2) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve
(1) Eubacteria and archea th egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(2) Cyanobacteria and diatoms (3) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
(3) Protists and mosses leading the sperm towards the ovum
(4) Liverworts and yeasts (4) Acrosome serves no particular function
Q.182 Genetic engineering has been successfully used Q.189 Consider the following four statements (a–d)
for producing – regarding kidney transplant and select the two
(1) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio correct ones out of these –
vaccine before use in humans (a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the
(2) transgenic models for studying new recipient may need to take
treatments for certain cardiac disease immunosuppresants for a long time
(3) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high (b) The cell-mediated immune response is
fat milk for making ghee responsible for the graft rejection
(4) Animals like bulls for farm work as they (c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for
have super power rejection of the graft
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney
Q.183 Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are – transplant depends on specific interferons
(1) Long fibre and resistance to aphids The two correct statements are –
(2) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to (1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
beetle pests (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
(3) High yield and production of toxic protein
crystals which kill dipteran pests Q.190 Wind pollinated flowers are –
(4) High yield and resistance to bollworms (1) small, brightly coloured, producing large
number of pollen grains
(2) small, proudcing large number of dry pollen
Q.184 Heartwood differs from sapwood in –
grains
(1) Presence of rays and fibres
(3) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(2) Abscence of vessels and parenchyma
(4) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(3) Having dead and non-conducting elements
(4) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
Q.191 dB is a standard abbreviation used of the
Q.185 Satellite DNA is useful tool in – quantitative expression of –
(1) Organ transplantation (1) the density of bacteria in a medium
(2) Sex determination (2) a particular pollutant
(3) Forensic science (3) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
(4) Genetic engineering (4) a certain pesticide
Q.192 Which one of the following is one of the Q.196 Which one of the following not used in organic
characteristics of a biological community? farming?
(1) Stratification (1) Glomus (2) Earthworm
(2) Natality (3) Oscillatoria (4) Snail
(3) Mortality
(4) Sex-ratio Q.197 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
for –
Q.193 Which one of the following statements about (1) Addition of preservatives to the product
morula in humans is correct – (2) Purification of the product
(1) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as (3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA vessel
(2) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA (4) Availability of oxygen throughout the
than in an uncleaved zygote process
(3) It has more or less equal quantity of
cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote Q.198 The part of Fallopian tube closest to the voary is
(4) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than (1) Isthmus (2) Infundibulum
an uncleaved zygote (3) Cervix (4) Ampulla
Q.194 Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any Q.199 An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
support is an example of – (1) Does not require chemical fertilizers and
(1) Thigmotaxis growth hormones
(2) Thigmonasty (2) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
(3) Thigmotropism (3) is completely resistant to all insect pests and
(4) Thermotaxis disease of paddy
(4) gives high yield but has no characteristic
Q.195 The two gases making highest relative atoms
contribution to the green house gases are –
(1) CO2 and CH4 Q.200 Infectious proteins are present in –
(2) CH4 and N2O (1) Gemini viruses
(3) CFC5 and N2O (2) Prions
(4) CO2and N2O (3) Viroids
(4) Satellite viruses
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 4
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 4 1
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 3 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 4 3 1 1 4 2 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 4 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 1 2 3 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 4 3 4
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 4 1 2 1 4 4 1 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 4 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 3
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 4 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 1 4 4 1 4 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 2
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

f GM
Sol.6 Speed of satellite V =
r
Sol.1 mα N VB r 4R
⇒ = A = =2
VA rB R
⇒ VB = (3V)(2) = 6V
mg E
Here f = mg and N = mα but f ≤ µN Sol.7 qvB = qE ⇒ v =
B
g
So mg ≤ µmα ⇒ α ≥ 1 2 q v2 E2
µ but mv = qV so = =
2 m 2V 2VB 2
BE 0.042 × 931 Sol.8 Let two balls meet at depth h from platform
Sol.2 = = 5.6 MeV
nucleon 7 1 1
So h = g(18)2 = v(12) + g(12)2
2 2
Sol.3 By conservation of angular momentum
⇒ v = 75 ms–1
 It 
Itωi = (It + Ib)ωf ⇒ ωf =   ωi
 Sol.9 For TIR 45 ≥ θC ⇒ sin 45 ≥ sinθC
 It + Ib  1 1
1 1 ⇒ ≥ ⇒ µ≥ 2
loss in kinetic energy = It ωi2 – (It + Ib)( ωf2 ) 2 µ
2 2
M 2M
1  I I  Sol.10 T = 2π , T' = 2π = 2T
=  b t  ωi2 k k
2  Ib + It 
Q kA (T1 − T2 )
Sol.4 Electric and magnetic field vectors are Sol.11 =
t l
perpendicular to each other in electromagnetic
wave. A
k  (T1 − T2 )
Q' 4 1 kA (T1 − T2 )
Sol.5
a
x = asin2ωt = (1 – cos2ωt) =   =
2 t 4l 16 l
Q
⇒ Q' =
16
Sol.12 m 2 2m m v1 2m v2 →
e
Initial condition Final condition
By conservation of linear momentum : → → → → →
2m = mv1 + 2mv2 ⇒ v1 + 2v2 = 2 Sol.26 f d ⇒ f = d+ e
1 v − v1
by definition of e : e = = 2 Sol.27 Let required resistance be R then
2 2−0
(R + Rg)Ig = V ⇒ (R + 100) (30 × 10–3) = 30
⇒ v2 – v1 = 1 ⇒ v1 = 0 and v2 = 1ms–1
⇒ R = 900Ω
Sol.13 Wave velocity = nλ = ωA Sol.28 Here friction force provides centripetal force so
ωA ωA f = mω2r but f ≤ µmg
⇒λ= = = 2πA
n ω µg
So mω2r ≤ µmg ⇒ r ≤ 2
2π ω
→ → →  Z2 
Sol.14 v = u + a t = (3î + 4 ĵ) + (0.4î + 0.3 ĵ) (10) Sol.30 En = –13.6  2  = ( –13.6)  4  = –13.6 eV
n  4
= 7 î + 7 ĵ  
→ 1 2
So speed = | v | = 7 2 ms–1 Sol.31  2 ∈0 E  = [Energy Density]
 
m
Sol.15 Power = Fv = v   v = v2(ρAv) ML2 T −2
 t  = = ML–1T–2
= ρAv3 = (100)(2)3 = 800 W L3
µ I µ  q  µ qf P
Sol.16 B = 0 = 0  = 0 Sol.32 m = ZIt = Z   t
2 R 2 R  t  2R V
1 dx 1  100 × 10 3 
Sol.18 x= ⇒v= =– = (0.367 × 10–6)   (60)
t+5 dt ( t + 5) 2  125 
 
dv 2 –3
= 17.61× 10 kg
Acceleration, a = =
dt ( t + 5) 3 Sol.33 Let distance of man from the floor be (10 +
⇒ a ∝ (velocity)3/2 x)m. As centre of mass of system remains at
10m above the floor.
dφ  dr 
Sol.19 φ = (B)(πr2) ⇒ e = = (B)(2πr)   So 50(x) = 0.5(10) ⇒ x = 0.1 m
dt  dt 
⇒ distance of the man above the floor = 10 +
= (0.025)(2π)(2 × 10–2)(10–3) = πµV
0.1
N 1
Sol.20 N = N0e–λt ⇒ 0 = N0e–λ(5) ⇒ λ = = 10.1m
e 5
1 ( Ze )( 2 e ) 1
N0 1 Sol.34 mv2 = then dmin. ∝
Now = N0e–λ(t) ⇒ t = ln2 = 5ln2 2 4π ∈0 d min m
2 λ
Sol.21 Net external force on system is zero. I 3I
Sol.35 f′ = f & Intensity ∝ Area so I′ = I –
=
→ 4 4
So vcm = zero Sol.36 ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W In adiabatic process ∆Q = 0
M Sol.37 Total radiant energy per unit area
a/2 σ(4πr 2 )T 4 σr 2 T 4
GM GM 3GM = =
Sol.22 M VP = – – =– 4πR 2 R2
a/2 a a
a 220
Sol.38 V3 = 220 volt, I = = 2.2A
100
Sol.24 R = kl1 and R + X = kl2
Sol.25 The frequency of the piano string may be 508 or VI (440)(20)
Sol.39 η = S S = 0.8 ⇒ IP = = 5A
516 Hz. VP I P (0.8)(200)
As frequency ∝ Tension so answer will be  hc 
508 Hz. n 2  
Power of S2 λ n λ
Sol.40 =  2= 2 1 =1
Power of S1  hc  n1λ 2
n1  
 λ1 
R  Sol.58 At 25 C pH + pOH = 14
Sol.41 Voltage gain = β  out 
 R in  ∴ pOH = 2
∴ [OH] = 10–2 M
50 × 100
⇒ β= = 25 Now Let solulity of Ba(OH)2 be S
200
Power gain = β(Voltage gain) Ba(OH)2 → Ba+2 + 2OH–2
= (25)(50) = 1250 S S 2S
[OH–] = 2s = 10–2
I I 10 −2
Sol.42 T = 2π , T′ = 2π [Solubility of Ba(OH)2] S = = 5×10–3 mol/L
MB H M ( B H − B) 2
Now Ksp for Ba(OH)2 = 4s3
⇒ T′ = 2T = 4s
= 4 × (5 × 10–3)3 = 5 × 10–7 M3
Sol.62 For acidic buffer solution
Sol.43 d
q q Ka[CH 3COOH]
[H+] =
2 [CH 3COO − ]
(ne) 2 4π ∈0 Fd
F= ⇒n=
4π ∈0 d 2 e2 1.8 × 10 −5 × 0.10
= = 9 × 10–6 M
0.20
12400 Sol.65 2Ag+ + Cu → 2Ag + Cu2+

Sol.44 hν = φ0 + eV0 where hν = = 6.2 eV
2000 n=2
⇒ V0 = 6.2 – 5.01 = 1.19 ≈ 1.20 V ∆G = – nFEcell
∆G = – 2 × 96500 × 0.46 Joul
→ ∆G = – 88.78 kJ ~ – 89 kJ
Sol.45 Here E ⊥ Area Vector
Sol.70 According to raoults law
1  C1  1 16C1 Ps = PXA (XA = mole fraction of solvent)
Sol.46   (4V)2 = (n2C2) ⇒ C2 =
2  n 1  2 n 1n 2
and on addition of water the mole fraction of
Sol.48 Net force on loop is zero. water in the solution increases therefore vapour
pressure increases.
Sol.50 Y = (A + B).C wt 1000
Sol.80 Molarity (M) =
−d[ N 2 O 5 ] mol.wt. vol(ml)
Sol.51 Given – = 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
dt 25.3 1000
= ×
For the reaction 106 250
1 = .955 mol/L of Na2 CO3
N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2
2 and Na2CO3 → 2Na+ + CO3–2
−d[ N 2 O 5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] 2d[O 2 ] therefore [Na+] = 2 × 0.955 = 1.910 M
= =
dt 2 dt dt [CO3–2] = 0.955 M
d[ NO 2 ] 2d[ N 2 O 5 ] Sol.81 For acidic buffer solution
∴ =– =1.25×10–2mol L–1 s–
dt dt [Salt ]
1 pH = pKa + log
[ Acid]
d[O 2 ] 1 d[ N 2 O 5 ] Given [B–] = [HB]
∴ =–
dt 2 dt and Kb for B– = 10–10
–3 –1 –1
= 3.125 10 mol L s So Ka = 10–4 for HB
pH = pka = 4
Sol.84 For order of A : Sol.88 ∆S = ΣSP – ΣSR
By run I & IV 1 3 
∆S = 50 –  × 60 + × 40 
[B] remain same but 2 2 
[A] increases 4 times and rate of reaction also ∆S = – 40 JK–1 mol–1
becomes 4 times ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
at Equilibrium ∆G = 0
∴ order w.r.t. A is 1
∆H − 30 × 10 3
for order of B ∴ T= =
∆S − 40
By Run III & III
T = 750 K
[A] remains same but
[B] becomes 2 times and rate of reaction Sol.97 For BCC
becomes 4 times 3a
r+ + r– =
∴ order w.r.t. B is 2 2
∴ rate = K[A]1 [B]2 3 × 387
∴ r+ + r – = pm
2
= 335.14 pm ≈ 335 pm
AIPMT - 2011
Q.1 The dimension of (µ0∈0 )–1/2 are : Q.7 A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with
–1/2 1/2
(1) [L T ] 1/2
(2) [L T –1/2
] constant speed and time period 0.2 π s. The
(3) [L–1T] (4) [LT–1] acceleration of the particle is :
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 15 m/s2
2
Q.2 The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of (3) 25 m/s (4) 36 m/s2
mass M and length L about an axis passing
Q.8 A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall
through its midpoint and perpendicular to its
with velocity V and bounces back with the same
length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an axis
velocity. The impulse experienced by the body
passing through one of its ends and is -
perpendicular to its length is : (1) Zero (2) MV (3) 1.5 MV (4) 2 MV
(1) I0 + ML2 (2) I0 + ML2/2
(3) I0 + ML2/4 (4) I0 + 2ML Q.9 A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is
closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest
Q.3 A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the
height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 ms–2, the linear velocities at these points respectively,
velocity with which it hits the ground is : v
then the ratio 1 is :
(1) 5.0 m/s (2) 10.0 m/s v2
(3) 20.0 m/s (4) 40.0 m/s (1) r1/r2 (2) (r1/r2)2 (3) r2/r1 (4) (r2/r1)2
Q.4 A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass Q.10 A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon
940 kg and presses the button on control panel. of frequency ν and the nucleus recoils. The
The lift starts moving upwards with an recoil energy will be -
acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension (1) hν (2) Mc2–hν
in the supporting cable is : (3) h2ν2/2Mc2 (4) Zero
(1) 1200 N (2) 8600 N
(3) 9680 N (4) 11000 N Q.11 The potential energy of a system increases if
work is done :
Q.5 A body projected vertically from the earth (1) Upon the system by a conservative force.
reaches a height equal to earth's radius before (2) Upon the system by a nonconservative force.
returning to the earth. The power exerted by the (3) by the system against a conservative force.
(4) by the system against a nonconservative force
gravitational force is greatest :
(1) at the instant just after the body is projected.
Q.12 A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards
(2) at the highest position of the body
east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40
(3) at the instant just before the body hits the m/s towards north. The average acceleration of
earth. the body is :
(4) it remains constant all through. (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
Q.6 The instantaneous angular position of a point on (3) 7 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2
a rotating wheel is given by the equation
Q.13 A missile is fired for maximum range with an
θ (t) = 2t3 – 6t2
initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at :
range of the missile is :
(1) t = 2 s (2) t = 1 s
(1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3) t = 0.5 s (4) t = 0.25 s (3) 50 m (4) 60 m
Q.18 If power dissipated in the 9Ω resistor in the
Q.14 Force F on a particle moving in a straight line
circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential
varies with distance d as shown in the figure. difference across the 2 Ω resistor is :
The work done on the particle during its 9Ω
displacement of 12 m is :
F (N) 6Ω
2
V 2Ω
0 3 7 12 d(m) (1) 2 Volt (2) 4 Volt
(1) 13 J (2) 18 J (3) 8 Volt (4) 10 Volt
(3) 21 J (4) 26 J
Q.19 A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor
when connected across a battery. The same
Q.15 A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical
battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when
surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then
connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The internal
the outward electric flux will :
resistance of the battery is :
(1) be doubled (2) increase four time
(1) 1 Ω (2) 0.5 Ω
(3) be reduced to half (4) remain the same
(3) 1/3 Ω (4) 1/4 Ω
Q.16 Four electric charge + q, + q, – q and – q are Q.20 The rate of increase of thermo-e.m.f. with
placed at the corners of a square of side 2L. (see temperature at the neutral temperature of a
figure). The electric potential at point A, midway thermocouple :
between the two charge + q and + q, is : (1) is negative
+q –q (2) is positive
(3) is zero
A (4) depends upon the choice of the two
materials of the thermocouple.
+q –q
Q.21 A current carrying closed loop in the form of a
(1) Zero
right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a
1 2q uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the
(2) (1 + 5)
4π ∈0 L
magnetic force on the arm BC is F , the force
1 2q  1  on the arm AC is :
(3) 1 + 
4π ∈0 L  5 A
1 2q  1 
(4) 1 − 
4π ∈0 L  5
Q.17 A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric B C

field E (V/m) in the space between the plates. If (1) 2 F (2) – 2 F
the distance between the plates is d (m) and area
of each plate is A (m2) the energy (joules) stored (3) – F (4) F
in the condenser is :
1
(1) ∈0E2 Ad (2) E2Ad/∈0 Q.22 The power obtained in a reactor using U235
2
disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of
1
(3) ∈0E2 (4) ∈0EAd U235 per hour is :
2 (1) 1 microgram (2) 10 microgram
(3) 20 microgram (4) 40 microgram
emf
Q.23 There are four light-weight-rod samples A,B,C,
D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet
is slowly brought near each sample and the T/2 3T/4 T
(1) 0 t
following observations are noted : T/4
(a) A is feebly repelled
(b) B is feebly attracted emf
(c) C is strongly attracted
(d) D remains unaffected T/4 T
0 t
Which one of the following is true ? (2) T/2 3T/4
(1) A is of a non-magnetic material
(2) B is of a paramagnetic material emf
(3) C is of a diamagnetic material
(4) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(3) 0 t
Q.24 The electric and the magnetic field, associated T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-
emf
axis, can be represented by :
→ →
(1) [ E = E 0 ĵ, B = B 0 k̂ ]
T/4 T/2 3T/4
→ → 0 t
(2) [ E = E 0 î , B = B 0 ĵ ] (4) T
→ →
(3) [ E = E 0 k̂ , B = B 0 î ] Q.27 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 2
→ → sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor of
(4) [ E = E 0 ĵ, B = B 0 î ]
capacity 1 µF. The r.m.s. value of the current in
the circuit is :
Q.25 A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic (1) 20 mA (2) 10 mA
field are acting along the same direction in a (3) 100 mA (4) 200 mA
certain region. If an electron is projected in the
region such that its velocity is pointed along the Q.28 An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an
direction of fields, then the electron : inductor L in series. If R and the inductive
(1) will turn towards left of direction of motion reactance are both equal to 3Ω, the phase
(2) will turn towards right of direction of motion difference between the applied voltage and the
(3) speed will decrease current in the circuit is :
(4) speed will increase (1) zero (2) π/6 (3) π/4 (4) π/2
Q.26 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown Q.29 When 1 kg of ice at 0ºC melts to water at 0ºC,
in the figure. The variation of induced emf with the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent
time would be : heat of ice to be 80 Cal/gm, is :
i (1) 293 Cal /K (2) 273 Cal/K
(3) 8 × 104 Cal/K (4) 80 Cal/K
Q.30 During an isothermal expansion, a confined

0 t ideal gas does – 150 J of work against its
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T surroundings. This implies that :
(1) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
(2) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
(3) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(4) no heat is transferred because the process is
isothermal.
Q.31 A particle of mass m is released from rest and Q.35 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared,
follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is :
that the displacement of the mass from the origin (1) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
is small which graph correctly depicts the (2) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
position of the particles as a function of time ? (3) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(4) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
V(x)
m
Q.36 The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second
(x) line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion.
0
The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is :
x(t) x(t) (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
t t Q.37 Which of the following is not due to total

(1) 0 (2) 0 internal reflection ?
(1) brilliance of diamond
x(t) x(t)
(2) working of optical fibre
0 t 0 t (3) difference between apparent and real depth
(3) (4) of a pond
(4) mirage on hot summer days
Q.32 Two waves are represented by the equations
Q.38 A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of
y1 = a sin (ωt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos (ωt +
magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following
kx)m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase
options describe best the image formed of an
difference between them is :
object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the
(1) 0.57 radian (2) 1 radian lens ?
(3) 1.25 radian (4) 1.57 radian (1) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm
Q.33 Out of the following functions representing (2) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(3) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
motion of a particle which represents SHM :
(4) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(A) y = sin ωt – cos ωt (B) y = sin3 ωt
Q.39 In photoelectric emission process from a metal
 3π 
(C) y = 5 cos  − 3ωt  of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of
 4 
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The
(D) y = 1 + ωt + ω2t2 corresponding stopping potential is :
(1) Only (A) and (B) (1) 2.3 V (2) 1.8 V (3) 1.3 V (4) 0.5 V
(2) Only (A)
Q.40 Electrons used in an electron microscope are
(3) Only (D) does not represent SHM
accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
(4) Only (A) and (C) is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with the electrons would
Q.34 Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm (1) increase by 4 times (2) increase by 2 times
air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The (3) decrease by 2 times (4) decrease by 4 times
wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it
Q.41 Light of two different frequencies whose
enters brass from warm air :
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
(1) decreases by a factor 20 respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose
(2) decreases by a factor 10 work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of
(3) increases by a factor 20 maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be :
(4) increases by a factor 10 (1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
Q.42 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the Q.49 In forward biasing of the p-n junction :
velocity of electrons emitted from the electron (1) the positive terminal of the battery is
gun can be increased by : connected to p-side and the depletion
(1) decreasing the potential difference between region becomes thin
the anode and filament (2) the positive terminal of the battery is
(2) increasing the potential difference between connected to p-side and the depletion
the anode and filament region becomes thick
(3) increasing the filament current (3) the positive terminal of the battery is
(4) decreasing the filament current connected to n-side and the depletion
region becomes thin
Q.43 The half life of radioactive isotope 'X' is
(4) the positive terminal of the battery is
50 years. It decays to another element 'Y' which
connected to n-side and the depletion
is stable. The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were
region becomes thick.
found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a
given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to
Q.50 Symbolic representation of four logic gates are
be :
shown as :
(1) 100 years (2) 150 years
(3) 200 years (4) 250 years (i) (ii)
Q.44 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the

incident light has more than a certain minimum: (iii) (iv)
(1) frequency (2) power Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and
(3) wavelength (4) intensity NOT gates, respectively :
Q.45 Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature (1) (ii), (iv) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
because : (3) (iii), (ii) and (i) (4) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(1) molecules break up at high temperature
(2) nuclei break up at high temperature Q.51 The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth
(3) atomic get ionised at high temperature energy level of an atom is :
(4) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
m Q.52 The electrode potentials for
Q.46 A nucleus n X emits one α particle and two
Cu2+(aq) + e– → Cu+(aq)
β–particles. The resulting nucleus is :
and Cu+(aq) + e– → Cu(s)
m−4 m −6 m −6 m−4
(1) n −2 Y (2) n −4 Z (3) n Z (4) n X are + 0.15 V and + 0.50 V respectively. The
value of E º Cu 2 + / Cu will be :
Q.47 A transistor is operated in common emitter
(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.500 V
configuration at VC = 2V such that a change in
(3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V
the base current from 100 µA to 300 µA
produces a change in the collector current from
Q.53 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal
10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is :
aqueous solution is :
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 100
(1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344
Q.48 If a small amount of antimony is added to
germanium crystal :
Q.54 By what factor does the average velocity of a
(1) its resistance is increased
gaseous molecule increase when the
(2) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled ?
(3) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.0 (3) 2.8 (4) 4.0
(4) there will be more free electrons than holes in
the semiconductor
Q.55 A buffer solution is prepared in which the Q.61 The Van't Hoff factor i for a compound which
concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the association in other solvent is respectively :
equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals (1) greater than one and greater than one
1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this solution? (2) less than one and greater than one
(3) less than one and less than one
(log 2.7 = 0.43)
(4) greater than one and less than one
(1) 8.73 (2) 9.08 (3) 9.43 (4) 11.72
Q.62 Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+
Q.56 Two gases A and B having the same volume couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/ Cr
diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their
seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is standard state are connected to make a cell. The
49 u. Molecular mass of B will be : cell potential will be :
(1) 25.00 u (2) 50.00 u (1) + 1.83 V (2) + 1.19 V
(3) 12.25 u (4) 6.50 u (3) + 0.89 V (4) + 0.18 V
Q.57 Which of the following is correct option for free Q.63 A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking
equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure
expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic
of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the
condition ?
partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the
(1) q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0 mixture is :
(2) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0 (1) 1 atm (2) 0.5 atm
(3) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0 (3) 0.8 atm (4) 0.9 atm
(4) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0 Q.64 If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative
value, then which of the following gives the
Q.58 For the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g), correct relationships for the values of ∆Gº and
the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium Keq ?
constant is K2 for the reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g)
(1) ∆Gº > 0; Keq < 1 (2) ∆G° > 0; Keq > 1
2NO2(g). What is K for the reaction
(3) ∆Gº < 0; Keq > 1 (4) ∆G°< 0; Keq < 1
NO2(g) 1/2 N2(g)+ O2(g)?
(1) 1/(K1K2) (2) 1/(2 K1K2)
Q.65 The freezing point depression constant for water
(3) 1/(4 K1K2) (4) [1/K1K2]1/2
is –1.86ºCm–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in
Q.59 If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of 45.0g H2O, the freezing point is changed by –
adsorbent, which of the following relations is not 3.82ºC. Calculate the Van't Hoff factor for
related to adsorption process ? Na2SO4.
x (1) 0.381 (2) 2.05
(1) =p×T
m (3) 2.63 (4) 3.11
x
(2) = f(p) at constant T
m Q.66 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are
x 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
(3) = f(T) at constant p between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be:
m
1
x (1) λ1 = λ2 (2) λ1 = λ2
(4) p = f(T) at constant   2
m (3) λ1 = 2λ2 (4) λ1 = 4λ2
Q.60 If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid
water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27ºC, the Q.67 Standard electrode potential of three metals X,
entropy change for the process would be : Y and Z are –1.2 V, + 0.5 V and –3.0 V
respectively. The reducing power of these
(1) 100 J mol–1 K–1 (2) 10 J mol–1 K–1
–1 –1 metals will be :
(3) 1.0 J mol K (4) 0.1 J mol–1 K–1
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Y > Z > X
(3) Y > X > Z (4) Z > X > Y
Q.68 Which one of the following statements for the (1) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
order of a reaction is incorrect ? (2) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(1) Order of reaction is always whole number (3) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
(2) Order can be determined only experimentally (4) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(3) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric (At nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
coefficient of the reactants.
(4) Order of reaction is sum of power to the Q.76 Which of the two ions from the list given below
concentration terms of reactants to express that have the geometry that is explained by the
the rate of reaction same hybridization of orbitals, NO −2 , NO 3− ,
NH2–, NH4+, SCN– ?
Q.69 Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6kJ (1) NO2– and NH2– (2) NO −2 and NO 3−
The dissociation energy of H – H bond is (3) NO +4 and NO 3− (4) SCN– and NH −2
(1) +217.4 kJ (2) –434.8 kJ
Q.77 Which of the following elements is present as
(3) –869.6 kJ (4) +434.8 kJ
the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig
Q.70 If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of
iron ?
electrons will be :
(1) Phosphorus (2) Manganese
(1) ns → np(n – 1)d → (n – 2)f
(3) Carbon (4) Silicon
(2) ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np
(3) ns → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f → np Q.78 Which of the following is least likely to behave
(4) ns → (n – 2)f → np → (n – 1)d as Lewis base ?
(1) OH– (2) H2O
Q.71 Which of the following compounds has the (3) NH3 (4) BF3
lowest melting point ?
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (3) CaBr2 (4) Cal2 Q.79 Which one of the following is present as an
active ingredient in bleaching powder for
Q.72 Which of the following pairs of metals is bleaching action ?
purified by van Arkel method ? (1) CaCl2 (2) CaOCl2
(1) Ni and Fe (2) Ga and In (3) Ca(OCl)2 (4) CaO2Cl
(3) Zr and Ti (4) Ag and Au
Q.80 The complex [Pt (Py) (NH3) Br Cl] will have
Q.73 The correct order of increasing bond length of C how many geometrical isomers ?
– H, C – O, C – C and C = C is : (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C (3) 4 (4) 0
(2) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C
(3) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H Q.81 Name the type of the structure of silicate in
(4) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4– is shared ?
(1) Three dimensional (2) Linear chain
Q.74 Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when silicate
Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the (3) Sheet silicate (4) Pyrosilicate
formation of :
(1) CrSO4 (2) Cr2(SO4)3 Q.82 The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and
(3) CrO42– (4) Cr2(SO3)3 [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of
which type of isomerism ?
Q.75 For the four successive transition elements (1) Geometrical isomerism
(Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation (2) Linkage isomerism
state will be there in which of the following (3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Coordination isomerism
order?
Q.83 The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ Q.89 In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave
2+ 4 5 6
and Co are d , d , d and d respectively. Which 7 a product D. Identify the product D.
one of the following will exhibit minimum COOH
SOCl2 NH3 NaOH
paramagnetic behaviour ? B C D
Br2
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ Br
A
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]2+
CONH2 SO2NH2
(At. Nos. Cr= 24, Mn= 25, Fe= 26, Co = 27)
(1) (2)
Q.84 Of the following complex ions, which is Br Br

diamagnetic in nature ? COOH NH2
3 2–
(1) [CoF6] (2) [NiCl4] (3) (4)
2– 2–
(3) [Ni(CN)4] (4) [CuCl4]
NH2 Br
Q.85 Which of the following has the minimum bond

Q.90 In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen
length ? 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of
(1) O2 (2) O +2 (3) O −2 (4) O 22 − nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715
mm pressure. The percentage composition of
nitrogen in the compound would be :
Q.86 The value of ∆H for the reaction
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g) is less than zero. (1) 14.45 (2) 15.45 (3) 16.45 (4) 17.45
Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at :
(1) High pressure and low temperature Q.91 Which one of the following is most reactive
towards electrophilic reagent ?
(2) High temperature and high pressure
CH3 CH3
(3) Low pressure and low temperature (1) (2)
(4) High temperature and low pressure CH2OH OCH3
CH3 CH3
Q.87 Of the following which one is classified as (3) (4)
OH NHCOCH3
polyester polymer ?
(1) Nylon - 66 (2) Terylene
Q.92 Which one is a nucleophilic substitution
(3) Backelite (4) Melamine reaction among the following ?
(1) CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN
Q.88 What is the product obtained in the following H+
(2) CH3 – CH = CH2 + H2O
reaction :
CH3 – CH – CH3
NO2 Zn ............. ? OH
NH4Cl
(3) RCHO + R′MgX → R – CH – R′
NH2 NHOH
OH
(1) (2)
CH3
N (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2Br + NH3 →
(3) N
CH3
–
O CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2NH2
N= N
(4)
+
Q.93 Considering the state of hybridization of carbon Q.96 The correct IUPAC name of the compound
atoms, find out the molecule among the
following which is linear?
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 is
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH (1) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1 ene
(2) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
Q.94 In the following reactions, (3) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
CH3 (4) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene
+
(a) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 H /Heat A + A
 Major   Minor  Q.97 Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out
 Pr oduct   Pr oduct 
OH    
in the presence of which of the following ?
HBr , dark
(b) A     →
in absence of peroxide
C + D (1) H2 and Pt as catalyst
 Major   Minor 
 Pr oduct   Pr oduct 
    (2) Glycol with KOH
the major products (A) & (C) are respectively: (3) Zn-Hg with HCl
CH3 (4) Li Al H4
(1) CH2 = C – CH2 – CH3 and Q.98 Which one of the following is employed as
CH3 Antihistamine ?
CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3 (1) Omeprazole (2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Diphenyl hydramine(4) Norothindrone
Br
CH3
Q.99 Which one of the following statements is not
(2) CH2 = C – CH2 – CH3 true regarding (+) Lactose ?
and (1) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH
CH3 groups
CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3 (2) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal
amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose
Br
(3) (+) Lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the
CH3
union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a
(3) CH3 – C = CH – CH3 and molecule of D(+) galactose
CH3 (4) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not
CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3 exhibit mutarotation
Br
Q.100 Which one of the following statement is not true
CH3
?
(4) CH3 – C = CH – CH3 and (1) Oxide of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are
CH3 the most widespread air pollutant
CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 (2) pH of drinking water should be between
5.5 – 9.5
Br (3) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good
Q.95 The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc.
for the growth of fish
HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it:
(4) Clean water would have a BOD value of less
(1) increases the concentration of NO3– ions
than 5ppm
(2) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
(3) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
Q.101 The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are :
(4) increases the solubility product of AgCl
(1) axillary buds (2) root buds
(3) flower buds (4) shoot buds
Q.102 Organisms called Methanogens are most
abundant in a : Q.112 Which one of the following also acts as a
(1) Hot spring (2) Sulphur rock catalyst in a bacterial cell ?
(3) Cattle yard (4) Polluted stream (1) 23 s RNA (2) 5 s RNA
(3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA
Q.103 Which one of the following have the highest
Q.113 Which one of the following statements is
number of species in nature ?
correct ?
(1) Angiosperms (2) Fungi
(1) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
(3) Insects (4) Birds
(2) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(3) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm
Q.104 Archegoniphore is present in :
(4) Placentation in primose is basal
(1) Funaria (2) Marchantia
(3) Chara (4) Adiantum Q.114 The correct floral formula of chilli is :
Q.105 Compared with the gametophytes of the (1) ⊕ K5C5 A(5)G2 (2)
bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants
⊕ K(5)C5 A5G(2)
tend to be
(1) smaller and to have smaller sex organs
(3) ⊕ K(5)C(5) A5G(2) (4) ⊕ K5C(5) A(5)G2
(2) smaller but to have larger sex organs
(3) larger but to have smaller sex organs Q.115 Nitrifying bacteria :
(4) larger and to have larger sex organs (1) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(2) oxidize ammonia to nitrates
Q.106 The gametophyte is not an independent, free (3) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen to compounds
living generation in : (4) convert proteins into ammonia
(1) Pinus (2) Polytrichum
(3) Adiantum (4) Marchantia Q.116 The function of leghaemoglobin in the root
nodules of legumes is :
Q.107 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and (1) expression of nif gene
glycolipids is : (2) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole (3) oxygen removal
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Plastid (4) nodule differentiation
Q.108 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in : Q.117 Which one of the following elements is plants is
(1) Ribosomes (2) Chloroplast not remobillised ?
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chromoplast (1) Sulphur (2) Phosphorus
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium
Q.109 In eubacteria, a cellular component that
resembles eukaryotic cell is : Q.118 A drupe develops in :
(1) Cell wall (2) Plasma membrane (1) Tomato (2) Mango
(3) Nucleus (4) Ribosomes (3) Wheat (4) Pea
Q.119 Ground tissue includes :
Q.110 Mutations can be induced with : (1) All tissues internal to endodermis
(1) Gamma radiation (2) Infra Red radiations (2) All tissues external to endodermis
(3) IAA (4) Ethylene (3) All tissues except epidermis and vascular
bundles
Q.111 A collection of plants and seeds having diverse
(4) Epidermis and cortex
alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :
(1) Genome (2) Herbarium
(3) Germplasm (4) Gene library
Q.120 In land plants, the guard cells differ from other Q.130 What would be the number of chromosomes of
epidermal cells in having : the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
(1) Chloroplasts chromosomes in its root tip cells ?
(2) Cytoskeleton (1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
(3) Mitochondria Q.131 Wind pollination is common in :
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Orchids (2) Legumes
(3) Lilies (4) Grasses
Q.121 The ovary is half inferior in flower of :
(1) Guava (2) Peach Q.132 In which one of the following pollination is
(3) Cucumber (4) Cotton autogamous ?
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy
Q.122 The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex (3) Xenogamy (4) Chasmogamy
are collectively called :
Q.133 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an
(1) Phellem (2) Phelloderm area at any time is called :
(3) Phellogen (4) Periderm (1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
(3) Detritus (4) Humus
Q.123 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Cassia – lmbricate aestivation Q.134 Which one of the following statements is wrong
(2) Root pressure-Guttation in case of Bhopal tragedy ?
(1) It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984
(3) Puccinia – Smut
(2) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
(4) Root –Exarch protoxylem
(3) Thousands of human beings died
(4) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
Q.124 Flowers are Zygomorphic in :
(1) Datura (2) Mustard Q.135 Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :
(3) Gulmohur (4) tomato (1) Biological process (2) Physical process
(3) Mechanical process (4) Chemical process
Q.125 CAM helps the plants in : Q.136 Eutrophication is often seen in :
(1) Reproduction (2) Conserving water (1) Mountains (2) Deserts
(3) Secondary growth (4) Disease resistance (3) Fresh water lakes (4) Ocean
Q.137 Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in :
Q.126 Of the total incident solar radiation the
(1) Alpine forests (2) Temperate forests
proportion of PAR is
(3) Mangroves (4) Tropical rainforests
(1) More than 80% (2) About 70%
(3) About 60% (4) Less than 50% Q.138 Which one of the following expanded forms of
the following acronyms is correct ?
Q.127 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing (1) IUCN = International Union for
symbiont is found in Conservation of Nature and Natural
(1) Pisum (2) Alnus Resources
(2) IPCC = International Panel for Climate
(3) Cycas (4) Cicer
Change
(3) UNEP = United Nations Environmental
Q.128 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of : policy
(1) Brassica (2) Citrus (4) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(3) Gossypium (4) Triticum Q.139 Which one of the following statements is
correct for secondary succession?
(1) It is similar to primary succession except
Q.129 Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of that it has a relatively fast pace.
(1) Zygote (2) Suspensor (2) It begins on a bare rock.
(3) Egg (4) Synergid (3) It occurs on deforested site
(4) It follows primary succession
Q.140 Which one of the following shows maximum Q.150 "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green
genetic diversity in India ? revolution in India are the varieties of :
(1) Mango (2) Groundnut (1) Bajra (2) Maize
(3) Rice (4) Maize (3) Rice (4) Wheat
Q.141 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ? Q.151 Which one of the following organisms is not an
(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Agrobacterium example of eukaryotic cells ?
(3) Rhizobium (4) Nostoc (1) Amoeba proteus
(2) Paramccium caudatum
Q.142 Which one of the following acts as a
(3) Escheria coli
physiological barrier to the entry of
(4) Euglena viridis
microorganisms in human body ?
(1) Skin Q.152 Which one of the following animals is correctly
(2) Epithelium of Urogenital tract matched with its particular named taxonomic
(3) Tears category ?
(4) Monocytes (1) Housefly – Musca, an order
(2) Tiger –tigris, the species
Q.143 Which one of the following helps in absorption
(3) Cuttlefish- Mollusca, a class
of phosphorus from soil by plants ?
(4) Humans – Primata, the family
(1) Anabaena (2) Glomus
(3) Rhizobium (4) Frankia Q.153 In which one of the following the genus name,
its two characters and its class/phylum are
Q.144 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and correctly matched ?
selection for disease resistance against rust
Genus Class /
pathogens is a variety of : Two characters
name Phylum
(1) Wheat (2) Chilli (a) Cnidoblasts
(3) Maize (4) Sugarcane (1) Aurelia Organ level of Coelenterata
(b)
organization
Q.145 Which of the following is mainly produced by Body
the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ? (a)
segmented
(1) Marsh gas (2) Laughing gas (2) Ascaris Males and Annelida
(3) Propane (4) Mustard gas (b) females
distinct
Q.146 Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in : A tympanum
(a)
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spectrophotometry represents ear
(3) Salamandra Amphibia
(3) Tissue Culture (4) PCR Fertilization is
(b)
external
Q.147 Maximum number of existing transgenic animals skin possesses
(a)
is of : (4) Pteropus hair Mammalia
(1) Pig (2) Fish (b) Oviparous
(3) Mice (4) Cow Q.154 Which one of the following groups of animals is
correctly matched with its one characteristic
Q.148 Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' feature without even a single exception ?
fermentation is done to :
(1) Mammalia : give birth to young ones.
(1) degrade sewage (2) produce methane
(2) Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with
(3) obtain antibiotics (4) purify enzymes
one incompletely divided ventricle
Q.149 The process of RNA interference has been used (3) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an
in the development of plants resistant to : upper and a lower jaw
(1) Insects (2) Nematodes (4) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous
(3) Fungi (4) Viruses endoskeleton
Q.155 What will you look for to identify the sex of the (1) A : Lecithin-a component of cell membrane
following ? (2) B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up
(1) Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins
nucleic acids
(2) Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior
end (3) A : Triglyceride-major source of energy
(3) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first (4) B : Uracil-a component of DNA
digit of the hind limb
(4) Female cockroach – Anal cerci Q.160 What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from
Q.156 The curve given below shows enzymatic activity his ancestors ?
with relation to three conditions (pH,
temperature and substrate concentration) (1) Increasing brain capacity
(2) Upright posture
(3) Shortening of jaws
y-axis
(4) Binocular vision
Q.161 Which one of the following conditions correctly

x-axis
What do the two axises (x and y) represent ? describes the manner of determining the sex in
x-axis y-axis the given examples ?
(1) enzymatic activity, temperature (1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
(2) enzymatic activity, pH
(3) temperature enzyme activity produce male in Drosophila
(4) substrate concentration enzymatic (2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
activity
determine female sex in Birds
Q.157 The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans (3) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
are known to occur in : male sex in grasshopper
(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra
(2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining (4) XO condition in humans as found in Turner
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes Syndrome, determines female sex
(4) Bile duct and oesophagus
Q.158 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(1) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator Q.162 A person with unknown blood group under
and get aligned along equatorial plate in
ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in
metaphase
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre an accident and needs immediate blood
of the cell in anaphase transfusion. His one friend who has a valid
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite
poles in telophase certificate of his own blood type, offers for
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum blood donation without delay. What would have
are still visible at the end of prophase
been the type of blood group of the donor friend
Q.159 Which one of the following structural formulae (1) Type A (2) Type B
of two organic compounds is correctly identified
along with its related function ? (3) Type AB (4) Type O
O
NH2
O CH2 – O – C – R
N Q.163 What are those structures that appear as 'beads-
R2 – C– O – CH O N
on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed
CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2
under electron microscope ?
N NH
OH N
CH3 CH3 (1) Base pairs (2) Genes
A CH3 B
(3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleosomes
Q.164 Match the source gland with its respective Q.169 One very special feature in the earthworm
hormone as well as the function. pheretima is that :
Source gland Hormone Function (1) It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(1) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates (2) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
blood calcium (3) The typhlosole greatly increases the
level effective absorption area of the digested
(2) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of food in the intestine
pituitary uterus muscles (4) The S-shaped state embedded in the
during child integument are the defensive weapons used
birth against the enemies
(3) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates
Q.170 Two friends are eating together on a dining
pituitary resorption of
table. One of them suddenly starts coughing
water in the
while swallowing some food. This coughing
distal tubules in
would have been due to improper movement of:
the nephron
(1) Tongue (2) Epiglottis
(4) Corpus Estrogen Supports
(3) Diaphragm (4) Neck
luteum pregnancy
Q.171 Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :
Q.165 Which of the following is correctly stated as it (1) carry blood from one visceral organ to
happens in the common cockroach ? another visceral organ]
(1) The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard (2) supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(3) carry blood away from the heart to different
(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs organs
projecting out from the colon (4) break up into capillaries which reunite to
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in form a vein
blood Q.172 'Bundle of Hiss' is a part of which one of the
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea following organs in humans ?
(1) Pancreas (2) Brain
Q.166 A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in (3) Heart (4) Kidney
the human blood even after its uptakes by the
body tissues. This O2 : Q.173 The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained
(1) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial in the rods type of photo receptor cells of the
tissues human eye, is a derivative of :
(2) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
(3) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
(4) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation Q.174 Which one of the following plasma proteins is
at 96% involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(1) Fibrinogen (2) an albumin
Q.167 Which one of the following enzymes carries out (3) serum amylase (4) a globulin
the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin Q.175 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not
(3) Rennin (4) Lipase conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is :
(1) Comparatively more permeable of K+ ions
Q.168 Which one of the following is not a part of a
and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
renal pyramid ?
(2) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions
(1) Loops of Henle
and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(2) Peritubular capillaries
(3) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(3) Convoluted tubules
(4) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(4) Collecting ducts
Q.176 Which one of the following correctly explains the
function of a specific part of a human nephron ?
(1) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
from the glomerulus towards renal vein
(2) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores)
for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's
capsule
(3) Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major
substances from the glomerular filtrate
(4) Distal convoluted tubule : re-absorption of K+ Options :
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
(1) B : red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly
Q.177 Given below is an incomplete table certain (2) C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to
hormones, their source glands and one major
tissues
effect of each on the body in humans. Identify
the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C. (3) A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange
of respiratory gases
Glands Secretion Effect on Body
A Oestrogen Maintenance of (4) D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and
secondary sexual CO2 takes place here
characters Q.180 Which one of the following statements is
Alpha cells B Raises blood
correct regarding blood pressure :
of Islets of sugar level
Langerhans (1) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like
Anterior C Over section brain and kidney
pituitary leads to (2) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and
gigantism
requires treatment
Options :
(3) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood
A B C
(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitionin pressure
(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth (4) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
hormone
(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
Q.181 Which one of the following statements is
(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
correct with respect to kidney function
Q.178 Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous
regulation ?
wastes is found in :
(1) Insects and Amphibians (1) During summer when body loses of lot of
(2) Reptiles and Birds water by evaporation, the release of ADH is
(3) Birds and Annelids suppressed
(4) Amphibians and Reptiles
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH
Q.179 The figure given below shows a small part of release is suppressed
human lung where exchange of gases takes
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates
place. In which one of the options given below,
the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified ADH release
along with its function, (4) An increase in glomerular blood flow
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
Q.182 The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic Q.186 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
sectional view of the female reproductive system considered safe up to how many weeks of
of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I- pregnancy ?
VI have been correctly identified ? (1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks
(3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen weeks
Q.187 Which one of the following is categorised as a

parasite in true sense ?
(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's
nest
(2) The female anopheles bites and sucks blood
from humans
(1) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium,
(III) Fallopian tube (3) Human foetus developing inside the uterus
(2) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, draws nourishment from the mother
(IV) Fimbriage (4) Head louse living on the human scalp as
(3) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, well as laying eggs on human hair
(V) Cervix
(4) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus Q.188 What type of human population is represented
(VI) Cervix by the following age pyramid ?
Q.183 The testes in humans are situated outside the

abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. Post-reproductive
The purpose served is for :
(1) providing a secondary sexual feature for
exhibiting the male sex Reproductive
(2) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower
than the internal body temperature
(3) escaping any possible compression by the Pre-reproductive
visceral organs (1) Expanding population
(4) providing more space for the growth of
(2) Vanishing population
epididymis
(3) Stable population
(4) Declining population
Q.184 Which one of the following is the most wide
accepted method of contraception in India, as at Q.189 Which one of the following statements for
present ? pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
(1) IUDs' (Intra uterine devices)
remaining three are correct ?
(2) Cervical caps
(1) It is upright in shape
(3) Tubectomy
(2) Its base is broad
(4) Diaphragms
(3) It shows energy content of different trophic
Q.185 If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the level organisms
human reproductive system get blocked, the (4) It is inverted in shape
gametes will not be transported from :
Q.190 Ethanol is commercially produced through a
(1) Vagina to uterus
particular special of :
(2) Testes to epididymis
(1) Aspergillus (2) Sanccharomyces
(3) Epididymis to vas deferens
(4) Ovary to uterus (3) Clostridium (4) Trichoderma
Q.191 Consider the following four conditions (a – d) Q.196 At which stage of HIV infection does one
and select the correct pair of them as adaptation usually shown symptoms of AIDS ?
to environment in desert lizards. (1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
The conditions : infected person
(a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature (2) When the infecting retrovirus enters host
(b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high cells
temperature (3) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
(c) bask in sun when temperature is low transcriptase
(d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis (4) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
Options : T-lymphocytes damages larger number of
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d) these
(3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
Q.197 Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
Q.192 Which one of the following pairs of gases are the strand giving the base sequence on the opposite
major cause of "Green house effect"? strands. What is so special shown in it ?
(1) CO2 and N2O (2) CO2 and O3 5' .............. GAATTC ................ 3'
(3) CO2 and CO (4) CFCs and SO2 3' .............. CTTAAG ................. 5'
(1) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
Q.193 Where will you look for the sporozoites of the (2) Replication completed
malarial parasite ? (3) Deletion mutation
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female (4) Start codon at the 5' end
Anopheles mosquito
Q.198 The most common substrate used in distilleries
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
for the production of ethanol is :
mosquito
(1) Molasses (2) Corn meal
(3) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering
(3) Soyabean (4) Ground gram
from malaria
(4) spleen of infected humans Q.199 An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising
soyabean crop is :
Q.194 When two unrelated individuals or lines are
(1) Nostoc (2) Azotobacter
crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is often
(3) Azospirillum (4) Rhizobium
superior to both parents. This phenomenon is
called : Q.200 There is a restriction endonuclease called
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Heterosis EcoRl. What does "co" part in it stand for ?
(3) Transformation (4) Sphcing (1) coli (2) colon
(3) coelom (4) coenzyme
Q.195 A certain patient is suspected to be suffering
from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
Which diagnostic technique will you recommend
for its detection ?
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA
(3) MRI (4) Ultra Sound
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 1 4 3 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 3 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 3
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 1
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 1 1 3
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 1
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 4 1
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS 4.
T
1
1. Velocity of light c =
µ 0 ∈0 1 m/s2
So dimension of given expression is equal to
velocity ⇒ [LT–1] 940 g
2. 60 g
For (man + lift)
T – (60 + 940) g = (60 + 940) × 1
T = (60 + 940)(10 + 1) = 11000 N
r r
5. P = F . V = FVcosθ
Power will be maximum when velocity and cosθ
will be maximum.
Moment of inertia about an axis passing through
one end = Icm + md2 6. θ = 2t3 – 6t2
dθ
L
2
ML2 ω= = 6t2 – 12t
= I 0 + M   = I0 + dt
2 4 dω
α= = 12t – 12
dt
3. v= 2gh = 2 × 10 × 20 = 20 m/sec τ = Iα
Torque will be zero when α is zero
so α = 12t – 12 = 0
t = 1 sec
Σq
7. If particle move in a circular path with constant 15. φnet =
speed, the acceleration of the particle is ∈0
centripetal acceleration Q Net flux does not depend on size of Gaussian
2 surface
 2π 
ac = ω2R =   R ⇒ Flux remains unchanged.
 T 
4π 2 R 4π 2 kq kq kq kq
ac = = × 5 × 10–2 16. VA = + – –
T2 (0.2π) 2 L L 5L 5L
2
ac = 5 m/sec 2kq  1 
= 1 − 
L  5
8. Impulse = mv2 – mv1
= –mv – mv = –2mv 1
17. U = CV2
2
9. v1r1 = v2r2
v1 r 1  ∈0 A  2
= 2 =  V
v2 r1 2 d 
2
10. 1 V 1
= (∈0 Ad)  = ∈0 E 2 Ad
2 d
  2
18. Q ρ = I g2 R
Nucleus Photon Nucleus +
Photon 36 = I2(9)
⇒ I9 = 2A
dP 1
Fex = = 0 ⇒ dP = 0 ⇒ P = constant Q In parallel I ∝
dt R
r r
Pi = Pf I9 6 2 6
r r = =
0 = PNu + PPh
I6 9 I6 9
r r I6 = 3A
h hν
| PNu | = | PPh | = = ⇒ Ickt = 2 + 3 = 5A
λ c ⇒ V2Ω = IR = (5)(2) = 10 volt
2
PNu
Recoil K.E. of nucleus K.ENu =
2M Nu E
19. I=
R+r
( hν / c ) 2 h 2ν 2
K.E.Nu = = E
2M 2Mc 2 2= ….(1)
2+r
11. Potential energy will increase when work is done E
0.5 = …(2)
by the system against a conservative force. 9+r
12. Average acceleration (1) divided by (2)

r r
r v − vi 40 ĵ − 30 î 9+r
A avg = f = 4=
t 10 2+r
r 40 2 + 30 2 8 + 4r = 9 + r or 3r = 1
A avg = = 5 m/sec2
10 1
∴ r= Ω
13. Maximum Range 3
u2 (20) 2
Rmax = = = 40 m
g 10 20. At neutral temperature
14. Work done = area between force v/s displacement dE
=0
curve and displacement axis dT
2×5
= (2 × 4) + = 13 J
2
r r r
21. From F = I( l × B) 32. Y1 = asin(ωt + kx + 0.57)
r r Y2 = asin(ωt + kx + π/2)
FBC = − FAC
r r π
FAC = − F Phase difference = – 0.57 = 1 radian
2
A 33. Any function which is converted into single
y = Asin(ωt + φ) or y = Acos(ωt + φ) is
considered SHM.
34. Frequency is same in both medium

B C
r n 1 = n2
B v1 v
= 2
λ1 λ2
22. E = Pt = mc2
λ2 v 3500
Pt 10 6 × 3600 = 2 = = 10
m= 2 = λ1 v1 350
c (3 × 108 ) 2
m = 40 µgm
1  1 1 
36. = RZ2  − 
23. Diamagnetic will be feebly repelled Paramagnetic λ  n2 n2 
 1 2 
will be feebly attracted Ferromagnetic will be
strongly attracted. 1 1   1 1 
R(1)2  2
− 2
 = RZ2  2 − 2 
1 2  2 4 
24. v̂ = Ê × B̂ or (direction of propagation of waves Z=2
is Ê × B̂ )
38. Focal length of the lens
25. B will not apply force E field will apply a force 1  1 1  1
= (1.5 – 1)  − =
opposite to velocity of the electron hence speed f  20 − 20  20
will decrease. f = 20 cm
From lens formula
dφ 1 1 1
26. e= – − =
dt v u f
1 1 1
E0 / 2 − =
27. Irms = v − 30 20
1 / ωC v = 60 cm
I v 60
XL =m= = = –I
28. tan φ = = 1, φ = 45º O u − 30
R I = –2(0) = –2 × 2 = –4 cm
so image will be real inverted and of size 4 cm.
∆Q 80× 1000
29. dS = = ≈ 293 cal/K
T 273 39. K.E.max = eV0
K.E max 0.5 eV
30. In isothermal expansion work done against V0 = =
surrounding is negative but work done by gas is e e
positive. V0 = 0.5 volt
∆W = +150 J
dU = 0 h 1
40. λ= ∝
From F.L.O.T. 2mq∆V ∆V
∆Q = ∆W + dU
∆Q = +150 J λ2 ∆V1 25 1
heat is +ve it means heat absorb by gas = = =
λ1 ∆V2 100 2
31. Motion start from extreme position and for small λ1
displacement it is SHM y = Acos(ωt+φ) λ2 =
2
2 1
41. vmax = K.E max 53. Mole fraction of solute = = 0.0177
m 56.55
2 8RT
vmax = (E Ph − W ) 54. Average velocity =
m πM
v1 E Ph1 − W 1 − 0.5 [Salt]
= = 55. pOH = pKb + log
v2 E Ph 2 − W 2.5 − 0.5 [Base]
v1 1 0.20
= = 4.74 + log = 4.74 + (0.301 – 0.477)
v2 2 0.30
= 4.74 – 0.176 = 4.56
42. Velocity of electron emitted from the electron ∴ pH = 14 – 4.56 = 9.44
gun can be increased by potential difference
between the anode and filament. rA MB
56. =
43. X→Y rB MA
X : Y = 1 : 15
vA t B MB 10 MB
1 1 ⇒ × = ⇒ =
A.P. = = n t A vB MA 20 49
16 2
No. of half life n = 4 1 MB 49
t = nT1/2 = 4 × 50 = 200 yr. ⇒ = ∴ MB = = 12.25
4 49 4
44. Photoelectron emission take place when certain 57. For an ideal gas, for free expansion
minimum "frequency" light fall on metal surface. q = 0 ; ∆T = 0 and w = 0
45. Thermal K.E. ≥ Electrostatic P.E.
58. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) ; K1
m 1α m–4 2β− m–4
46. nX → n–2Y  → nZ
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g) ; K2
α emission decreases mass no. by 4 and atomic
no. by 2 and β– emission increases atomic ––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
number by one but leaves mass no. unchanged.
N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2 (g) ; K = K1 × K2
∆I C (20 − 10) × 10 −3 1
47. β= = = 50 ∴ For NO2(g) N2(g) + O2(g) ;
∆I B (300 − 100) × 10 − 6 2
1/ 2
48. By addition of pentavalent impurity only n-type  1 
K' =  
of semiconductor are constructed  1.K 2 
K
49. In FB width of depletion layer is decreased. 59. x/m = P × T is the incorrect relation.
50. From theory ∆H vap 30KJmol−1

60. ∆Svap = = = 100 J mol–1 K–1
T 300K
CHEMISTRY
61. Fact
51. Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit
= n2 = 42 = 16 º º º
62. E cell = E cathode ( RP ) − E anode ( RP )
52. ∆G3 = ∆G1 + ∆G2 = 0.15 – (– 0.74)

⇒ – 2 FEº = – 1F × 0.15 + (–1F × 0.50) = + 0.89 V
63. Fact
⇒ –2 FEº = – 0.15F – 0.50 F
⇒ –2 FEº = – F (0.15 + 0.50)
64. Q ∆Gº = – nFEº
0.65
∴ Eº = = 0.325 volt and ∆Gº = – RT loge Keq
2
65. Using, ∆Tf = i × Kf × m 81. In pyrosilicate SiO4–4 unit shared one oxygen
∆Tf × WA atom.
i=
K f × n B × 1000
3.82 × 45 82. Coordination isomerism
= = 2.63
 5 
1.86 ×   × 1000 83. Co2+ → 3d7 4sº
 142 
; having minimum no. of
66. λ1 = 2λ2
unpaired electrons.
[Cr(H2O)6]+2 = Cr+2 = [Ar] 3d4 ∴ n = 4
67. Z > X > Y ; higher the reduction potential lesser
the reducing power [Mn(H2O)6]+2 = Mn+2 = [Ar] 3d5 ∴ n = 5
[Fe(H2O)6]+2 = Fe+2 = [Ar] 3d6 ∴ n = 4
68. Fact [Co(H2O)6]+2 = Co+2 = [Ar] 3d7 ∴ n = 3
71. Melting point ∝ lattice energy 84. [Ni(CN)4]–2
Melting point CaF2 > CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2 Ni+2 = [Ar] 3d8 4s0
CN– is a strong ligand causes pairing.
73. Bond length (C–H < C=C < C–O < C–C) Ni+2 =
3d 4s 4p
74. K2Cr2O7 + 3Na2SO3 + 4H2SO4 → 3Na2SO4 + dsp2
n=0
K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3
1
75. On the basis electrode potential, the correct order 85. Bond length ∝
Bond order
is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
O–O Bond length O2–2 > O2– > O2 > O2+
76. NO2– NO3– Bond order 1 1.5 2 2.5
O=N && − O O = N− O
↓ 86. ∆ng = –ve and ∆H = –ve
O
sp2 sp2
78. BF3 is electron deficient so act as lewis acid.
79. Ca(OCl)2 is active ingredient which is

responsible for bleaching action.
Bleaching powder formula
Ca(OCl)2.CaCl2.Ca(OH)2.2H2O
CAREER POINT . MAINS - 2011
MAINS - 2011
Q.1 The density of a material in CGS system of units
r
is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the
value of density of material will be (1) decrease by a factor of 2
(2) remain constant
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(3) increase by a factor of 2
(3) 40 (4) 400
(4) increase by a factor of 4
Q.2 A particle covers half of its total distance with Q.6 A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from
speed ν1 and the rest half distance with speed ν2. the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The
Its average speed during the complete journey is : mass and the radius of the earth are,
respectively, M and R. G is gravitational
ν1 + ν 2 ν1ν 2 constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on
(1) (2) the surface of the earth. The minimum value of
2 ν1 + ν 2
u so that the particle does not return back to
2ν1ν 2 ν12 ν 22 earth is :
(3) (4)
ν1 + ν 2 ν12 + ν 22 2GM 2GM
(1) (2)
R2 R
Q.3 A mass m moving horizontally (along the
2gM
x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a (3) (4) 2gR 2
R2
mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the
Q.7 A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of
y-axis) with velocity 2 ν. The final velocity of
a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
the combination is : magnitude of the gravitational potential at a
3 1 1 3 point situated at a/2 distannce from the centre,
(1) ν î + νˆj (2) ν î + νˆj
2 4 4 2 will be :
1 2 2 1 GM 2GM
(3) ν î + νĵ (4) ν î + νĵ (1) (2)
3 3 3 3 a a
3GM 4GM
Q.4 A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of (3) (4)
a a
2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
Q.8 A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the
coefficient of friction between them is
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move its highest point as seen from the point of
relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking projection, is :
g = 10 ms–2 is (1) 45º (2) 60º
(1) 0.4 m (2) 1.2 m  3
1
(3) 0.6 m (4) Zero (3) tan–1 (4) tan–1  
2  2 
 
Q.5 A small mass attached to a string rotates on a
Q.9 A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of 2
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in
atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
the string is increased by pulling the string temperature rises from 27ºC to 927ºC. The
causing the radius of the circular motion to pressure of the gas in the final state is
decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of (1) 8 atm (2) 28 atm
the mass will (3) 68.7 atm (4) 256 atm
Q.10 Two particles are oscillating along two close 3qQ 3qQ
(1) (2)
parallel straight lines side by side, with the same 4π ∈0 a 8π ∈0 a
frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, qQ
(3) (4) zero
moving in opposite directions when their 4π ∈0 a
displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
positions of the two particles lie on a straight Q.15 The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in
meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The
line perpendicular to the paths of the two electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is :
particles. The phase difference is : (1) 8 along negative X-axis
(1) π/6 (2) 0 (3) 2π/3 (4) π (2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive X-axis
Q.11 Two identical piano wires, kept under the same
tension T have a fundamental frequency of Q.16 In the circuit shown in the figure, if the
potential at point A is taken to be zero, the
600Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of
potential at point B is
one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of R1 2V
D B
6 beats / s when both the wires oscillate together 1A
would be : 2A
R2 2Ω
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04
A 1A C 2A
Q.12 A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of 1V
refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with (1) +1 V (2) – 1 V
(3) +2 V (4) – 2 V
another prism of glass of refractive index
µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the prism Q.17 A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a
produced dispersion without deviation. The angle resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in
the circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in
of the second prism should be :
series with the galvanometer is
(1) 5º (2) 7º (3) 10º (4) 12º
G S2
(1) (2)
(S +G ) (S +G )
Q.13 A converging beam of rays is incident on a
SG G2
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens (3) (4)
(S +G ) (S +G )
the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens
on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the Q.18 A thermocouple of negligible resistance
produces an e.m.f. of 40 µV/ºC in the linear range
point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10
to the lens. The focal length of the lens is : ohm whose sensitivity is 1 µA/division, is
(1) 5 cm (2) – 10 cm employed with the thermocouple. The smallest
(3) 20 cm (4) – 30 cm value of temperature difference that can be
detected by the system will be
(1) 0.25ºC (2) 0.5 ºC
Q.14 Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners (3) 1ºC (4) 0.1ºC
of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and
Q.19 Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of
AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a
CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
to E is :
magnetic induction at the center of the ring is
A
µ 0 qf µ 0 qf
E (1) (2)
2πR 2R
B C µ0q µ0q
D (3) (4)
2fR 2πfR
Q.20 A short bar magnet of magnet moment Q.24 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive
–1
0.4 JT is placed in a uniform magnetic field of metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency
0.16 T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-
the potential energy is : off voltage for the photoelectric emission is
(1) 0.064 J (2) – 0.064 J nearly :
(3) Zero (4) – 0.082 J (1) 1 V (2) 2 V (3) 3 V (4) 5 V
Q.25 An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from

Q.21 A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is excited state n to the ground state. The
placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight wavelength so emitted illuminates a
conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a photosensitive material having work function
distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the
The loop will experience : photoelectron is 10V, then the value of n is :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
I1
d I Q.26 Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given
sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time
t = 0, number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q
I are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1
(1) a net attractive force tawards the conductor minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
(2) a net repulsive force away from the there are no nuclei of R present in the sample.
conductor When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal,
(3) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the number of nuclei of R present in the sample
the horizontal plane would be :
(4) a net torque acting downward normal to the 9N0 5N 0
(1) 2 N0 (2) 3 N0 (3) (4)
horizontal plane 2 2
Q.27 Out of the following which one is not a possible

Q.22 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown
energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen
in the figure is :
atom according to Bohr's atomic model ?
V
(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.9 eV
(3) 11.1 eV (4) 13.6 eV
V0
Q.28 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal
t to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
0 T/2 T
shown in figure. The current through the diode
(1) V0/ 3 (2) V0 is :
(3) V0/ 2 (4) V0/2 +
250 Ω
Q.23 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive 20 V 1kΩ
15 V
reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across –
(1) 5 mA (2) 10 mA
the coil, the current in the coil will be
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA
(1) 2.0 A (2) 4.0 A
20
(3) 8.0 A (4) A
13
Q.29 In the following figure, the diodes which are Q.32 The half life of a substance in a certain enzyme-
forward biased are : catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required
for the concentration of the substance to fall
+10V from
R 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1, is-
(a) (1) 276 s (2) 414 s
+5V (3) 552 s (4) 690 s
R
Q.33 Consider the following processes :
(b)
–10V ∆H (kJ/mol)
½A→B + 150
3B → 2C + D –125
E + A → 2D +350
(c) For B + D → E + 2C, ∆H will be-
–12V (1) 325 kJ/mol (2) 525 kJ/mol
R (3) –175 kJ.mol (4) –325 kJ/mol
Q.34 The pairs of species of oxygen and their

–5V magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of
(d) the following presents the correct description?
(1) O, O22− - Both paramagnetic
R
(2) O2− ,O22 − - Both diamagnetic
(3) O + , O22 − - Both paramagnetic
+5V
(4) O2+ , O2 - Both paramagnetic
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (c) only Q.35 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the
(3) (c) and (a) following transitions in the hydrogen atom will
(4) (b) and (d) give rise to the least energetic photon?
(1) n = 5 to n = 3
(2) n = 6 to n = 1
Q.30 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of (3) n = 5 to n = 4
electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of (4) n = 6 to n = 5
1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to Q.36 In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I
4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of : can be separated from other ions by
(1) P-type having electron concentrations precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution
ne = 5 × 10 m 9 –3 initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a
concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added
(2) n-type with electron concentrations
to this solution until the Cl– concentration is
22 –3
ne = 5 × 10 m 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag+ and
(3) P-type with electron concentrations Pb2+ be at equilibrium?
ne = 2.5 × 1010 m–3 (Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10,
Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5)
(4) n-type with electron concentrations
23 –3
(1) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11M;
ne = 2.5 × 10 m [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–4M
(2) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–7M;
Q.31 The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–6M
is - (3) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11M;
[Pb2+] = 8.5 × 10–5M
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1s–1
(4) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9M;
(3) L mol–1 s–1 (4) L2 mol–2 s–1 [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–3M
Q.37 A bubble of air is underwater at temperature Q.42 Match List I with List II for the compositions of
15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises substances and select the correct answer using
to the surface where the temperature is 25°C and the code given below the lists-
the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the List-I List-II
volume of the bubble? Substances Composition
(1) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5
(A) Plaster of (i) CaSO4. 2H2O
paris
(4) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70 (B) Epsomite (ii) CaSO4.½H2O
(C) Kieserite (iii) MgSO4.7H2O
Q.38 A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is (D) Gypsum (iv) MgSO4.H2O
30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C/m, the
freezing point of the solution will be - (v) CaSO4
(1) –0.24°C (2) –0.18°C
(3) –0.54°C (4) –0.36°C Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.39 A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for
Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V and E° for I2/2I– = 0.536 V. (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
The favourable redox reaction is-
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Fe2+ will be oxidized to Fe3+
(2) I2 will be the reduced to I– (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(3) There will be no redox reaction
(4) I– will be oxidized to I2
Q.43 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
(1) CO2 (2) SnO2
Q.40 The rate of the reaction
(3) CaO (4) SiO2
2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2
can be written in three ways:
−d [ N 2 O5 ] Q.44 The following reactions take place in the blast
= k [N2O5] furnace in the preparation of impure iron.
dt
d [ NO2 ] Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation
= k′ [N2O5]
dt of the slag.
d [O2 ] (1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO (g)
= k′′ [N2O5]
dt (2) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)
The relationship between k and k′ and between (3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
k and k′′ are- (4) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)
(1) k′ = k, k′′= k (2) k′= 2k; k′′= k
(3) k′= 2k, k′′= k/2 (4) k′ = 2k; k′′= 2k Q.45 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3
Q.41 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein
(2) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid
contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this
ammonia to give blue solution.
solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar.
(3) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium
The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L
bar mol–1 K–1): silicate
(1) 61038 g mol–1 (2) 51022 g mol–1 (4) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give
(3) 122044 g mol –1
(4) 31011 g mol–1 Al(OH)3
Q.46 What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Q.52 Which of the following compounds is most
+
Na if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV? basic ?
(1) + 10.2 eV (2) –5.1 eV
(1) NH2 (2)
(3) –10.2 eV (4) + 2.55 eV
O2N NH2
Q.47 Which has the maximum number of molecules
among the following? (3) CH2NH2 (4)
(1) 64 g SO2 (2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3 (4) 8 g H2 N–COCH3
H
Q.48 A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the
radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the Q.53 Which of the following is not a fat soluble
anion (Y–) will be- vitamin ?
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 275.1 pm (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B complex
(3) 322.5 pm (4) 241.5 pm (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
Q.54 Which of the following compounds undergoes
Q.49 Which of the following structures is the most nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3? Cl Cl
(1) (2)
O O NO2
(1) (2)
Cl Cl
S S
O O O O (3) (4)
O
CH3 OCH3
S Q.55 The IUPAC name of the following compound
(3) (4) S
O O Cl CH2CH3
O O O
CH3 I
is -
Q.50 Which of the following carbonyls will have the (1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
strongest C–O bond ? (2) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(1) Fe (CO)5 (2) Mn (CO)6+
(4) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(3) Cr (CO)6 (4) V (CO) 6–
Q.56 An organic compound 'A' on treatment with
NH3 gives 'B', which on heating gives 'C'. 'C'
Q.51 Which of the following complex compounds will when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH
exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? produces ethylamine. Compound 'A' is -
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (1) CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3COOH
(3) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co (NH3)6]3+
(3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30) (4) CH3–CHCOOH
CH3
Q.57 Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II Q.61 Examine the figure given below and select the
and select the suitable option using the code right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d)
given below : correctly identified :
List-I List-II
(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein
(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation
(c) Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen
(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.58 Which of the statements about "Denaturation"
(1) Antherid- Male Globule Roots
given below are correct ?
iophore thallus
Statements
(2) Archego- Female Gemma- Rhizoids
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of
secondary and tertiary structures of the niophore thallus cup
protein (3) Archego- Female Bud Foot
(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of niophore thallus
double strand of DNA into single strand (4) Seta Sporo- Proto- Rhizoids
(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which phyte nema
gets distorted
Q.62 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
Options :
represent a significant step toward evolution of
(1) (a), (b) and (c) seed habit because :
(2) (b) and (c) (1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte
(3) (a) and (c) which is retained on parent sporophyte.
(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed
(4) (a) and (b) like seeds.
(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
Q.59 The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium (4) Megaspore possess endosperm and embryo
bromide (PhMgBr) with the following surrounded by seed coat.
compounds : Q.63 Consider the following four statements whether
CH3 CH3 Ph they are correct or wrong
C=O C=O and C=O (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more
H H3 C Ph elaborate than that in mosses
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous
I II III
(C) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
diplontic
(3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne
on different trees
Q.60 Consider the reactions :
The two wrong statements together are :
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br C2 H 5OH
 → (1) Statements (A) and (B)
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + HBr (2) Statements (A) and (C)
−
(ii) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br C2 H 5O
 → (3) Statements (A) and (D)
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + Br– (4) Statements (B) and (C)
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are Q.64 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
respectively : spindle fibres by their :
(1) SN 2 and SN1 (2) SN1 and SN 2 (1) Centromere
(3) SN1 and SN1 (4) SN 2 and SN 2 (2) Satellites
(3) Secondary constrictions
(4) Kinetochores
Q.65 Which one of the following is not considered as Q.71 Which one of the following diagrams represents
a part of the endomembrane system ? the placentation in Dianthus ?
(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi complex
(1) (2)
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Vacuole
Q.66 In history of biology, human genome project led

to the development of :
(1) Biosystematics
(2) Biotechnology
(3) (4)
(3) Biomonitoring
(4) Bioinformatics
Q.67 The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic

material came from the studies on a :
(1) Bacterial virus Q.72 Which one of the following is essential for
(2) Bacterium photolysis of water ?
(1) Boron
(3) Fungus
(2) Manganese
(4) Viroid (3) Zinc
(4) Copper
Q.68 Guttation is the result of :
(1) Root pressure Q.73 In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :
(2) Diffusion (1) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
few chloroplasts
(3) Transpiration
(2) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no
(4) Osmosis
chloroplasts
Q.69 Function of companion cells is : (3) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
large number of chloroplasts
(1) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(4) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
(2) Providing energy to sieve elements for active several chloroplasts
transport
Q.74 Sweet potato is homologous to :
(3) Providing water to phloem
(1) Turnip (2) Potato
(4) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by (3) Colocasia (4) Ginger
passive transport
Q.75 Which one of the following is not an essential
Q.70 some vascular bundles are described as open mineral element for plants while the remaining
because these : three are ?
(1) Phosphorus
(1) are not surrounded by pericycle
(2) Iron
(2) are surrounded by pericycle but no
(3) Manganese
endodermis (4) Cadmium
(3) are capable of producing secondary xylem
Q.76 Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation
and phloem
are present in :
(4) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem (1) Alstonia (2) Calotropis
and phloem (3) Neem (4) China Rose
Q.77 What is common between vegetative reproduction Q.85 The logistic population growth is expressed by
and Apomixis ? the equation :
(1) Both produces progeny identical to the parent N–K
(1) dN/dt = rN  
 N 
(2) Both are applicable to only dicot plants K – N
(3) Both bypass the flowering phase (2) dt/dN = Nr  
 K 
(4) Both occur round the year
K – N
(3) dN/dt = rN  
Q.78 In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the :  K 
(1) Matrix (4) dN/dt = rN
(2) Outer membrane
(3) Inner membrane Q.86 Which one of the following is a wrong matching
(4) Intermembrane space of a microbe and its industrial product, while the
remaining three are correct ?:
Q.79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Aspergillus niger – citric acid
matched while the remaining three are correct ? (2) Yeast – statins
(1) Agave - Bulbils (3) Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid
(2) Penicillium - Conidia (4) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
(3) Water hyacinth - Runner
(4) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds Q.87 Read the following statement having two blanks
(A and B) :
Q.80 In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops (A) ___ patients is obtained
''A drug used for ______
into : ( B)___ ''.
from a species of the organism ______
(1) Pollen sac
The one correct option for the two blanks is :
(2) Embryo sac Blank-A Blank-B
(3) Ovule (1) AIDS ' Pseudomonas
(4) Endosperm (2) Heart Penicillium
(3) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
Q.81 Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to :
(4) Swine flu Monascus
(1) Excessive wet conditions
(2) Medium water conditions Q.88 Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
(3) Xeric conditions because it is :
(4) Highly dry conditions (1) not an infectious disease
(2) caused by a virus
Q.82 Which one of the following animals may occupy (3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
more than one trophic levels in the same (4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
ecosystem at the same time ?
Q.89 Read the following four statements (A-D) about
(1) Frog (2) Sparrow
certain mistakes in two of them :
(3) Lion (4) Goat (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced
Q.83 The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin
by earthworm is a process called : enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of
(1) Catabolism
DNA from other macro-molecules
(2) Humification
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps
(3) Fragmentation of R-DNA technology
(4) Mineralisation (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in
transfer of R-DNA into the host
Q.84 ''Good ozone'' is found in the : Which are the two statements having mistakes ?
(1) Ionosphere (1) Statements (A) and (B)
(2) Mesosphere (2) Statements (B) and (C)
(3) Troposphere (3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) Stratosphere (4) Statements (A) and (C)
Q.90 Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing Q.94 Which one of the following conditions of the
transgenic plants resistant to : zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal
(1) Bacterial blights (2) Bollworms human female child ?
(3) Nematodes (4) White rusts (1) one X and one Y chromosome
Q.91 Which one of the following aspects is an (2) two X chromosomes
exclusive characteristic of living things ? (3) only one Y chromosome
(1) Increase in mass by accumulation of material (4) only one X chromosome
both on surface as well as internally
(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro Q.95 Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves
(3) Increase in mass from inside only crossing :
(4) Perception of events happening in the (1) between two genotypes with dominant trait
environment and their memory (2) between two genotypes with recessive trait
Q.92 The type of muscles present in our : (3) between two F1 hybrids
(1) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres (4) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
fusiform in shape
(2) heart are involuntary and unstriated Q.96 Which one of the following correctly represents
smooth muscles the normal adult human dental formula ?
(3) intestine are striated and involuntary 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 1
(4) thigh are straiated and voluntary (1) , , , (2) , , ,
3 1 3 3 3 1 2 1
Q.93 The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3
(d). Select the correct answer with respect to a (3) , , , (4) , ,
2 1 2 3 2 1 2 3
common characetrsitcs of two of these animals.
Q.97 The figure below shows the structure of a
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A),
(a) (b)
(B), (C). and (D) Select the part correctly
matched with its function. –
(c)
(1) Part (A) : Matrix – major site for

respiratory chain enzymes
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to
inner membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms
(d) infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular
DNA molecule and ribosome
Q.98 Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from

body tissues into the blood is present as :
(1) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(1) (c) and (d) have a true coelom
(2) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(2) (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall (3) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(3) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry (4) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as
(4) (a) and (b) have cnidoblasts for selfdefence bicarbonate
Q.99 Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Q.104 Which one of the following structure in pheretima
Which one of its components is correctly is correctly matched with its function ?
interpreted below ? (1) Typhlosole-storage of extra nutrients
(2) Clitellum-secretes cocoon
(3) Gizzard-absorbs digested food
(4) Setae-defence against predators
Q.105 Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :

(1) frog's males
(2) human males
(3) human females
(1) Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only (4) frog's both males and females
(2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse
Q.106 One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice
(3) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction
while poured into the duodenum in humans is :
(4) Peak P and Peak R together-systolic and
(1) Enterokinase (2) Trypsinogen
diastolic blood pressures
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Trypsin
Q.100 Frogs differ from humans in possessing :
(1) thyroid as well as parathyroid Q.107 Which one of the following is a possibility for
(2) paired cerebral hemispheres most of us in regard to breathing , by making a
(3) hepatic portal system conscious effort ?
(4) nucleated red blood cells (1) The lungs can be made fully empty by
forcefully breathings out all air from them
Q.101 The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the (2) One can breathe out air totally without
category of : oxygen
(1) Connective tissue
(3) One can breathe out air through Eustachian
(2) Smooth muscle tissue
tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) one can consciously breathe in and breathe
(4) Columnar epithelium
out by moving the diaphragm alone,
Q.102 The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the without moving the ribs at all.
sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone : Q.108 What happens during fertilisation in humans
(1) melatonin
after many sperms reach close to the ovum ?
(2) calcitonin
(1) Only two sperms nearest the ovum
(3) prolactin
penetrate zona pellucida
(4) adrenaline
(2) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
Q.103 Three of the following pairs of the human enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
skeletal parts are correctly matched with their pellucida
respective inclusive skeletal category and one (3) All sperms except the one nearest to the
pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching ovum lose their tails
pair. (4) Cells of corona radiate trap all the sperms
except one.
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
Q.109 The technique called gamete intrafallopian
(1) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
(2) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton females :
(1) who cannot provide suitable environment
(3) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
for fertilisation
cavity (2) who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Humerus and ulna Appendicular (3) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
skeleton (4) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage for the sperms
Q.110 Consider the following four statements (A-D) Q.113 Consider the following statements (A-D) about
organic farming :
related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt
select the correct option stating which ones are cotton
true(T) and which ones are false(F). (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
Statements : compost
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few minerals
days Which of the above statements are correct ?
(B) it has four-chambered heart (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic (3) (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (C) only
(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water Q.114 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) Species endemic to the region
(2) Endangered species found in the region
(1) F T T F
(3) The diversity in the organisms living in the
(2) T F F T
region
(3) T T F F (4) Genetic diversity present in the dominant
(4) F F T T species of the region.
Q.115 Which one of the following options gives the
Q.111 About which day in a normal human menstrual correct matching of a disease with its causative
cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly organism and mode of infection :
called LH-surge) normally occurs ? Causative Mode of
Disease
(1) 11th day (2) 14th day Organisms Infection
th
(3) 20 day (4) 5th day (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
vivax Anopheles
mosquito
Q.112 Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each
(2) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired
with one or two blanks :
typhi air
(A) Bears go into _________
(1) during winter to (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
_________
( 2) cold weather. pneumoniae infection
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base (4) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
represents _________
(3) human population. bancrofti water and food
Q.116 The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
example of _________
(4 ) . same Kingdom of organisms at that of :
(1) Ascaris, a round worm
(D) An area with high levels of species richness
(2) Taenia, a tapeworm
is known as _________
( 5) . (3) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Which of the following options, gives the correct (4) Rhizopus, a mould
fill ups for the respective blank numbers from
Q.117 Select the correct statement with respect to
(1) to (5) in the statements ?
disease and immunisation :
(1) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, (1) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
(3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot bite is an example of active immunisation.
(2) (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism, (2) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
(5) - marsh are damaged, the body will not produce
(3) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, antibodies against a pathogen.
(3) - stable, (4) - mutualism (3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens
(4) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, causes passive immunity
(5) - biodiversity park (4) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produces hepatitis B vaccine
Q.118 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals Q.119 Which one of the following techniques made it
which contain insecticidal protein. possible to genetically engineer living organisms ?
(1) Hybridization
This protein : (2) Recombinant DNA techniques
(1) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is (3) X-ray diffraction
(4) Heavier isotope labeling
itself resistant to this toxin
(2) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the Q.120 Which one of the following statements is totally
wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while
insect pest ultimately killing it the other three are correct ?
(3) is coded by several genes including the gene (1) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(2) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
cry
(3) It is replaced by vertebral column in adult
(4) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the frog
insect pest. (4) It is absent throughout life in humans from
the very beginning
ANSWER KEY (MAINS-2011)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 2
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 4 2 1 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 4
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 4 3 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 2 4
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1 [3] 5. [4]
M Sol. From the law of conservation of angular
Sol. M = d.V ⇒ d =
L3 momentum
4 gm 4(1 / 100) gm
⇒d= = = 40 r
cm 3 10 −3 cm 3 mvr = mv′
2
2 [3] v′ = 2v
2v1v 2
Sol. Average velocity = 1
v1 + v 2 mv 2
KE 2 1
so = =
KE1 1
mv′ 2 4
3 [2] 2
Sol. From the law of conservation of linear 6. [2]
momentum
2GM
mv î + (3m)(2v) ˆj = 4 mv′ Sol. vescape =
R
v 3
v′ = î + vĵ Escape velocity from earth surface.
4 2
7. [3]
4. [1]
Sol.
m 2m/s v=0
M
Sol. F=µmg
retardation of the block on the belt a x
F a/2
a= = µg M
m
From v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 22 – 2(µg) s gravitational potential at x point
4 GM GM 3GM
s= = 0.4 m Vx = + =
2 × 0.5 × 10 a/2 a a
2011
8. [3] 12. [3]
Sol. Sol. For without deviation
Y A µ'−1
=−
A' µ −1
u α ucos45º 15º 1.75 − 1
=−
A' 1.50 − 1
hmax 15º 0.75
45º α X
=−
A' 0.50
R/2
A' = –10º
u 2 sin 2 45º 13. [4]
h 2g sol.
tanα = max =
R/2 u 2 sin 90º
O
2g I
1 10cm 5cm
tanα =
4
15cm
α = tan–1(1/4)
1 1 1
9 [4] − =
v u f
Sol. P ∝ Tγ/γ–1 1 1 1
γ / γ −1 − =
P2 T  15 10 f
=  2 
P1 f = –30 cm
 T1 
γ / γ −1
T  14. [4]
P2 = P1  2  Sol. WD→E = Q[VE – VD]
 T1 
Q VE = VD ⇒ WD→E = 0
1.4
 1200  1.4−1 15. [1]
P2 = 2 
 300  r  ∂V ∂V ∂V 
Sol. E = − î + ĵ + k̂ 
P2 = 256 atm  ∂x ∂y ∂z 
r
10 [3] E = − [î (8x )]
r
Sol. E (1,0,2) = – 8î
T/12 T/12 T/6 So electric field is 8 along negative x-axis.
16. [1]
Sol. By KVL along path ACDB
VA + 1 + (1) (2) – 2 = VB
0 + 1 = VB
⇒ VB = 1 volt
17. [4]
A –A/2 x=0 +A/2 A Sol.
G R
T T 2T G
Time interval = + = G
6 6 6
2T 2π
Phase difference ⇒ ≡ S
6 3
Current will be unchanged if resistance remains
same so
11. [2]
GS
Sol. n∝ T G= +R
G +S
∆n 1 ∆T
= ⇒R=G–
GS
n 2 T G +S
∆T ∆n 6
= 2× =2× = 0.02 G2
T n 600 =
G +S
2011
18. [1] 13 [2]
Sol. For minimum deflection of 1 division Sol. XL = 2πfL
required current = 1 µA XL ∝ f
⇒ Voltage required = IR = (1µA) (10) = 10 µV X L2 f
= 2 ⇒ X L 2 = 40 Ω
∴ 40 µV ≡ 1ºC X L1 f1
1
⇒ 10 µV ≡ ºC = 0.25ºC R = 30 Ω
4
Z= (30) 2 + (40) 2 = 50 Ω
V 200
I= = = 4A
Z 50
19. [2]
24. [2]
µ0I µ qf E Ph – W h (ν – ν 0 )
Sol. B= = 0 Sol. V0 = =
2R 2R e e
q
I= = qf 6.62 × 10 –34 (8.2 × 1014 – 3.3 × 1014 )
T =
1.6 × 10 –19
20. [2] 6.62 × 10 –34
= × 4.9 × 1014+19
Sol. U = –MB cos θ 1.6
U = –MB cos 0 = –0.4 × 0.16 = –0.064 6.62 × 4.9
= × 10 –1 = 2 volt
1.6
25 [2]
21. [1] Sol. EPh = K.Emax + W
= eV0 + W = 10 + 2.75 = 12.75 eV
I1 n=4
Sol. d F1
n=3
F4
n=2
F2
10.2 eV 12.1 eV 12.75 eV
F3 n=1
→ → Differenced of 4 and 1 energy level is 12.75 eV
F2 = − F4 So higher energy level is 4 to ground and
→ µ 0 I1I 2 l Excited state is n = 3.
F1 =
2πd 26. [3]
→ µ 0 I1I 2 l Sol. P Q
F3 = 4N0 N0
2π(d + l) T1/2 1 min 2 min
→ NP = NQ
F1 > F3 4N 0 N
t /1
= t /02
So wire attract loop. 2 2
4 = 2t/2
22 = 2t/2
t
= 2 ⇒ t = 4 min
22. [3] 2
1/ 2
Disactive nucleus or Nuclei of R
1/ 2
 1 T/2   V2   4N   N 
Sol. Vrms = 
T 0 ∫
V02 dt 

=  0 [ t ]T0 / 2 
 T 
=  4 N 0 − 4 0  +  N 0 − 20 
 2   2 
 
N0 N0 N
1/ 2 1/ 2 = 4 N0 – + N0 – = 5 N0 – 0
 V2   V2  V0 4 4 2
=  0 (T / 2) or Vrms =  0  = 9
 T   2  2 = N0
2
2011
27. [3] 34. [4]
Sol. 11.1 eV is not possible Sol. O2+ = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2)
(π*2px1)
28. [1]
O2 = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2)
I I1
Sol. (π*2px1 = π*2py1)
250Ω
I2 O2 and O2+ contain unpaired electron in π*
20V 15V 1kΩ ABMO so paramagnetic.
35. [4]
15 hC 1 1
Ι1 = = 15 mA Sol. E= = hC R H  2 − 2 
1kΩ λ  n1 n 2 
20 − 15
I= = 20 mA
250 36. [4]
I2 = I – I1 = 20 mA – 15 mA = 5mA Sol. [Ag+] [Cl–] = 1.8 × 10–10
1.8 × 10 −10
[Ag+] = = 1.8 × 10 −9 M
29. [3] 0.1
Sol. (a), (c) are forward bias. [Pb+2] [Cl–]2 = 1.7 × 10–5
1.7 × 10 −5
[Pb+2] = = 1.7 × 10 −3 M
0.1× 0.1
30. [1]
Sol. ne nh = n i2
ne NA = n i2 37. [2]
Sol. P1 = 1.5 bar P2 = 1
n i2 (1.5 × 10 )16 2
T1 = 288 K T2 = 298 K
ne = = = 5 × 109/m3
NA 4.5 × 10 22 V1 = V V2 = ?
31. [2] P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1 T2
Sol. Unit of k = mol1 – n ln – 1 s–1
V2 = 1.55 V
For zero order reaction
38. [1]
n=0
Sol. i = 1 – α + nα
unit of k = mol l–1 s–1 i = 1 – 0.3 + 2(0.3)
i = 1.3
32. [4] ∆Tf = iKf m
Sol. 1.28 → 0.64 → 0.32 → 0.16 → 0.08 = 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1

∆Tf = + 0.24ºC
→ 0.04
Freezing point of solution = – 0.24ºC
No. of half lifes (n) = 5
Total time 39. [4]
5=
138 Sol. 2Fe+3 + 2I– → I2 + 2Fe+2
time required = 5 × 138
= 690 s 40. [3]
1 d[ N 2 O5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] d[O 2 ]
Sol. Rate = − =+ =
33. [3] 2 dt 4 dt dt
Sol. 2(i) – (iii) + (ii) 1 1
K[ N 2O5 ] = K '[ N 2O5 ]
∆H = 2(150) – 350 – 125 2 4
= – 175 kJ/mol K
K' = 2K and K" =
2
2011
41. [1] 49. [1]
w Sol. Most preferred structure of SO3 with lowest
Sol. πv = RT
m
energy is as it contain maximum number of
200 1.26
2.57 × 10–3 × = × 0.083 × 300 covalent bond.
1000 m
–1
m = 61038 gm mol O
σ π (pπ–dπ bonding)
42. [3] (pπ–pπ bonding) π S π
σ σ
Sol. Plaster of paris = CaSO4.1/2 H2O O O
Epsomite = MgSO4.7H2O 50. [2]
Kieserite = MgSO4.H2O
Sol. Due to positive oxidation state of Mn back
Gypsum = CaSO4.2H2O
donation in π* ABMO of CO is minimum
therefore C–O bond is strongest.
43. [2] 51. [3]

Sol. SnO2 react with acid as well base Sol. [Cr(NH3)6]+3 [Ar] 3d3 4s0
So amphoteric three unpaired electron are present in t2g orbited
SnO2 + 4HCl → SnCl4 + 2H2O eg
SnO2 + 2NaOH → Na2 SnO3 + H2O
3d t2g
44. [4]
Sol. SiO2 + CaO → CaSiO3 52. [3]
Acidic Basic Slag Sol. Localized l.p. is more basic than delocalized l.p.
impunity flux
53. [2]
45. [4]
Sol. Aluminium dissolve in excess NaOH to Sol. It is a fact
liberating hydrogen and forming metaaluminate
2 Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na [Al(OH)4] 54. [2]
or (2NaAlO2.2H2O) + 3H2 Sol. Intermediate carbanion is involve which is most
stable with –M group.
46. [2]
+
Sol. M M
→ M+ + e– IE1 = 5.1 eV
55. [2]
M+ + e– → M ∆Heg = – 5.1 eV
Sol.
47. [4] 4 5
Cl 2 3 CH2 – CH3
8
Sol. Maximum number of molecules = NA C=C
2 H3 C I
= 4NA 1
Configuration is (trans) OR (E)

48. [4] Name ⇒ 2- chloro-3-iodo- 2-pentene
rc 100
Sol. = 0.414 ⇒ ra = = 241.5 pm
ra 0.414
2010
56. [1] 58. [4]
Sol. Sol. Primary structure is unaffected by denaturation.
NH3
CH3 – CH2 – COOH CH3 – CH2 – COONH4
(A) (B) 59. [1]
Sol. N.A. R ∝ ⊕ Charge on Sp2
∆ –H2O
−M −I
O carbon ∝ ∝
Br2 + KOH +M +I
CH3 – CH2 – NH2 Hoffmann
CH3 – CH2 – C–NH2
degradation (C)
60. [4]
57. [1] Sol. 1° halide generally shows SN2 reaction.
Sol. (No rearrangement)
alc. KCN
*Ph – C – H +Ph – C – H Ph – CH – C – Ph
O O OH O
(Benzaldehyde) (Benzoin)
O O
C C
*Phthalic Conc. H2SO4
anhydride O O
(– H2O)
C C
O
H + H
OH OH
(Phenolphthalein)
OH OH
* Methyl benzoate is involve in fries rearrangement.
OH OH
H⊕
C – OH + H – OCH3 C – OCH3
*. (– H2O)
O O
Methyl salicylate
OR
Oil of wintergreen

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CAREER POINT .

ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-1998)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

(3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7

Q.194 Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test

Q.195 Secondary structure of protein, which is attached

Q.196 Recently extinct animal from India is :

Q.197 Simplest reflex action in human is :

Q.198 In inducible operon, regulatory gene synthesize:

Q.199 Neuroglial cells associated with :

Q.200 Diatomaceous earth is used as heat insulator in

ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-1999)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

35. For triangular lamina

Q.7 A black body has wavelength λm corresponding Q Q

(1) 2 s (2) 1 s (1) 10 ohm (2) 15 ohm

(3) 4 s (4) 3 s (3) 20 ohm (4) 40 ohm

n (3) Proteins are composed of only one type of

(4) All the above O

Q.100 If a ab X species emits firstly a positron, then two (3) Diastase

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

40. 2dsinθ = nλ Q – 1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1

⇒ A2 = A2 + A2 + 2A2 cos θ (m) 30

1kg planr shape (leryh; vkÑfr) ij reagent dk

74. Density = 1.17 gm/cc.

75. In peroxidase anlydrous enzyme 0.55 Se is

K1 K2 Q.7 A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a

(1) 100% (2) 150%

CHO COOH Q.94 CH3CH2Cl NaCN

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

respect to the base isoelecronic. Their ionic radii show :

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

In active region emitter base p-n junction is in FB &

parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. R

combination would have a resistance in ohms, +10V

Q.78 Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of

AlO54− and AlO96− ions in zeolites [In − ]

(1) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (1) CH3–CH = CH2 + C6 H6

(2) CH3OH (2) H2C = CH2 + C6 H6

(3) CH3CH2OH (3) H3C – CH3 + C6 H6

(4) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (4) H3C – CH2OH + C6 H6

(1) Myriapoda (4) Stationary phase

(2) Crustacea Q.127 Restriction endonucleases :-

(2) Expressed in males by guanine, it is a case of -

(3) Expressed in females (1) Transcription (2) Transition

(4) Lethal (3) Transversion (4) Frameshift mutation

Q.138 In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- (3) Acquired heritable changes

(3) Molecular oxygen (3) A + C / T + G

located in - Q.168 Which one of the following pair's correctly

(4) Starved of mutation plants

Q.177 According to oparin, which one of the following

Q.192 The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes

ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2004)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

2. Material same ⇒ ρ unchanged m

16. For half wave diode rectifier (HWR)

40. (14) (5) (15)

B mB 48. Given circuit can be reduced to

46. ∆U = µCV ∆T and 0 = W + ∆U

Q.14 When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l

molecule - Q.105 Which of the following statements regarding

galactosidase (4) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

(1) Ca, K, Na (2) Co, Ni, Mo cortex