Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

Max. Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

1. Two balls begin a free fall from rest from the same (1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m
height at an interval of 1 s. How long after the first (3) 10 m (4) 0.025 m
ball begins to fall, will the two balls be 10 m apart?
4. If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased to 16
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
times its previous value, the percentage change in
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(3) 1.5 s (4) 0.5 s (1) –75% (2) –60%
2. Two particles having position vectors (3) –50% (4) –25%
 
 
r1   3i  5 j  m and r2  5i  3 j m are moving 5. A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop of
2 volt across it and a current of 10 mA is passed
through it when it operates with a 6 V battery
with velocities

 
v1  4i  3 j m/s and through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is
(1) 40  (2) 4 

 
v 2  i  7 j m/s . If they collide after 2 s, the
(3) 200  (4) 400 
value of  is
(1) 2 (2) 4
6. If electron velocity is 2i  3j m/s and it is

(3) 6 (4) 8 subjected to a magnetic field 4k , then

3. A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1 cm 2 in its (1) Speed will change
bottom. If water is allowed to flow into that tank (2) Path will change
from a tube above it at the rate of 70 cm3/s, then
the maximum height upto which water can rise in (3) Both (1) and (2)
the tank is (g = 980 cm/s2) (4) Linear momentum will not change

(1)
7. A rectangular loop of sides 20 cm and 10 cm 14. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance of
carries a current of 5.0 A. A uniform magnetic field the second dark fringe from the central line is
of magnitude 2 T exists parallel to the longer side 3 mm. The distance of the 4th bright fringe from the
of the loop. The torque acting on the loop is central line is
(1) 0.2 N m (2) 0.3 N m (1) 6 mm (2) 8 mm

(3) 2 N m (4) 3 N m (3) 12 mm (4) 16 mm

15. A hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs 10.2 eV
8. If diode is ideal, VAB is
of energy. The orbital angular momentum of the
10 electron is increased by
A (1) 1.0510–34 J s (2) 2.1110–34 J s
30V
10 10 (3) 3.1610–34 J s (4) 4.2210–34 J s
B 16. A resistance R1, inductance L1 and capacitance C
(1) 10 V (2) 20 V are connected in series across an ac source of
angular frequency . If the resonant frequency is
(3) 30 V (4) 40 V 0, then the current will lag behind the voltage if
9. The wavelength of the first line of the Balmer (1)  < 0 (2)  > 0
Series of hydrozen atom is . The wavelength of
(3)  = 0 (4)  = 0
the corresponding line of doubly ionised lithium
atom is 17. A ferromagnetic material is placed in an external
magnetic field. The magnetic domains
(1)  (2) 
3 4 (1) increase in size

(3)  (4)  27 (2) decrease in size

9
(3) may increase or decrease in size
10. The current in inductor of inductance 2 L in steady
state is (4) have no relation with field
L 18. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge
2L of inclination . The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the
E wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the
block has a magnitude (assume all the surfaces
R are frictionless).
E 2E
(1) (2) mg
R 3R (1) mg (2)
cos
E E
(3) (4) (3) mg cos (4) mg tan
3R 4R
19. A particle moves on the X-axis according to the
11. If i = 5 A and is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/sec,
VB–VA is x0
equation x  sin2t . The motion is
2
1 15V 5mH i
A B (1) Simple harmonic with amplitude x0
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
(2) Simple harmonic with amplitude 2x0
(3) –15 V (4) 20 V (3) Simple harmonic with time period 2/
12. The energy stored in 60 cm length of a larger beam (4) Simple harmonic with time period /
operating at 4 mW, is
20. A solid sphere moves at a terminal speed of
(1) 810–12 J (2) 0.810–12 J 20 m/s in air at a place where g = 9.8 m/s2. The
(3) 0.000810–12 J (4) 8010–12 J sphere is taken in a gravity free hall having air at
the same pressure and pushed down at a speed
13. An object is 1.5 cm high is placed 10 cm from the of 20 m/s. [Ignore buoyant force due to air]
optical centre of a thin lens. Its image is formed
25 cm from the optical centre on the same side of (1) Its initial acceleration will be 9.8 m/s2 upward
the lens as that of the object. The height of the (2) The magnitude of the acceleration will decrease
image is as time passes
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 0.2 cm (3) It will eventually stop
(3) 1.67 cm (4) 3.75 cm (4) All of the above
(2)
21. The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface 27. A Carnot engine operates with source at 127°C and
moves with speed V0. A particle on the rim of the sink at 27°C. If the source supplies 40 kJ of heat
wheel at the same level as the centre will be energy, the work done by the engine is–
moving at speed (1) 30 kJ (2) 10 kJ
(1) Zero (2) V0 (3) 4 kJ (4) 1 kJ
(3) 2V0 (4) 2V0 28. The intensity of sound from a point source is
22. A particle is rotated in a vertical circle by 1.010 –8 W/m 2 at a distance 5.0 m from the
connecting it to a string of length l and keeping the source. The intensity at distance 25 m from the
other end fixed. The minimum speed of the particle source will be
when the string is horizontal for which the particle (1) 4.010–10 W/m2 (2) 2.010–8 W/m2
will complete the circle, is (3) 1.010–8 W/m2 (4) 810–8 W/m2
(1) gl (2) 2gl 29. The length of a metal wire is l1, when the tension
in it is T1 and is l2 when the tension is T2. The
(3) 3gl (4) 5gl
natural length of the wire is
23. A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with
l1  l2
an angular velocity  = a – bt, where a and b are (1) (2) l1l2
2
positive constant and t is time. The magnitude of
l1T2  l2 T1 l1T2  l2 T1
2a (3) (4)
the acceleration of the particle after time is T2  T1 T2  T1
b
30. The coefficient of apparent expansion of a liquid is
a C when heated in a copper vessel and is S when
(1) (2) a2R heated in a silver vessel. If A is the coefficient of
R
linear expansion of copper, then that of silver is
C  S  3A C  3A  S
(3) R(a2 + b) (4) R a4  b2 (1) (2)
3 3
24. Consider a vehicle going on horizontal road towards S  3C  A C  S  3A
(3) (4)
east. Neglect any friction by air. The frictional 3 3
forces on the vehicle by the road 31. A 5 g piece of ice at –20°C is put into 10 gm of
(1) is towards east if the vehicle is accelerating water at 30°C. Assuming that the heat is
exchanged only between the ice and water, the
(2) is zero if the vehicle is moving with uniform
final temperature of the mixture is
velocity
(1) 10°C (2) 20°C
(3) must be towards west
(3) 0°C (4) 15°C
(4) both (1) & (2)
32. A pressure P -absolute temperature T graph was
25. In a projectile motion the velocity obtained when a given mass of a gas is heated.
(1) is always perpendicular to the acceleration During the heating process from the state 1 to the
state 2, the volume
(2) is never perpendicular to the acceleration
(3) is perpendicular to the acceleration for one P
instant only 2

(4) is perpendicular to the acceleration for two

instants 1

26. The work done in slowly lifting a body of mass m

from the earth’s surface to a height R equal to the T
radius of earth, is,
(1) remains same
1
(1) mgR (2) 2mgR (2) decreases
2
(3) increases
1
(3) mgR (4) mgR
4 (4) first increases, then decreases

(3)
33. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a 39. In a resonance tube, using a tuning fork of
string of length 1.96 m moving in a horizontal circle. frequency 325 Hz, the first two resonance lengths
The string will break if the tension is more than are observed at 25.4 cm and 77.4 cm. The speed
25 N. What is the approximate maximum speed of sound in air is
with which the ball can be moved ? (1) 318 m/s (2) 338 m/s
(1) 14 m/s (2) 3 m/s (3) 358 m/s (4) 378 m/s
(3) 3.92 m/s (4) 5 m/s 40. The force acting on a body moving along the x-
34. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere axis varies with the position of the particle as
(mass m, radius R) rolling down an incline plane of shown in the figure
angle ‘’ without slipping and slipping down on F
smooth incline is
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 5
(3) 7 : 5 (4) 5 : 7 x1 x2
X
35. In a YDSE experiment using identical slits, the The body is in stable equilibrium at
intensity of a bright fringe is I0. If one of the slits
(1) x = x1 (2) x = x2
is now covered, the intensity at any point on the
screen will be (3) Both x1 and x2 (4) Neither x1 nor x2
41. A spherical black body of radius r radiates power
I0 P and its rate of cooling is R. Then
(1) I0 (2)
2
(i) P  r (ii) P  r2
I0 I0 (iii) R  r2 (iv) R  1r
(3) (4)
4 2 2
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii)
36. The ratio of the electric force between two electrons (3) (i), (iv) (4) (ii), (iv)
to gravitational force between them is in the order 
of 42. An electric field E  (20i  30j) N/C exists in the

space. If the potential at the origin is taken to be
(1) 1042 (2) 1040
zero, then potential at the point (2m, 2m) is
(3) 1036 (4) 1032
(1) –50 V (2) 100 V
37. Five rods of same dimensions are arranged as
shown in the figure. They have thermal (3) –100 V (4) 200 V
conductivities K1, K2, K3, K4 and K5. When points 43. Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are moving
A and B are maintained at different temperatures, with velocities 2 m/s and 1 m/s respectively, as
no heat flows through the central rod if shown. If the spring constant is 75 N/m, the
maximum compression of the spring is

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
44. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is
zero at, or the earth’s magnetic field has a vertical
component except at the
(1) Magnetic poles (2) Geographical poles
(1) K1=K4 and K2=K3 (2) K1K4 = K2K3 (3) Every place (4) Magnetic equator
K1 K 2 45. A radioactive nuclide can decay simultaneously by
(3) K1K2 = K3K4 (4)  two different processes which have decay constants
K 4 K3
1 and 2 respectively. The effective decay constant
38. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric of the nuclide is .
experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will
1   2
be (1) =1 +2 (2) 
2
(1) doubled (2) halved
1 1 1
(3) > double (4) < double (3)   (4)   1 2
 1 2
(4)
 CHEMISTRY

46. For the following gaseous equilibria, the equilibrium 51. The IUPAC name of the compound7
constants are as follows:
HO – C – C – OH
(i) N2 + O2  2NO, K1 is
O O
(ii) N2 + 3H2  2NH3, K2 (1) 1,2-dihydroxy-ethane-1,2-dione
(iii) 2H2 + O2  2H2O, K3 (2) Ethane-1,2-dioic acid
The equilibrium constant for the reaction, (3) Oxalic acid
4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O, can be expressed (4) 2-Ketohydroxyethanoic acid
as 52. Which of the following is not a green house gas ?
(1) CH4
K1 2 K12  K 33
(1) K  K 3 (2) (2) CO2
2 K 22
(3) SO2
K 1 K 32 K12  K 3 (4) CFC
(3) (4)
K 22 K 32
53. The major product of the reaction
47. When ethyl-phenyl ether is heated with
concentrated HI it yields O O
–

OH

 Product,
(1) Benzene (2) Ethanol H
(3) Iodobenzene (4) Phenol Product is
48. The isomeric products obtained by mono-nitration
CHO
of phenol can be separated by
(1)
(1) Sublimation
CH 3
(2) Solvent extraction
(3) Steam distillation
O
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure
CH 3
49. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the (2)
following reaction ?
NaNH2
 A  B
CH3 I
CH3 – C  CH  
O
(1) A is propene and B is 2-iodobutane
(3)
(2) A is a carbanion and B is an alkyne
(3) Reaction involves nucleophilic substitution
CHO
(4) A is produced due to acid-base reaction
50. Which is incorrect about Hoffmann bromamide (4)
reaction ?
(1) It is a method of conversion of amides to 1° 54. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
amine isostructural and has the same number of valence
electrons of the central atom?
(2) The amine produced has 1 carbon lesser than
the parent amide (1) IF3, XeF2

(3) The bromamide intermediate rearranges to (2) BeCl2, XeF2

form isocyanide (3) TeI2, XeF2
(4) Hydrolysis of isocyanate yields 1° amine (4) IBr2 , XeF2

(5)
55. Consider the following sequence of reactions and 57. Which of the following can not decolourize acidified
identify X, Y, Z and W. KMnO4 solution?
(1) Hydrogen Peroxide (2) Sulphur dioxide
O OH (3) Oxalic acid (4) Ferric nitrate

(i) I2, OH 58. Which of the following is an incorrect match?

SeO2
 Y+X Z W (1) CH3 – CH3 < CH2 = CH2 < CH  CH : Acidic
 
(ii) H+ character
(2) CH 3 – CH 3 < CH 2 = CH 2 < CH  CH :
O O O OH (C – C) bond length
(3) CH 3 – CH 3 < CH 2 = CH 2 < CH  CH :
(1) X = , Y = CHI 3 , Z = ,
Electronegativity of carbon

O O
(4) < CH  CH < CH2 = CH2 : Reactivity
W= OH
to electrophilic addition
O O O 59. CaF2 has solubility 1.56 × 10–3 g per 100 mL of
solution at 25°C. Its solubility product is
(2) X = OH , Y = CHI 3 , Z = , (Atomic mass Ca = 40, F = 19)
(1) 2 × 10–4 (2) 3.2 × 10–11
O
O (3) 8 × 10–12 (4) 6.24 × 10–9
W= 60. Which of the following is true for the conformers of
butane?
O O (1) Gauche conformer is the most stable form
OH
(2) In anti-periplanar conformation the repulsion is
(3) X = , Y = CHI 3 , Z = ,
minimum
(3) In syn-periplanar conformation the van der
O
Waals’ strain is minimum
O
W= (4) There are seven possible conformational
isomers
O O 61. Which of the following is true regarding the reactive
O intermediates?
(4) X = , Y = CHI 3 , Z = , (1) An alkyl free radical is a nucleophile
(2) A carbocation is a Lewis acid
O
O (3) A carbanion is a Lewis acid
W=
(4) A free radical is a Lewis base

56. Which of the following is the most acidic ? 62. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

OH (1) The circumference of nth Bohr’s orbit is n

COOH times the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron
O2N NO 2 in that orbit
(1) (2)
(2) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle can be given
as E.t  h/4
NO 2
(3) Azimuthal quantum number describes the
OH energy of orbitals and orbital-angular
momentum

(3) CH3 – COOH (4) (4) In a Bohr atom, energy gap between 2
consecutive levels increases as we move
towards higher principal quantum numbers
NO2
(6)
63. Consider the complexes 68. A gas expands in a well insulated container against
a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm and the
a = [Co(NH3)6]3+, b = [Co(en)3]3+, c = [Co(H2O)6]3+
volume changes from 2.5L to 4.5L. The change in
the correct order of the absorbed wavelength in the internal energy will be [1 L atm = 101.3 J]
visible region for these complexes will be
(1) Zero (2) –506.5 J
(1) a > b > c (2) b > a > c
(3) 506.5 J (4) 1139.6 J
(3) c > b > a (4) c > a > b 69. 20 g CaCO3 is taken in a 10L container at 827°C.
64. Match the compounds in column I with their For the equilibrium CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g),
shapes in column II and assign the correct code. Kp = 1.1 at 827°C. Find the percentage of CaCO3
that remains unreacted. (Given R = 0.08 L atm K–
Column I (molecule) Column II (shape) 1 mol –1)

(a) NH3 (i) Tetrahedral

(1) 28% (2) 37.5%
(b) BeCl2 (ii) Trigonal pyramidal (3) 12.5% (4) 27.5%
(c) BrF5 (iii) Square planar 70. Which of the following is not correct ?
(d) XeF4 (iv) Square pyramidal (1) Cellulose contains -D-glucose as monomeric
(v) Linear unit
(2) Lactose contains -D-galactose and
(a) (b) (c) (d)
-D-glucose
(1) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii) (3) Maltose contains -D-galactose and
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) -D-fructose
(3) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii) (4) Sucrose contains -D-glucose and
-D-fructose
(4) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)
71. For the decomposition of ammonia over tungsten,
65. Among the following the species with bond angle
dpNH3 k 1pNH3
less than 109°28 is the rate law is given as 
dt 1  k 2pNH3
(1) BF3 (2) C2H2
(3) [B(OH)4]– (4) PH3 The order of the reaction, when the pressure of
NH3 inside the reaction vessel is very low, will be
66. Correct order of increasing basic strength for the
(1) Zero (2) 1
following is
(3) 1.5 (4) 2
NH 2 NH 2 72. In which of the following species there is no
NH 2 N – N linkage?
(1) N2O (2) N2O3
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
NO2 CH 3 73. Which of the following pairs of species has only
-bond(s)?
(a) (b) (c)
(1) B2, C2 (2) B2, N2
(1) a > b > c (2) c > b > a (3) N2, NO+ (4) NO, CO
(3) a > c > b (4) c > a > b 74. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a
67. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Disinfectant (2) Antiseptic
(1) A catalyst is both a reactant and product of a (3) Cationic detergent (4) Anti depressant
reaction 75. Due to inability of the valence s-electrons to
(2) A catalyst can initiate a reaction participate in bonding process

(3) A catalyst does not lower the energy of (1) Pb4+ is a reducing agent
activation of a reaction (2) The common oxidation state of thallium is +1
(4) A catalyst provides a new energy path to a (3) Pb has lower ionization energy than Sn
reaction (4) Polonium is radioactive
(7)
76. For the reaction 2NOCl  2NO + Cl2, H = 90 83. For the complex CoCl3.4NH3, primary valency = 3,
kJ mol –1 and S = 120 JK –1 mol –1. At 750K, secondary valency = 6. Which of the following is
the reaction is the correct observation?
(1) spontaneous (2) non-spontaneous (1) It has a coordination number = 4
(3) at equilibrium (4) 80% completed (2) It has 2 ionizable Cl– ions
77. If molality of a dilute solution is doubled, the (3) A solution of 1 mol complex gives 1 mol AgCl
depression in freezing point per molal concentration precipitate
of solute will be
(4) It does not form curdy white precipitate with
(1) doubled (2) unchanged
AgNO3
(3) halved (4) quadrupled
84. Which of the following is the correct order of
78. Which of the following is independent of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution with
temperature? aqueous NaOH for the following compounds ?
(1) % W/V concentration
(2) Molarity Cl Cl Cl
(3) % W/W concentration NO2 O2N NO2

(4) Normality
79. Which of the following is correct with respect to NO2 NO2 NO2
[Fe(CN)6]–3?
(1) It has sp3d2 hybridization of iron (a) (b) (c)
(2) It is paramagnetic (1) a > c > b (2) b > c > a
(3) It is outer orbital (3) b > a > c (4) c > a > b
(4) It is a high spin complex 85. An example of sigma-bonded organometallic
80. Which of the following is incorrect? compound is
(1) Frenkel defect is favoured in lattice with ions (1) 3-allyl silver (I)
of similar sizes
(2) Ferrocene
(2) F-centers are seen in NaCl lattice
(3) Grignard reagent
(3) In Schottky defect density decreases
(4) Chromocene
(4) Fe 0.93 O has non-stoichiometric metal
deficiency defect 86. Actinoids have greater tendency to form complexes
than Lanthanoids, as
81. When NaCN and NH4OH solutions are added
separately to AgNO 3 solution, the complexes (1) Actinoid contraction is more severe
formed in the solution phase are respectively
(2) Small cations have high charge density
(1) [Ag(CN)4]3–, [Ag(NH2)2]+
(3) Higher oxidation states are available in
(2) [Ag(CN)2]–, [Ag(NH3)2]+ actinoids
(3) [Ag(CN)4]3–, [Ag(NH3)4]+ (4) All of these
(4) [Ag(CN)2]–, [Ag(NH3)4]+ 87. The groups and electronic configuration of 157
64Gd
82. During the Leaching of bauxite with silica impurity is
(1) Al2O3 is dissolved in NaOH solution (1) Group – 3, [Xe] 4f9 5d0 6s1
(2) Al2O3 is dissolved in NaCN solution (2) Group – 10, [Xe] 4f8 5d0 6s2
(3) Al2O3 is calcinated (3) Group – 3, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(4) Al2O3 is converted to aluminium nitride (4) Group – 10, [Xe] 4f0 5d 6s2

(8)
88. For a gas phase reaction A(g)  products, the 89. Which of the following electrolytes will have the
following data is given highest value of molar conductance at infinite
dilution?
Time (min) PA (mm of Hg)
(1) NaCl (2) MgCl2
0 800
(3) CaBr2 (4) HCl
100 400
90. Zinc rod is dipped in a solution of 1M ZnSO4, which
200 200 is 95% dissociated at 298K. Find the reduction
The order and rate constant of the reaction are potential of the electrode. [Given E0Zn2 / Zn  0.76 V
respectively and log1095 = 1.98]
(1) Zero order, 4 mol L–1s–1 (1) –0.7594 V
(2) First order, 6.93 × 10–3 min–1 (2) –0.7606 V
(3) First order, 3.47 × 10–3 min–1 (3) –0.7506 V
(4) Zero order, 2 mol–1 L–1s–1 (4) –0.7582 V

BOTANY

91. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. girdling 98. Select the correct match
experiment
(1) Frankia – N2 fixer in leguminous
(1) Xylem is responsible for translocation of food plants
(2) Food is translocated into phloem downward (2) Bacillus – Spherical in shape
(3) Phloem transport is bidirectional (3) Azotobacter – Free living, aerobic N2
(4) Xylem transport is multidirectional fixer
92. In sugarcane, stem length can be increased by the (4) Rhizobium – Autotrophic N2 fixer
application of
99. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(1) Clostridium butylicum : Citric acid
(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
(2) Aspergillus niger : Lactic acid
93. RNA polymerase I transcribes
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii : Swiss cheese
(1) rRNAs (2) tRNAs
(3) Sn RNAs (4) 5S rRNAs (4) Trichoderma polysporum : Statin
94. Which of the following has lignin deposition on the 100. Which of the following statements is correct about
cell wall ? a woody dicot stem showing heavy secondary
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma growth ?

(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma (1) Primary xylem is formed more than secondary
xylem
95. Which one is not a viral disease
(2) Primary and the older secondary phloem get
(1) Mumps (2) Herpes
crushed
(3) Influenza (4) Cholera
(3) Sap wood persists at the centre of axis
96. Typhoid, tetanus and Citrus canker are well known
disease caused by (4) Primary xylem results into sapwood
(1) Prions (2) Viroids 101. Name the factor related to RNA polymerase
(3) Bacteria (4) Viruses enzyme which recognises and initiates
transcription process in bacteria
97. Coconut water is a
(1) Rho factor
(1) Cellular endosperm
(2) Nuclear endosperm (2) Sigma factor

(3) Liquid embryo in seed (3) Omega factor

(4) Liquid endocarp (4) Intrinsic protein factor

(9)
102. DNA polymerase III polymerise DNA in 109. Which among the following is unicellular
(1) 3  5direction photosynthetic with indestructible cell wall?
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Diatoms
(2) 5  3direction
(3) Dinoflagellate (4) Protozoans
(3) Both in 3  5and 5  3direction
110. Select the mismatch
(4) A template independent manner
(1) Nostoc – Cyanobacteria
103. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding
(2) Methanogens – Archaebacteria
strand of DNA in a transcription unit is
(3) Plasmodium – Sporozoan
5 – AGAATG – 3, the sequence of bases in its
RNA transcript would be (4) Typanosoma – Ciliated protozoan
(1) 5 – AGAAUG – 3 111. Which type of bacteria is most abundant in
nature?
(2) 5 – UACUAC – 3
(1) Facultative anaerobe (2) Autotrophic
(3) 5 – CAUUAU – 3
(3) Chemoautotrophs (4) Heterotroph
(4) 5 – GAAGUA – 3 112. Which of the following is found in the gut of
104. Choose correct statement for eukaryotic DNA ruminants?
packaging (1) Methanogens (2) Halophiles
(1) Positively charged DNA is wrapped around the (3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Cyanobacteria
negativity charged histone octamer 113. Select the mismatch
(2) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA (1) Funaria – Moss
helix (2) Marchantia – Liverwort
(3) Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of (3) Sphagnum – Protonema
a structure in nucleus called chromosomes
(4) Polytrichum – Prothallus
(4) “Beads on string” structure is the ultimate level 114. Double fertilization is characteristic feature of
of packaging
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus
105. Genetic disorder due to trisomy on 21 st
(3) Ginkgo (4) Ficus
chromosome, is
115. Diploid, dominant, photosynthetic, independent
(1) Down’s syndrome sporophyte is present in
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome (1) Most of the algae (2) Gymnosperms
(3) Turner’s syndrome (3) Bryophytes (4) All thallophytes
(4) Phenylketonuria 116. Members like Lycopodium and Adiantum belong to
106. How many true-breeding pea plant varieties were class
selected by Mendel for experiment? (1) Lycopsida and Sphenopsida respectively
(1) 7 (2) 14 (2) Lycopsida and Pteropsida respectively
(3) 22 (4) 32 (3) Pteropsida and Sphenopsida respectively
(4) Pteropsida and Lycopsida respectively
107. Family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number
of diseased descendents as she was carrier of a 117. Product of cyclic photophosphorylation is
disease. What is that disease? (1) ATP only
(1) Sickle - cell anaemia (2) Colour blindness (2) ATP and NADPH + H+
(3) Haemophilia (4) Pheylketonuria (3) NADPH + H+ only
(4) ATP, NADPH+H+ and H2O
108. Mycorrhiza are
118. Which of the following statment is wrong for
(1) Association of algae with shoots of lower cellular respiration ?
group of plants
(1) Glucose is the only substrate for respiration
(2) Association of fungi with roots of higher group
(2) Glycolysis is common between aerobic and
of plants
anaerobic respiratory pathway
(3) Association of algae with shoots of higher (3) Respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway
group of plants rather than a catabolic one
(4) Association of fungi with shoots of lower group (4) Electron transport system is present in the
of plants inner mitochondrial membrane

(10)
119. Select the odd one w.r.t. meiosis 127. Filiform apparatus is present in
(1) Pairing of homologus chromosomes occur (1) Synergids (2) Antipodal cell
during leptotene
(3) Egg cells (4) Central cell
(2) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division 128. Persistent nucellus in seeds is known as

(3) Parental chromosomes are replicated to (1) Pericarp (2) Perisperm

produce identical sister chromatids during S (3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast
phase
129. The vascular cambium in dicot roots is
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
meiosis II (1) Completely secondary in origin

120. Which of the following cell organelles is (2) Partly primary and partly secondary in origin
responsible for digestion of carbohydrates, fats and (3) Develops from endodermis
proteins?
(4) Originates in extrastelar region
(1) Plastids (2) Lysosomes
130. Which of the following equations describe Verhulst
(3) Ribosome (4) Centrosome - Pearl Logistic growth
121. Which of the following options represents the
correct sequence of events during meiosis ? dN  N  K
(1)  rN   (2) Nt  N0 ert
(1) Synapsis  Crossing over  Desynapsis dt  K 
(2) Synapsis  Desynapsis  Crossing over
(3) Desynapsis  Synapsis  Crossing over dt dN K N
(3)  rN (4)  rN  
dN dt  K 
(4) Crossing over  Synapsis  Desynapsis
122. The female flower reaches the surface of water by 131. Humus is
the long stalk and male flowers or pollen grains are (1) Dark coloured amorphous substance
released on to the surface of water in
(2) Alkaline
(1) Vallisnaria (2) Lotus
(3) Nutrient less
(3) Zostera (4) Water hyacinth
(4) Non-colloidal
123. In altermate phyllotaxy
132. Which one is odd w.r.t. key criteria for determining
(1) A pair of leaves arise at each node
a hot spot?
(2) Multiple number of leaves arise at each node
(1) Cryopreservation technique
(3) A single leaf arises at each node
(2) Very high level of species richness
(4) Rachis is absent
(3) High degree of endemism
124. Which one of the following acts as organ of
perennation to tide over conditions unfavourable for (4) Degree of threat in terms of habitat loss
growth 133. IUCN has its headquarter at
(1) Underground stem (1) Brazil (2) Japan
(2) Subaerial stem
(3) Switzerland (4) Germany
(3) Modified leaves
134. What would be the w of a cell during endosmosis
(4) Aerial stem
(1) w increases
125. Grams and Beans are
(2) w decreases
(1) Monocot and have endospermic seed
(3) w remains the same
(2) Dicot and have endospermic seed
(4) w will be zero
(3) Dicot and have non endospermic seed
135. FOAM stands for
(4) Monocot and have non endospermic seed
126. Which of the following device encourages cross- (1) Forum of Arcata Marshes
pollination (2) Friends of Arcata Marshes
(1) Autogamy (2) Homogamy (3) Forest of Arcata Marshes
(3) Dichogamy (4) Cleistogamy (4) Findings of Arcata Marshes

(11)
 ZOOLOGY

136. Pseudostratified non-ciliated epithelium is present 143. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to
in ctenophores ?
(1) Trachea (1) Exclusively marine
(2) Large bronchi (2) Have comb plates that help in locomotion
(3) Ducts of endocrine glands
(3) Indirect development
(4) Ducts of parotid salivary gland
(4) They are dioecious
137. Which of the following cells and their functions
are incorrectly matched ? 144. Match the columns and choose the correct option

(1) Plasma cells : Produce antibodies Column A Column B

(2) Histiocytes : Phagocytosis 1. Earthworm a. Paurometabolous
(3) Fibroblasts : Secrete leptin hormone 2. Cockroach b. Jet propulsion
(4) Mast cells : Produce histamine, heparin 3. Star fish c. Mesodermal skeleton
and serotonin
4. Devil fish d. Chloragogen cells
138. Given below is a list of tissues
(1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a (2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Cartilage,Bone, Areolar tissue, (3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b (4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
Tendons, Adipose tissue,Smooth 145. Which of the following is a correct difference w.r.t
muscles,Cuboidal epithelium, general features of cartilaginous and bony fishes?
Stratified epithelum Cartilaginous fish Bony fish

How many of these are avascular ? 1. Cycloid scales present Placoid scales
present
(1) 3 (2) 4
2. Swim bladder present Swim bladder
(3) 5 (4) 6
absent
139. If Lectins : Concanavalin A; then Toxins : ?
3. Ammonotelic Uricotelic
(1) Curcumin (2) Codeine
4. Viviparous Oviparous
(3) Abrin (4) Monoterpenes
146. Which of the following set of animals contain
140. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
respect to cellulose ? dicondylic skull ?

(1) It is unbranched polymer of -glucose (1) Chelone, Columba, Pteropus

(2) It serves as structural element in plant cell (2) Bufo, Trygon, Macropus
wall (3) Ichthyophis, Macropus, Bufo
(3) Artificial silk rayon is derived from cellulose (4) Chameleon, Balaenoptera, Ichthyophis
(4) Cellulose gives blue colour with iodine
147. Read the following statements with respect to
141. In a nucleic acid, the bond present between the cockroach and choose the correct option
phosphate and ribose sugar is
Statement A : Vision in cockroach is nocturnal
(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Hydrogen bond
and mosaic.
(3) Ester bond (4) Disulphide bond
Statement B : In mosaic vision, images are dull
142. Which of the following occurs when cyanide and can be formed only in dim light.
inhibits cytochrome oxidase ?
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Km unchanged; Vmax unchanged
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Km increased; Vmax unchanged
(3) Km unchanged; Vmax decreased (3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Km decreased; Vmax decreased (4) Both the statements are incorrect

(12)
148. Select the wrong statement with respect to 154. The correct match pair is
autonomic nervous system (1) Echinodermata – Balanoglossus
(1) Sympathetic nervous system is also called (2) Hemichordata – Echinus
thoraco-lumbar outflow
(3) Urochordata – Amphioxus
(2) Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are long and
adrenergic (4) Osteichthyes – Latimeria
(3) Parasympathetic ganglia are present on or 155. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
very close to visceral organs respect to cardiac cycle?
(4) Parasympathetic nervous system is also called (1) Atrial diastole and ventricular diastole overlap
cranio-sacral outflow each other partially
149. Given below are a list of digestive enzymes (2) 20% of the ventricular filling occurs during
atrial systole
Trypsin,Dipeptidase,Rennin, (3) When ventricular diastole occurs, the
Aminopeptidase,Chymotrypsin, ventricular pressure falls, causing closure of
Pepsin semi-lunar valves
(4) During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps
How many of these are exopeptidase? out 70 ml of blood
(1) 3 (2) 2 156. The gap between ‘dub’ and ‘lubb’ in a normal
(3) 1 (4) 4 cardiac cycle is
150. Which of the following is not true with respect to (1) 0.3 sec (2) 0.4 sec
absorption? (3) 0.5 sec (4) 0.1 sec
(1) Fatty acids and glycerol move into intestinal 157. Which of the following increases heart beat rate ?
mucosa in the form of micelles (1)  Body temperature,  Ca+2,  Na+
(2) Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs (2)  Ca+2,  Na+
takes place in large intestine
(3)  K+,  Na+
(3) The rate of absorption of galactose is highest
(4)  Adrenaline,  Ca+2
(4) Alcohol absorption starts in small intestine
158. Which of the following heart diseases may be
151. Which of the following gastro intestinal hormones caused due to congestion of lungs?
increases gastric motility?
(1) Coronary artery disease
(1) Somatostatin
(2) Heart attack
(2) Secretin (3) Cardiac arrest
(3) Enterogastrone (4) Heart failure
(4) Gastrin 159. Which of the following shows ammonotelism?
152. If the tidal volume of a healthy individual is 500 ml, (1) Reptiles (2) Spiders
dead space volume is 150 ml, and breathing rate
is 12 times/min. The alveolar ventilation rate will be (3) Tadpole (4) Frog

(1) 4.2 lit/min (2) 6 lit/min 160. Minimum reabsorption occurs in which part of
nephron?
(3) 5.5 lit/min (4) 7 lit/min
(1) PCT
153. Listed below are few conditions
(2) DCT
(i) High pO2
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(ii) High H+ concentration
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(iii) High pH
161. All of the following are functions of Angiotensin II
(iv) High 2, 3 BPG [Bisphospho glyceric acid] except
(v) Low pCO2 (1) It causes constriction of arterioles
How many of these factors will shift the oxygen (2) It stimulates adrenal gland to release
dissociation curve to right? aldosterone
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) It stimulates excretion of Na+
(3) 2 (4) 1 (4) Stimulates increase of blood pressure

(13)
162. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option E – The optic nerves and the retinal blood vessels
leave the eye at blind spot
During Cori cycle, i % of lactic acid of
How many of these statments are incorrect?
muscles is converted to glycogen and ii % of
(1) 4
lactic acid is oxidized to CO2 and H2O
(1) i – 50; ii – 50 (2) i – 20; ii – 80 (2) 3

(3) i – 60; ii – 40 (4) i – 80; ii – 20 (3) 2

163. Which of the following is an example of second (4) 5

class lever? 168. Given below is a list of hormones
(1) Atlanto-occipital joint
(2) Standing on toes Insulin,Growth hormone,
(3) Flexion of forearm Glucagon,Adrenaline,
Thymosin,Cortisol
(4) Extension of forearm
164. Match the columns and choose the correct option
How many of these are hyperglycemic?
Column A Column B
(1) 5 (2) 6
A. Synarthrose 1. Pubic symphysis
(3) 4 (4) 1
B. Amphiarthrose 2. Sutures of skull
169. Which of the following is not a function of cortisol?
C. Diarthrose 3. Shoulder joint
(1) It maintains cardio-vascular system as well as
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3 (2) A–3, B–1, C–2
kidney functions
(3) A–2, B–1, C–3 (4) A–3, B–2, C–1
(2) It inhibits cellular uptake and utilization of
165. Brain stem includes
amino acids
(1) Midbrain + cerebellum + medulla
(3) It stimulates RBC production
(2) Pons + medulla + cerebellum + midbrain
(4) It stimulates immune response
(3) Hypothalamus + midbrain + medulla + pons
170. Which of the following set of hormones act with
(4) Midbrain + pons + medulla
the help of intracellular receptor?
166. Read the following statements with respect to
internal ear (1) Cortisol, Testosterone, Insulin

Statement A : In the organ of Corti, above the
rows of hair cells is a thin membrane called
tectorial membrane.
Statement B : Cristae in semicircular canals are
concerned with static equilibrium.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
167. Read the following statements with respect to
human eye
A – Sclera is composed of dense connective
tissue
B – Cornea and choroid are avascular
C – The choroid becomes thick in the anterior part
to form ciliary body
D – The space between lens and retina is called
aqueous humor
(2) Thyroxine, Estrogen, Cortisol
(3) Adrenaline, Glucagon, Testosterone
(4) Growth Hormone, Testosterone, Progesterone
171. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Life expectancy is based on average life span
(2) Maximum life span is the characteristic of an
individual
(3) Life expectancy is the characteristic of a
population
(4) Life span cannot be correlated with the size of
an organism
172. Capacitation of sperm occurs in
(1) Epididymis
(2) Female genital system
(3) Testis
(4) Seminal vesicle

(14)
173. Read the following statements 177. The hormones which are steroidal in nature are
Statement A : Epiblast is the source of all the (1) Serotonin, Insulin
germ layers in the embryo.
(2) Thyroxine, Adrenaline
Statement B : Trophoblast cells form the foetal
part of placenta. (3) Histamine, Thymosin
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Aldosterone, cortisol
(2) Only statement B is correct
178. If we ligate a foreign DNA at the Bam HI site in
(3) Both the statements are correct
vector pBR322, then A will select the
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
174. Which of the following STIs [Sexually Transmitted transformants and B will select the
Infections] have no permanent cure? recombinants.
(1) Chlamydia Select the correct option
(2) Syphilis
(1) A – Tetracycline; B – Ampicillin
(3) Gonorrhoea
(2) A – Tetracycline; B – Lac Z
(4) Genital Herpes
(3) A – Penicillin; B – Ampicillin
175. Which of the following Natural Selection is shown
by sickle cell anaemia? (4) A – Ampicillin; B – Tetracycline
(1) Directional (2) Disruptive 179. Which of the following is incorrect with respect
(3) Stabilising (4) Rotating to PCR?
176. Which of the following is correct with respect to (1) Denaturation : 94°C
the figure given below?
(2) Annealing : 50°C – 60°C
OH
(3) Extension : 72°C
(4) Extension : hydrogen bonds break
O 180. Choose the correct statement
H
(1) It is commonly called smack (1) Cry I Ab controls cotton bollworm
(2) It is obtained from the latex of poppy plant (2) Mature insulin has 3 peptide chains
(3) It is useful for patients who have undergone (3) 25 documented varieties of Basmati are grown
surgery
in India
(4) Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion
and are known for their effects on (4) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
cardiovascular system of the body as a method of cellular defence

‰ ‰ ‰

(15)