13/07/2020 OYM

Code-A

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iTutor Fortnightly Test Series

Test – 6
Physics : Current Electricity.
Chemistry : Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements : Concentration of
an ore, Hydraulic washing, Magnetic separation, Froth floatation process.
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation: Mutations - Chromosomal aberrations, Genomatic
mutation, Genetic dissorders-pedigree analysis, Mendelian disorder Chromosomal disorder,
cytoplasmic inheritance. Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Introduction, The DNA-structure of
polynucleotide chain, Derivation of DNA structure, DNA packaging in prokaryotes.
Zoology : Evolution III: Lamarck’s theory, Darwin’s theory-Darwin Novelty Mutation theory, Hardy
Weinberg principle: Gene flow, gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination,
natural selection, Speciation: Allopatric and sympatric, Brief account of evolution: Evolution of
plant forms, evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological period, Human evolution, prior
to ape man, Ape man to prehistoric man, prehistoric to modern man.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
1. The resistance of a wire is 20 Ω. It is stretched so 3. The power dissipated in the following circuit is
that the length becomes double, then the new
resistance of the wire will be
(1) 80 Ω
(2) 40 Ω
(3) 10 Ω
(4) 20 Ω
2. Resistivity of a conductor is independent of
(1) Length of conductor (1) 32 W
(2) Temperature (2) 16 W
(3) Area of cross-section of conductor (3) 48 W
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) 64 W
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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-6 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

4. n identical resistors each of resistance 20 Ω are 10. Applied electric field across a conductor is
connected in parallel to each other. If equivalent increased by two times, the mobility of free
resistance is 5 Ω, then the value of n is electrons
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) Remains unchanged
(3) 2 (4) 1 (2) Increases two times
5. The current in wire AB, in the shown figure is (3) Decreases two times
(4) Increases four times
11. Resistance of a conductor wire of length 1 m and
area of cross-section 0.2 cm2 is 10 Ω. The
resistance of the wire of same material of length
3 m and area of cross-section 0.2 cm2 is
(1) 5 A (2) 9 A (1) 10 Ω
(3) 7 A (4) 8 A (2) 20 Ω
6. Potential difference across a cell may be (3) 30 Ω
(1) Greater than its emf
(4) 40 Ω
(2) Less than its emf
12. A wire PQ is 100 cm long. When PR = 30 cm, no
(3) Equal to its emf deflection occurs in the galvanometer, then value
(4) All of these of resistance S is
7. Resistance of a wire of material of resistivity
2 × 10–7 Ωm, length 10 cm and area of cross
section as 0.2 cm2 is
(1) 1 mΩ (2) 2 mΩ
(3) 3 mΩ (4) 4 mΩ
8. Voltage (V) current (I) graph of a metallic
conductor is shown at two temperatures T1 and
T2. Then (neglect any thermal expansions)
(1) 30 Ω (2) 60 Ω
(3) 40 Ω (4) 70 Ω
13. In the given circuit if no current flows through
galvanometer, then the value of unknown
resistance X is

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) Insufficient information
9. Resistance of the given carbon resistor is

(1) (24 × 101) Ω ± 10%

(2) (24 × 102) Ω ± 20%
(3) (24 × 102) Ω ± 10% (1) 1 Ω (2) 2 Ω
(4) (24 × 10 ) Ω ± 5%
3
(3) 8 Ω (4) 4 Ω
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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-6 (Code-A)

14. In potentiometer circuit, the value of the length 15. In a meter bridge experiment shown below, the
AJ for which galvanometer shows null deflection null point is obtained at P. The value of unknown
is (RAC = 4 Ω, AC = 100 cm) resistance X is

(1) 40 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 20 Ω (2) 10 Ω

(3) 60 cm (4) 50 cm (3) 40 Ω (4) 30 Ω

CHEMISTRY
16. Water vapours are adsorbed on 21. Maximum coagulating power for negatively
(1) Anhydrous CaCl2 charged sol among the following is of
(1) Al3+ (2) Cl–
(2) Silica gel
(3) PO43– (4) Ba2+
(3) Both anhydrous CaCl2 and silica gel
22. Which of the following is an example of
(4) Neither on anhydrous CaCl2 nor on silica gel
heterogenous catalysis?
17. If adsorption and absorption are taking place NO (g)
simultaneously, then term used for the process is (1) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  → 2SO3 (g)
(1) Sorption HCl (l)
(2) CH3 COOCH3 (l) + H2O(l)  →
(2) Desorption
CH3COOH(aq) + CH3OH(aq)
(3) Dissolution
H SO (l)
(4) Occlusion (3) C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l) 
2 4
→

18. Which of the following is not true for C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)

physisorption? Pt (s)
(4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  → 2SO3(g)
(1) Lack of specifity
23. Which of the following is not an ore of iron?
(2) Favours at high pressure
(1) Haematite (2) Magnetite
(3) Favours at high temperature
(3) Siderite (4) Bauxite
(4) Reversible in nature
24. In froth floatation method, pine oil is used as
19. Size of colloidal particle is
(1) Collectors (2) Stablisers
(1) Less than 1 nm
(3) Leaching agent (4) Depressant
(2) Between 1 nm to 10 nm
25. For the adsorption, generally
(3) Between 1 nm to 100 nm
(1) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 (2) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(4) Between 1 nm to 1000 nm
20. Which of the following is not a method of (3) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0 (4) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
purification of colloidal solution? 26. Ore of zinc is
(1) Dialysis (2) Electrodialysis (1) Sphalerite (2) Zincite
(3) Ultrafiltration (4) Peptisation (3) Calamine (4) All of these

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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-6 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

27. Froth floatation process is mainly used for 29. Milk is an _______ emulsion.
(1) Oxide ores (2) Sulphide ores (1) Oil dispersed in water type
(3) Chloride ores (4) Carbonate ores (2) Oil dispersed in oil type
28. Which of the following is incorrect regarding (3) Water dispersed in water type
enzyme? (4) Water dispersed in oil type
(1) Enzyme catalyses more than one reaction 30. Multimolecular colloid among the following is
(2) They are highly efficient catalyst (1) Sulphur sol
(3) Optimum temperature range for enzymatic (2) Starch
activity is 298 – 310 K
(3) Synthetic rubber
(4) Optimum pH range for enzymatic activity is
(4) Nylon
5–7

BOTANY
31. Shifting of a part of one chromosome to another 34. Colour blindness is a/an
non-homologous chromosome is called (1) X-linked recessive disorder
(1) Inversion
(2) X-linked dominant disorder
(2) Deletion
(3) Autosomal recessive disorder
(3) Translocation
(4) Autosomal dominant disorder
(4) Duplication
32. Given pedigree chart does not shows the 35. The disease in which a simple cut results in
inheritance of trait like continuous bleeding for a very long time is
(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Albinism
36. The sickle-cell anaemia is caused by substitution
of
(1) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the
sixth position of β-chain of haemoglobin
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(2) X-linked recessive trait (2) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the
sixth position of β-chain of haemoglobin
(3) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) X-linked dominant trait (3) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the first
position of β-chain of heamoglobin
33. Mating between relatives is represented by
(4) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the first
(1)
position of β-chain of haemoglobin
(2) 37. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of
mitosis in an organism leads to
(3) (1) Aneuploidy
(2) Diploidy
(4)
(3) Polyploidy
(4) Haploidy

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One Year Medical-2021 iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-6 (Code-A)

38. Absence of secondary sexual characters, 42. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Chargaff’s rules for
presence of rudimentary ovaries and absence of double stranded DNA.
an allosome are the features of person inflicted (1) A + T = G + C
with
A+G
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) =1
T+C
(2) Down’s syndrome
A+T
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia (3) = specific for a species
G+C
(4) Thalassemia
(4) Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate residues
39. Trisomy of sex chromosome results in
occur in equal number
(1) Down’s syndrome
43. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome option with correct ones.
(3) Turner’s syndrome (a) In prokaryotes, the packaged structure of
(4) Cystic fibrosis DNA is called nucleoid or genophore
40. Select the correctly matched pair. (b) In prokaryotes, DNA is found in cytoplasm in
super coiled stage
(Organisms) (Genome size)
(c) DNA packaging in prokaryotes requires non-
(1) φ × 174 bacteriophage – 48502 bp
histone proteins
(2) λ phage – 5386 bases
(1) (a) only
(3) E. coil – 4.6 × 106 bp
(2) (b) only
(4) Human – 3.3 × 106 bp
(3) (c) only
41. The correct representation of central dogma of
(4) All (a), (b), (c)
molecular biology is
44. A nitrogenous base is linked through N-glycosidic
linkage at _______ of sugar.
(1)
(1) 3′C
(2) 5′C
(2) (3) 1′C
(4) 2′C
45. Phenylketonuria is
(3)
(1) An autosomal recessive disorder
(2) An autosomal dominant disorder

(4) (3) A X-linked recessive disorder

(4) A X-linked dominant disorder

ZOOLOGY
46. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. Darwin’s 47. Which one is used as an industrial pollution
observations on evolution. indicator?
(1) Existing living forms share common features (1) Algae
(2) Animal species do not become extinct (2) Fungi
(3) Gradual evolution in life forms (3) Bryophytes
(4) Variation in populations (4) Lichen
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iTutor Fortnightly Test_FT-6 (Code-A) One Year Medical-2021

48. According to Darwin, fitness ultimately refers only 54. Fossils of Bryophytes were initially found in
to abundance in
(1) Physical fitness in natural conditions (1) Permian period
(2) Better strategy to obtain food (2) Silurian period
(3) Superiority over other species (3) Devonian period
(4) Reproductive fitness, thereby producing more (4) Carboniferous period
progeny 55. Thecodonts did not give rise to
49. The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like (1) Crocodiles (2) Dinosaurs
(1) Adult modern human skull (3) Tuataras (4) Modern birds
(2) Adult chimpanzee skull 56. Angiosperms i.e. flowering plants first appeared
(3) Adult monkey skull in
(4) Adult gorilla skull (1) Cretaceous period
50. Cranial capacity of Homo habilis was (2) Jurassic period
(1) 900 cc (2) 650 – 800 cc (3) Triassic period
(3) 1400 cc (4) 1650 cc (4) Permian period
51. Pre-historic cave art developed about 57. Lobefins evolved into the first
(1) 1,00,00 – 40,000 years back (1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians
(2) 75,000 – 10,000 years ago (3) Aves (4) Mammals
(3) 10,000 years back 58. Hugo de Vries believed that it is mutation which
(4) 18,000 years ago causes evolution. He carried out his study on
52. Primate which was more ape like was (1) Evening primrose (2) Pea plant
(1) Sivapithecus (2) Ramapithecus (3) Wheat plant (4) Daffodils
(3) Dryopithecus (4) Australopithecus 59. Most advanced ancestors of mammals are
53. Psilophyton is a genus of extinct vascular land (1) Synapsids (2) Therapsids
plants of (3) Sauropsids (4) Thecodonts
(1) Silurian period 60. Dinosaurs became extinct at end of which
(2) Permian period?
(3) Carboniferous period (1) Carboniferous (2) Devonian
(4) Permian period (3) Silurian (4) Cretaceous

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Edition: 2020-21