MM : 360

PRACTICE TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.

21/08/2022 (for NEET-2023)

Test – 6

Page No - 1
 [ PHYSICS ]
Choose the correct answer: 6. An electric bulb marked 4 0 W and 200 V is used
in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V. Its power is
1. Which of the following materials obeys the nature
(Resistance is constant)
of given voltage-current ( V - /) graph under
constant temperature? (1) 10 W (2) 20 W
(3) 40 W (4 ) 100 W
V
7. A potential difference of 4 V is applied across the
conductor of length 0.02 m. The drift velocity of
electrons if their mobility is 2.8 x 1o-a m2V- 1s- 1, is
(1) 5.6 x 10-4 m/s (2) 5.6 x 104 m/s
0
(1) Germanium (2) Silicon (3) 5.6 x 10-a m/s (4 ) 5.6 x 106 m/s

(3) Zinc (4 ) Glass 8. In the given circuit, total power consumed is

2. The current / in a conductor varies with time t as / 200 W. The value of resistance R is
= 4t + 9t2 where / is in ampere and t in second. R
Total electric charge flowing through a section of
conductor from time t = 1 s to t = 4 s is
(1) 5 C (2) 224 C 4n
(3) 219 C (4 ) 300 C
3. A uniform conductor of resistance R is cut into n
10 V
equal pieces. Half of them are joined in series
and the remaining half of them are connected in (1) 4 n (2) 7 n
parallel. If two combinations are joined in series,
the effective resistance of all the pieces is
(3) � n (4 ) in
7
4 9. The total current drawn from the cell having
(2) R[ n;; ]
potential difference Vis

(4) R[ n;,;4]
�v

4. The equivalent resistance between the points A

and Bis 3V V
(1) (2)

:;II"'
r 2r 3r R 3R

I
A• WIii• WIN, •B
2V 3V
(3) (4 )
3R SR
15 r 7r
(1) (2) - 10. A resistance of (37 x 102)n .±. 10% can be
6 5
represented by colour coding respectively as
11r 6r
(3) (4 ) - (1) Violet, red, orange, silver
6 5
(2) Red, violet, orange, silver
5. The resistance of a conductor is 6 n at 30 ° C and
7 n at 100 ° C. The average temperature (3) Orange, violet, red, silver
coefficient of resistance of the material is (4 ) Blue, violet, red, silver

(1) _1_oc-1 1
(2) _ _oc-1
11. Kirchoff's current rule is based on the
420 100 conservation of
(1) Momentum (2) Charge
(3) _1_oc-1 (4 ) _1_oc-1
200 600 (3) Heat (4 ) Force

Page No - 2
12. The terminal potential difference of a cell when (1) 3.5 A (2) 7.5 A
connected to an external resistance equal to its (3) 9 A (4) 2.5 A
internal resistance is [Eis emf of cell] 18. The emf of the ideal cell is 12 V. If ideal voltmeter
E is connected across 4 n resistor then its reading
(1) E (2)
2 will be
(3) E (4) Zero 12 V
3
13. The ampere-second is a unit of
(1) Power (2) Current 20n 4n
(3) Voltage (4) Charge
14. If length of the wire is stretched to n times its
initial value, then its resistivity
(1) Increases n2 times (2) Decrease n2 times (1) 1 V
(3) Increases n times (4) Remains same (3) 3 V
15. The current flowing through 2nresistor is 19. A steady current flows in a conductor of variable
cross-sectional area. The quantity that remains
constant throughout the length of the conductor is
(1) Drift speed (2) Current density
1.4A 1.4A (3) Current (4) Electric field
20. If a current of 4 A when flows through a
conductor of resistance 4 n, then in 10 s it
(1) 1 A (2) 1.4 A consumes energy of
(3) 0.4 A (4) 0.8 A (1) 320 J (2) 640 J
16. When a current flows through a conductor, then (3) 120 J (4) 200 J
the angle between electric field and current 21. Current through a lamp marked 100 W, 250 V is
density in the conductor at a given position is
(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.1 A
(1) 90 ° (2) 180 °
(3) 0.4 A (4) 0.3 A
(3) 60 °
(4) Zero
22. A wire 100 cm long and 2 mm2 in cross-section
17. Current I versus time t graph for a conductor is
carries a current of 2 A when connected to a
shown in the figure. Average current flowing
through the conductor in time interval Oto 20 s is 1 V battery. The resistivity of the wire is

/(A) � (1) 2x10-7nm (2) 5x10-7nm

(3) 4x10--onm (4) 1x10--onm
101------,
23. Maximum current produced by a cell of emf
12 V and internal resistance 3nis
(1) 5 A (2) 3 A
0 10 15 20 t(s}' (3) 4 A (4) 1 A

( CHEMISTRY )
24. Unit of rate constant for nth order reaction is 25. Chemical kinetics will help us to study the

m m (1) Feasibility of a chemical reaction

(1) ( tr s-1 (2) ( tJ"' s-1
2 2

(2) Extent to which a reaction will proceed

(3) (
mt r s-1
n
(4) (
mol
r s1-n
n (3) Rate of a reaction
L (4) Enthalpy change of a reaction

Page No - 3
26. If rate constant of reaction is 2.303 x 10-3 s -1 then 34. If the value of rate constant for a reaction is
the time required for the completion of 9 0% of the 2.19 x 10-3 s -1 then the order of reaction is
reaction will be (1) 1 (2) 0
(1) 1000 s (2) 500 s (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) 100 s (4) 200 s 35. The reaction
27. For an elementary reaction: A+ 28 � c.
CH 3COOC2H 5 + H 2 O
If rate constant is k then correct expression of
rate law is is an example of
(1) Rate = k[A][B]2 (2) Rate = k[A][BJ-2 (1) Zero order reaction
1
(3) Rate = k[AJ- [8]2 (4) Rate = k[A]2[8] 1 (2) Pseudo first order reaction
28 . For Arrhenius equation, the slope of the graph, (3) Second order reaction
(4) Third order reaction
In k vs ..!. is
36. For a chemical reaction if temperature is
(1) In A (2) -In A increased from 10°C to 40°C, the rate constant
R Ea becomes__ times of initial value.
(3) (4) - (1) 2
Ea R (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 16
29. Consider the reaction
37. For an exothermic reaction, activation energy (Ea)
A + B ➔ C. If the rate expression is,
rate = k [A] [B] and if concentration of [A] taken as for forward direction is
excess, then the overall order of reaction will be (1) Temperature dependent
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Equal to activation energy for backward
(3) 1.5 (4) 0.5 direction
30. For a zero order reaction, A � B, rate (3) Greater than activation energy for backward
direction
m
constant k = 0.02( t)s- 1• (4) Less than activation energy for backward
direction
If initial concentration of reactant is 1 M, then
concentration of reactant left after 20 second is 38. In the Arrhenius equation (k = Ae-Ea/RT) the
(1) 0.4 M (2) 0.6 M
(3) 0.2 M (4) 0.8 M factor e-Ea/RT corresponds to fraction of
31. The molecularity of the given elementary reaction molecules that have
is (1) Kinetic energy greater than Ea
NH4NO2 ➔ N2+ 2H2O (2) Kinetic energy less than Ea
(1) 5 (2) 2
(3) Energy equal to the products
(3) 1 (4) 3
(4) Kinetic energy equal or less than Ea
32. Example of zero order reaction among the
following is 39. Consider the reaction, 2A ➔ B. The rate of
(1) The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a reaction is equal to
hot platinum surface at high pressure
+d[A] -d[A]
(2) Hydrogenation of ethene (1) (2)
2dt dt
(3) Decomposition of N2Os
(4) Radioactive decay of unstable nuclei -d[A] -d[B]
(3) (4)
33. For a first order reaction, A � B (t112 = 24 2dt dt
min.), after 72 minutes the amount of reactant left 40. The rate constant of a reaction depends on
is
(1) Volume
[Ao ] [Ao ]
(1) (2) (2) Pressure
2 4
(3) Initial concentration of the reactants
[Ao ] [Ao ]
(3) (4) (4) Temperature
6 8

Page No - 4
41. Consider the following statements 43. The given graph corresponds to which order of
(a) Order of a reaction is an experimental reaction? [t 1 12 is half-life and [Ao] is initial
concentration of reactant]
quantity
(b) Molecularity of a reaction cannot be zero or a
non integer
(c) Order is applicable to elementary as well as
complex reactions
The correct statements are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (1) Zero order (2) First order
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (3) Third order (4) Second order
44. If k is the rate constant for a first order reaction
42. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
then the half life of the reaction is given as
(1) Catalyst reduces the activation energy of (1) t 1 12 = k (2) t 1 12 = 2k
reaction 0.693 k
(3) t1,2 = - - (4) t1,2 =
(2) Lower is the value of activation energy faster k 0.693
is the rate of reaction 45. For the given rate equation, Rate = k[A] 1 '2 [8) 1 '2,
(3) Catalyst decreases Gibbs energy (LiG) of a the overall order of the reaction will be
reaction (1) !2 (2) 1
(4) Catalyst does not catalyse non-spontaneous
reactions (3) 2 (4) 1.5

[ BOTANY
46. All of the following features of Drosophila make it (1) Male grasshopper
suitable material for genetic experiments, except
(2) Female grasshopper
(1) It could be grown on simple synthetic medium
(2) Short life cycle of it (3) Male bird
(3) Morphologically distinct chromosomes (4) Female bird
(4) Homomorphic sex chromosomes in the male
50. The probability of either a male or a female child
47. When Morgan crossed yellow bodied and white in each pregnancy is always
eyed female to wild type male, then in F2
generation 3 1
(1) (2)
(1) All males were wild type 2 2
(2) All females were identical to females of 3 2
(3) (4)
parental generation 4 6
(3) 98.7% progenies were parental type
51. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(4) Recombinant type phenotype were 37.2%
Chromosomal theory of inheritance.
48. If the recombination frequency between genes A
and C is 10% then what is the distance between (1) It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri
genes A and C? (2) Only chromosomes occurs in pair but genes
(1) 7 cM do not
(2) 3 cM
(3) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to
(3) 10 cM behaviour of genes.
(4) 13 cM
(4) The paired condition of mendelian factor is
49. The XX + XO type of chromosome constitution for
restored during fertilisation
sex determination is seen in

Page No - 5
52. Mark the correct option for A and B regarding (1) Only statement A is correct
sex determination in honey bee. (2) Only statement B is correct

Female � gamete (B chromosomes). (3) Both statements A and B are correct

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
A B
58. First genetic map was prepared by
(1) Meiosis 32
(1) Sturtevant (2) Morgan
(2) Mitosis 8
(3) Sutton (4) Boveri
(3) Mitosis 4
59. In birds
(4) Meiosis 16
(1) Male individual is heterogametic
53. Select the odd statement for mutation.
(2) 50% of male gametes will not have any sex
(1) Gain of segment of DNA, result in alteration chromosome
in chromosome (3) Individual with chromosome complement AA
(2) Chromosomal aberration are commonly + ZZ is male
observed in cancer cells (4) Chromosome complement AA + ZW
(3) Colour blindness is classical example of point containing individual is a male
mutation 60. Mutations is the change in
(4) Deletion or insertion of base pair of DNA (1) Phenotypes only
cause frame shift mutations (2) Neither in phenotype nor genotype
54. If three genes A, B, C control skin colour of (3) Genotypes only
human, then which among the following genotype (4) Both phenotype and genotype of organism
will exhibit lightest skin tone?
61. The normal human females have chromosome
(1) aabbcc (2) AAbbcc complements as
(3) AaBbcc (4) AABBcc (1) Autosomes + XO (2) Autosomes + XX
55. The phenomenon of generation of non-parental (3) Autosomes + XY (4) Autosomes + ZW
gene combination is known as 62. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Inheritance correct option.
(2) Recombination Statement A: Human females produce only one
type of egg.
(3) Recombination frequency
Statement B : In butterflies females determines
(4) Chromosomal mapping
the sex of the offsprings.
56. In human beings
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) Female heterogamety is observed
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(2) Male produce one type of gamete
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Both male and female have same number of (4) Both statements A and B are correct
chromosomes
63. The female heterogametic condition is shown by
(4) Egg determines the sex of the offspring all, except
57. Read the given statements and select the (1) Birds (2) Moth
correct option. (3) Butterflies (4) Drosophila
Statement A: T.H. Morgan studied genes that 64. In Drosophila, the recombination frequency
were sex linked. between genes of eye colour and wings size in
Statement B: T.H. Morgan observed that two Morgan's experiment is
genes did not segregate independently of each (1) 98.7% (2) 37.2%
other and F2 ratio was deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. (3) 62.8% (4) 1.3%

Page No - 6
65. Point mutation is 67. The physical association of genes on a
(1) Change in entire DNA of an individual chromosome is termed as
(2) Change in single base pair of gene (1) Linkage (2) Crossing over
(3) Change in structure of chromosomes (3) Pleiotropy (4) Mutation
(4) Change in number of chromosomes
68. Who united the knowledge of chromosomal
66. Hanking observed a specific nuclear structure 'X
segregation with Mendelian principle?
body' through spermatogenesis in
(1) Humans (2) A few insects (1) G.J. Mendel (2) T.H. Morgan
(3) Fishes (4) Birds (3) Walter Sutton (4) R.C Punnett

[ZOOLOGY]
69. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t. 74. Fossils are most likely to be formed in abundance
Australian marsupials. in
(1) Bandicoot (2) Kangaroo (1) Igneous rocks (2) Metamorphic rocks
(3) Banded anteater (4) Bobcat (3) Sedimentary rocks (4) Volcanic rocks
70. A naturalist 'xyz' came to similar conclusions as 75. Which of the following do not exhibit adaptive
that of Darwin around the same time. radiation?
(1) Darwin's finches
Select the correct option for 'xyz'
(2) Australian marsupials
(1) Lamarck (2) Alfred Wallace
(3) Placental mammals
(3) Ernst Haeckel (4) Hugo deVries
(4) Wings of birds and insects
71. Read the statements given below and choose the
76. The pattern of bones in the forelimbs of cheetah,
correct option.
bat and horse shows
Statement A : During his sea voyage in a sail
(1) Divergent evolution
ship, Darwin concluded that existing life-forms
(2) Convergent evolution
have no similarities with extinct forms.
(3) Adaptive convergence
Statement B : According to Darwin, fitness refers
to reproductive fitness. (4) Analogy
77. Identify and select the correct pair representing
(1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
homologous structures.
(2) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
(1) Eye of octopus and of mammals
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Sweet potato and potato
72. Which among the following dinosaurs has plated (4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
back and was herbivores in nature? Cucurbita.
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus 78. Embryological support for evolution was
(3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus proposed by
73. Who among the following for the first time (1) Charles Darwin (2) Alfred Wallace
proposed that life originated from pre-existing (3) Thomas Malthus (4) Ernst Haeckel
non-living organic molecules like RNA, protein 79. Survival of melanised moth during post
etc.? industrialisation period, represent
(1) Oparin and Haldane (1) Natural selection
(2) Oparin and Miller (2) Artificial selection
(3) Charles Darwin (3) Adaptive radiation
(4) S. L. Miller and Haldane (4) Convergent evolution

Page No - 7
80. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. Darwin's 85. As per the theory of special creation the earth is
finches. about __ years old.
(1) All the varieties of finches, Darwin Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
conjectured, evolved on Galapagos islands (1) 10,000 (2) 4000
(2) Darwin's finches differed in their feeding (3) 18,000 (4) 40,000
habits and consequently in their beak
86. In a collection of moths in England, after
structure
industrialisation, it was observed that there were
(3) Insectivorous tree finches were the ancestral
finches from which the other finches evolved
(1) Equal number of white-winged and dark­
(4) Finches radiated from a single point
winged moths
81. Which of the following conditions did not exist on
(2) More white-winged moths than melanised
primitive earth just before the origin of life?
moths
(1) High temperature
(3) More dark-winged moths than white-winged
(2) Volcanic storms moths
(3) Reducing atmosphere (4) Both varieties were completely wiped out
(4) Atmosphere with free molecular oxygen 87. Sweet potato and potato is an example of
82. The evolution of similar characters in genetically (1) Divergent evolution (2) Homology
unrelated species when subjected to similar
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogy
environmental selective pressure are results of
88. Which of the following is not an example of
(1) Divergent evolution
evolution by anthropogenic action?
(2) Convergent evolution
(1) Darwin's finches
(3) Adaptive radiation
(2) Industrial melanism
(4) Homology
(3) Drug resistance in microbes
83. Lemur is a placental mammals that shows
(4) Pesticide resistance in crops
convergent evolution in Australia with
89. Consider the following carefully.
(1) Numbat (2) Anteater
"Formation of biomolecules preceded the
(3) Spotted cuscus (4) Mole
appearance of the first cellular form of life"
84. Consider the following statements and select the
correct option. The above mentioned statement is associated
with
Statement A: A study of fossils in different layers
of earth crust indicates the geological period in (1) Theory of special creation
which they existed. (2) Theory of chemical evolution
Statement B: Any population has built in (3) Theory of biogenesis
variations in characteristics. (4) Theory of panspermia
(1) Both the statements A and B are correct 90. Which of the following can be used as industrial
(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect pollution indicators?
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Algae (2) Fungi
(4) Only statement B is correct (3) Lichen (4) Bacteria

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