28/12/2022 RM-G2

CODE-B

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3 hrs. 20 min

(for NEET-2023)
Test 7
Topics covered :

Physics : Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity

Chemistry : Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Haloalkanes and

Haloarenes

Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Zoology : Animal Kingdom: Chordates, Structural Organisation in Animals Animal Morphology

(Cockroach)

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from

Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.

Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.

(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material

on the Answer sheet.

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of
The potential difference, through which it should
move to acquire a speed of 10 m/s, starting from
rest, is
(1) 100 kV (2) 75 kV
(3) 50 kV (4) 25 kV
2. Sixty four identical drops of water having equal (1) Zero (2)
charge combine to form a bigger drop. The factor
by which potential of bigger drop change in (3) (4)
comparison to a small drop is

j
(1) 64 (2) 32 6. Two concentric conducting spheres of radius a

ra
(3) 16 (4) 8 and 2a given charges q and 2q respectively.
The potential will be zero at point
3. A metallic sphere of radius r has charge q
distributed over its surface. The electric potential
th
at the surface of sphere is

(1) (2)
r
(3) (4)
(1) P1 (2) P2
ia

4. Figure shows the electric field lines due to a point

(3) P3 (4) Both P1 and P3
charge. The potential difference (VB VA) is
7. Capacitance of a capacitor is independent of
@

(1) Shape of the plates

(2) Size of the plates
(3) Material of conducting plates
(4) Medium between the plates
8. Two capacitors of capacitance and
having breakdown voltage 200 V and 250 V
(1) Positive respectively are connected in parallel. The
(2) Negative maximum charge that can be stored on the
(3) Zero combination is

(4) May be (1) or (2) (1) 1200

5. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a (2) 1500

square of side length d as shown in figure. The
(3) 1000
work required to move a charge Q, from the
centre O, of square to the centre P of one side is (4) 400

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

9. A network of six identical capacitors each of (1) (2)

capacitance is arranged as shown in
(3) (4)
figure. The equivalent capacitance of combination
between A and B is 14. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on
(1) Charge given to capacitor
(2) Potential difference between the plates of
capacitor
(3) Both charge given and potential difference
(4) None of these
15. n
(1) (2) charge of electron is e and mass m. When an
electric field is produced inside the conductor,
(3) (4)
then drift velocity of electrons is
10. Three identical capacitors can be combined in
different ways across the same voltage source. (1) (2)
The combination that can store the maximum
energy is
(3) (4)
(1) All the three connected in series
(2) Two in series and third connected in parallel 16. The battery of a Toy Car has an e.m.f. of 12 V,
with it internal resistance connected across the
(3) Two in parallel and third connected in series load of The current drawn from the battery
with it is
(4) All the three connected in parallel
(1) 8 A (2) 24 A
11. The capacitance of a parallel plate air capacitor is
(3) 6 A (4) 3 A
10 F. A dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is used
to fill half the area between the plates. The new 17. 6 cells each of e.m.f. 1.5 V and internal
capacitance is resistance are connected in series. One of

(1) (2) the cell is joined with reverse polarity and whole
combination is connected across a load
(3) (4) resistance. The effective e.m.f. and internal
resistance (across load resistance) are
12. A capacitor of capacitance is charged to a (1) 9 V, (2) 6 V,
potential of 100 V. After charging, it is connected
(3) 6 V, (4) 6 V,
in parallel to an uncharged identical capacitor.
The energy, lost in redistribution of charge in 18. If the power dissipation in the circuit shown in
steady state is figure is 100 W, then value of R is
(1) 2.5 × 10 2 J (2) 5 × 10 4 J
(3) 4 × 10 2 J (4) 7.5 × 10 4 J
13. In the combination shown in figure, the charge on
2.5 F capacitor in steady state is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
19. Charge (q) flowing in a circuit varies with time (t) 24. In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing
length with a cell is obtained at a length of
as where q is in coulomb and t 300 cm. On shunting the cell with a resistance of
is in second. The current i in circuit at , balancing length becomes 200 cm. The
t = 2 s is internal resistance of cell is
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A (1) (2)
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A (3) (4)
20. In the circuit given below, for no deflection in
25. In the given circuit when key is open, an ideal
galvanometer, the value of R will be
voltmeter reads 2 V and ideal ammeter reads
zero. When key is closed, voltmeter reads 1.5 V
and ammeter 1 A. The internal resistance of cell
is

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
21. Two bulbs of power rating 100 W, 220 V, are
26. In a meter bridge experiment, neutral point is
connected in series across a 220 V supply. The
obtained at 40 cm from end A, when the
power consumed in circuit will be
resistance Y is The value of resistance
(1) 50 W (2) 100 W
X is
(3) 200 W (4) 25 W
22. Kirchhoff's voltage law is based on
(1) Charge conservation
(2) Mass conservation
(3) Energy conservation
(4) Both (1) and (3)
23. In the circuit shown in figure, the ratio of current
i1, i2 and i3 is (1) (2)

(3) (4)

27. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.2% longer.

The percentage increase in resistance will be
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 0.1
(3) 6 : 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 : 6 (4) No change

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

28. The circuit shown in figure is a balanced Wheatstone 33. Four point charges are situated in space as
bridge. shown in the figure. The electric field at the origin
is

The value of R1 and R2 respectively to obtain

maximum power from a cell of e.m.f. 10 V and 1 1
(1) 6 NC (2) 8 NC
internal resistance is
(3) 1 NC 1 (4) Zero
(1) (2) 34. When a neutral body is given a positive charge,
then its mass
(3) (4)
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
29. A wire is stretched to half of original radius, the (3) Remains same (4) Either (2) or (3)
resistance of stretched wire becomes.
35. Two concentric spheres A and B exist in space
(1) 4 times as shown in the figure. A charge q lies at the
(2) 8 times common centre of the spheres. The ratio of
electric flux through sphere A to that through
(3) 16 times B is
(4) 32 times
30. The value of resistance required to be put in
series to glow a bulb of 50 W, 100 V safely from a
source of e.m.f. 200 V and internal resistance
is

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

31. Magnitude of electric field produced by a point (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
charge of 10 9 C, at a distance 1 m from it will be SECTION-B
(1) 4 N/C 36. Electric field (E) due to a uniformly charged non-
conducting solid sphere of radius R, as a function
(2) 9 N/C of distance (x) from its centre is best represented
(3) 18 N/C as

(4) 36 N/C
32. A point charge is placed at body centre of a cube (1) (2)
of side 10 cm. If the charge has a value q, then
electric flux through any one face of the cube will
be

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

(3) (4)

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
37. Force between two point charges separated by a 44. If there is no deflection in the galvanometer in the
distance r, varies as given network, then the value of R is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

38. If the speed of a point charge is increased, then

charge on it
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) Either (1) or (2)
(1) 1 (2) 2
39. Which of the following is not a property of electric
(3) 3 (4) 4
charge?
45. In the network shown, the potential difference
(1) Scalar addition
between point a and b is
(2) Charge is conserved for an isolated body
(3) Charge is quantized
(4) Conversion of charge to mass
(1) 2 V (2) 22 V
40. An electric dipole, when held at 60° with respect
(3) 12 V (4) 10 V
to a uniform electric field 104 N/C, experiences a
46. A cell of emf and internal resistance r is
torque of Calculate dipole
connected across a load resistance R as shown.
moment of the dipole. The maximum power delivered through load is
(1) (2) 4 × 10 21 C-m

(3) 2 × 10 8 C-m (4) 2 × 10 28 C-m

41. An electric dipole having charge +q and q are at
a separation r. At distance d >> r along the axis
of the dipole, the field is

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

42. A infinite line charge produces a field of 47. In a meter bridge, resistances are connected as
27 × 104 N/C at a distance of 4 m from it. The shown in figure. The balancing length is 40 cm.
linear charge density is The value of Q is

(1) 6 × 10 5 C/m (2) 2 × 10 5 C/m

5
(3) 10 C/m (4) 18 × 10 C/m 5

43. When an electric dipole having dipole moment

is placed in an uniform electric field , the
torque acting on the dipole is

(1) (2) (1) 5.5 (2) 10

(3) (4) (3) 7.5 (4) 8.5

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

48. If a capacitor of capacitance 2 F is connected (1) Always positive

with battery 10 V. Then energy used as heat (2) Always negative
energy in connecting wires till the capacitor is (3) May be positive or negative
completely charged would be
(4) Zero
(1) 200 J
50. The capacitance of an isolated spherical
(2) 100 J conductor of radius R is
(3) 50 J (1) 2 0R

(4) 400 J (2) 4 0R

49. Electrostatic potential energy of system of two (3) 8 0R

point charges is (4) 6 0R

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 55. Which of the following reaction intermediates

is/are electrophilic in character?
51. Which of the following species is not stabilised by
resonance? I. Carbocation II. Carbanion
III. Free radical IV. Carbene
(1) Only II (2) I and III only
(1) (2)
(3) I, III and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV
(3) (4) 56. Which type of hybrid orbitals C and N use in the
formation of C N bond in pyrrole?
52. Which among the following compounds is most
acidic?
(1) (2) (1) sp2 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3
(3) sp and sp3 (4) sp and sp2
57. In pyridine, number of conjugated electrons are
(3) (4) (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 0 (4) 5
53. The compound which is aromatic in nature is 58. Which of the following compounds has isopropyl
group?
(1) (2)
(1) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylpentane
(2) 2, 2-dimethylpentane
(3) (4) (3) 2, 2, 3-trimethylpentane
(4) 2-methylpentane
54. In the following reaction, the most stable
59. On monochlorination of n-pentane, number of
intermediate is
enantiomeric pair(s) obtained is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
60. The nitrogen present in aniline can be
quantitatively estimated by
(1) (2)
(1) Carius method
(2)

(3) (4) (3) Victor-

(4)

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

61. Four different alkenes 67. Which of the following cannot be obtained as
a. CH2 = CH2 b. CH3CH = CH2
c. CH3CH = CHCH3 d. CH2 = CHBr (1) CH4 (2) C2H4

are treated with HBr. Which of the above alkene (3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
follows Markovnikov's addition rule? 68. An alkene gives two moles of HCHO, one mole of
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only CO2 and one mole of CH3COCHO on ozonolysis.
The structure of alkene will be
(3) c and d only (4) b and d only

62.
(1)

Products (A) and (B) respectively will be (2) CH2=C=CH CH2 CH3
(1) t-butyl benzene and isobutyl benzene (3)
(2) Isobutyl benzene and t-butyl benzene
(3) n-butyl benzene and 2-phenyl butane
(4) Isobutyl benzene and isobutyl hexane
(4)
63. To distinguish between but-1-ene and benzene
which of the following reagent will be suitable? 69. SN2 reaction mechanism proceeds through the
(1) reagent formation of

(2) Ammonical silver nitrate and ammonical (1) Transition state (2) Carbonium ion
cuprous chloride (3) Free radical (4) Carbanion
(3) 70. What is X in the following reaction?
(4) Benedict's solution and chloroform
64. Which pair of compound has similar bond angle
and similar hybridization of carbon? (1)

(1) Ethane and ethylene

(2)
(2) Ethylene and ethyne
(3) Ethylene and benzene
(4) Acetylene and benzene (3)
65. CH C CH2CH3 + H2O (A).

(4)
(A) will be

71. Correct increasing order of nucleophilicity in polar

(1) (2) CH3CH2CH2CHO protic solvent is
(3) CH3CH2CHO (4) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(1) (2)
66. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
order of reactivity towards monobromination. (3) (4)
72. The ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides
with alcoholic KOH is
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV (1) 1° > 2° > 3° (2) 3° > 2° > 1°
(3) II > III > IV > I (4) III > I > II > IV (3) 2° > 3° > 1° (4) 3° > 1° > 2°

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

73. Which of the following is a vinylic halide?

79. Correct IUPAC name of compound is

(1) (2) (1) 1-methyl-2-ethylcyclobutane

(2) 1-methyl-2-ethylcyclopropane
(3) 1-ethyl-2-methylcyclopropane
(4) 2-ethyl-1-methylcyclopropane
(3) (4)
80. Which of the following alkanes can easily be
prepared by Wurtz reaction in good yield?
74. Which one is incorrect according to reactivity for (1) CH4
SN1 reaction?
(2) C2H6
(3) CH3CH2CH3
(1)
(4)

(2) (CH3)3CCI > C6H5Cl

81. Alkene which can show geometrical isomerism
(3) CH3CH2Cl < C6H5CH2Cl
among the following is
(4) C6H5C(CH3)2Cl < C6H5CH2Cl
(1) CH2 = CH CH2 CH3
75. Which among the following is most stable
carbanion? (2) CH2 = CH CH3
(3)

(1) (2)
(4) CH3 CH = CH CH3
82. Peroxide effect on unsymmetrical alkene is
(3) (4) applicable for the addition of
76. Hyperconjugation is absent in (1) HCl (2) HBr
(3) HI (4) H2SO4
(1) (2)
83. Treatment of calcium carbide with water
produces
(3) (4)
(1) CH3 CH3
(2) CH4
77. The group which is most activating towards (3) CH CH
electrophilic substitution reaction is
(4) CH2 = CH2
(1) NO2 (2) CH3
84. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the
(3) NH2 (4) OH presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas,
78. Ratio of number of and bonds present in known as

is (1) Mustard
(2) Methyl isocyanate
(1) 3 : 13 (2) 14 : 3 (3) Phosgene
(3) 15 : 3 (4) 7 : 3 (4) Lewisite

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

85. Major product B of the given reaction sequence is 88. Chlorobenzene on reaction with sodium in presence
of diethyl ether gives

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) (2)

89. C2H5MgBr on reaction with H2O forms

(1) C2H6 (2) C2H5OH
(3) (4) (3) CH3COOH (4) CH3CHO
90. The reaction CH3Br + AgF CH3 F + AgBr, is
known as
SECTION-B (1)
(2) Swarts reaction
86. Correct reactivity order of haloarenes for the
(3) Finkelstein reaction
reaction with NaOH is
(4) Gattermann reaction
91. If an organic compound contains both N and S;
the appearance of blood red colour takes place in
(1)
Lassaigne test due to the formation of
(1) Fe(CN)2 (2) NaCNS
(3) [Fe(SCN)]2+ (4) Fe(CNS)3
92. Electrophile in case of sulphonation of benzene
(2) with concentrated H2SO4 is
(1) (2) SO2

(3) (4) SO3

93. Hex-2-yne gives trans-hex-2-ene on treatment
(3) with
(1) Na/NH3 (2) LiAlH4
(3) Pd/BaSO4 (4) Pt/H2

94.
(4)
Identify

87. Select the chiral molecule among the following.

(1) (2)
(1) CH3 CHBr CH3
(2) CH3 CH2 Br
(3) CH3 CH2 CHBr CH3
(3) (4)
(4) CH3 CH2 CHBr CH2 CH3

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

95. (1) Increase by a factor of 10

(2) Increase by a factor of 102
(3) Decrease by a factor of 10
(4) Remain same

The correct statement is

(1) A is Hoffmann product 98. and are related to each
(2) A is product
other as
(3) A can show geometrical isomerism
(1) Position isomers (2) Functional isomers
(4) B cannot show geometrical isomerism
(3) Chain isomers (4) Tautomers
99. NaI in acetone, undergoes SN2 reaction with
96. In the structure, the each of P, Q and R. The rates of reaction vary
as
number of different types carbons are
(1) One primary, two secondary and one tertiary
(2) Four primary, two tertiary and one secondary (1) P > Q > R (2) P > R > Q
(3) One primary, one secondary, one tertiary and (3) R > Q > P (4) R > P > Q
one quaternary 100. In the estimation of nitrogen by
(4) Five primary, one secondary, one tertiary and 1.18 g of an organic compound gave 224 ml of
one quaternary N2(g) at NTP. The percentage of nitrogen in the
97. Increasing the concentration of a nucleophile in a compound is about
typical SN2 reaction by a factor of 10 will cause (1) 23.7 (2) 47.5
the reaction rate to (3) 11.8 (4) 20.3

BOTANY

SECTION-A
(1) (2)
101. Which among the following traits is not a
dominant trait of pea?
(3) (4)
(1) Green pod (2) Violet flower
(3) Round seed (4) Constricted pod 105. In humans the gene which codes for enzyme
102. Genotype of a true breeding tall pea plant can be phenylalanine hydroxylase, if mutated affects
written as multiple phenotypic expressions. The above gene
(a) TT (b) Tt is a
(c) tt (1) Polygene
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (2) Pleiotropic gene
(3) (c) only (4) Both (a) & (b) (3) Complementary gene
103. Which among the given genotypes will produce
(4) Gene with more than two alleles
maximum number of different types of gametes?
106. Which of the following combination of blood
(1) AaBbCC (2) AABbCC
groups in couples may not have child with O
(3) AaBBCc (4) AaBbCc
blood group?
104. What will be the proportion of pink flowered
(1) B × O (2) A × B
plants in progeny if a pink flowered snapdragon
plant is selfed? (3) B × B (4) AB × A

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)
107. The human beings with AB blood group have
genotype IAIB. It means
(1) Alleles A and B are incompletely dominant
(2) Alleles A and B are codominant
(3) The person has no antigen in his/her blood
(4) A and B are recessive alleles
108. Identify the test cross from the following
(1) Rr × Rr (2) Rr × RR
(3) Rr × rr (4) rr × rr
109. A wrinkled, pure yellow seeded pea plant is
crossed with pure round, green seeded pea plant.
Calculate the percentage of progeny with
wrinkled green seeds.
(1) 25% (2) 50%
Regular Medical-2023
115. Identify the wrong statement for sex
determination in honey bee.
(1) Females are diploid
(2) Both male and female bee show gametic
meiosis
(3) Males do not have father
(4) Males develop through parthenogenesis
116. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(F) and select the correct option.
A. Alteration of DNA sequence results in change
in genotype and phenotype of an organism.
B. Loss or gain of segment of DNA in a
chromosome results in alternation in
chromosome number.
C. Radiations may alter or mutate the DNA.
A B C

(3) 0% (4) 75% (1) T F F

(2) T T F
110. The recessive allele
(3) F T T
(1) May produce non functional enzyme
(4) T F T
(2) Is unmodified allele 117. A haemophilic male marries to a normal woman
(3) Produces normal enzyme who is daughter of a haemophilic father. What
percentage of male progenies of this couple will
(4) Can express itself in heterozygous condition
be normal?
111. A wheat plant with intermediate red coloured (1) 50% (2) 100%
kernels (AaBb) is crossed with another wheat (3) 25% (4) 75%
plant having white coloured kernels (aabb). What
118. Which of the given disorders is due to an
percentage of progenies will be of light red colour imbalance in chromosome number?
kernels? (1) Thalassemia (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(1) 0% (2) 75% (3) (4) Phenylketonuria
(3) 25% (4) 50% 119. Phosphoester bond is absent in all, except
112. Drosophila melanogaster is used as material for (1) Uridine
experimental genetics as it (2) Deoxycytidine
(1) Has large number of chromosomes (3) Adenosine monophosphate

(2) Has no hereditary variations at all (4) Guanosine

(3) Can be easily grown in lab on simple 120.

synthetic media
In above flow chart, which step is found in some
(4) Produces only one offspring from single RNA viruses only?
mating (1) D (2) A
113. First genetic map for Drosophila was prepared by (3) B (4) C
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) A.H. Sturtevant 121. All of the following bonds, are found in DNA helix,
except,
(3) Sutton and Boveri (4) G.J. Mendel
(1) Hydrogen bond
114. Females are heterogametic in
(2) Glycosidic bond
(1) Homo sapiens (2) Birds (3) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Drosophila (4) Grasshopper (4) Peptide bond

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

122. 127. During transcription, DNA strand with

positively charged octamer to form polarity is called
Complete the above statement by selecting (1) Template strand (2) Daughter strand
correct option for A and B.
(3) Coding strand (4) Anti-sense strand
A B
128. Genes in eukaryotes
(1) Histone Genophore
(2) Nonhistone Chromatin (a) Have introns
(3) Polyamine Chromosome (b) Shows split arrangement
(4) Histone Nucleosome (c) Are polycistronic
123. Euchromatin differs from heterochromatin as the Choose the correct one(s)
former is/has (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(a) Genetically or transcriptionally inactive DNA
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(b) Lightly stained region
129. Which RNA plays a catalytic role during
(c) Densely packaged
translation?
Choose the correct one(s)
(1) hnRNA (2) tRNA
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) only
(3) rRNA (4) mRNA
(3) (b) only (4) (a) and (c)
124. Identify the incorrect match. 130. Identify the false statement.

(1) Frederick Proved that DNA is (1) In prokaryotes transcription and translation
Griffith genetic material are often coupled

(2) Meselson and Experimentally proved (2) Bacterial mRNA undergoes splicing to
Stahl that DNA replication is become functional
semi-conservative (3) Prokaryotes have single RNA polymerase
(3) E. Chargaff Studied base (4) In bacteria factor is required for
composition of dsDNA
termination of transcription
(4) Watson and Proposed double helix
131. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II synthesises
Crick model of DNA
(1) 28S rRNA (2) hnRNA
125. A hybrid DNA is allowed to grow in N14 medium
for two consecutive generations. What will be the (3) tRNA (4) snRNA
proportion of hybrid DNA after 2nd generation? 132. If a eukaryotic mRNA lacks cap, then which of the
given will occur?
(1) (2)
(1) Transcription will not be completed
(2) Translocation will occur without interruption
(3) (4)
(3) 18S rRNA of ribosomal subunit will not
identify mRNA
(4) mRNA remain in nucleus as it cannot move
126.
out of nucleus
133. Which among the following codes shows dual
functions?
(1) UAA (2) UGA
A DNA replication fork is given in the above
diagram. Mark the statement not true for (3) UUU (4) AUG
synthesis of strand (A). 134. lac operon gets switched on when
(1) A RNA primer is required for its synthesis (1) Repressor binds to operator
(2) Its synthesis occur continuously
(2) RNA polymerase binds to operator
(3) DNA ligase is required during its synthesis to
(3) Lactose binds to repressor
join Okazaki fragment
(4) It is synthesised in direction (4) Lactose binds to operator

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
135. Select the wrong statement for human genome 141. -thalassemia is due to mutation in the
project. (1) Genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 11
(1) Chromosome Y has the most genes (2) Genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16
(2) Less than 2% genome codes for proteins
(3) Gene HBB on chromosome 16
(3) TDF is the smallest gene
(4) Gene HBB on chromosome 11
(4) Average gene contains 3000 bases
142. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell
SECTION-B division in a diploid organism leads to
136. Given pedigree chart does not shows the (1) Aneuploidy (2) Diploidy
inheritance of trait like
(3) Polyploidy (4) Haploidy
143. Absence of secondary sexual characters,
presence of rudimentary ovaries and absence of
an allosome are the features of person inflicted
with
(1) (2)
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia (4) Thalassemia
144. Which of the following statements is/are
(1) Autosomal recessive trait incorrect?
(2) X-linked recessive trait (a) Adenosine monophosphate is a nucleotide of
(3) Autosomal dominant trait RNA
(4) X-linked dominant trait (b) Single stranded DNA does not follow
137. Mating between relatives is represented by
(1) (2) (c) Pentose sugar is present only in RNA, not in
DNA
(3) (4) (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c) (4) (a) and (c)
145. Process of synthesis of RNA from DNA is called
138. Colour blindness is a/an (1) Replication
(1) X-linked recessive disorder (2) Transcription
(2) X-linked dominant disorder (3) Translation
(3) Autosomal recessive disorder (4) Reverse transcription
(4) Autosomal dominant disorder 146.
139. The disease in which a simple cut results in was first identified by
continuous bleeding for a very long time is (1) James Watson (2) Friedrich Meischer
(1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemia
(3) Francis Crick (4) Rosalind Franklin
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Albinism
147. According to Watson and Crick model, the pitch
140. The sickle-cell anaemia is caused by substitution of a DNA helix is
of
(1) 3.4 nm (2) 34 nm
(1) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the
(3) 0.34 nm (4) 3.4 m
sixth position of -chain of haemoglobin
(2) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the 148. In nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) nitrogenous bases
sixth position of -chain of haemoglobin
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the first
position of -chain of haemoglobin (2) N-glycosidic linkage
(4) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the first (3) Peptide bond
position of -chain of haemoglobin (4) Hydrogen bonds
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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

149. 5-methyl uracil is found in 150. 3.3 × 109 bp DNA is the genome size of
(1) DNA (1) Human
(2) RNA (2) Escherichia coli
(3) Proteins (3) bacteriophage
(4) Lipids (4) × 174 bacteriophage

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 156. Choose the set of animals in which air bladder is

151. The structure(s) which help(s) in the removal of absent.
excretory products from haemolymph in (1) Pristis, Trygon, Hippocampus, Catla
cockroach is/are (2) Scoliodon, Trygon, Carcharodon, Pristis
(1) Crop (2) Malpighian tubules (3) Carcharodon, Pristis, Hippocampus, Trygon
(3) Gizzard (4) Alary muscles (4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Pterophyllum,
152. Cockroach has adapted to live in conditions Betta
involving water crisis due to the presence of 157. Division of Agnatha and Gnathostomata is based
(1) Ammonotelism and jointed legs on the presence/absence of
(2) Ureotelism and compound eye (1) Fins (2) Jaws
(3) Uricotelism and chitinous exoskeleton (3) Swim bladder (4) Closed circulation
(4) Aminotelism and rectal papillae 158. Which class is not a subdivision of superclass
153. Which of the following animal is correctly tetrapoda?
matched with its genus, characters and its (1) Reptilia (2) Osteichthyes
taxonomic category?
(3) Amphibia (4) Mammalia
Name of Characters Taxonomic 159. Choose the correct match w.r.t. general reptilian
genera position
characters.
(1) Delphinus Aquatic animal with Class (1) Fertilisation External
branchial respiration Mammalia
and oviparity (2) Development Indirect

(2) Rana Presence of cloaca Class

(3) Skin Dry and cornified
which opens to the Amphibia (4) Heart Two chambered
exterior 160. Gills are not covered by operculum in
(3) Homo Functional mammary Family (1) Exocoetus (2) Scoliodon
glands in all mammals Sapiens
with body hair and ear (3) Labeo (4) Pterophyllum
pinna 161. Statements given below represent characters of
(4) Ornithorhy Egg laying bird with Class Aves
cockroach. Which one is incorrect?
nchus presence of anus (1) Triangular head with one pair of antennae
and compound eyes.
154. Teeth are modified placoid scales and are
backwardly directed in (2) Mouth parts are cutting and chewing type.
(1) Trygon (2) Exocoetus (3) Foregut is lined by cuticle.
(3) Labeo (4) Hippocampus (4) Crop part of foregut has inner cuticle forming
155. Select the option in which all are oviparous six chitinous teeth.
organisms. 162. Select the option with only cold-blooded animals.
(1) Calotes and Rana (1) Betta, Pterophyllum, Aptenodytes
(2) Pteropus and Macropus (2) Labeo, Exocoetus, Psittacula
(3) Rattus and Crocodilus (3) Pristis, Hippocampus, Neophron
(4) Delphinus and Elephas (4) Scoliodon, Chelone, Trygon

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
163. Select the correctly described organism. 169. Consider the following characteristic features :
(a) Presence of pelvic claspers
(1) Bufo Moist skin, lives in or near
water (b) Absence of air bladder
(c) Mouth ventral in position
(2) Psittacula Warm blooded, 3-chambered (d) Endoskeleton is cartilaginous
heart
How many of the above mentioned characteristic
(3) Balaenoptera Sexes are separate, features is/are true for male Pristis?
fertilisation is external (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
(4) Chelone Poikilothermous, development
170. Select the correct set of animals which exhibit
is indirect
internal fertilisation.
164. Most unique mammalian feature without any (1) Rohu, Catla (2) Dogfish, sting ray
exception is (3) Sting ray, flying fish (4) Angel fish, shark
(1) Presence of mammary glands 171. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
w.r.t. class Osteichthyes?
(2) Viviparity
(1) They have bony endoskeleton and their
(3) Seven cervical vertebra notochord is replaced by vertebral column
(4) Flying capability (2) Skin is covered by cycloid/ctenoid scales
165. A reptile with four-chambered heart is (3) In only males, heart is three chambered with
one ventricle and two auricles
(1) Tortoise (2) Crocodile
(4) They have four pairs of gills covered by an
(3) Tree lizard (4) Wall lizard operculum
166. Which of the following represents the incorrect 172. Choose the correct match.
combination of characteristics and class of
(1) Development is indirect;
animals? ventral mouth
Characteristics Class

(1) Pneumatic bones Aves

(2) Ureotelic Reptilia

(2) Endoskeleton is
(3) Tympanum Amphibia cartilaginous; exclusively
(4) Homeothermy Mammalia marine

167. Which of the following animals are

homoiothermous?
(1) Naja (2) Pavo
(3) Skin is dry and scaly;
(3) Testudo (4) Chelone fertilization is external
168. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
correct option.
Column I Column II (4) Cold-blooded animal; body
is divisible into head and
a. Tympanum (i) Catla trunk
b. Scutes (ii) Hyla
c. Electric organs (iii) Calotes 173. All of the given animals possess three -
chambered heart with two auricles and one
d. Fresh water fish (iv) Torpedo ventricle except one. Choose the exception.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (1) Ichthyophis (2) Columba
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) Hemidactylus (4) Chelone

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B)

174. Feature that is exclusive to birds is presence of 181. Select the odd one w.r.t. sense organs in
(1) Air sacs cockroach.

(2) Homeothermy (1) Anal cerci (2) Eyes

(3) Four chambered heart (3) Labial palps (4) Gonapophyses

182. Read the following statements A and B.
(4) Pulmonary respiration
A. The development of Periplaneta is paurome-
175. Select the incorrect match.
tabolous.
(1) Bungarus Non-poisonous snake
B. The next to last nymphal stage has functional
(2) Struthio Flightless bird wings.
(3) Doliolum Exclusively marine Choose the correct option.
(4) Ichthyophis Limbless animal (1) Only statement A is correct
176. All of the following are included in subphyla (2) Only statement B is correct
Urochordata, except (3) Both statements are correct
(1) Salpa (2) Branchiostoma (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Doliolum (4) Ascidia 183. Accessory reproductive gland not found in male
177. Choose the incorrect statement regarding adult cockroach is
cockroach. (1) Mushroom gland (2) Conglobate gland
(1) In Periplaneta, wings extend beyond the tip of (3) Phallic gland (4) Collaterial gland
abdomen in males. 184. Read the following statements A and B. Choose
(2) Body is segmented and is divisible into only the correct option.
three segments i.e. head, neck and abdomen. Statement A : In chordates, CNS is dorsal,
(3) A flexible arthrodial membrane joins different hollow and single.
sclerites of a segment. Statement B : In chordates, heart is ventral and
(4) Head is formed by fusion of six embryonic a post anal tail is present.
segments and shows movement in all (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
directions. (2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
178. Mouthparts of cockroach do not consist of (3) Both statements are correct.
(1) 2 Maxilla (2) A pair of mandibles (4) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) 2 Labium (4) A hypopharynx 185. Select the mismatch.
179. The structures present at the junction of foregut (1) Betta - Fighting fish
and midgut in cockroach are named as (2) Carcharodon - Great white shark
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Crop (3) Pristis - Saw fish
(3) Gastric caeca (4) Proventriculus (4) Pterophyllum - Sting ray
180. Choose the correct match w.r.t. Periplaneta SECTION-B
(1) Anal cerci Present only in 186. Select the bisexual animal.
males in the 10th (1) Penguin (2) Frog
segment (3) Human (4) Earthworm
(2) Tegmina Cover the 187. Choose the incorrect features of members
metathoracic wings belonging to class Cyclostomata.
(3) Abdomen Consists of (1) Ectoparasites on some fishes
12 segments in (2) Cranium is cartilaginous but vertebral column
adults is bony
(4) Sub-oesophageal Represents brain in (3) Closed type circulation
ganglion head region (4) Elongated body and bear 6-15 pairs of gill slits

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Fortnightly Test-7 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
188. Select the correct option which has only 195. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated
examples of members belonging to class Reptilia. muscular tube lying along
(1) Bufo, Rana and Chelone (1) Mid ventral line of thorax and abdomen

(2) Naja, Vipera and Aptenodytes (2) Mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen

(3) Testudo, Alligator and Hemidactylus (3) Lateral line of thorax and abdomen
(4) Mid dorsal line of head and thorax
(4) Ichthyophis, Salamandra and Calotes
196. In a male cockroach, number of spiracles present
189. Choose the animal from the options below which
on the lateral side of the body are
have four chambered heart?
(1) 6 pairs (2) 8 pairs
(1) Felis (2) Canis
(3) 10 pairs (4) 12 pairs
(3) Chameleon (4) Ornithorhynchus
197. All of the following assist in excretion in female
190. In which of the following mammal, limbs are cockroach, except
modified for flying? (1) Fat bodies (2) Nephrocytes
(1) Macaca (2) Pteropus (3) Uricose glands (4) Malpighian tubules
(3) Delphinus (4) Felis 198. In cockroach, supraesophageal ganglion supplies
191. Select the odd one w.r.t exclusively marine nerves to
animal. (1) Compound eyes (2) Mouth parts
(1) Catla (2) Amphioxus (3) Wings (4) Legs

(3) Salpa (4) Branchiostoma 199. Consider the given statements and select the
correct option.
192. In male cockroach, genital pouch lies at the hind
Statement-A : Phallomeres are chitinous,
end of abdomen bounded dorsally by
asymmetrical structures in a male cockroach.
(1) 9th sternum (2) 9th and 10th terga
Statement-B : These external genitalia are
(3) 8th and 9th sterna (4) 10th sterna absent in female cockroach.
193. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. alimentary (1) Both statements are correct
canal of cockroach. (2) Both statements are incorrect
(1) The hindgut is broader than midgut. (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Oesophagus is short tubular passage which (4) Only statement B is correct
opens into gizzard. 200. Consider the given statements and select the
(3) Proventriculus helps in the grinding of food correct option.
particles. Statement-A : Fertilized eggs of cockroach are
encased in capsules called ootheca.
(4) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called gastric
caecae secrete digestive juice. Statement-B : Ootheca is usually deposited in
cracks of high relative humidity or near a food
194. The hind gut of cockroach, is differentiated into
source.
(1) Duodenum, jejunum and ileum (1) Both statements are correct
(2) Caecum, colon and rectum (2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Ileum, colon and rectum (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Jejunum, caecum and rectum (4) Only statement B is correct

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