25/09/2019 OYMR

Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011- 47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 3 (Objective)

Topics Covered in Various Subjects :

Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance: Electrostatics of conductors, dielectrics and
polarization, Capacitors and capacitance, The parallel plate capacitor, Effect of dielectrics on
capacitance, Combination of capacitors, Energy stored in a capacitor, Van de Graaff Generator,
Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism: Introduction, Magnetic force, Motion in
a magnetic field, Motion in combined Electric and Magnetic fields.
Moving Charges and Magnetism: Biot-savart’s law, Magnetic field on the axis of a circular
current loop, Cyclotron, Magnetic field due to a current element, Ampere’ Circuital Law, The
solenoid and the toroid ,Force between two parallel currents, the ampere, Torque on current loop,
Magnetic dipole, Moving coil Galvanometer, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic induction,
Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves.
Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry General Principles and Processes
of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements, d & f-Block Elements, Coordination Compounds.
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance (upto DNA packaging
in prokaryotes) Molecular Basis of Inheritance (from DNA Packaging in eukaryotes), Strategies
for Enhancement in Food Production Microbes in Human Welfare (Upto Industrial products)
Zoology : Reproductive Health, Evolution: Human Health & Disease, Animal Husbandry: Live stocks,
animal Breeding, inbreeding, outbreeding, out crossing, cross breeding, Interspecific hybridisation,
MOET, artificial inseminationDairy farm management, poultry farm management, indigenous &
exotic breeds, bacterial, viral & fungal disease.

Instructions :

(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Choose the false statement for a conductor in 6. An electric bulb rated as 50 W, 200 V is connected
electrostatics. across a 100 V supply. The power consumed by the
(1) The surface of the conductor is an equipotential bulb at this voltage is
surface (Assuming resistance remains same)
(2) Electric field just outside the surface of a conductor (1) 37.5 W
is perpendicular to the surface (2) 12.5 W
(3) The charge carried by a conductor is always (3) 25 W
uniformly distributed over the surface of the
conductor (4) 10 W
(4) Both (1) and (2) 7. In the circuit as shown in the figure, if VAB is equal
to 4 V, then the value of R will be
2. The capacitance C of capacitor is
(1) Independent of the geometrical configuration of 5V 10 
capacitor
(2) Independent of the dielectric medium between the A B
two conducting surfaces of a capacitor
(3) Independent of charge and potential of the
capacitor 2V R
(4) Dependent on the charge and independent of
(1) 5  (2) 10 
potential.
(3) 15  (4) 20 
3. The minimum value of effective capacitance that can
be obtained by combining three capacitors of 8. The effective resistance between point P and Q in the
capacitances 1 pF, 2 pF and 2 pF is circuit shown in the figure is

4 1 R
(1) pF (2) pF
5 2
R R R
6 R
(3) pF (4) 1 pF
5 P Q
4. A capacitor of capacitance of 10 F, charged to R
100 V is connected to an uncharged capacitor.
The effective potential is 40 V. The capacitance of (1) R (2) 2R
uncharged capacitor is R 2R
(1) 5 F (2) 10 F (3) (4)
2 3
(3) 15 F (4) 30 F 9. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is moving
5. A carbon resistor has colour code of brown, green, with velocity v on a circular path in uniform magnetic
gold and silver. The resistance of the resistor will be field B. Its time period is independent of
(1) (1.5 ± 10%)  (2) (0.5 ± 5%)  (1) m (2) v
(3) (16 × 101 ± 10%)  (4) (16 × 102 ± 5%)  (3) q (4) B
(Space for Rough Work)

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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)
10. Which of the following relation represent the Biot- (1) 0 (2) 3 0
Savart’s law. (3) –0 (4) 4 0
   
  Idl  r   Idl  r 15. A 1 m long solenoid containing 1000 turns produces
0
(1) dB  (2) dB  0
4 r 3 4 r a magnetic flux density of 3.14 × 10–3 T inside it.
   The current flowing in the solenoid will be
  Idl  r   Idl  r
0 0
(3) dB  (4) dB  (Consider length of solenoid much greater than its
4 r 3 4 r 4 radius)
11. A circular coil of n turns and radius R carries a (1) 2 A (2) 3 A
current I. The magnetic field at the centre is
(3) 2.5 A (4) 10 A
I 0 nI
(1) 0 (2) 16. If BH = 4 × 10–5
T and BV = 2 × 10–5 T, then the
nR R earth’s total magnetic field at that place is
0 nI 0 nI (1) 6 × 10–5 T (2) 3 × 10–5 T
(3) (4)
2R 4R
12. Two long parallel straight wires A and B, separated (3) 7 × 10–5 T (4) 2 5  105 T
by a distance of 6 cm, carries currents i and 2i 17. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is kept in uniform
respectively in the same direction. The distance from magnetic field of strength B, making an angle 30° with
wire B at which the net field will be zero, is its direction. The torque acting on it is
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
MB
(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm (1) MB (2)
2
13. In the figure shown, the magnetic field at point O is
3 MB  3
(3) (4) MB  1  
2  2 
O 2R 18. 1 and 2 are susceptibility of a paramagnetic
substance at temperature T1 and T2 respectively,
then
0I 0I (1) 1T1 = 2T2 (2) 1 = 2
(1) (   1)  (2) (   2) 
4R 4R
(3) 1T2 = 2T1 (4) 1T12  2T22
0I 0I
(3) (   2)  (4) (   2) 
4R 4R 19. The substance in which net magnetic dipole moment
14. Two wires with currents 2 A and 1 A are enclosed by of an atom is zero, is
a circular loop. Another wire with current 5 A is (1) Paramagnetic
situated outside the loop as shown in the figure. The (2) Diamagnetic
 
 B.d l around the loop is (3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Para or ferromagnetic depending on temperature
2A 1A 20. A steel wire has magnetic moment M. It is bent into
5A
a semicircle. The new magnetic momentum will be
2M M
(1) (2)
 2
M
(3) (4) M

(Space for Rough Work)

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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
21. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface 28. If a current of 5 A flowing in a coil of self inductance
kept in a uniform magnetic field is 2 mH is cut off in 10 ms, then change in magnetic
flux, is
0
(1) (2) 40 (1) 10–2 Wb (2) 1 Wb
4
(3) 100 Wb (4) 0.1 Wb
40 29. The equivalent inductance between point A and B is
(3) (4) Zero

22. Angle between magnetic meridian and geographical
meridian at a place on earth is called 6H
6H
(1) Angle of dip A B
6H
(2) Angle of depression
(3) Angle of declination (1) 18 H (2) 6 H
(4) Angle of contact (3) 3 H (4) Zero
23. The magnetic flux through a coil at any time t is 30. In a coil of resistance 50 , a current is induced by
given by  = (4t 2 + 4t – 3) Wb. The change changing the magnetic flux through it as shown in
in magnitude of induced emf between t = 0 and the figure. The magnitude of change in the flux
t = 2 s is through the coil is
(1) 5 V (2) 16 V
current
(3) 20 V (4) Zero (A) 
24. The working of magnetic braking of trains is based
on the phenomenon 10
(1) Hydro statics (2) Mechanical pressure
(3) Eddy current (4) Thermal conduction
25. If the current through a coil changes from 1 A to
3 A in 0.002 s to produce an average emf of 60 V, O 1 
then the self inductance of the coil is time (s)

(1) 0.06 H (2) 0.01 H (1) 150 Wb

(3) 0.12 H (4) 0.02 H (2) 250 Wb
26. A long solenoid with 40 turns per centimeter carries (3) 100 Wb
a current of 1 A. The magnetic energy stored per
(4) 200 Wb
unit volume is
31. The length of axle of a train running along magnetic
(1) 1.6 J/m3 (2) 32 J/m3
north-south direction is 2 m. Vertical component of
(3) 3.2 J/m3 (4) 6.4 J/m3 earth’s magnetic field is 1.25 × 10–4 T. If the speed
27. The energy stored (in joules) in an inductor of of train is 40 m/s, then induced emf across the axle
inductance L henry when it carries a current of train is
I ampere is (1) 10–2 V
(1) LI (2) LI2 (2) 10–1 V
1 2 (3) 10–3 V
(3) LI (4) L2I2
2 (4) 10–4 V
(Space for Rough Work)

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One Year Medical - 2020
32. A copper rod of length L is rotating about an axis
passing through mid-point of rod perpendicular to
length with constant angular velocity . If magnetic
field B is perpendicular to the plane of rotation of rod,
then induced emf between the two ends is
Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)
37. A resistor of 50 , an inductance of 0.5 H are in
series with an AC which is given by
100 2 sin (100t). The power factor of the
combination is

1 2 1
(1) Bl2 (2) Bl  (1) 1 (2)
2 2
(3) 2 Bl2 (4) Zero 1
(3) (4) 0.6
33. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 are placed 3
near each other so that the total flux in one coil is 38. The resonance frequency of L–C–R series circuit
completely linked with the other. Their mutual
inductance (M) will be given by 10
(when L  mH and C = 0.04 F) is
2
(1) M = L1L2 (2) M  L1L2
(1) 25 kHz (2) 250 kHz
(3) M  L1L2 (4) M  L1L2 (3) 2.5 kHz (4) 25 MHz
34. An alternating current is given by i = (3 sin t + 4 39. An ideal transformer increases the input current
cos t)A. The rms current is given by 4 A to 24 A at the secondary. If the number of turns
in the primary coil is 330, the number of turns in the
(1) 7 A (2) 5 A
secondary coil is
5
(3) A (4) 5 2 A (1) 60 (2) 65
2
(3) 55 (4) 45
35. In the case of an ideal inductor in an ac circuit
40. The average value of potential difference V as shown
(1) Voltage lags the current by phase /2 in the figure is
(2) Voltage leads the current by phase /2
V
(3) Voltage leads the current by phase /3
(4) Voltage leads the current by phase /4
36. An ideal resistance R, ideal inductance L, ideal V0
capacitance C and AC voltmeters V1, V2, V3 and V4
are connected to an AC source as shown in the t
figure. At resonance 0 T/2 T 3T 2T
2
V4
R L C V0
(1) V0 (2)
2
V1 V2 V3 V0 V0
(3) (4)
4 2
 
41. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field
(1) Reading in V3 = Reading in V1 vectors of an EM wave. the direction of propagation
wave is along
(2) Reading in V1 = Reading in V2
 
(3) Reading in V2 = Reading in V4 (1) E (2) B
   
(4) Reading in V2 = Reading in V3 (3) E  B (4) B  E
(Space for Rough Work)

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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
42. If the total electromagnetic energy falling on a 44. The refractive index and the magnetic permeability of
surface is U, then the total momentum delivered (for a medium are 1.5 and 5 × 10–7 H m–1 respectively.
complete absorption) is The relative permittivity of the medium is nearly

U (1) 1.2 (2) 3.6

(1) (3) 4.5 (4) 1.8
c
(2) cU 45. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free
 V
space is given by E  5 cos(10 t  kx ) j , where
7
2U
(3) m
c
t is time in s and x is position in m.
U Choose the correct statement
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2c (1) The wavelength is 100 m
43. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic (2) The value of k is 0.33 rad/m
wave
(1) Gamma rays (2) Microwave (3) The amplitude of electric field is 5 2 V/m
(3) Thermal radiation (4) Sound wave (4) The wave is propagating along –x direction

CHEMISTRY
46. If the rate constant of a reaction is 6.93 × 10–2 s–1 49. For the given cell reaction,
then the half life of the reaction will be Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(1) 20 s G° of the reaction is

E 
(2) 15 s 
Mg2 /Mg
 2.36 V and ECu2 /Cu  0.34 V
(3) 10 s
(1) –2.7 FJ (2) –5.4 FJ
(4) 100 s
(3) –3.02 FJ (4) –4.04 FJ
47. Incorrect statement about the catalyst is
50. It the conductivity of 0.1 M solution of NaCl solution
(1) A small amount of catalyst can catalyse a large
is 1.30 × 10–2 S cm–1 then the molar conductivity of
amount of reactants
the solution (in S cm2 mol–1) will be
(2) It does not alter G of a reaction
(1) 13 (2) 1.3
(3) It can alter H of reaction
(3) 130 (4) 0.13
(4) It does not change equilibrium constant of the
51. A solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed for 20 minutes
reaction
with a current of 9.65 ampere using inert electrode.
48. A plot of concentration vs time gives a straight line The mass of silver deposited at cathode is (Atomic
for zero order reaction. The slope of the line is mass of silver = 108 u)
(k is rate constant of reaction)
(1) 18.25 g (2) 10.8 g
1 (3) 12.96 g (4) 21.6 g
(1) k (2)
k 52. An example of emulsion is
1 (1) Milk (2) Cheese
(3) –k (4) 
k (3) Fog (4) Froth
(Space for Rough Work)

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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)
53. In coagulation of a positive sol, the coagulating power 63. The metal which is absent in german silver is

of the ions Br , PO34 and SO24 follows the order (1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Ag (4) Ni
(1) Br   SO24  PO34 (2) PO34  SO24  Br 
64. Correct order of the basicity of the given compounds
follows the order
(3) SO24  PO34  Br  (4) PO34  Br   SO24
(1) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 (2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
54. Catalyst used in the contact process for the (3) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
manufacturer of sulphuric acid is
65. N2O is obtained on heating
(1) V2O5 (2) Fe
(1) Pb(NO3)2 (2) (NH4)2 Cr2O7
(3) Mo (4) Cu
(3) NH4NO2 (4) NH4NO3
55. Which metal is leached by aqueous NaCN solution?
66. Which gas is obtained on reacting copper with dilute
(1) Fe (2) Sn nitric acid?
(3) Cu (4) Ag (1) NO (2) N2
56. Which among the following is an ore of iron (3) NO2 (4) N2O
(1) Siderite (2) Malachite 67. P–P–P bond angle in white phosphorus is
(3) Calamine (4) Bauxite (1) 90° (2) 60°
57. In froth floatation process collector used is (3) 109°28 (4) 120°
(1) Aniline (2) Pine oil 68. The compound which will melt at highest temperature is
(3) NaCN (4) Cresol (1) H2O (2) H2S

58. In the extraction of iron, slag formed is (3) H2Se (4) H2Te

(1) CaSiO3 (2) FeSiO3 69. Incorrect statement about ozone is

(1) It is an allotropic form of oxygen
(3) Ca3(PO4)2 (4) MgSiO3
(2) It is pale blue gas
59. The metal which can be refined by distillation is
(3) It has two resonating structures
(1) Hg (2) Cr
(4) It oxidises lead sulphide to lead sulphate and iodide
(3) Mn (4) Cu to iodate.
60. Mond’s process is applicable in the purification of 70. Which of the following has highest bond dissociation
(1) Ti (2) Si enthalpy?
(3) Zn (4) Ni (1) F2 (2) Cl2
61. In the electrolytic refining of aluminium by Hall- (3) Br2 (4) I2
Heroult process, the anode used is 71. Which among the following will not disproportionate
(1) Platinum (2) Graphite in alkaline medium?
(3) Steel (4) Aluminium (1) P4 (2) S8

62. The metal which cannot be extracted commercially (3) Cl2 (4) F2
by carbon reduction method is 72. T-shaped species among the following is
(1) Zn (2) Sn (1) XeO3 (2) BrF3
(3) Cu (4) Mg (3) NO3 (4) PCl3
(Space for Rough Work)

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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
73. Which is not formed on the complete hydrolysis of 83. Which among the following complex contains
XeF2? maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(1) Xe (2) HF (1) [Mn(CN)6]3– (2) [MnCl6]3–
(3) O2 (4) O2F2 (3) [FeF6]3– (4) [CoF6]3–
74. Magnetic moment of which ion will be 2.83 BM? 84. Based on spectrochemical series which among the
(1) Ni2+ (2) Co2+ following is weakest field ligand?

(3) Fe2+ (4) Mn2+ (1) OH (2) F–

75. Which aquated metal cation is blue in colour? (3) H2O (4) I–
(1) Mn2+ (2) Fe3+ 85. The correct relation between t and O for the same
(3) Zn2+ (4) Cu2+ metal, same ligands and metal ligand distance is
76. Maximum number of equivalent Cr–O bonds in 1 4
Cr2O72– is (1)  t  O (2)  t  O
3 9
(1) 10 (2) 8 1 1
(3)  t  O (4)  t  O
(3) 9 (4) 6 4 9
77. Number of moles of Fe 2+ required per mole of 86. The ligand which favours strong synergic bonding with
transition metal ion is
Cr2O72 for complete reaction in acidic medium is
(1) CO (2) Cl–
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) NH3 (4) OH
(3) 4 (4) 6
78. Which lanthanoid has smallest ionic radii? 87. Among the following an ambidentate ligand is
(1) La3+ (2) Er3+ (1) NO2 (2) NH2
(3) Gd3+ (4) Ce3+
(3) NH2CH2CH2NH2 (4) Br–
79. Approximate percentage composition of lanthanoids
88. The given coordination species which is optically
in mischmetal is
active, is
(1) 95% (2) 75%
(1) cis–[CrCl2(en)2]+
(3) 85% (4) 65%
(2) trans–[CrCl2(en)2]+
80. Which among the following transition metals will melt
(3) cis–[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–
at lowest temperature?
(4) trans–[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–
(1) Ti (2) V
89. IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 is
(3) Cr (4) Mn
(1) Tetraamineaquachloridochromium (II) chloride
81. The complex which is tetrahedral in shape is
(2) Tetraammineaquachloridochromium (III) chloride
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [NiCl4]2–
(3) Tetraammineaquachloridochromate (III) chloride
(3) [PtCl4]2– (4) [Pt(CN)4]2–
(4) Tetraammineaquachloridochromate (II) chloride
82. Mole(s) of AgCl precipitated when one mole of
[CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl reacts with excess silver nitrate 90. In which of the following compounds vanadium is in
solution is +5 oxidation state?
(1) 3 (2) 1 (1) VO (2) V2O3
(3) 2 (4) Zero (3) V2O4 (4) V2O5
(Space for Rough Work)

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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)

BOTANY
91. Which of the following traits in pea plants does not 96. Sickle-cell anaemia is
express in the heterozygous condition? (1) An autosomal dominant trait
(1) Violet flower colour
(2) A disease controlled by two pairs of allele
(2) Axial flower position
(3) Caused due to a frame-shift mutation
(3) Yellow pod colour
(4) A defect caused by substitution of glutamic acid
(4) Yellow seed colour by valine
92. A pink coloured snapdragon flower was crossed with 97. Read the following disorders
a white coloured snapdragon flower.
(a) Big and wrinkled tongue
This cross will produce
(b) Retarded mental growth
(1) Red, pink and white flowers bearing plants in
1 : 2 : 1 ratio (c) Congenital heart disease
(2) Only true-breeding plants for white flower colour Above mentioned disorders are associated to a
(3) Plants with heterozygous phenotypes only person inflicted with

(4) Plants with pink flowers and white flowers in (1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
1 : 1 ratio (2) Down’s syndrome
93. Drosophila melanogaster is suitable for genetic (3) Turner’s syndrome
studies because
(4) Phenylketonuria
(1) It is unable to grow on synthetic medium
98. In a double helix DNA molecule,
(2) It can produce large number of progenies in a
(1) Uracil is present at the place of thymine
single mating
(2) Both the strands are non-complementary and
(3) It completes its life cycle in only two years
parallel to each other
(4) Its male and female individuals are not easily
distinguishable (3) Two nucleotides are linked through 3–5
phosphodiester linkage
94. Read the following statements and select the
correct one(s). (4) Adenine and guanine are always in equimolar
proportion
(a) Henking named “X body” to the structure he
saw only in 50% of the egg cells of few insects. 99. All the following processes are included in central
dogma proposed by Francis Crick, except
(b) Male honey bee are developed by
parthenogenesis. (1) Replication
(c) Drosophila has XO type of sex determination. (2) Reverse transcription
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) and (b) (3) Transcription
(3) Only (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) Translation
95. What will be the sum of phenotype and genotypes 100. Treatment by which enzyme can prevent the
in the progeny for a character controlled by 3 pairs transformation of R-strain of Streptococci into
of polygenes? S-strain?
(1) 36 (2) 34 (1) DNase (2) RNase
(3) 27 (4) 7 (3) Protease (4) Lipase
(Space for Rough Work)

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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
101. Genetic material of QB bacteriophage c. Capping (iii) Initiation factor
(1) Is more stable than the genetic material of T2 d. Rho factor (iv) Addition of
bacteriophage adenylated residues
(2) Has free 2–OH group at 3 end of primary
transcript
(3) Does not undergo mutations
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Cannot be categorised as nucleic acid
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
102. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and
select the correct option. (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(a) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
polymerisation of DNA strand only in 5  3 106. All of the following are the properties of genetic
direction. codes, except
(b) Average rate of DNA polymerisation in E.coli is (1) Being triplet (2) Nearly universal
2000 bp/min.
(3) Degenerate (4) Overlapping
(c) The discontinuously synthesised fragments are
later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase. 107. Read the following statements and select the
correct option
(a) (b) (c)
Statement A: The process of splicing represents
(1) T T T
the dominance of RNA world.
(2) T T F
Statement B: Structural genes in a transcription
(3) F F T unit is said to be monocistronic mostly in bacteria
(4) T F T and other prokaryotes.
103. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was discovered (1) Only A is correct
by Meselson and Stahl using the isotope (2) Only B is correct
(1) N15 (2) P32 (3) Both A and B are correct
(3) S35 (4) H3 (4) Both A and B are incorrect
104. Find the odd statement w.r.t. coding strand 108. How many of the given statements is/are correct
(1) It has polarity in 5 3 direction regarding lac operon.
(2) It does not form any RNA (a) Product of regulator gene shows negative
(3) Its sequence is complementary to the regulation of lac operon.
transcribed RNA (b) Inducer of lac operon binds to the operator
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase does not region.
interact with this strand (c) Structural genes have constitutive expression.
105. Match the following columns and select the correct (d) Lac operon operates in the absence of lactose.
option.
(1) Four (2) Three
Column I Column II
(3) Two (4) One
a. Sigma factor (i) Termination factor
109. The ribozyme which acts as catalyst for the
b. Tailing (ii) Addition of methyl formation of peptide bond in bacteria is
guanosine
triphosphate at 5 end (1) mRNA (2) 16S rRNA
of primary transcript (3) tRNA (4) 23S rRNA
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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)
110. After transfer to N14 medium, E. coli, which had 116. Which is not a terminator codon?
heavy DNA molecule, was allowed to grow for 80 (1) UAA (2) UAG
minutes. Calculate the ratio of light and hybrid
density DNA molecules in total extracted DNA after (3) UGA (4) UUU
80 min? 117. Read the following statements and select the
(1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1 correct option

(3) 1 : 15 (4) 15 : 1 Statement A: Average gene size in human

genome is 2.4 million bases.
111. In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of
gene expression is Statement B: Less than 2 percent of the human
genome codes for proteins.
(1) Splicing of RNA
(1) Only A is incorrect
(2) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Control of the rate of transcriptional initiation
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Post translational modifications
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
112. The repressor of lac operon is synthesised from
118. According to scientists, approximately at how many
(1) z gene (2) i gene locations single nucleotide differences occur in
(3) a gene (4) y gene humans?
113. tRNA (1) 3164.7 million (2) 1.4 billion
(1) Is the most abundant RNA molecule of a cell (3) 1.4 million (4) 3164.7 billion
(2) Possesses distinct 5 and 3 UTRs 119. In DNA fingerprinting process, blotting is
(3) Has its 3 end as amino acid acceptor end (1) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(4) Has its secondary structure of inverted (2) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments
L-shape (3) Transferring the separated fragments to
114. Read the following features synthetic membranes
(a) Split gene arrangement in genome (4) Amplification of DNA in a test tube
(b) Presence of three types of RNA polymerases 120. DNA fingerprinting technique was initially developed
by
(c) Beginning of translation before the complete
transcription of mRNA (1) Marshall Nirenberg (2) Alec Jeffreys
Which of the above mentioned features is/are (3) Francois Jacob (4) Alfred Hershey
correct for most of the prokaryotes? 121. Select the statement which is incorrect regarding
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (c) VNTR
(3) Only (b) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) (1) It shows high degree of polymorphism
115. Radioactive P32 labelled T2 bacteriophage (2) It belongs to mini-satellite class of DNA
(1) Has radioactive viral coat (3) It usually codes for few proteins
(2) Inserts its radioactive RNA inside the host (4) It varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb
bacteria 122. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in Parbhani Kranti
(3) Infected host bacteria show radioactivity after was introduced by
centrifugation (1) Mutation breeding (2) Conventional breeding
(4) Is detected easily in the supernatant (3) Plant tissue culture (4) Somatic hybridisation
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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
123. “Hidden hunger” observed in people is usually not 130. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements
because of the deficiency of and select the correct option.
(1) Micronutrients (2) Proteins (a) HGP was closely associated with development
(3) Vitamins (4) Carbohydrates of a new area in biology called bioinformatics.
124. Saccharum officinarum (b) HGP was completed in 2003
(1) Is used to grow originally in North India (c) Identification of all genes expressed as RNA is
referred as sequence annotation
(2) Is a tropical sugarcane
(a) (b) (c)
(3) Has thin stem
(1) T T T
(4) Has poor sugar content and yield
(2) T T F
125. How many of the following crops developed by IARI
is/are vitamin A enriched? (3) F F T

Bitter gourd, Tomato, Carrot, Spinach, Garden (4) T F F

pea, Pumpkin, Mustard 131. Select the mismatched pair

(1) One (2) Two (Microbial product) (Used microbe)

(3) Three (4) Four (1) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma

polysporum
126. Which of the following is a viral disease of plants?
(2) Statins – Saccharomyces
(1) Late blight of potato cerevisiae
(2) Red rot of sugarcane (3) Curd – Lactobacillus
(3) Brown rust of wheat (4) Citric acid – Aspergillus niger
(4) Mosaic disease of turnip 132. All of the following were awarded the Nobel prize for
127. The capacity to generate whole plant from any cell/ the discovery of penicillin, except
explant is called (1) Alexander Fleming (2) Martha Chase
(1) Biofortification (3) Ernest Chain (4) Howard Florey
(2) Totipotency 133. Toddy, a traditional drink of some parts of South
(3) Germplasm collection India is made by fermented sap from

(4) Green revolution (1) Soyabean (2) Palms

128. Single cell protein (3) Cereals (4) Yeast

(1) Is obtained only from unicellular organisms 134. Streptokinase is a/an

(2) Is produced from somatic hybrids (1) Immunosuppressive agent

(3) Is the alternate source of proteins for animals (2) Fruit-juice claring compound
and human (3) Clot-buster compound
(4) Is not obtained from bacterial source (4) Product of fungal origin
129. Least number of genes are present on which of the 135. Which of the following alcoholic beverage is
following human chromosoms? produced without distillation?
(1) Chromosome 1 (2) Chromosome X (1) Wine (2) Whisky
(3) Chromosome Y (4) Chromosome 21 (3) Brandy (4) Rum
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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
136. IVF, an assisted reproductive technology, stands for 143. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) In-vitro fertilisation (1) Drug resistance
(2) In-vivo fertilisation (2) Darkening of human skin due to smoke from
(3) Intra vital fertilisation industries

(4) Invaluable fertilisation (3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings

137. Which of the following is a hormone-releasing IUD? (4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet
radiations.
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375
144. Which of the following body parts are not
(3) Lippes loop (4) Cu-7 analogous?
138. A foetal sex determination test based on (1) Forearm of humans and fins of fishes
chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid
surrounding the developing embryo can be done by (2) Wings of bat and insects

(1) Amniocentesis (2) MTP (3) Fins of fishes and flippers of whales

(3) ICSI (4) Artificial insemination (4) Human forearms, bat’s wings and flippers of whale

139. MTP is practised mainly to 145. Innate immunity is provided by

(1) Legally get rid of unwanted female child (1) Antibody (2) Neutrophils

(2) Get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to failure of (3) B-cells (4) T-cells
contraception or rapes. 146. Read statements ‘A’ and ‘B’, and select the correct
(3) Detect syndromes and abnormalities option.

(4) Detect enzymatic abnormalities A : Tobacco contains nicotine

140. When were family planning programmes initiated in B : Smoking is not associated with increased
India? incidences of cancers

(1) 1947 (2) 1951 (1) A is correct but B is incorrect

(3) 1971 (4) 1991 (2) A is incorrect but B is correct

141. The Big bang theory is related to (3) Both A and B are correct

(1) Origin of universe (4) Both A and B are incorrect

(2) Shrinking of universe 147. Diagnostic test for AIDS is

(3) Destruction of universe (1) ELISA (2) Northern blot

(4) Origin of life (3) Widal test (4) Pap smear

142. Darwin’s theory states that 148. A bacterial disease is

(1) Characters are acquired through mutations (1) Cancer (2) Leukemia

(2) Species never change with time (3) Typhoid (4) Yellow fever

(3) Nature selects organisms which can adapt well in 149. The term humor in humoral immunity indicates
an environment. (1) Hormones (2) Bone marrow
(4) Evolution is inexistent (3) Blood and lymph (4) T-lymphocyte
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Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A) One Year Medical - 2020
150. Morphine helps to 159. Emphysema is the disease of
(1) Regenerate tissues (2) Relieve pain (1) Breast (2) Intestine
(3) Relieve swelling (4) Induce pain (3) Lungs (4) Liver
151. Taking drugs intravenously increases the risk of 160. Heroin is obtained from
(1) Cancer (2) Rickets (1) Tobacco (2) Poppy / Papaver
(3) AIDS (4) Goitre (3) Datura (4) Cannabis
152. Cocaine is obtained from 161. Liver cirrhosis chiefly occurs due to excessive intake
(1) Erythroxylum coca (2) Atropa Belladonna of
(3) Datura (4) Cannabis sativa (1) Morphine (2) Tobacco
153. Ringworm infection is caused by (3) Alcohol (4) Heroin
(1) W. bancrofti (2) W. malayi 162. Malignant malaria is caused by
(3) Microsporum (4) Aedes (1) P. vivax (2) P. falciparum
154. Bacterium concerned with Pneumonia is (3) P. ovale (4) P. malariae
(1) P. vivax 163. Malaria is due to a
(2) Salmonella typhi (1) Virus (2) Bacterium
(3) Haemophilus influenzae (3) Nematode (4) Protozoan
(4) Mycobacterium leprae 164. In malaria, the rupture of RBCs is associated with
155. Enzyme responsible for production of DNA from RNA release of a toxic substance called
is
(1) Haemozoite (2) Haemophobe
(1) RNA polymerase
(3) Haemozoin (4) Haemophile
(2) DNA ligase
165. Which one acts as a physiological barrier to entry of
(3) DNA polymerase microorganisms in human body?
(4) Reverse transcriptase (1) Monocytes
156. Number of peptide chains in each monomeric (2) Skin
antibody molecule is
(3) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(1) 4 (2) 8
(4) Tears
(3) 2 (4) 16
166. AIDS was first reported in the united states in the
157. Mary Mallon is famous for spreading
year
(1) Plague (2) Polio
(1) 1971 (2) 1991
(3) Small pox (4) Typhoid
(3) 1981 (4) 2001
158. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
167. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is due to
(1) Two light chains
(1) Increase in temperature
(2) Two heavy chains
(2) Food habits
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(3) Age
(4) Light or heavy chain depending upon nature of
antigens (4) Aberrant functioning of immune system
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One Year Medical - 2020 Term Exam Test - 3 (OYMR_Code-A)
168. Rinder pest is also known as 174. MOET has not been demonstrated for
(1) Cattle plague (1) Sheep
(2) Bubonic plague (2) Rabbits
(3) Human plague (3) Fish
(4) Rat plague (4) Buffaloes
169. The agricultural practice of breeding and raising 175. At what cell-stage fertilised eggs are transferred to
livestock is surrogate mothers in MOET?
(1) Mining (1) 3-4 cell stage
(2) Animal husbandry (2) 8-32 cells stage
(3) Plant breeding (3) 64-72 cells stage
(4) Forestry (4) 84-100 cells stage
170. About 70 percent of the world livestock population is 176. Hisardale is a new breed of
in
(1) Goat (2) Buffalo
(1) USA and Mexico
(3) Cow (4) Sheep
(2) India and China
177. Fertility and productivity with continued inbreeding
(3) Australia and New Zealand
(1) Increases
(4) Spain and Netherlands
(2) Decreases
171. Dairy farm management does not include
(3) Remains same
(1) Selection of good breeds
(4) Has no corelation
(2) Regular visits by a veterinary doctor
178. Leghorn is an improved breed of
(3) Unhygienic milk storage
(1) Chicken (2) Cow
(4) Emphasis on good quality fodder
(3) Goat (4) Sheep
172. Breeding between animals of the same breed is
called 179. A superior female, in the case of cattle, is the cow
or buffalo that produces
(1) Outbreeding
(1) More milk per lactation
(2) Inbreeding
(2) More progeny
(3) Pseudobreeding
(3) More homozygosity
(4) Crossbreeding
(4) More inbreeding depression
173. Male and female animals of two different but related
species are mated in 180. Mule is a result of
(1) Inbreeding depression (1) Out-breeding
(2) Out-crossing (2) Out-crossing
(3) Interspecific hybridisation (3) Cross-breeding
(4) Out-breeding (4) Interspecific hybridization

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