English

(1015CMD303055230067) *1015CMD303055230067* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 27-01-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE - MAZJ

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.

A7 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : HEAT TRANSFER, THERMAL EXPANSION, SHM, CURRENT ELECTRICITY & CAPACITOR, [BACK
UNIT] : WPE, COM & COLLISION

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. A clock that keeps correct time at 20°C is

subjected to 40°C. If coefficient of linear
1. A composite rod made of three rods of equal expansion of the pendulum is 12×10 – 6°C – 1.
length and cross-section as shown in the fig. The How much time will it gain or lose ?
thermal conductivities of the materials of the rods
are K/2, 5K and K respectively. The end A and (1) 10.3 s day – 1 (2) 20.6 s day – 1
end B are at constant temperatures. All heat
entering the face A goes out of the end B and there (3) 5 s day – 1 (4) 20 min day – 1
being no loss of heat from the sides of the bar. The 7. Two particles execute simple harmonic motion
effective thermal conductivity of the bar is
of the same amplitude and frequency along the
same straight line. They pass one another when
going in opposite directions and each time their
(1) 15K/16 (2) 6K/13
displacement is half the amplitude. The phase
(3) 5K/16 (4) 2K/13
difference between them is : –
2. The lengths and radii of two rods made of same
material are in the ratios 1 : 2 and 2 : 3 respectively. (1) 45° (2) 60°
If the temperature difference between the ends for
the two rods be the same then in the steady state. (3) 90° (4) 120°
The amount of heat flowing per second through 8. A particle excutes SHM on a straight line path.
them will be in the ratio of
The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 8 : 9 (4) 3 : 2
displacement of the particle from the mean
3. The thermal capacities of two bodies are in the position is 1 cm, the numerical value of
ratio of 1:4. If the rate of loss of heat are equal
for the two bodies under identical conditions of magnitude of acceleration is equal to the
surroundings, then the ratio of rate of fall of numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The
temperature of the two bodies is - frequency of SHM (in second-1) is :-
(1) 1:4 (2) 4:1 (3) 1:8 (4) 8:1
2π
Star S1 emits maximum radiation of (1) 2 π √ 3 (2)
4. √ 3
wavelength 420 nm and the star S2 emits 1
(3) √ 3 (4)
maximum radiation of wavelength 560 nm, what
is the ratio of the temperature of S1 and S2 : 2π 2 π √3
9. A particle is executing S.H.M. its potential
(1) 4/3 (2) (4/3)1/4 (3) 3/4 (4) (3/4)1/2
energy v/s displacement graph is given by
5. In solar spectrum fraunhoffer's lines are presents
because :
(1) Definite absorption takes place in
photosphere of sun.
(2) Definite absorption takes place in
chromosphere of sun. The value of restoring force constant is :-
(3) These wave lengths are not at all emitted by sun. (1) 12 N/m (2) 24 N/m
(4) Nuclear reactions take place in sun. (3) 6 N /m (4) 48 N/m
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10. The displacement-time graphs for two sound
waves A and B are shown in the figure, then the
ratio of their intensities IA / IB is equal to :-
3
14. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on
a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The
maximum compression of the spring would be

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 16
(1) 0.12m (2) 1.5m
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
(3) 0.5m (4) 0.15m
11. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can
be expressed as 15. Potential energy of a particle is related to x
y = 10 – 6 sin 100t + 20x + π m, where t is in
( )
coordinate by equation x2 – 2x. Particle will be
4 in stable equilibrium at
second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is :-
(1) x = 0.5 (2) x = 1 (3) x = 2 (4) x = 4
(1) 2000 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 5 π m/s
16. A force of F→ = 10i^ − 20j^ + 8k^ N acts in a particle
which moves by the distance of 10 m along the
12. S1, S2 are two coherent sources (having initial phase direction of vector (3i^ − 4j^) . The work done is:-
difference zero) of sound located along x-axis
(1) 110 J (2) 220 J (3) – 50 J (4) 150 J
separated by 4 λ where λ is wavelength of sound
17. Three masses of 2kg, 4 kg and 4 kg are placed at
emitted by them. Number of maxima located on the
the three points (1, 0, 0) (1, 1, 0) and (0, 1, 0)
elliptical boundary around it will be : [S1 and S2 are
respectively. The position vector of its center of
assumed to be at focus of ellipse] mass is :-
(1) 3^ 4^ (2) ^ ^
i+ j ( 3i + j )
5 5
(3) 2^ 4^ (4) 1^ 4^
i+ j i+ j
5 5 5 5
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4 18. A hemispherical shell of mass m and a particle
of mass 3m are placed as shown in figure. If
13. Two springs have their force constant as K1 and
K2 (K1 > K2) when they are stretched by the centre of mass of the combination lies at origin,
same force then : the value of x is :-
(1) No work is done by this force in case of
both the springs
(2) Equal work is done by this force in case of
both springs
(3) More work is done in case of second spring
(1) R (2) 2R (3) R (4) 2R
(4) More work is done in case of first spring 6 3 8 3π
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19. A ball collides elastically with another ball of the 24. The effective resistance is 6 Ω , when two wires
same mass. The collision is oblique and initially 5
are joined in parallel. When one of the wire
one of the balls was at rest. After the collision,
breaks, the effective resistance is 2 ohms. The
the two balls move with same speed. What will
resistance of the broken wire was : –
be the angle between the velocities of the balls
after the collision :- (1) 3 (2) 2 Ω (3) 6 (4) 3 Ω
Ω Ω
5 5
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° 25. A conductor with rectangular cross section has
20. Find the magnitude of acceleration of centre of dimensions (a × 2a × 4a) as shown in figure.
mass of two blocks as shown in figure. Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y and
Neglect friction everywhere. (g = 10 ms – 2) across EF is z. Then :-

1
(1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z
(1) 1 ms – 2 (2) ms−2
√ 2 (3) y > z > z (4) x > z > y
(3) √ 2 ms−1 (4) Zero 26. σ 1 and σ 2 are the electrical conductivities of Ge
21. Initially two stable particles x and y start moving and Na respectively. If these substances are
towards each other under mutual attraction. If at heated, then
one time the velocities of x and y are V and 2V (1) Both σ 1 and σ 2 increase
respectively, what will be the velocity of centre
(2) σ 1 increases and σ 2 decreases
of mass of the system?
(1) V (2) Zero (3) V/3 (4) V/5 (3) σ 1 decreases and σ 2 increases

22. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If 40% of (4) Both σ 1 and σ 2 decrease
its energy is lost on collision with the earth then 27. What will be the equivalent resistance between
the points A and D ?
after collision the ball will rebound to a height of –
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m (3) 4 m (4) 6 m
23. In the following diagram two parallelopiped A
and B are of the same thickness. The arm of B is
(1) 10 Ω (2) 20 Ω (3) 30 Ω (4) 40 Ω
double that of A. Compare these resistances and
find out the value of RA/RB is :- 28. In the diagram resistance between any two
junctions is R. Equivalent resistance across
terminals A and B is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1 11R 18R 7R 11R

(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 7 11 11 18
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29. In the circuit shown, if a wire is connected 32. Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as
between points A and B. Current through wire shown in figure. The effective capacitance
AB is between points A and B will be :

28 (2) 5 µF
(1) μF
9
(3) 4 µF (4) 18 µF
(1) 10 10
A from A to B (2) A from B to A
3 3 33. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and
(3) 20
A from A to B (4) 20
A from B to A breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
3 3 capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
30. Two capacitors of capacitance C and 3C are combination will be :
shown in the diagram. When switch S turned to (1) 3C, 3V (2) C V
,
3 3
position 2, the percentage of stored energy
(3) V (4) C
dissipiated is: 3C, , 3V
3 3
34. In the arrangement shown in figure, dielectric
constant K1 = 2 and K2 = 3. If the capacitance
are C1 and C2 respectively, then C1/C2 will be :
(The gaps shown are negligible)
(1) 0% (2) 25%
(3) 75% (4) 100%
31. Four plates are located at a distance 'd' apart
from one another. The extreme plates are inter
connected. A potential difference of V is applied
to inner plates. The electric field E between '1'
and '2' plates is :- (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 9 : 5 (4) 25 : 24
35. A parallel plate capacitor is connected with a
battery whose potential difference remains
constant . If the plates of the capacitor are shifted
(1) V apart then the intensity of electric field :
4d
V
(1) decreases and charge on plates also decreases.
(2)
2d (2) remains constant but charge on plates decreases.
(3) V
d
(3) remains constant but charge on the plates
2V increases.
(4)
d (4) increases but charge on the plates decreases.
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SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) 39. The left block in Fig. moves at a speed v towards
the right block placed in equilibrium. All
36. Calculate the energy radiated per minute from collisions to take place are elastic and the
the filament of an incandascent lamp at 2000K if surfaces are frictionless.
the surface area is 5 × 10 – 5 m2 and its relative
emitance is 0.85, s = 5.7 × 10 – 8 MKS units :
(1) 1230 J The time period of the periodic motion is
(2) 2215 J [Neglect the widths of the blocks.]
(3) 2115 J (1) 2 π m (2) 2L
√
k v
(4) 2325 J m 2L m 2L
(3) 2π√ + (4) π √ +
37. Three discs A, B and C having radii 2m, 4m and k v k v
6m respectively are coated with carbon black on 40. Two pendulum of lengths 1.44 m & 1.69 m starts
their outer surfaces. The wavelengths motion at same instant find No of cycle of smaller
corresponding to maximum intensity are 300 nm, pendulum after that they will be in same phase :-
400 nm and 500 nm, respectively. The power (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 12 (4) 13
radiated by them are Qa, Qb and Qc respectively :
41. A block of mass 1 kg slides down (from rest) a
(1) Qa is maximum curved track which forms one quadrant of a circle of
(2) Qb is maximum radius 1m as shown in figure. The speed of block at
(3) Qc is maximum the bottom of the track is v = 2ms – 1. The work done
by the force of friction is (g = 10 m/s2) :-
(4) Qa = Qb = Qc
38. A body is performing simple harmonic motion
with amplitude a and time period T. Variation of
its acceleration (f) with time (t) is shown in
figure. If at time t, velocity of the body is v,
(1) +4J (2) – 4J (3) – 8J (4) +8J
which of the following graphs is correct –
42. A cube of each side 2a and a solid sphere of
radius a of same density are placed in contact as
shown in figure. The distance of centre of mass
of the system from point O is :-

(1) (2)

a 4a
(1) ( π + 6)
(2)
( π + 6)
(3) (4) πa
2πa
(3) (4)
( π + 6) ( π + 6)
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43. Two massless string of length 5 m hang from the 47. In the ladder network shown, current through the
ceiling very near to each other as shown in the resistor 3 Ω is 0.25 A. The input voltage ‘V’ is equal to
figure. Two balls A and B of masses 0.25 kg and
0.5 kg are attached to the string. The ball A is
released from rest at a height 0.45 m as shown in
the figure. The collision between two balls is
completely elastic. Immediately after the
collision, the kinetic energy of ball B is 1 J. The
velocity of ball A just after the collision is :- (1) 10 V (2) 20 V (3) 5 V (4) 15/2 V
48. How will the reading of ammeter change if the
key k is closed ?

(1) 5 ms – 1 to the right

(1) Increase
(2) 5 ms – 1 to the left
(2) Decrease
(3) 1 ms – 1 to the right (3) Remains same
(4) 1 ms – 1 to the left (4) Information insufficient
44. A solid sphere is moving and it makes an elastic 49. Two conductors of same length are connected in
collision with another stationary sphere of half of parallel as shown in figure. Their cross-sectional
areas A1 and A2 and their resistivities are ρ 1 and
its own radius. After collision it comes to rest.
ρ 2 respectively. The equivalent resistivity of this
The ratio of the densities of materials of second combination is :-
sphere and first sphere is –
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16
45. After falling from a height of 5m a ball strikes
the floor of a lift. If at the time of collision, lift is
moving in the upward direction with a velocity ρ 1 ρ 2 (A1 − A2 ) ρ 1 ρ 2 (A1 + A2 )
(1) (2)
of 1m/s, then the velocity with which the ball A1 ρ 2 + A2 ρ 1 A1 ρ 1 + A2 ρ 2
rebounds after collision will be – (e = 1) ρ 1 ρ 2 (A1 − A2 ) ρ 1 ρ 2 (A1 + A2 )
(3) (4)
(1) 11 m/s downwards (2) 12 m/s upwards A1 ρ 1 + A2 ρ 2 A1 ρ 2 + A2 ρ 1
50. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential
(3) 13 m/s upwards (4) 12 m/s downwards
difference across the 4.5 μ F capacitor is :
46. A current I flows through a uniform wire of
diameter d when the mean electron drift velocity
is v. The same current will flow through a wire
of diameter d/2 made of the same material if the
mean drift velocity of the electron is :-
(1) 8 (2) 4 volts (3) 6 volts (4) 8 volts
(1) v/4 (2) v/2 (3) 2v (4) 4v volts
3
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Topic : CHEMICAL BONDING UPTO HYDROGEN BONDING, d & f-BLOCK, ELECTROCHEMISTRY, [BACK
UNIT] : GOC-I

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 54. Give the correct decreasing order of Ka :-

51. Correct stability of carbanions

I. II.

(1) a > d > b > c (2) d > a > c > b

(3) d > a > b > c (4) d > c > a > b
III. IV. 55. Compare the stability of the carbocations given
below :-

(1) III > IV > I > II (2) III > IV > II > I
(3) III > I > IV > II (4) III > II > I > IV
52. Tautomerism is shown by which of the following
compound ?

(1) ii > i > iv > iii (2) ii > iv > i > iii
(1) (2)
(3) i > iii > iv > ii (4) ii > i > iii > iv
56. Positive charge of which of the following
compound will not show resonance?

(3) (4)
(1)
53. Identify the alkene which have highest value of
Heat of Hydrogenation :-
⊕
(2) CH2 = CH − CH = CH − C H2
(1)

(2) (3)

(3)
(4)
(4) CH2 = CH2

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57. Correct order of basic strength of given amines 61. Which of the following is most acidic?
is ?
(1)
(1) Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N > NH3
Protic solvent
(2)
(2) Et2NH > Et3N > EtNH2 > NH3
Protic solvent
(3)
(3) Me3N > Me2NH > MeNH2 > NH3
Gas phase
(4)
(4) All are correct
58. Which of the following do not show resonance? 62. The species having no p π − p π bond but has
bond order equal to that of O2 :
(1) (1) XeO4 (2) ClO−3

(3) P O3−
4 (4) SO2−
4

63. Which of the following statements is not correct

(2) about CO32 – ?
(1) The hybridisation of central atom is sp2
(2) Its resonance hybrid has one C – O single
(3)
bond and two C = O double bonds
(4) CH2 = CH – C ≡ N (3) The average formal charge on each oxygen
59. Which of the following can not act as atom is 0.67 units
nucleophile (4) All C – O bond lengths are equal

(1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH ≡ CH 64. Which of the following pairs will have same
bond order ?
(3) (4)
(1) O2 and O2 – (2) N2+ and N2 –
60. Which of the following is not a resonating
(3) O2+ and O2 – (4) CO and NO
structure of other?
65. Two nodal planes are present in
(1) π *2px (2) σ 2pz
(1) (2) (3) π 2px (4) π 2py
66. In which of the following species removal of
electron exhibit a decrease in paramagnetic
behavior?
(3) (4)
(1) F2 (2) N2
(3) C2 (4) B2
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67. Which pair is isostructural & isoelectronic ? 75. Z + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 → Red orange vapour
NaOH
(1) IBr−2 , XeF2 (2) N3− , I3− −−−−→ yellow
Z cannot be ?
(3) ClO−3 , SO−2
3 (4) 1 & 3
(1) NH4Cl (2) NaCl (3) CaCl2 (4) PbCl2
68. Which of the following species is not stable ?
76. Electrolytic conduction is due to the movement
(1) CIF3 (2) FCl3
of :
(3) XeF8 (4) 2 & 3
(1) molecules (2) atoms
69. The correct molecular geometry & hybridisation
(3) ions (4) electrons
for XeOF4 ?
3 2
77. For a electrolyte solution specific conductance is
(1) Octahedral, sp d 9.2 × 10 – 2 ohm – 1 m – 1 then, calculate value of
(2) Square pyramidal sp3d2 molar conductance for solution having
concentration 0.02 M is :
(3) Distorted octahedral sp3d2
(1) 4.6 × 10 – 3 Sm2 mol – 1
(4) Square planar sp3d2
(2) 4.6 × 102 Sm2 mol – 1
70. Incorrect order of volatility ?
(3) 9.2 × 10 – 2 Sm2 mol – 1
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) 4.6 × 10 – 5 Sm2 mol – 1
(2) o-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol
78. Which has maximum value of equivalent
(3) HNO3 < H2SO4
conductance, assume equal ionisation of each
(4) 1 and 3 both and identical specific conductance :-
71. Which one having Ionic, covalent & coordinate bond ? (1) 0.01 M HCl
(1) NH4Cl (2) H2O2 (3) K2CO3 (4) All (2) 0.01 M H2SO4
72. Colour of K2MnO4 is ? (3) 0.01 M H3PO3
(1) Black (2) Purple (4) All have same value
(3) Green (4) Orange 79. The value of Λ ∞ for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are
73. Electronic configuration of Cf is : respectively 150, 250 and 130 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1.
(1) [Rn] 5f10 6d1 7s2 The value of Λ ∞ of NH4OH is :-
(2) [Rn] 5f10 7s2 (1) 270 (2) 280 (3) 400 (4) 380
(3) [Xe] 4f10 6s2 80. At 291 K, the molar conductivity at infinite
(4) [Rn] 5f9 6d1 7s2 dilution of NH4Cl, NaOH, NaCl are 129.8, 217.4,
108.9 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1 respectively. If the molar
74. Which of the following order of stability is
conductivity of centinormal solution of NH4OH is
incorrect?
9.33 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1, what is the percentage
(1) Cr+2 < Cr+3 (2) V+4 > V+5 dissociation of NH4OH at this dilution :-
(3) Mn+2 > Mn+3 (4) Sc+2 < Sc+3 (1) 0.392 (2) 39.2 (3) 3.92 (4) 0.039
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81. Which of the following statement is correct ? SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
(1) Cathode is – ve terminal in both, galvanic
86. Which hydrogen is most acidic :-
and electrolytic cells
(2) Anode is +ve terminal in both, galvanic and
electrolytic cells
(3) Cathode and anode are -ve terminal in (1) a (2) b
electrolytic and galvanic cell.
(3) c (4) d
(4) Cathode and anode are +ve terminal in
87. Least stable Carbanion is :-
electrolytic and galvanic cell.
82. Passage of a current for 548 seconds through a (1) (2)
silver coulometer results in the deposition of
0.746 g of silver. What is the current (in A) ?
(1) 1.22 (2) 1.16 (3) (4)
(3) 1.07 (4) 1.00
83. An aqueous solution of Na2SO4 in water is 88. Which is most acidic compound :-
electrolysed using Pt electrodes. The products at
(1) Cyclohexanol (2) m-nitrophenol
the cathode and anode are respectively :
(3) Benzyl alcohol (4) Phenol
(1) H2,SO2 (2) O2, NaOH
89. Correct order of -I effect is:
(3) H2,O2 (4) O2,SO2
⊕
84. Select the correct cell reaction of the cell Ag(s)| (1) − N H3 > −COOH > −NO2
Ag+ (aq)|| Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s): ⊕
(2) − N H3 > −NO2 > −COOH
(1) 2Ag(s) + Cu(s) → Cu+2 (aq) + 2Ag+ (aq)
⊕
(2) Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) (3) −NO2 > −COOH > − N H3

(3) 2Ag(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) (4)

⊕
−COOH > −NO2 > − N H3
(4) Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag+ (aq) → 2Ag(s) + Cu(s)
90. Which of the following have only pie ( π ) bonds -
85. Consider an electrochemical cell in which the
(1) B2
following reaction occurs and predict which
(2) C2
changes will decrease the cell voltage :
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+ (aq) → Ag(s) + Fe3+ (aq) (3) O−2
2

(I) Decrease the [Ag+] (4) 1 and 2 both

(II) Increase in [Fe3+] 91. During the conversion of peroxide ion to
(III) Increase the amount of Ag superoxide ion electron is removed from :-
(1) I (2) II and III (1) π 2py (2) σ 2pz
∗

(3) II (4) I and II (3) π 2py

∗
(4) σ 2pz
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92. Which of the following is polar molecule 97. Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related
(1) XeF2 (2) XeF4 to molar conductivity by the expression :-

(3) XeF5− (4) XeO2F2 (1) Λ eq = Λ m

93. Which is the correct order of bond length ? (2) Λ eq = Λ m

3
(1) ClO−4 < SO−2
4 < P O−3
4 (3) Λ eq = 3Λm
CO > CO2 > CO2−
(2) 3 (4) Λ eq = Λ m
6
(3) N2 > O2 > F 2
98. The ionic conductivity of Ba+2 and Cl – at
(4) All
infinite dilution are 127 and 76 ohm – 1 cm2 eq – 1
94. Which is the incorrect order of bond angle ? respectively. The molar conductivity of BaCl2 at
(1) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3 infinite dilution is :-
(2) NO+2 > NO−3 > NO−2
(1) 203 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1
(3) OF2 > OCl2> OBr2 (2) 406 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1
(4) 1 & 3 (3) 279 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1
95. Statement-I : K2Cr2O7 is preferred over (4) 127 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1
Na2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis.
Statement-II : K2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic in nature 99. Calculate the current (in mA) required to deposit
but Na2Cr2O7 is not. 0.195 g of platinum metal in 5.0 hours from a
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are solution of P tCl2−
6 : (Atomic weight : Pt = 195)
correct.
(1) 310
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) 31
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) 21.44
incorrect. (4) 5.36
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 100. What is the standard electrode potential for the
correct. reduction of HClO ?
96. The specific conductivity of N/10 KCl solution HClO(aq) + H+(aq) + 2e – → Cl – (aq) + H2O(l)
at 20°C is 0.012 Ω – 1 cm – 1 and the resistance of Given : Cr2+(aq) → Cr3+ (aq) + e – , E° = 0.41 V
the cell containing this solution at 20°C is 60 Ω . HClO (aq) + H+ (aq) + 2Cr2+ (aq) →
The cell constant is 2Cr3+ (aq) + Cl – (aq) + H2O(l), E° = 1.80
(1) 4.616 cm – 1 (1) 1.39 V
(2) 0.72 cm – 1 (2) 1.54 V
–1
(3) 2.173 cm (3) 1.22 V
–1
(4) 3.324 cm (4) 0.90 V
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Topic : APPLICATION OF BIOTECH, PLANT TISSUE CULTURE, MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE,
BIOMOLECULES, ECOLOGY, PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS, ANIMAL DIVERSITY (BASIS OF
CLASSIFICATION), [BACK UNIT] : CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, EXCRETORY SYSTEM

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 107. Complete stoppage of heart beat is known as:

(1) Cardiac arrest
101. Least number of white blood corpuscles are :-
(2) Myocardial infarction
(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils
(3) Angina pectoris
(3) Monocytes (4) Eosinophils
(4) Heart failure
102. Which of following blood cells are phagocytic ?
108. Which of the following is true ?
(1) Eosinophil, Basophil (1) Stroke volume – 70 ml
(2) Basophil, Neutrophil (2) Heart sound are Heared by – Stethoscope
(3) Neutrophil, Monocyte (3) Auricular systole increases the 30% blood
(4) Monocyte, Lymphocyte flow into the ventricles
103. Which of following hormone increases cardiac (4) All
output ? 109. Angina is related with
(1) Adrenaline & noradrenaline (1) Also called angina pectoris
(2) Parathyroid hormone (2) Acute chest pain appears when no enough
oxygen is reaching the heart muscle
(3) Pineal hormone
(3) It is common among middle aged & elderly
(4) Thymosin hormone
(4) All the above
104. T-wave of ECG represents :-
110. Inter atrial septum is
(1) Atrial repolarisation (1) Thin, fibrous (2) Thick, fibrous
(2) Ventricular repolarisation (3) Thin, muscular (4) Thick, muscular
(3) Atrial depolarisation 111. In human heart Purkinje fibres are present in :-
(4) Ventricular depolarisation (1) Throughout the ventricular musculature
105. Identify the correctly matched structure :- (2) Right atrium
(1) Neutrophils → Bilobed nucleus (3) Only in Inter ventricular septum
(2) Eosinophils → Nucleus absent (4) Both Atria and Ventricle
112. Special cells in the bone marrow that produce
(3) Monocytes → Kidney shaped nucleus thrombocyte are :-
(4) Erythrocytes → Horse shoe shaped (1) B-cells (2) T-cells
nucleus (3) Megakaryocytes (4) Monocytes
106. In human normally the stroke volume of heart is:- 113. Bundle of His originates from :-
(1) 5000 ml (2) 120 ml (1) Mitral valve (2) SA-node
(3) 70 ml (4) 200 ml (3) AV-node (4) Purkinje fibres
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114. Human heart is :- 120. Podocytes are :-

(1) Ectodermal (2) Mesodermal (1) Epithelial cells of alveoli
(3) Endodermal (4) All of these (2) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
115. Towards the centre of the inner A surface of (3) Neural cells of CNS
the kidney is a notch called B is present:- (4) Contractile cells of vasa recta
Choose suitable words for A & B.
121. In order to obtained virus free plants through
(1) Convex, Hilum respectively tissue culture methods the best technique is:-
(2) Convex, Pelvis respectively (1) embryo culture
(3) Concave, Hilum respectively (2) protoplast culture
(4) Concave, pelvis respectively (3) meristem culture
116. Podocytes are present in which component of (4) anther culture
filtration membrane ?
122. Which is secondary metabolite ?
(1) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule
(2) Endothelium of Glomerular blood vessels (1) Concanavalin A (2) Vinblastin
(3) Basement membrane of epithelium of (3) Amino acid (4) both 1 & 2
Bowman's capsule 123. Which of the following is wrongly matched in
(4) Basement membrane of endothelium of the given table ?
glomerular blood vessels Microbe Product Application
117. HCO−3 is reabsorbed in which part of Nephron? Trichoderma immunosup-
(1) Cyclosporin A
(1) PCT, DCT polysporum pressive drug
lowering of
(2) PCT, Henle's loop Monascus
(2) Statins blood
purpureus
(3) DCT, Henle's loop cholesterol
removal of
(4) Collecting duct, DCT
(3) Streptococcus Streptokinase clot from
118. During the process of haemodialysis the blood blood vessel
drained from a convenient artery is pumped into Clostridium removal of
a dialysing unit known as:- (4) Lipase
butylicum oil stains
(1) Artificial kidney (2) Heart lung machine 124. Which of the following statement is NOT correct
(3) EEG (4) ECG about Baculoviruses ?
119. 'U' shape vessels running parallel to Henle's loop (1) They attack insects and certain other arthropods
called :- (2) Majority are used as biological control agents
(1) Peritubular capillary network are in the genus Nucleopolyhedro virus.
(2) Juxta medullary nephron (3) They have negative impact on mammals
and birds
(3) Cortical nephron
(4) They aid in Integrated pest management (IPM)
(4) Vasa recta
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125. Methods that allows correction of a gene defect 130. For the given diagram representing different
that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo is biomes, identify the correct matching :-
called as :-
(1) Molecular diagnosis
(2) Gene therapy
(3) Biotechnology
(4) Genetic engineering
126. In which example Sexual Deceit is found ?
(1) Fig & Wasp (2) Ophrys & Bee (1) A = Desert,
(3) Cuckoo & Crow (4) Parasite & Host B = Coniferous forest,
127. Which of the following is not an example of C = Grassland
commensalism? (2) A = Tropical forest,
(1) Mango- orchid B = Coniferous forest,
C = Arctic and Alpine tundra
(2) Cattle- Tick
(3) A = Tropical forest,
(3) Sea anemone- clown fish B = Temperate Forest,
(4) Whale- Barnacle C = Arctic and alpine tundra
128. Ecological niche of an organism represents :- (4) A = Grassland,
(A) The range of conditions it can tolerate. B = Temperate forest,
(B) The resources it utilizes C = Desert.
(C) Its functional role in the concerned ecosystem 131. Statement-I : Secondary productivity is defined
Options :- as the rate of formation of new organic matter by
(1) only A (2) only C consumer.
Statement-II : Gross primary productivity minus
(3) only A & B (4) A, B, C
respiration losses (R) is the net primary
129. Assertion : Detritus food chain may be connected productivity (NPP)
with the grazing food chain at some trophic levels. (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
Reason : Some of the organisms of DFC are prey (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
to the GFC animals.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
132. In which phylum the cells performing the same
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. function are arranged into tissues for the first time ?
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes
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133. Following diagram represent which type of
symmetry and found in :
(1) Asymmetry, sponges
(2) Radial, Coelenterata
(3) Bilateral, Ctenophora
(4) Bilateral, Platyhelminthes
134. Identify the symmetry shown below as well as
the related explanation and select the right option
for the two together :-
Symmetry Explanation
Any plane that passes
through the centre does
(1) Asymmetrical
not divide them equal
halves
The body can be divided
into identical left and
(2) Radial
right halves in only one
plane
Any plane pass through
the central axis of the
(3) Bilateral
body divides the organism
into two identical halves
The body can be divided
into identical left and
(4) Bilateral
right halves in only one
plane
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135. Identify A, B, C in given diagram :-
T.S. of Diploblastic animal
(1) A – Ectoderm, B – Mesoderm, C – Endoderm
(2) A – Ectoderm, B – Mesoglea, C – Endoderm
(3) A – Mesoderm, B – Ectoderm, C – Endoderm
(4) A – Ectoderm, B – Endoderm, C – Mesoglea
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I )
136. Correct for S.A. node is :-
(1) A patch of this tissue is present in the left
upper corner of right atrium.
(2) It can generate the maximum number of
action potential 70-75 min-1
(3) This tissue is seen in the lower left corner
of the right atrium.
(4) This nodal musculature generate action
potentials due to external stimuli.
137. Excretory system of the human beings consists
of following parts :-
(I) Pair of kidneys
(II) One pair of ureters
(III) Urinary bladder
(IV) Urethra
(V) Penis
(VI) Spleen
(VII) Liver
(1) I, II III and VI
(2) I, II, III and VII
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III, IV, V and VII
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138. How many are correct for loop of Henle ?
(a) In majority of nephron it is too short.
(b) In some of nephron it is very short and runs
deep into medulla.
(c) It is present between DCT and collecting duct.
(d) Dips into the medulla.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
139. Choose the incorrect statement :-
(1) Reabsorption of NaCl is maximum from
PCT
(2) Reabsorption of salts is maximum in
ascending limb of loop of Henle.
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to water.
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
140. Figure shows human urinary system with
structures labelled A to D. Select option which
correctly identifies them and gives their
characteristics and/or functions.
(1) D-Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not
contain any part of nephrons
(2) A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior
part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines
which stimulate glycogen breakdown
(3) B-Pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to
hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
(4) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and
contains complete nephrons
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141. Find out the false statement ?
(1) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the PCT
(2) Henle's loop plays an important role in
concentrating the urine
(3) Micturition is carried out by a reflex
(4) ADH helps in water elimination, making
the urine hypotonic
142. Which condition causes elevation of Na+ in
blood plasma ?
(1) Low level of ADH
(2) High level of Aldosterone
(3) More level of ANF
(4) High level of Glucagon
143. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct :-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often
referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is
suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases
and also affects vital organs like brain and
kidney
(d) Angina occurs when no enough oxygen is
reaching the heart muscle.
Options :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)
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144. Read the following four statements (A-D) :- 147. In nematode resistance by RNA interferance
(A) All the four chambers of heart are in relaxed state some specific genes were introduced which
(B) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open form ds RNA. These were introduced in :-
(C) Blood from the pulmonary veins and venacava (1) E.coli (2) Host plant
flows into the left and the right ventricle respectively
through the left and right atria (3) Ti-plasmid (4) Nematode
(D) The semilunar valves are closed 148. Which of the following is adaptive feature of
How many statements are correct about joint Diastole ? endoparasites ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One (1) Efficient digestive system
145. Match the blood vessels of human heart listed under (2) Developed sensory organs
column-I with the functions given under Column-II;
Choose the answer which given the correct (3) Simplified morphological and anatomical
combination of the alphabets of the two columns- features
Column I Column II
(4) Low biotic potential
(Blood Vessel) (Function)
Carries deoxygenated 149. Assertion : A given species may occupy more
(A) Superior vena cava (p)
blood to lungs than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at
Carries oxygenated the same time.
(B) Inferior vena cava (q)
blood to lungs Reason : The trophic level represents a
Bring deoxygenated functional level, not a species as such.
blood from lower parts
(C) Pulmonary artery (r) (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
of the body to the right
atrium Reason is a correct explanation of the
Brings oxygenated
Assertion.
(D) Pulmonary vein (s)
blood to the left atrium (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Brings deoxygenated Reason is not a correct explanation of the
blood from upper parts Assertion.
(t)
of the body into the
right atrium (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) A = t, B = p, C = r, D = q (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s 150. Statement-I : Each trophic level has a certain
mass of living material at a particular time called
(3) A = s, B = t, C = r, D = p as the standing crop.
(4) A = t, B = s, C = r, D = p Statement-II : The number of trophic level is not
146. Below structure show which biomolecule :- restricted in grazing food chain. [G.F.C.]
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(1) Adenosine (2) Alanine (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Lecithin (4) Cholesterol
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Topic : APPLICATION OF BIOTECH, PLANT TISSUE CULTURE, MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE,
BIOMOLECULES, ECOLOGY, PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS, ANIMAL DIVERSITY (BASIS OF
CLASSIFICATION), [BACK UNIT] : CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, EXCRETORY SYSTEM

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 154. Producer → Consumer(1) → Consumer (2) →

Consumer (3)
151. Statement-I : Temperature and soil moisture are In an aquatic food chain a disease reduced the
the important factors that regulate decomposition. no. of consumer (2). What effect would be likely
Statement-II : Decomposition rate is quicker if to have on the no. of consumer (1) and (3) ?
detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect. 155. According to Alexander von Humbolt, in the
152. Assertion : In the absence of predators prey graph of species area relation of area A,B and C.
could achieve high population density causing
ecosystem instability. Which of the following area has steeper slope
Reason : Predators keep prey population under and maximum species richness respectively.
control.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (1) A and B (2) C and A
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) C and B (4) C and C
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 156. Identify the correct match regarding plant
diversity ?
153. Match the following given symbols with
interactions:-
(a) + / + (i) Predation
(b) – / – (ii) Amensalism
(c) + / – (iii) Competition
(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism
A B C D E F
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Angiosperms Fungi Mosses Algae Ferns Lichens
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) Fungi Angiosperms Mosses Algae Lichens Ferns
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) Angiosperms Algae Fungi Mosses Lichens Ferns
(4) Angiosperms Fungi Algae Mosses Ferns Lichens
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
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157. Choose the incorrect option :- 161. According to the 'evil quartet' the main cause for
(1) The species diversity of Beetle is greater species extinction is :-
than fishes diversity (1) Alien species invasion
(2) The species diversity of fishes is greater (2) Over exploitation
than ants diversity (3) Habitat loss and Fragmentation
(3) The species diversity of orchid is less than (4) Co-extinction
ant diversity
162. How many are example of ex-situ conservation ?
(4) Species diversity of angiosperm is equal to
Zoological park, Botanical gardens, wildlife
fishes diversity
safari park, seed bank, National parks, Biosphere
158. Which of the following statements are correct ?
reserves, sanctuaries.
(a) Passenger pigeon extinct due to over
exploitation (1) Seven
(b) Earth summit was occured in 1992 at Rio-de- (2) Three
Janeiro.
(3) Two
(c) World summit on sustainable development
was held at Johannesburg in 2002. (4) Four
(d) Amazon rain forest in south Africa has the 163. How many species are exotic species introduced
greatest biodiversity on earth. in India from the following ?
(1) Only a, b, c (2) Only b, c Ficus bengalensis, Water hyacinth, Lantana
camara, Parthenium
(3) Only b (4) a, b, c, d
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
159. According to Tilman how species rich biological
164. In water treatment plant ozone gas and U.V. is
community show more stability:-
used in : –
(A) Plots with more species show less year to
(1) Primary treatment
year variation in total biomass
(B) Increased diversity contributed to higher (2) Secondary treatment
productivity (3) Tertiary treatment
(C) Provide resistance to invasions by alien (4) Aeration tank
species 165. If 40 individuals in a laboratory population of
How many statement are correct ? 400 fruitflies, died during a specified time
(1) Only A (2) Only A & B interval, say a week, the per capita death rate in
population during that period is :-
(3) Only A & C (4) A, B, C
(1) 1.0
160. Among the given species the highest number of
species diversity in the world is ? (2) 10
(1) Lichen (2) Pteridophyte (3) 0.1
(3) Algae (4) Fungi (4) 0.01
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166. Match the column :- 169. Which of the following components are required
Column I Column II for chemiosmosis ?
First action spectrum (1) A membrane, a proton pump, an electron
(a) Jan Ingenhousz (i)
of photosynthesis gradient and ATPase
Water is source of (2) F0 – F1 particle, ATP, a membrane and
(b) F.F. Blackman (ii) O2 in photosynthetic proton gradient
reaction in green plants
(3) A proton pump, a membrane, a proton
(c) Joseph Priestley (iii) Law of limiting factor gradient and ATPsynthase
Essentiality of
(d) Julius Von sachs (iv)
sunlight to plants
(4) A proton pump, a membrane, a proton
gradient and PS-II
Essential role of air
(e) T.W. Engelmann (v) in the growth of 170. Read the following statement w.r.t.
green plants chemiosmotic hypothesis :-
(A) Splitting of water take place on the outer
(1) a - iv, c - v, d - i side of the membrane
(2) a - iv, c - v, e - i (B) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on
the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane
(3) b - iii, d - v, e - i (C) Proton are transported along the gradient
(4) c - iv, d - v, e - ii across the membrane through channel
(D) ATP is produced towards stroma side of
167. Which of the following statement is not correct? thylakoid membrane
(1) Carbon dioxide is the major limiting factor How many statements is/are incorrect?
for photosynthesis. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Light saturation occurs at 15% of the full 171. The first product of CO2 fixation in Hatch and
sunlight. Slack (C4) cycle in plants is formation of :-
(3) The C4 plants respond to higher (1) Oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol
temperature and show higher rate of pyruvate (PEP) in bundle sheath cells
photosynthesis.
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid in mesophyll cells
(4) Water stress causes the stomata to close
(3) Bundle sheath cells
hence reducing the CO2 availability
(4) Oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol
168. In cyclic electron transport proton gradient
pyruvate (PEP) in the mesophyll cells
required for ATP generation (chemiosmotic
theory) arises due to :- 172. PEP carboxylase is
(1) involved in at least some CO2 fixation in
(1) PQ mediated shifting of H+ from stroma to both C3 and C4 plants
lumen
(2) catalyzes the reaction, fixing CO2 into
(2) Photolysis of water pyruvic acid in bundle sheath cells
(3) NADP reductase mediated consumption of (3) capable of fixing CO2 more efficiently
H+ in stroma NADP reductase enzymes at lower atmospheric CO2 concentration
than RuBisCo.
(4) All of the above (4) the most abundant enzyme in the world
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173. Read the following statements carefully :-
(A) Green plants carry out photosynthesis, a
physico-chemical process by which they use light
energy to drive the synthesis of organic compounds.
(B) All animals including human beings depends on
plants for their food.
(C) Photosynthesis is responsible for the release of
oxygen into the atmosphere by non green plant parts
and animals.
(D) Photosynthesis is important due to it is the
primary source of all food on earth.
Choose correct answer :-
(1) All statements are correct
(2) Statement A, B are incorrect and C & D are
correct.
(3) Statement A & B are correct and C & D are
incorrect.
(4) Statement A, B & D are correct and C
is incorrect.
174. How many following statements are not correct ?
(A) Dark reaction is directly depends on light
(B) Light reaction is depends on the products of dark
reaction.
(C) Grana is responsible for trapping the light energy
and also for the synthesis of ATP & NADPH.
(D) In stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporate
CO2 into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar.
(E) Dark reaction occurs in darkness or that they are
not light dependent.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
175. Read the following statements :-
(A) In PS-II the reaction centre chlorophyll-a has
an absorption peak at 700 nm.
(B) In PS-I the reaction centre chlorophyll-a has
an absorption peak at 680 nm.
(C) Photo-phosphorylation is the synthesis of
ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the
presence of light.
(D) When the two photosystems work in a series,
first PS-II and then the PS-I, a process called
cyclic photo-phosphorylation.
(E) Splitting of the water molecule takes place
on the outer side of the thylakoid membrane.
Choose the correct answer :-
(1) All statements are correct
(2) All statements are incorrect
(3) Statement A, B, C & D are incorrect &
statement E is correct
(4) Statement A, B, C, E are incorrect &
statement C is correct
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176. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Carboxylation is the most crucial step of
the Calvin cycle.
(2) Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a
stable organic compound
(3) Dark reaction is catalysed by the enzyme
RuBisCO.
(4) Calvin pathway occurs in some
photosynthetic plants.
177. Statement-I : The regeneration steps of dark
reaction require two ATP for phosphorylation to
form one RuBP.
Statement-II : The primary acceptor of CO2 in
dark reaction would be a 2-carbon compound.
Options:
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct
(2) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
178. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for
the fixation of 3CO2 in sorghum plant ?
(1) NADPH2 = 6, ATP = 15
(2) NADPH2 = 15, ATP = 6
(3) NADPH2 = 6, ATP = 6
(4) NADPH2 = 15, ATP = 15
179. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding to C4-pathway ?
(1) The primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon
molecule PEP and is present in the bundle
sheath cells.
(2) The enzyme responsible for primary CO2
fixation is RuBisCO and is present in the
mesophyll cells.
(3) The CO2 released in the bundle sheath cells
enters the C3 or the calvin pathway
(4) The C4 acid OAA is formed in the bundle
sheath cells.
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180. Read the following characters carefully :- 183. Assertion : C4 plants have greater productivity of
(A) Tolerate higher temperature. biomass.
(B) Show a response to high light intensity Reason : C4 plants lack a process called
(C) Lack photorespiration photorespiration due to Kranz anatomy of leaf.
(D) Greater productivity of biomass (1) Both assertion and reason are true & reason
(E) Kranz anatomy is a correct explanation of the assertion
(F) Large number of chloroplast is bundle sheath
cells (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(G) Thick wall bundle sheath cells is not a correct explanation of the assertion
How many characters are releated to C4-plants ? (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(1) Three (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(2) Five 184. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) Six (1) Photorespiration is a useful process
(4) Seven (2) In Photorespiration pathway, there is
181. Read the following statements carefully and synthesis of ATP & NADPH
choose incorrect statement :- (3) RuBisCo has a much greater affinity for
(1) Biosynthetic phase does not directly CO2 than for O2.
depend on the presence of light (4) In photorespiration, there is synthesis of
(2) The products of light reaction are ATP, sugars & ATP.
NADPH and sugar.
185. How many of the below plants have C3-cycle ?
(3) The ATP and NADPH are used in the Sorghum, Wheat, Maize, Rice, Sugarcane, Aloe,
biosynthetic phase. Opuntia
(4) In C3-cycle, the first CO2 fixation product (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
was a 3-carbon organic acid
182. Number of ATP and NADPH required in Calvin SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )
cycle for the synthesis of 1 mole hexose: 186. Identify the correct labelling in the given pie
Carboxylation Reduction Regeneration chart of vertebrate species
12 NADPH & 12 NADPH &
(1) 6 ATP
Zero ATP 12 ATP

Zero NADPH & 12 NADPH &

(2) 6 ATP
Zero ATP 12 ATP
A B C D
Zero NADPH & 6 NADPH &
(3) 12 ATP (1) Fishes Mammals Bird Reptile
Zero ATP 6 ATP
(2) Amphibian Bird Reptile Fishes
Zero NADPH & 6 NADPH & 6 NADPH &
(4) (3) Mammals Fishes Bird Reptile
Zero ATP 6 ATP 6 ATP
(4) Fishes Amphibians Reptile Bird
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187. Assertion : Maximum species diversity is found
in Tropical regions.
Reason : Tropical regions had more evolutionary
time and relatively constant environment.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
188. Which of the following group is essential
component for survival of an ecosystem :-
(1) Producers
(2) Producers and herbivores
(3) Producers and decomposers
(4) Detritivores
189. In a hypothetical population of 100 individual
having ‘r' = 0.5/female/year, what will be the
population size in 4 years (with e = 2.72) showing
exponential rate of growth ?
(1) 1218 (2) 739
(3) 2012 (4) 800
190. Ecology term was coined by ?
(1) E.P. Odum (2) E.Haeckel
(3) A.G.Tansley (4) Reiter
191. Two closely related species competing for the
same resource cannot co-exist indefinitely and
the competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventually. This is known as :-
(1) Darwin principle
(2) Gause's exclusion principle
(3) Bergmann's rule
(4) Allen's rule
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192. Moll's half leaf experiment proves that :-
(1) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O2 released in photosynthesis comes from H2O
(4) Light is essential for photosynthesis
193. Chloroplast shows division of labour and it can
be verified by the fact that :-
(1) There are seperate thylakoids for light
reaction and dark reaction.
(2) Light reaction is performed in grana and
dark reaction in stroma.
(3) Light reaction is performed in stroma and
dark reaction in grana.
(4) There are two photosystem to perform
cyclic photophosphorylation.
194. Which of the following option represents correct
matching pairs ?
Colour in
Pigment
Chromatogram
(i) Chlorophyll-a (a) Yellow green
(ii) Chlorophyll-b (b) Yellow
(iii) Carotene (c) Blue green
(iv) Xanthophyll (d) Yellow orange
(1) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
(2) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
(3) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(4) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
195. Pigments are organised into two discrete
photochemical light harvesting complexes within
the PS I & PS II. These are named in :-
(1) The sequence of discovery
(2) Which they fucntion in light reaction
(3) The sequence of arrangement of chlorophylls
(4) Which they function in dark reaction
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196. Identify A-D in the given figure :-
(1) A-Photon, B-Primary acceptor,
C-Reaction centre, D-Pigment molecules
(2) A-Pigment molecules, B-Photon,
C-Reaction centre, D-Primary acceptor
(3) A-Primary acceptor, B-Pigment molecules,
C-Photon, D-Reaction centre
(4) A-Reaction centre, B-Photon,
C-Pigment molecules, D-Primary acceptor
197. The correct sequence of steps in calvin cycle
is:-
(1) Regeneration, Reduction, Carboxylation
(2) Reduction, Regeneration, Carboxylation
(3) Carboxylation, Reduction, Regeneration
(4) Synthesis, Carboxylation, Reduction
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198. The first acceptor of 14CO2 in rice plant during
carbon fixation cycle is ?
(1) PEP (2) Malic acid
(3) RuBP (4) PGA
199. Match the following column correctly :-
Column-I Column-II
(i) Cyclic photophosphorylation (a) Sugar
(ii) Non cyclic photophosphorylation (b) ATP & NADPH
(iii) Biosynthetic phase (c) Only ATP
(1) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a
(3) (i) - a, (ii) - b, (iii) - c
(4) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b
200. Identify the given figure and select the correct option?
(1) Pseudocoelom :- Arthropoda
(2) Acoelom :- Platyhelminthes
(3) Coelom :- Chordates
(4) Pseudocoelom :- Aschelminthes
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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