Classroom Contact Programme: Pre-Medical: Nurture Course Phase - MNBJ

Test Pattern
(1001CMD621921012) )1//1CMD621921/12)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2021- 2022) 03-12-2021
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ
This Booklet contains 32 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
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Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
Form Number : in figures
: in words
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Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

English / 03122021 Page 1/32
ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : SYLLABUS-2
SECTION-A 4. If potential energy is given by U = (2x2 – x) J
Attempt All 35 questions then minimum possible value of potential
energy :-
1. A block of mass 2kg is suspended by a light
string from the ceiling of a lift. The lift starts 4
(1) − J
3
moving down with an acceleration a = 1.8 m/s2.
Find the work done by tension in the string 6
(2) − J
7
during the first 5 seconds.
1
(1) 360 J (3) − J
8
(2) –360 J (4) 9
− J
4
(3) 180 J
5. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies
(4) –144 J 3t 2
with time as P = W. Here t is in seconds. If
2. A body of mass 6 kg under a force which 2
t2 velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0. The
causes displacement in it given ‘S = ’ metres velocity of particle at time t = 2 sec. will be :-
4
where ‘t’ is time. The work done by the force (1) 1 m/s
in 2 seconds is :-
(2) 4 m/s
(1) 12J
(3) 2 m/s
(2) 9J –
(4) 2√2 m/s
(3) 6J
6. Two particles having mass 'M' and 'm' are
(4) 3J moving in a circular path having radius R and r.
3. The masses of three balls at rest in a straight line If their time period are same then the ratio of
are in geometrical progression with ratio 2 and angular velocity will be :–
their coefficient of restitution are each 2/3. If the r
(1) R
first ball be started towards the second with
R
velocity u, then the velocity communicated to (2)
r
3rd ball is :-
(3) 1
(1) (5/9) u (2) (5/9)2 u −−
R
3
(3) (5/9) u 4
(4) (5/9) u (4) √
r
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012
Page 2/32 Space for Rough Work English / 03122021
ALLEN
7. A particle is kept fixed on a turntable rotating 10. The centre of mass of a system of two particles
uniformly. As seen from the ground, the divides the distance between them :-
particle goes in a circle, its speed is 20 cm/s (1) In inverse ratio of square of masses of
and acceleration is 20 cm/s2. The particle is particles
now shifted to a new position to make the
(2) In direct ratio of square of masses of
radius half of the original value. The new value
of the speed and acceleration will be :- particles
(1) 10 cm/s, 10 cm/s2 (3) In inverse ratio of masses of particles

(2) 10 cm/s, 80 cm/s2 (4) In direct ratio of masses of particles
2
(3) 40 cm/s, 10 cm/s
11. Center of mass of 3 particles, 10 kg, 20 kg and
(4) 40 cm/s, 40 cm/s2
30 kg is at (0,0,0). Where should a particle of
8. If the road is unbanked and the coefficient of
mass 40 kg be placed so that the center of mass
friction between the road and the tyres is 0.8,
then the maximum speed with which an of the combination will be at (3,3,3) :-
automobile can move around a curve of 84.5 m
(1) (0,0,0)
radius without slipping is : (Take g = 10 ms–2) :-
(1) 26 ms–1 (2) (7.5,7.5,7.5)
(2) 67.7 ms–1
(3) (1,2,3)
(3) 13 ms–1
(4) 36.7 ms–1 (4) (4,4,4)
9. A particle crosses the topmost point C of a 12. A bomb of mass 9kg explodes into 2 pieces of
vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio
mass 3kg and 6kg. The velocity of mass 3kg is
of velocities at points A, B and C is :-
1.6 m/s, the K.E. of mass 6kg is :-
(1) 3.84 J
(2) 9.6 J
(3) 1.92 J
(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
– – –
(3) 52 : 32 : 12 (4) √ 5 : √3 : √1 (4) 2.92 J
English / 03122021 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32
ALLEN
13. 16. A uniform rod AB of length ℓ and mass m is free
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from
Three small balls are placed in a line shown in rest in the horizontal position. Given that the
mℓ2
figure. ball A is moving with speed v strikes moment of inertia of the rod about A is , the
3
perfectly inelastic with ball B and finally initial angular acceleration of the rod will be :-
elastic collision takes place with ball 'C', then
final velocity of ball A is :
(1) v/2 (2) v
3g 2g
(3) v/4 (4) Zero (1) (2)
2ℓ 3ℓ
14. The velocity vectors of three particles of 3
(3) g ℓ (4) gℓ
masses 20 g, 30 g and 50 g are 10i^ , 10j^ and 2 2
10k^ respectively.The velocity vector of the 17. Three identical thin rods each of length ℓ and
centre of mass of the three particles is :- mass M are joined together to from a letter H.
The moment of inertia of the system about one
(1) 2î + 3^j + 5k^ of the sides of H is :-
(2) 10(î + ^j + k^) M ℓ2
(1)
3
(3) 20î + 30^j + 5k^
M ℓ2
(2)
(4) 2î + 30^j + 50k^ 4
2M ℓ2
15. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v (3)
3
strikes a block of mass M at rest and gets
4M ℓ2
embedded into it. The kinetic energy of the (4)
3
composite block will be :–
18. A stone of mass m tied to a string of length ℓ is
1 2 m rotating along a circular path with constant
(1) mv ×
2 m + M)
(
speed v. The torque on the stone is:-
1 2 M
(2) mv × (1) mvℓ
2 m + M)
(
mv
1 2 M + m)
(
(2) ℓ
(3) mv ×
2 M
(3) mv2ℓ
1 m
(4) M v2 ×
(4) zero
2 ( m + M)

ALLEN
19. The position of a particle is given by :
21. A ring is rolling on a surface without slipping.
r ⃗ = (î + 2^j − k^) and momentum What is the ratio of its translational to
rotational kinetic energies?
p ⃗ = (3î + 4^j − 2k^). The angular momentum
(1) 5 : 7 (2) 2 : 5
is perpendicular to :-
(3) 2 : 7 (4) 1 : 1
(1) x axis 22. The ratio of time taken by uniform solid sphere
and disc of the same mass and the same
(2) y axis diameter to roll down through the same
distance from rest on inclined plane is
(3) z axis −−
−
15
(1) 15/14 (2) √
14
(4) line at equal angles all the three axes
15)2
(
−−
−
14
20. A puck of mass m = 50.0 g is attached to a taut (3) (4) √
14)
(
2 15
cord passing throug a small hole in a
23. For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m
frictionless, horizontal surface (Fig.). The puck
should be :-
is initially orbiting with speed vi = 1.50 m/s in a
circle of radius ri = 0.30 m. The cord is then
slowly pulled from below, decreasing the
radius of the circle to r = 0.10m. The puck's
speed at the small radius is
(1) 9 kg (2) 15 kg
(3) 21 kg (4) 1 kg
24. A thin uniform circular disc of mass M and
radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular
to its plane with an angular velocity ω. Another
disc of same dimension but of mass 1/4 M is
(1) 2.25 m/s placed gently on the first disc co-axially. The
(2) 5.50 m/s angular velocity of the system is :-
(3) 4.50 m/s (1) 2ω/3 (2) 4ω/5
(4) 6.0 m/s (3) 3ω/4 (4) ω/3

ALLEN
25. Two bodies having same mass m each are 28. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re
placed at a distance r, gravitation force between above the Earth's surface, where Re is the
them is F. If 25 % mass of the first body is radius of Earth. How much minimum energy be
transfer to the second body and separation given to the body so that it may escape :–
become half then gravitational force between (1) mgRe
them is :-
(2) 2mgRe
15
(1) F mgR e
4 (3)
5
(2) F
mgR e
4F (4)
(3) 16
15
29. Which of the following affects the elasticity of
15
(4) F a substance :-
16
26. The mass of planet A is double that of planet B (1) hammering and anneling
and radius of planet A is half that of planet B. (2) change in temperature
A man jumps to a height of 3m on the surface
of A. What is the height of jump by the same (3) impurity in substance
person on the planet B. (4) all of the above
(1) 24 m 30. If two liquids of same masses but densities ρ1
3 and ρ2 respectively are mixed, then density of
(2) m mixture is given by :-
8
8 ρ1 + ρ2
(3) m (1) ρ=
3 2
(4) 12m ρ1 + ρ2
(2) ρ=
2ρ 1 ρ 2
27. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and
2ρ 1 ρ 2
7R from the Earth's surface. Then which of the (3) ρ=
ρ1 + ρ2
following statement is incorrect :–
ρ1ρ2
(R = radius of the Earth) (4) ρ=
ρ1 + ρ2
(1) Ratio of total energy of both is 5
31. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform
(2) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4 cross section. Ratio of the radius at entry and
(3) Ratio of potential energy of both is 4 exit end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of
velocities at entry and exit of liquid is
(4) Ratio of total energy of both is 4 and the ratio
of magnitude of potential to kinetic energy is 2 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
ALLEN
32. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If a SECTION-B
film is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2, its total This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
surface energy is about: can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(1) 5 × 10–2 J
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(2) 2.5 × 10–2 J questions will be considered for marking.
(3) 2 × 10–1 J 36. Two semicircular rings of linear mass densities
(4) 3 × 10–1 J λ and 3λ and of radius R each are joining to
33. form a complete ring. The distance of the
The rate of flow of water in a capillary tube of
centre of the mass of complete ring from its
length ℓ and radius r is v. The rate of flow in geometrical centre is
another capillary tube of length 2 ℓ and radius 2R R
(1) (2)
2r for same pressure difference would be 3π 3π
2R R
(1) 16v (2) 9v (3) 8v (4) 2v (3) (4)
π π
34. The weight of a body in water is one third of its 37. A small bar starts sliding down on inclined plane
weight in air. The density of the body is :- forming an angle θ with the horizontal. The
(1) 0.5 gm/cc (2) 1.5 gm/cm3 friction coefficient depends on the distance x
covered as μ = kx, where k is a constant. Find
(3) 2.5 gm/cm3 (4) 3.5 g/mc3
the distance covered by the bar till it stops.
35. A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a
tan θ
liquid of density 900 kg/m3. The force that (1)
k
acts on the base of the vessel due to the liquid 2 tan θ
is (g = 10 ms–2) :- (2)
k
3 tan θ
(3)
k
(4) None
38. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three
M
pieces. If two pieces each of mass move in
4
perpendicular directions with velocities 3 m/s
and 4 m/s, the velocity of third piece is :-
(1) 3.6 N (2) 7.2 N (1) 5 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 9.0 N (4) 14.4 N (3) 7 m/s (4) 10 m/s
ALLEN
39. A moving mass of 8 kg collides elastically with a 43. A disc is in the condition of pure rolling on the
stationary mass of 2 kg. If E be the initial kinetic horizontal surface. The velocity of centre of
energy of the moving mass then the kinetic mass is v0. If radius of disc is R then speed of
energy left with it after the collision will be :- R
point P is (OP = ) :-
3
(1) 0.80 E
(2) 0.64 E
(3) 0.36 E
(4) 0.08 E
–
40. If the angular momentum of any rotating body √ 7v0
(1)
3
increases by 200%, then the increase in its
v0
kinetic energy :- (2) 2
(1) 400% v0
(3) 3
(2) 800%
–
√ 5v0
(3) 200% (4)
3
(4) 100% 44. The energy required to move a satelite of mass m
41. The speed of a homogeneous solid sphere after from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R around the Earth
rolling down an inclined plane of vertical of mass M is :-
height h, from rest, without sliding is : GMm
(1)
−−
gh 2R
(1) √
GMm
−−−−−−− (2)
7 8R
(2) √( ) gh
5 GMm
(3)
−−−−−−− 12R
4
(3) √( ) gh GMm
3 (4)
R
−−−−−−−−
10 45. A satellite of mass m is revolving close to
(4) √( ) gh
7 surface of a planet of density d with time
period T. The value of universal gravitational
42. The maximum vertical distance through which
constant is given by :-
a astronaut can jump on the earth is 0.5 m
estimate the maximum vertical distance (1) 2d2Tπ (2) dT2π
through which he can jump on the moon :- 1 3π
(3) (4)
(1) 1.5 m (2) 6 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 3 m d 2T π dT 2
ALLEN
46. Match the type of elasticity involved :-
48. Water from a tap emerges vertically
downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 ms–1.
(i) Suspension fibre of
(a) Linear The cross sectional area of the tap is 10–4 m2.
galvanometer The cross sectional area of the stream 0.15 m
below the tap :-
(ii) Bending of beam (b) Shear
(1) 5.0 × 10–4 m2
(iii) cutting piece of paper (c) Bulk
(2) 1.0 × 10–5 m2
(iv) mechanical waves in fluid (d) Shear
(3) 5.0 × 10–5 m2
(1) (i) - a (ii) - b (iii) - b (iv) - c
(4) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
(2) (i) - b (ii) - a (iii) - d (iv) - c
49. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in
(3) (i) - a (ii) - b (iii) - d (iv) - c
the liquid of density d, keeping them vertical. If
(4) (i) - c (ii) - a (iii) - d (iv) - c the distance between the plates is x, surface
47. Mass M of a liquid of density ρ is filled in a tension of liquid T and angle of contact is θ,
light beaker and kept on a horizontal table as then rise of liquid between plates will be:-
shown in the figure. The height of the liquid in
T cos θ
the beaker is h. The beaker is wider on top than (1)
xd
at its base and the cross-sectional area of the
2T cos θ
base is A. Neglect the effect of atmospheric (2)
xdg
pressure. Now, choose the correct statement
2T
from the following. (3)
xdg cos θ
T cos θ
(4)
xdg
50. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid
(1) The pressure of liquid at the bottom of density 2 × 103 kg/m3 with the same uniform
surface is ρgh.
speed. The material density of sphere 1 and
(2) The normal reaction exerted by the table
sphere 2 are 8 × 103 kg/m3 and 11 × 103 kg/m3
on the beaker is ρghA.
respectively. The ratio of their radii is :-
(3) The pressure of the liquid at the bottom
−−
−
Mg 11 11
surface is . (1) (2) √
A 8 8
−
−
(4) The normal reaction exerted by the table 3 3
(3) (4) √
on the beaker is 2Mg. 2 2
ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : SYLLABUS-2
SECTION-A 55. Which of the following structures of a molecule
Attempt All 35 questions is expected to have three bond pair & one l.p.
of e–s ?
51. Elements upto atomic number 112 have been
discovered till now. What will be the electronic (1) Trigonal planar
configuration of the element possessing atomic (2) Square planar
number 108 ?
(3) Octahedral
(1) [Rn]5f14 6d6 7s2
(4) Pyramidal
(2) 6f14 7d8 7s2
56. The screening constant value for an element in
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d8 7s0 3s is identical with that an electron present in :-
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d8 6s2 (1) 3p–orbital
52. Octet rule is not valid for :- (2) 3d–orbital
(1) N2 (3) 4s–orbital
(2) SF6 (4) 4p–orbital
(3) CO2 57. Which of the following is always change due to
(4) ICl back bonding ?
53. Which of the following is not an alum : (1) Bond angle
(1) K2SO4 ⋅ Al2(SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O (2) Hybridisation of central atom
(2) CuSO4⋅ Al2(SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O
(3) Planarity
(3) K2SO4 ⋅ Cr2(SO4)3⋅ 24H2O
(4) Na2SO4⋅ Fe2(SO4)3⋅ 24H2O (4) Bond length
54. Identify the incorrect option? 58. Which of the following possess lowest bond
energy :-
(1) Tritium is radioactive and emits β– particle
(1) C – C
(2) Zn + NaOH (excess) → N a 2 ZnO 2 + H 2
(2) N – N
Cobalt
(3) CO + H 2 −−−→ C H 3 OH (3) H – H
(4) CO + H2 + N2 known as syn gas (4) O – O

ALLEN
59. The hardness of water is due to metals : 63. Dative bond present in :
(1) Ca+2 and Na+ (1) Between BF3 and NH3
(2) Mg+2 and K+
(2) Protonation of H2O
(3) Ca+2 and Mg+2
(4) Zn+2 and Ba+2 (3) N2H5+
60. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
B2H6? (4) All
(1) B2H6 is a colorless gas 64. On moving down the group (in II A) following
(2) B2H6 acts an Lewis acid property increases except one :-
(3) In B2H6, octet of both Boron is complete (1) Radius
(4) In B2H6 , B–Hb > B–Ht (Bond length order)
Hb = Bridge hydrogen
(2) Solubility of hydroxide
Ht = Terminal Hydrogen
(3) Solubility of sulphate
61. Which of the following order not correct for
IP? (4) Thermal stability of carbonate
(1) Li < B < F
65. Select incorrect statements for borax :-
(2) Mg < Si < Ar
(1) On heating it produces a glassy solid of
(3) F– > Cl– > F NaBO2 and B2O3
(4) N < Ne < Ne+ (2) It's aqueous solution is alkaline in nature
62. Select the correct option?
(3) It aqueous solution produces boric acid
(1) P C l 3 + H 2O → H 3P O 2
when treated with H2SO4
(2, P–OH bonds are present) (4) Total number of sp3 hybridised atoms are 2
(2) SF 6 + H 2 O → H 2 SO 4
66. Which pair contain molecules with zero dipole
(2, S–OH bonds are present) moment :-
(3) CC l 4 + H 2 O → H 2 C O 3
(1) SF4
(2, C–OH bonds are present) (2) CℓF3
(4) P C l 5 + H 2O → H 3P O 4
(3) SiF4
(3, P–OH bonds are present) (4) PF3Cℓ2
ALLEN
67. The process required absorption of energy is :- 70. Which of the following unit can work as chain
controlling unit during synthesis of silicone ?
(1) N → N–
(1) RMgCl
(2) F → F– (2) R3SiCl
(3) R2SiCl2
(3) Cl → Cl–
(4) RSiCl3
(4) H → H– 71. Correct order of BP is :-
(1) H2 > H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2
68. The correct order of viscosity of ethanol, glycol
& glycerol is :- (2) H2O2 > H2 > D2O > H2O > D2
(1) Ethanol > glycol > glycerol (3) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 > H2
(4) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > H2 > D2
(2) Ethanol > glycerol > glycol
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(3) Glycol > ethanol > glycerol answer using the codes given below
List-I List-II
(4) Glycerol > glycol > ethanol Breathing
(a) Liquid Na metal (i) apparatus
69. Match the column

in submarine
Column-I
Column-II
Potassium In petrolium
(Element) (Color in Bunsen Flame) (b) (ii)

stearate refining
a Li P Lilac / violet Coolant in nuclear
(c) NaOH (iii)

reactors
b K Q Apple green
(d) KO2 (iv) Soft soap
c Cs R Crimson red

d Ba S Blue a b c d
(1) a → P, b → Q, c → R, d → S (1) iii iv i ii
(2) a → Q, b → R, c → P, d → S (2) iii i iv ii
(3) a → R, b → P, c → S, d → Q (3) iii iv ii i
(4) a → S, b → R, c → Q, d → P (4) iv iii ii i

ALLEN
73. Which of the following is incorrect order of 77. Identify the not correct option?
increasing inter molecular attraction ?
(1) B2H6 + NH3 → Unsymmetrical cleavage
(1) H2 < D2 < T2
(2) H3BO3 on heating red hot it gives B2O3
(2) N2 < P4 < S8
(3) Cr+3 can gives borax bead test
(3) Br2 < I–Cl
(4) B3N3H6 is iso electronic with C6H6 and
(4) H2 < He both are polar molecule
74. Which of the following is not incorrect? 78. The increasing order of acidic nature of Li2O,
BeO, B2O3 :-
(1) BF3 < BF4– (B-F bond length)
(1) Li2O > BeO < B2O3
(2) N(SiH3)3 < N(CH3)3 (Lewis basic strength)
(2) Li2O < BeO < B2O3
(3) (1) & (2) both are correct
(3) Li2O < BeO > B2O3
(4) CHF3 > CHCl3 (Acidic strength)
(4) Li2O > BeO > B2O3
75. Which of the following statement is correct
about CsBr3 : 79. In which of the following, change in
(1) It is a covalent compound hybridization is taking place ?
(a) BF3 + NH3 ⇒ H3N → BF3
(2) It contains Cs+3 and ions

(b) NH3 + H+ ⇒ NH4+
(3) It contains Cs+ and ions (c) SbF5 + F– ⇒ [SbF6]–
(4) It contains Cs+3 and Br– ions (d) SiF4 + 2F– ⇒ [SiF6]–2
76. Which of the following is correct order? Correct answer is :-

(1) SO2 > SO3 (Bond length) (1) a, b
(2) NH3 > NH4+ (Bond angle) (2) a, c
(3) B2H4 < B2F4 (B–B Bond length) (3) a, c, d
(4) Cl2 > Br2 (Bond length) (4) Only a
ALLEN
80. Match the column (for B2H6) :- 83.

Column-I Column-II
Maximum atom
What is A & B?
(a) (P) 0
in same plane
(1) Slaked lime, Quick lime
3C-4 e–
(b) (Q) 2
bridge bonds (2) Slaked lime, lime water
Maximum replaceable
(c) (R) 6
H-atoms (3) Quick lime, slaked lime
To complete the octet
(d) (S) 4 (4) Fusion mixture

of 1'B' atom e– required
+ H2O Condensation
(1) a-S, b-P, c-Q, d-R 84. R 2 SiC l 2 −−−→ R 2 Si(OH )2 −−−−−−−−→ Product (A)
(2) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q Compound (A) is :
(3) a-R, b-S, c-P, d-Q (1) a linear silicone
(4) a-P, b-Q, c-R, d-S
81. Which option is not correct? (2) a chlorosilane
(1) NaHCO3 used in fire extinguishers
(3) a linear silane
(2) Li +
aq)
(
> Na +
aq)
(
> K +
aq)
(
(Hydrated radius)
(4) a network silane
(3) Be + H2 → BeH2
85. Which of the following is incorrect?
(4) Li with dry air gives Li3N & Li2O
(1) NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 (Solubility order)
82. In which of the following species carbon-
oxygen bond is weakest:- (2) Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 (Thermal
(1) CO3 –2
Stability order)
(2) CO2
(3) LiF > MgF2 > AlF3 (Lattice energy order)
(3) CO
(4) CH3COO– (4) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI (Polarisation order)
ALLEN
SECTION-B 90. Which shows incorrect order for ΔHeg?
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) Cl > F > Br > I
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (2) Cl > F > Si > C
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) Cl > S > F > O
questions will be considered for marking. (4) S > O > N > Ne
86. Pick incorrect option for acidic strength? 91. Identify the correct option?
(1) HNO3 > H3PO4 > H3AsO4 (1) LiNO3 on heating gives two paramagnetic
(2) H2SO3 < H2SO4 gases
(3) K2O < B2O3 < Cl2O7 (2) NaHCO3 on heating gives diamagnetic &
paramagnetic gases
(4) BeO < MgO < CaO
(3) Na2CO3 on heating gives a residue and a
87. Which of the following have same bond order :-
diamagnetic gas
I. CO
II. CN–
(4) K2SO4 on heating a gas in which atleast
III. N2–
one pπ-pπ bond is present
IV. NO+ 92. Match the column.
(1) I, II, III Column-I Column-II
(2) I, II, IV (i) Hydrogen peroxide (a) Used in cement
(3) I, III, IV Calcium sulphate Used for water
(ii) (b)
(4) II, III, IV hemihydrate softening
88. On heating sodium metal in the current of dry (iii) Quick lime (c) Antiseptic
ammonia leads to the formation of which gas?
(iv) Calgon (d) Plaster of paris
(1) NaNH2

(2) NaN3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) NH3
(1) d c a b
(4) H2
(2) c d a b
89. Which one is most ionic :-
(1) PCl3 (2) PCl5 (3) c d b a
(3) BiCl5 (4) BiF5 (4) d c b c

ALLEN
93. The main factor responsible for weak lewis 98. The most stable structural representation of
acidic nature of BF3 is :- XeO2F2 molecule according to VSEPR theory
(1) Large electronegativity of F is :-
(2) 3C-2e– bond in BF3
(1)
(3) pπ – dπ back boding in B – F
(4) pπ – pπ back bond in BF3
94. Choose the compound from each of the (2)
following pairs that has the more solubility in
water :-
(a) BeSO4, BaSO4

(3)
(b) NaCl, AgI
(c) AgCl, AgI
(1) BeSO4, AgI, AgI
(4)
(2) BeSO4, NaCl, AgCl
(3) BaSO4, NaCl, AgCl 99. Which option is correct?
(4) BaSO4, AgI, AgI (1) In fullerene dangling bond is present
95. In given elements which has maximum ΔHeg(–ve) (2) In graphite between layers Vander Waal
in their respective group? Force is present
(1) S (2) F (3) Thermodynamically graphite is more
(3) N (4) He stable than diamond
96. In which compound hydrogen is electronegative ? (4) Option (2) & (3) both are correct
(1) CaH2
100. Noble gases are water insoluble, however their
(2) CH4
solubility in water increases down the group
(3) HCl
due to increases in :
(4) All
97. Which of the following is planar in monomer (1) dipole-dipole attraction
as well as in dimer form ? (2) dipole-induced dipole attraction
(1) AlCl3 (2) ICl3 (3) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole attraction
(3) BH3 (4) All (4) None of these
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : SYLLABUS-2
SECTION-A 105. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma :-
Attempt All 35 questions (1) Having thick walls
101. Pneumatophores are useful in (2) Having a wide lumen
(1) respiration (3) Being meristematic
(2) transpiration (4) Retaining protoplasm at maturity
(3) guttation 106. Labeling the given figure :
(4) protein synthesis
102. In Banana, Pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the
lateral branches originate from the basal and
underground portion of main stem and then
come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy
shoots. These branches are called:
(1) Runner (1) P - stigma, Q - style
(2) Sucker (2) P - anther, Q - filament
(3) Napiform (3) P - anther, Q - style
(4) Phylloclade (4) P - stigma, Q - filament
103. Find out the wrongly match pair ?
107. Stilt roots grow from
(1) Bulb- Ginger
(1) lower internodes
(2) Stolon- Jasmine
(2) lower nodes
(3) Phylloclade- Opuntia
(3) upper nodes
(4) Cladode- Ruscus
(4) upper internodes
104. Xylem element which have highly thickened
walls and obliterated central lumen is :- 108. Spadix is a type of :-
(1) Tracheid (1) Aestivation
(2) Vessel (2) Placentation
(3) Xylem parenchyma (3) Fruit
(4) Xylem fibre (4) Inflorescence
ALLEN
109. Identify the given transverse sections of plant 112. Some plants are mentioned below in the box:
part and suggest the nature of xylem and order
of development of xylem in vascular bundles of Canna, Cassia, Bean, Gulmohar,
the respective sections :- Pea, Mustard, Chilli and Datura

How many of the plants possess flowers with
radial symmetry?
(1) Seven
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Eight
113. The companion cells are associated with :-
(1) Vessels

Transverse section-A Transverse section-B (2) Vascular cambium
Nature Nature
of
Order of
of
Order of (3) Sieve tube elements
Development Development
xylem xylem (4) Endodermis
Monocot Dicot
(1)
Root
Exarch Centripetal
Root
Exarch Centripetal 114. Folaceous stipule found in :-
(2)
Dicot
Exarch Centripetal
Monocot
Exarch Centripetal
(1) Garden pea
stem stem
Dicot Monocot
(2) Wild pea
(3) Endarch Centrifugal Endarch Centrifugal
stem stem (3) Sweet pea
Monocot Dicot
(4)
stem
Endarch Centrifugal
stem
Endarch Centrifugal (4) All of these
110. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of :- 115. Identify "X" , "Y" and "Z" in given diagram ?
(1) Eucalyptus (2) Maize
(3) Mustard (4) Soybean
111. In dicot leaves, size of vascular bundles are
dependent on the :-
(1) Size of the leaves (1) X-Standard, Y-Wings, Z-Keel
(2) Size of the mesophyll cells (2) X-Wing, Y-Keel, Z-Standard
(3) Size of the veins (3) X-Keel, Y-Wings, Z-Standard
(4) Size of the bundle sheath cells (4) X-Keel, Y-Standard , Z-Wing
ALLEN
116. Which type of vascular bundle is found in 120. In drupe of coconut, the mesocarp is :-
Dicot leaf :- (1) Fleshy
(1) Conjoint collateral, open (2) Fibrous
(3) Stony
(2) Conjoint collateral, closed
(4) Watery
(3) Radial 121. Match the column-I with column-II :-
(4) Concentric Column-I Column-II
117. Find out incorrect match pair :- A Drupe fruit i Apple

(1) C1+2+(2) - Descending imbricate B Berry fruit ii Cucumber
(2) A(9)+1 - Diadelphous condition C Pome fruit iii Mango
(3) K2+2 - Polysepalous D Pepo fruit iv Tomato
(4) - Polyadelphous condition (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
118. Read the following statements and find out the (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
incorrect statement.
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(1) The commercial cork is obtained from pine
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) Main function of lenticel is gaseous exchange
122. Oblique ovary with swollen placenta is
(3) Vessels are found in most of angiosperms charecteristics of -
and few gymnosperm
(1) Malvaceae
(4) Lateral roots arise from pericycle
(2) Solanaceae
119. Position of xylem in the vascular bundle of
dicot leaf is towards :- (3) Fabaceae
(4) Lilliaceae
(1) Towards adaxial side
123. The youngest layer of secondary xylem lies :-
(2) Towards abaxial side (1) Between pith and primary xylem
(2) Just outside the vascular cambium
(3) Towards dorsal side
(3) Just inside the vascular cambium
(4) Towards lower side (4) Just inside the cork cambium

ALLEN
124. What will be the position of oldest layer of 128. Given figure represents which type of flower
secondary xylem when secondary growth occurs ? development ?
(1) Just inside the vascular cambium
(2) Just outside the vascular cambium
(3) Just inside the primary xylem
(4) Just outside the primary xylem
(1) Acropetal
125. "Both sieve tube elements and companion cell
are consider as sister cells" because of? (2) Basipetal
(1) Companion cell helps in regulation of (3) Centripetal
metabolic activity of sieve tube element. (4) All of these
(2) Both are originate from single mother cell. 129. Apical meristems and intercalary meristems are :-
(3) Companion cell helps in maintaining the (1) Primary and secondary meristems respectively.
pressure gradient in sieve tube element.
(2) Secondary and primary meristems respectively.
(4) Companion cell and sieve tube element are
connected by pit fields. (3) Primary meristems
126. Mesocarp is edible in the fruit of ? (4) Secondary meristems
(1) Coconut 130. How many shoot apical meristems are likely
(2) Mango to be present in a twig of a plant possesssing
25 branches and 270 leaves?
(3) Litchi
(1) 26
(4) Apple
(2) 1
127. A Flower of plant having following characters :-
Papilionaceous corolla, stamen-10, diadelphous (3) 25
condition, gynoecium-monocarpellary unilocular (4) 295
ovary with many ovules. The plant belongs to 131. Albuminous cells are usually seen associated
which family :- with:-
(1) Fabaceae (1) Fibres
(2) Solanaceae (2) Tracheids
(3) Liliaceae (3) Vessels
(4) Malvaceae (4) Sieve cells
ALLEN
132. Given below is the diagram of a typical 134. Ground tissue system consisting of general
cortex and endodermis, is derived from :-
structure of monocotyledonous seeds. In which
(1) Periblem
one of the options all the five parts A, B, C, D
and E are correct ? (2) Plerome
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Dermatogen
135.
(1) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo,
C - Scutellum, D - Coleorrhiza,
E - Coleoptile
(2) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm,
Given above is the diagram of a typical leaf. In
C - Scutellum, D - Coleoptile,
which of the following all the four parts
E - Coleorrhiza labelled as A, B C and D are correctly
(3) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo,
identified :-
C - Scutellum, D - Coleoptile,
A B C D
E - Coleorrhiza Axillary Leaf
(1) Lamina Stipule
(4) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm,
bud base
C - Scutellum, D - Coleorrhiza,
Axillary Leaf
E - Coleoptile (2) Lamina Sepal
bud base
133. Tracheids are found in
Axillary
(1) Pteridophytes (3) Lamina Stipule Pedicel
bud
(2) Gymnosperms
Axillary Leaf
(3) Angiosperms (4) Leaflet Stipule
bud bas
(4) All of the above
ALLEN
SECTION-B 139. Cortex is the region found between :-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) Epidermis and stele
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(2) Endodermis and pith
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) Epidermis and Endodermis
questions will be considered for marking. (4) Endodermis and vascular bundle
136. Which of the following is responsible for water 140. Vegetative propagation in Colocasia occurs by :-
conduction in angiosperm (1) Tuber
(1) sieve cells (2) sieve tubes (2) Sucker
(3) albuminous cells (4) vessels (3) Corm
137. Which of the following is a common character among
(4) Leaf
xylem, phloem, pith and pericycle of dicot stems ?
141. Pneumatophores occur in ?
(1) Made up of collenchyma
(1) Halophytes
(2) Included in stelar system
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Part of vascular tissue system
(3) Carnivorous plants
(4) Produced by procambium
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
138. Match the column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II 142. In dicot root, the vascular cambium is :-
A Scar on the
1 Scutellum
seed coat
(1) completely primary in origin
(2) completely secondary in origin
B Proteinous
layer 2 Coleoptile
(3) primary as well as secondary in origin
C Shield shaped
3 Hilum
cotyledon (4) derived from endodermis
D Sheath
plumule
on
4 Aleurone layer 143. Which one is correct ?
(1) Collenchyma is a universal tissue
E Sheath
radicle
on
5 Coleorrhiza
(2) Sclerenchyma perform storage of food mainly
(1) A-5 B-2 C-1 D-4 E-3
(3) Parenchyma and sclerenchyma are
(2) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-5 E-2 heterogenous tissue
(3) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-5 E-2 (4) Parenchyma, collenchyma and
(4) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 E-5 sclerenchyma are simple tissue
ALLEN
144. During vascularisation metaxylem is derived 148. Position of xylem and phloem in leaf
from :- respectively:-
(1) Procambium (1) Abaxial & Adaxial
(2) Promeristem
(2) Adaxial & Abaxial
(3) Primary xylem
(4) Secondary xylem (3) Both adaxial
145. Vascular bundle which is shown in given
diagram is found in :- (4) Both Abaxial
149. Ray florets have :-
(1) Superior ovary
(2) Inferior ovary

(1) Roots
(3) Hypogynous ovary
(2) Sunflower stem
(3) Maize stem (4) Half inferior ovary
(4) Maize leaf
150. What is true for the (A) and (B) type of
146. Which of the following is not correct about placentation given below :-
maize stem ?
(1) Phloem parenchyma is absent
(2) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
(3) Ground tissue is absent
Water containing cavities are present with (1) A = Found in sunflower,
(4)
in the vascular bundles B = Found in pea
147. In dicot root during secondary growth vascular (2) A = Found in marigold,
cambium develop from -

B = Found in Dianthus and Primrose
(1) Pericycle and endoderm is
(3) A = Found in pea,
(2) Conjuctive tissue and endodermis B = Found in sunflower

(3) Interfascicular cambium (4) A = Found in Dianthus and Primrose,
(4) Pericycle and conjuctive tissue B = Found in marigold

ALLEN
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : SYLLABUS-2
SECTION-A 156. Gross calorific value of carbohydrate and lipid
Attempt All 35 questions respectively is (per gram) :-
151. If pancreas is removed, the compound which (1) 4.1 Kcal and 9.45 Kcal
remain undigested is
(2) 4.1 Kcal and 5.65 Kcal
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats
(3) Proteins (4) Nucleic acids (3) 4.1 Kcal and 6.65 Kcal
152. Pepsinogen & HCl is secreted by
(4) 9.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal
(1) Chief cells & Oxyntic cells respectively
157. Vasa recta is :-
(2) Parietal cells & Oxyntic cells respectively
(1) Artery parallel to Henle's loop
(3) Gastric glands & Parietal cells respectively
(2) Arteriole parallel to Henle's loop
(4) Oxyntic cells & Chief cells respectively
(3) Capillary parallel to Henle's loop
153. All digestive enzymes are :-
(4) Vein parallel to Henle's loop
(1) Hydrolytic (2) Proteolytic
158. Glomerular filtrate contains glucose in comparison
(3) Lipolytic (4) Amylolytic to plasma
154. The food mixes throughly with the acidic gastric (1) More
juice of the stomach by the churning movements
(2) Same
of its muscular wall and is called the :-
(3) Less
(1) Bolus
(4) Nil
(2) Chyle
159. Counter current mechanism helps in
(3) Chyme
concentration of urine, acts between loop of
(4) Chylomicron Henle and vasa recta. It is not applicable to :-
155. The disorder in which liver is affected, skin and
(1) Juxta medullary nephorn
eyes turn yellow due to the deposition of bile
pigment : (2) Cortical nephron
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation (3) 15% of nephrons
(3) Jaundice (4) Indigestion (4) Both (1) and (2)
ALLEN
160. Mechanism act as a check on Renin- 164. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even
angiotensin mechanism of regulation of kidney after a forcible expiration is :-
function is :- (1) Expiratory reserve volume
(1) JGA mechanism (2) Expiratory capacity
(3) Residual volume
(2) ADH feedback mechanism
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) ANF mechanism 165. What would be happen when intra-pulmonary
pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure ?
(4) Counter current mechanism
(1) Expiration
161. The opening of urinary bladder is guarded by (2) Inspiration
two urethral sphincter, which one is
involuntary in function (3) Forceful expiration
(1) Internal sphincter (4) Breathing stops
(2) External sphincter 166. Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with
reduced surface area in heavy smokers. The
(3) Both the sphincters
condition is called :-
(4) Both the sphincters are voluntary
(1) Silicosis
162. If amount of water used for elimination of NH3,
(2) Emphysema
urea and uric acid is X, Y and Z respectively,
then which is correct (3) Asthma
(1) X > Y > Z (4) Bronchitis
(2) X > Z > Y 167. What will be values of pO2 and pCO2
(3) X < Y < Z respectively in the pulmonary vein ?
(4) Y > Z > X (1) 95 & 40 mm Hg (2) 40 & 45 mm Hg

163. Trachea divides into right and left primary (3) 95 & 45 mm Hg (4) 45 & 45 mm Hg
bronchi at _____ th thoracic vertabrae :- 168. Adam’s apple represents
(1) 3 (1) Arytenoid cartilage of Larynx
(2) 4 (2) Cricoid cartilage of Larynx
(3) 5 (3) Thyroid cartilage of Larynx
(4) 7 (4) All of the above
ALLEN
3
169. Number of erythrocytes per mm of human 173. Which of the following artery is not found in
blood is frog?
(1) 4 million (1) Renal artery
(2) 5 million (2) Carotid artery
(3) 8 million (3) Phrenic artery

(4) 0.5 million (4) Pulmonary artery
170. Which system drains excess tissue fluid from 174. In ____, no enough O2 is reaching to heart
the extracellular spaces back into the blood ? muscle, & chest pain occured.
(1) Blood circulatory system (1) Heart attack
(2) Heart failure
(2) Lymphatic system
(3) Angina
(3) Portal system (4) Cardiac arrest
175. Find out the correct match from the following
(4) Conducting system table :-
171. Which of the following represents hepatic Site of
Hormone Function
portal system ? Secretion
(1) Liver → Hepatic vein → Heart Help in
1 Gastrin Duodenum secretion of
(2) Intestine → Hepatic vein → Heart HCO3–
(3) Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver stimulate
gastric
2 Enterogastrone Stomach
(4) Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Heart juices
secretion
172. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve of heart is cut,
the heart beat will :- Stimulate
contraction
(1) Decrease 3 CCK Duodenum
of Gall
(2) Increase bladder
(3) Remain normal Inhibit
4 Pancreozymin Stomach
(4) Stop gastric juice

ALLEN
176. Protein deficiency disease, commonly affect 178. An artificial pacemaker is implanted subcutaneous
infants and children between 1 to 3 year of age and connected to the heart in patients :-
is :- Having 90% blockage in the three main
(1)
(1) Marasmus coronary arteries
(2) Rickets (2) Having a very high blood pressure
(3) Scurvy (3) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(4) Kwashiorkar (4) Suffering from arteriosclerosis
177. Identify A to F in given diagram :- 179. What is the osmolarity (in mosmol L–1) in the
outer cortex and inner medulla region ?
(1) 300 and 900 respectively
180. The P O2 in inspired air and P CO2 in alveolar air
are:-
(1) 159 mm of Hg, 104 mm of Hg
Choose the correct option. (2) 104 mm of Hg, 159 mm of Hg
(1) A-Lungs, B-Body parts,
C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery,

E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein,

181. Exchange of bicarbonates and chloride ions
E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava between RBC and plasma is called:-
(1) Chloride shift.
E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta (2) Bohr's effect.
(4) A-Body parts, B-Lungs,

(3) Haldane's effect.
E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta (4) Intra cellular respiration.

ALLEN
182. Which of the following statement is not true ? 184. In a path given below of blood circulation,
choose the right option for A, B, C, D and E
(1) Haemoglobin has more affinity for CO than O2
(2) 77% CO2 is transported by plasma.
(3) 77% O2 is transported by plasma.
(4) P O2 in alveoli is 104 mm of Hg.
183. Match the item in column I (vitamins)with

those in column II (deficiency diseases)

A B C D E
Column-I
Column-II
Bicuspid
Pulmonary
Pulmonary
Tricuspid
(1) Capillary
valve vein artery valve
Vitamins (Deficiency Diseases)
Tricuspid
Pulmonary
Pulmonary
Bicuspid
(2) Capillary
1 K A Beri-beri valve artery vein valve
Tricuspid
Pulmonary
Pulmonary
Bicuspid
Haemorrhagic
(3) Capillary
2 D B valve vein artery valve
disease Bicuspid
Pulmonary
Pulmonary
Tricuspid
(4) Capillary
valve artery vein valve
Night
3 B1 C
blindness
185. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of
4 A D Rickets the tricuspid valve of the human heart is

Which one of the following is the correct partially non-functional, what will be the
matching of all the four vitamins. immediate effect ?
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
(1) 1-C 2-B 3-D 4-A artery will be reduced
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
(2) 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-C
slowed down
(3) 1-A 2-B 3-D 4-C (3) The 'pacemaker' will stop working
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the
(4) 1-C 2-A 3-D 4-B left atrium

ALLEN
SECTION-B 190. About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC. The
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate remaining 3% is
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of (1) dissolved in plasma and transported
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (2) remains in lungs
questions will be considered for marking.
(3) attached to cell membranes
186. Inactive trypsinogen is converted into active
trypsin by the action of :- (4) inside the mitochondria
(1) Enterokinase (2) HCl 191. Pneumotaxic centre is situated in :-
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Bile (1) Medulla
187. Brunner's glands are found in – (2) Pons
(1) Muscularis mucosa of Duodenum (3) Cerebrum
(2) Submucosa of Duodenum (4) Hypothalamus
(3) Mucosa of Oesophagus 192. The small oval depression found on inter atrial
(4) Mucosa of Ileum. septum in adult human is termed as:-
188. Maximum reabsorption of useful substances (1) Foramen ovale
from glomerular filtrate occurs in (2) Fossa ovalis
(1) Collecting tube (3) Foramen of monro
(2) Loop of Henle (4) Foramen of megnum
193. The Rh-incompatiblity could be fatal to the
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
foetus and could cause :-
(4) Distal convoluted tubule (1) Erythroblastosis foetalis
189. The substance which is completely reabsorbed (2) Hyper pigmentation
from the filtrate in the renal tubule under (3) Cardiac arrest
normal condition is :
(4) Thrombocytopenia
(1) Urea
194. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
(2) Salt + H2O help in erythropoiesis ?
(3) Glucose (1) Chief cells (2) Mucous cells
(4) Ammonia + Glucose (3) Goblet cells (4) Parietal cells
ALLEN
195. Ileum is characterised by the presence of :- 198. Given figure is of longitudinal section of
(1) Brunner’s glands and villi kidney. Identify the parts labelled as A to D
and select the correct option :-
(2) Brunner’s gland and peyer’s patches
(3) Peyer’s patches and villi
(4) Brunner’s gland and Taeniae coli
196. The pulse rate and stroke volume of a person
whose end systolic volume is 50 ml, end (1) A-Cortex, B-Calyx, C-Renal column, D-Ureter
diastolic volume is 100 ml and cardiac output A-Renal pyramid, B-Cortex, C-Renal column,
is 6 litre/minute will be respectively :- (2)
D-Ureter
(1) 72/minute, 50 ml (3) A-Medulla, B-Cortex, C-Renal capsule, D-Urethra
(2) 60/minute, 70 ml (4) A-Calyx, B-Cortex, C-Renal pelvis, D-Urethra
(3) 120/minute, 50 ml 199. Match the column :-
(4) 60/minute, 60 ml Column-I Column-II
197. The outline of principal event of urination is Superior
Carries deoxygenated
a. p.
Vena Cava blood to lungs
given below in disordered manner.
Inferior
Carries oxygenated
(I) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary b. q.

Vena Cava blood from lungs
bladder send signal to the CNS.
Brings deoxygenated
Pulmonary
(II) The bladder fills with urine and becomes c. r. blood from lower parts
Artery
of body to right atrium
distended.
Brings deoxygenated
(III) Micturition
Pulmonary
d. t. blood from upper parts
Vein
IV) CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate of body into right atrium
the contraction smooth muscles of bladder and (1) a-q, b-t, c-r, d-p (2) a-t, b-p, c-q, d-r
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
(3) a-t, b-r, c-p, d-q (4) a-t, b-p, c-r, d-q
The correct order of step for urination is :- 200. Valves of heart which remain contect with
(1) I → II → III → IV oxygenated blood are :-
(a) Bicuspid valve (b) Tricuspid valve
(2) IV → III → II → I (c) Pulmonary SLV (d) Aortic SLV

(3) II → I → IV → III (1) Both a and b (2) Both c and d
(4) III → II → I → IV (3) Both a and d (4) Both b and c
PROPOSED MAJOR TEST PLAN (NEET - UG PATTERN)
SESSION (2021-2022)
MNBJ
Test
Date Day Syllabus Covered Test Time
No.
1 30/11/2021 Tuesday SYLLABUS 1 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
2 03/12/2021 Friday SYLLABUS 2 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
3 06/12/2021 Monday SYLLABUS 3 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
4 11/12/2021 Saturday FULL SYLLABUS 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
5 16/12/2021 Thursday SYLLABUS 1 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
6 19/12/2021 Sunday SYLLABUS 2 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
7 22/12/2021 Wednesday SYLLABUS 3 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
8 24/12/2021 Friday FULL SYLLABUS 2:00 PM TO 5:00 PM
PROPOSED SYLLABUS 1 to 3 (SESSION 2021-2022)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY
Diversity in the living world ,Plant Kingdom,

Basic Mathematics used in Physics & Vectors , Physical Mole Concept ,Atomic Structure , Chemical Equilibrium ,
Biomolecules , Cell Biology , Cell Division , Animal
SYLLABUS 1 World, Units and Dimensions , Kinematics , Newton's Ionic Equilibrium , Chemical Thermodynamics , Redox
Kingdom , Animal Tissues , Cockroach , Earthworm And
laws of motion & Friction Reaction
Frog
Plant Morphology, Plant Anatomy, Digestion and

Work, Energy & Power , Circular Motion , Center of
Periodic Table , Chemical Bonding , s-Block , p-Block , Absorption, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body
SYLLABUS 2 Mass & Collisions , Rotational Motion , Gravitation , -
Hydrogen and its Compound Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their
Properties of Matter & Fluid Mechanics
Elimination
Plant Physiology, Neural Control and Coordination, eye

Thermal physics , Oscillations , Wave motion & Classification and Nomenclature , Isomerism ,GOC ,
SYLLABUS 3 & ear, Chemical Coordination and Regulation, Muscles,
Doppler's Effect Hydrocarbons , Environmental chemistry
Skeletal system
Read carefully the following instructions :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Page 32/32 English / 03122021

Classroom Contact Programme: Pre-Medical: Nurture Course Phase - MNBJ

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Test Pattern

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

(1) 10 cm/s, 10 cm/s2 (3) In inverse ratio of masses of particles

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

69. Match the column

(Element) (Color in Bunsen Flame) (b) (ii)

(c) NaOH (iii)

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

(a) BF3 + NH3 ⇒ H3N → BF3

(2) It contains Cs+3 and ions

(3) It contains Cs+ and ions (c) SbF5 + F– ⇒ [SbF6]–

(4) It contains Cs+3 and Br– ions (d) SiF4 + 2F– ⇒ [SiF6]–2

76. Which of the following is correct order? Correct answer is :-

To complete the octet

(d) (S) 4 (4) Fusion mixture

(3) BiCl5 (4) BiF5 (4) d c b c

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

(a) BeSO4, BaSO4

the respective sections :- Pea, Mustard, Chilli and Datura

(4) Concentric Column-I Column-II

117. Find out incorrect match pair :- A Drupe fruit i Apple

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(1) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo,

(2) Inferior ovary

cambium develop from -

(2) Conjuctive tissue and endodermis B = Found in sunflower

(4) Pericycle and conjuctive tissue B = Found in marigold

(1) Internal sphincter (4) Breathing stops

(4) Y > Z > X (1) 95 & 40 mm Hg (2) 40 & 45 mm Hg

(2) 5 million (2) Carotid artery

(3) 8 million (3) Phrenic artery

C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery,

C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein,

E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta (2) Bohr's effect.

(4) A-Body parts, B-Lungs,

E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta (4) Intra cellular respiration.

(2) 77% CO2 is transported by plasma.

(3) 77% O2 is transported by plasma.

(4) P O2 in alveoli is 104 mm of Hg.

183. Match the item in column I (vitamins)with

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

(I) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary b. q.

d. t. blood from upper parts

(a) Bicuspid valve (b) Tricuspid valve

(2) IV → III → II → I (c) Pulmonary SLV (d) Aortic SLV

PROPOSED SYLLABUS 1 to 3 (SESSION 2021-2022)

Diversity in the living world ,Plant Kingdom,

Plant Morphology, Plant Anatomy, Digestion and

Plant Physiology, Neural Control and Coordination, eye

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNBJ 1001CMD621921012

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