Question Report 79981092 709

Test Pattern
(0000CMD300121001) )////CMD3//121//1)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
COMMON TEST
(Academic Session : 2021- 2022) 12-09-2021
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE PHASE :MNA, MNAS, MNPS, MNQS, MNR'S, MNRS(L), N-I & II(A) & MNBJ
This Booklet contains 32 pages.

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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
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English / 12092021 Page 1/32
ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : BASIC MATHS, VECTOR, KINEMATICS, NLM & FRICTION.
SECTION-A 3. In figure m1 = 4kg, m2 = 2 kg and F = 10 N.
Attempt All 35 questions The breaking strength of the string connected
to masses is 25 N. The system is set to motion.
1. The coordinates of a moving particle at any
time 't' are given by x = α t 3 and y = β t 3 .
The speed of the particle at time 't' is given
by :-
−−−−−−
(1) √ α2 + β2
(2)
−−−−
3t√α 2 β 2
(1) The magnitude of acceleration of both
masses is 5 m/s2
−−−−−− (2) The magnitude of acceleration of both
(3) 3t 2 √α 2 + β 2
masses is 10 m/s2
−−−−−−
(3) The tension in the string is 30 N
2√ 2 2
(4) t α + β
(4) The string will break
4. Find the area under the shaded region for curve
2. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with
y = 3x2 :-
the horizontal. Elevation angle of projection
at its highest point as seen from the point of
projection is.
–
1 √3
(1) tan −
( )
2
(1) 80 (2) 26 (3) 20 (4) 40
(2) 45° 5. The initial velocity of a particle is 2 m/s (at t = 0)
and acceleration is given by a = 2(t – 1). The
(3) 60° velocity of particle at t = 10 sec is :-
1 (1) 78 m/s (2) 80 m/s
1
(4) tan −
( )
2 (3) 82 m/s (4) 92 m/s
Nurture Course Phase - MNA, MNAS, MNPS, MNQS, MNR'S, MNRS(L), N-I & II(A) & MNBJ 0000CMD300121001
Page 2/32 Space for Rough Work English / 12092021
ALLEN
2
6. 9. If ∣∣A ⃗
+ B ⃗ ∣∣ = A2 + B 2, then
(1) A⃗ & B ⃗ must be parallel and in the same

direction
Equation of given diagram can be :-
(2) A⃗ & B ⃗ must be parallel and in opposite
(1) x = ky2, k<0
directions
(2) x = ky2, k > 0
2
(3) either A or B must be zero
⃗ ⃗
(3) y = kx , k < 0
(4) y = kx2, k > 0 (4) the angle between A & B must be 90° ⃗ ⃗
7. A force of 6 N and another of 8 N can be 10. If (3a ^ + 2^b) and (5a^ − 7^b) are perpendicular
applied to produce the effect of a single force to each other, find the angle between a and b. ^
^
equal to :- 1
1
(1) cos −
( ) (2) 60°
(1) 1 N 11
(2) 10 N (3) 90° (4) 15°

(3) 16 N 11. A particle is moving west ward with a velocity
(4) 0 N 10 m/s. In 20 sec. velocity changes to 10 m/s
→ → → → southward. The average acceleration in this
8. Four vectors A B C and D are
, ,
time is :
represented as shown in figure. Which of the
1
following is true? (1) 2
– m/s in S-E direction
√2
1 2
(2) – m/s in S-W direction
√2
1
(3) m/s2 in South direction
2
→ → → → (4) Zero
(1) A + B =C + D
12. An object falling through a fluid. Its acceleration
→ → → → is given by a = g – bv where g = gravitational
(2) A + D =B + C
acceleration and b is constant. After a long time
→ → → → of release, it is observed to fall with constant
(3) A + C =B + D
speed. The value of constant speed is :-
→ → → →
(4) A +B + C = D (1) g/b (2) b/g (3) bg (4) b
English / 12092021 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32
ALLEN
13. A body starts moving with a velocity v0 = 10 m/s. 17. A particle move along A to C in circular path
It experiences a retardation equal to 0.2 v2. It's of radius R in time T then its average speed and
velocity after 2 sec will be :- average velocity is given by :
(1) + 2 m/s (2) +4 m/s
(3) – 2 m/s (4) + 6 m/s
14. The velocity of a particle is given by the
expression v(x) = 3x2 – 4x, where x is distance
covered by the particle. The expression for
acceleration is – –
(1) πR √ 2R (2) √2R πR
, ,
(1) (3x 2
– 4x) (6x – 4) (2) 6(3x 2
– 4x) 2T T T 2T
πR R
(3) (6x – 4)2 (4) (3x2 – 4x)6x (3) , (4) 0, 0
2T T
15. The v-t graph of a body is shown below. It 18. Which of the following changes when a particle
indicates that :- moving with uniform velocity ?
(1) Position (2) Speed

(3) Velocity (4) Acceleration
19. The acceleration-time graph of a body is shown
(1) At B force is zero as : (u = 0)
(2) At B there is a force directed towards motion
(3) At B there is a force which opposes motion
(4) None of the above is true
16. When maximum height attained by the
projectile is maximum, which of the following The velocity-time graph of this body is :
quantities is also maximum :-
(1) Time of flight (1) (2)
(2) Range
(3) Angle of projection with the vertical
(3) (4)
(4) None of these
ALLEN
20. A particle is projected with a speed of 40 m/s at 22. In one dimensional motion, instantaneous
an angle of 30° from horizontal from top of a speed v satisfies 0 ≤ v < v0, then :-
tower 10 m high as shown in figure. What is
(1) The displacement in time T must always
the displacement of particle from point B after
2 seconds ? take non-negative values
(2) The displacement x in time T
satisfies – v 0 T < x < v 0 T
(3) The acceleration is always a non-negative
number.
(4) The motion has no turning points.
23. A ball is projected horizontal such that it hits
−− −−
(1) 10 47 m
√ (2) 10 57 m
√ the plane shown in figure perpendicularly. Find
(3)
−−
10√37 m (4)
−−
10√67 m the speed by which ball strikes with the plane.
21. Velocity-time graph corresponding to
displacement-time graph shown in figure is :
(1) 40 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 15 m/s
(1) (2) 24. If a elevator is moving vertically up with an
acceleration 'g' the force exerted by the floor on
the passenger of mass 'm' :
(1) Mg upward
(2) 2mg downward
(3) (4)
(3) 2mg upward
(4) mg downward
ALLEN
25. If cabin is descending vertical with acceleration 28. If string pulled with acceleration 4 m/s2 then
a and action by mass M on floor of the cabin is acceleration of block will be :
9 Mg
then a equals to :
10
g
(1) g (2) 10
9 10
(3) g (4) g
10 9 (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
26. In the following figure, the object of mass m is (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2
held at rest by a horizontal force as shown. The 29. If pulleys shown in the diagram are smooth and
force exerted by the string on the block is : massless and a1 and a2 are acceleration of
blocks of mass 4 kg and 8 kg respectively then
(1) 2F
(2) mg (1) a1 = a2 (2) a1 = 2a2
(3) √
−−−
F
−−−−
2
−−
+ m 2 g2
(3) 2a1 = a2 (4) a1 = 4a2
−−−−−−−−−− 30. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the
2
(4) √ 4F + m 2 g2
help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as
27. The upward normal force exerted by the floor shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of
on an elevator passenger who weighs 600 N is block is :
570 N. The acceleration of passenger is :
(1) Zero
1
(2) m/s 2 ↑
2
1 v
(3) m/s 2 ↓ (1) v (2)
2 sin θ
v
(4) 10 m/s 2 ↓ (3) vsinθ (4) cos θ
ALLEN
31. In the arrangement coefficient of friction 34. What is the minimum value of F needed so that
1
between the block is μ = .
The force of block begins to move upward on frictionless
2
friction between the two blocks is : (m = 2kg) incline plane as shown :
(1) 10 N
(2) 20/3 N
10
(3) N
θ
3
(1) Mg tan ( 2 )
10
(4) N
7
θ
32. Reading of spring balance will be : (2) Mg cot( 2 )
Mg sin θ
(3)
1 + sin θ
θ
(1) 50N (2) 25N (3) 100 N (4) 5N (4) Mg sin( 2 )
33. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing 35. In the arrangement as shown, tension T2 is
on a weighing machine placed in a cabin. The (g = 10 m/s2 )
cabin is joined by a string with a body of mass
m. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass
of cabin and weighing machine, the measured
mass of man is :
(1) 100 N
(2) 50 N
Mm Mm –
(1) (2) (3) 50√3 N
M +m M −m
–
(3) M (4) depends on g (4) 100√3 N
ALLEN
SECTION-B →
39. Two vectors A = 2^i + ^j + 3k^ and
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate →

can choose to attempt any 10 question out of B = 7^i − 5^j − 3k^ are :-
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (1) Parallel
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(2) Perpendicular
questions will be considered for marking.
(3) Anti-parallel
36. Two blocks A and B each of weight 200 N are
connected by a massless string passing over a (4) None of these
smooth pulley. A rests on a rough 30° incline 40. There are two force vectors, one of 3N and
and B is hanging vertically as shown. A will other of 4N. At what angle the two vectors be
remain at rest if the frictional force on it is:- added to get resultant vector of 7N, 1N and 5N
respectively :-
(1) 0°, 180°, 90°
(2) 0°, 90°, 180°
(3) 0°, 90°, 90°
(1) 100 N up the plane (4) 180°, 0°, 90°
(2) 100 N down the plane 41. A ship is travelling due east at a speed of
(3) 110 N up the plane 15 km/hr. Find speed of a boat heading 30°
east of north if it appears always due north
(4) 110 N down the plane from the ship :-
37. The maximum and minimum value of (1) 30 km/hr
1
is:- (2) 10√–3 km/hr
1 + cos2 θ
1 1 1 –
(1) 1, (2) ,1 (3) 2, (4) 0, ∞ (3) 15√3 km/hr
2 2 2
x1 (4) 20 km/hr
38. Find the value of x1 so that ∫ y dx = 15 42.
0
Find the correct angle so that apple can be hit :-

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (1) 45° (2) 37° (3) 30° (4) 15°
ALLEN
43. The given a-t graph represents, which of the 47. The velocity of a body of mass 5 kg decreases
following physical situation ? from 20 ms–1 to 8 ms–1 in 6 seconds then force
acting on the body is :-
(1) –10N (2) –12N (3) –15N (4) –18N
48. 2m, m & m are connected with inextensible
massless string as shown in figure :-
(1) A cricket ball moving with a uniform speed
is hit with a bat for a very short time interval
(2) A ball falling freely from top of a tower
(3) A car moving with constant velocity on a
straight road
Coefficient of friction between blocks and
(4) A football is kicked into air vertically upwards. floor is µ. Find minimum value of µ for the
44. A particle is thrown with a speed u at an angle α system to be at rest :-
with the horizontal. When particle makes an angle 1 1 1
β with vertical, its speed changes to v then :
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
4 3 2
(1) v = u cosα (2) v = u cosα cosβ 49. Block is attached at one end of string and other
end is pulling with constant speed then :
(3) v = u cosα cosecβ (4) v = u cosα secβ
45. A driver of car travelling at speed 36 km/hr sees the
light turn red at the intersection. If his reaction time
is 0.6 sec, then car can de-accelerate at 4 m/s2. Find
stopping distance ? (1) Speed of block remain constant
(1) 6 m (2) 12.5 m (3) 18.5 m (4) 25 m (2) Acceleration of block remain constant
46. The system shown in figure all surface's are (3) Speed of block will increase
smooth. Extension in spring if force constant
K = 50 N/m is :- (4) Speed of block will decrease
50. A hammer of mass 1 kg moving with a speed
of 6 m/s strikes a wall and comes to rest. If the
retarding force that stops the hammer is 60 N,
the time until which the hammer was in contact
with the wall is :
(1) 0.05 s (2) 0.1 s
(1) 1 m (2) 10 cm (3) 0.1 cm (4) 1 cm (3) 5 s (4) 10 s
ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : MOLE CONCEPT, ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM, IONIC
EQUILIBRIUM, PERIODIC TABLE
SECTION-A 54. The ionisation constant of HCOOH is 2 × 10–4
Attempt All 35 questions at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of HCOONa will
51. Which of the following observations was not be:-
correct during Rutherford's Scattering experiment:- (1) 0.5 × 10–9 (2) 0.5 × 10–11
(1) most of the α-particles passed through the (3) 5 × 10–11 (4) None
gold foil undeflected. 55. 1M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an
(2) A small fraction of the α-particles was aqueous solution. The solution is :-
deflected by a small angle (1) not a buffer solution and with pH < 7
(3) A large number of the α-particles were (2) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
bounced back (3) a buffer solution with pH < 7
(4) A very few α-particles (1 in 20,000) were (4) a buffer solution with pH > 7
bounced back 56. Ka for cyano acetic acid is 4 × 10–4. Then the
52. The velocity of electron in the 2 nd orbit degree of hydrolysis of 0.04M sodium cyano
acetate solution will be:-
of H – atom is v cm/sec. Its velocity in 5 th
(1) 2.5 × 10–8 (2) 0.25 × 10–4
Bohr's orbit would be :-
(3) 25 × 10–8 (4) 0.25 × 10–7
(1) 5 × v cm/sec
57. Ksp(AgCl) > Ksp (AgBr) > Ksp (AgI) This
2
(2) v× cm/sec means that
5
5 (1) AgCl is more ionised than AgBr and AgI
(3) v× cm/sec
2 (2) Both AgBr and AgI are less soluble than AgCl
(4) none (3) AgI is most soluble
53. The wavelength of third line of the Balmer (4) AgBr is more soluble than AgCl but less
series for H atom is:- soluble than AgI
21 21R 58. The strongest conjugate base is –
(1) (2)
100R 100
100
(1) NO3– (2) Cl–
100R
(3) (4)
21 21R (3) SO4–2 (4) CH3COO–
ALLEN
+ 2–
59. In the reaction: H2S ⇌ 2H + S , when 65. According to Bohr's theory, the angular
NH4OH is added, then : momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :-
(1) S2– is precipitate (1) 25 h/π (2) 1.0 h/π
(2) no action takes places (3) 10 h/π (4) 2.5 h/π
(3) concentration of S2– decreases 66. 11g of a gas occupy 5.6 lit. of volume at S.T.P.
(4) concentration of S2– increases The gas is
60. What weight of SO2 can be made by burning (1) NO2 (2) N2O (3) CO (4) H2
sulphur in 5 moles of O2 gas :- 67. In compound C, H and N are present
(1) 640 g (2) 160 g in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. If molecular
weight of the compound is 108, then the
(3) 80 g (4) 320 g molecular formula of the compound is :-
61. A neutral atom (Atomic No. > 1) consists of :- (1) C2H6N2 (2) C3H4N
(1) Only protons (3) C6H8N2 (4) C9H12N3
(2) Neutrons + protons 68. Equivalent wt of sulphur in SO2 :-
(3) Neutrons + electrons (1) 8 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 4
(4) Neutrons + protons + electrons 69. What will be volume of the mixture after the
62. Which of the following particles has more reaction
electrons than neutrons ?

NH3(g) (1L) + HCl(g) (1.5L) → NH4Cl(s)
(1) C (2) F (3) O–2 (4) Al+3
(1) 1.5 L (2) 0.5 L
63. The radius of ground state of hydrogen atom is
(3) 1 L (4) 0 L
0.53 Å. Then the radius of ground state of Li2+ is :-
70. In which of the following electron distribution in
(1) 1.27 Å (2) 0.17 Å
ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?
(3) 0.57 Å (4) 0.99 Å
64. When an electron drops from a higher energy (1)
level to a low energy level, then :-
(2)
(1) Energy is emitted
(2) Energy is absorbed (3)
(3) Atomic number increases
(4) Atomic number decreases (4)
ALLEN
71. The transition of electrons in H atom that will 76. The exothermic formation of ClF3 is
emit maximum energy is :- represented by the equation :
Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) ⇌ 2ClF3(g) ; ΔH = –329 kJ
(1) n3 → n2 (2) n4 → n3 Which of the following will increase the

(3) n5 → n4 (4) n6 → n5 quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of
1 Cl2, F2 and ClF3 :-
72. An electron has a spin quantum number +
2 (1) Increasing the temperature
and magnetic quantum number is –1. It cannot
(2) Removing Cl2
be present in :-
(3) Increasing the volume of container
(1) d-orbital (2) f-orbital
(4) Adding F2
(3) p-orbital (4) s-orbital
77. Which of the following value may be correct
73. The most stable oxides of nitrogen will be :- for covalent & Vanderwaals radii of carbon :-
(1) 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 2O2(g) K = 6.7 ×1016mol L–1 (in Å)
(2) 2N2O5(g) ⇌ 2N2(g) + 5O2(g) K =1.2 × 1024 mol5L–5 (1) 1.54 & 1.54 (2) 1.54 & 0.77
(3) 2NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g) K = 2.2 ×1030 (3) 0.77 & 1.54 (4) 0.77 & 0.77
(4) 2N2O(g) ⇌ 2N2(g) + O2(g) K = 3.5 ×1033 mol L–1 78. If potential energy of an electron in third shell of
74. For the equilibrium
He⊕ ion is E, then its kinetic energy will be :
SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g) ; Kp = 3Kc
E E
(1) 2E (2) (3) − (4) –E
is correct when :- 2 2
(1) T = 273 K (2) T = 12.18 K 79. If position and momentum of an electron are
(3) T = 36.54 K (4) T = 4.06 K determined at a time, then ΔP = 3Δx, now the
75. For the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 3C(g) at uncertainty in velocity of electron will be :
−−− −−−
298K. KC = 49. A 3 litre vessel contain 2, 1 and 1 h 1 3h
(1) √ (2) √
2m 3π 2m π
3 mole of A, B and C respectively. The reaction
−−− −−
at same temperature :- 1 3h 1 h
(3) √ (4) √
4m π 6m π
(1) Must proceed in forward direction
80. After filling of np orbitals next orbital filled
(2) Must proceed in backward direction will be :
(3) Must be in equilibrium (1) ns (2) nd
(4) Can not be predicted. (3) 3(n – 1) (4) (n + 1)s
ALLEN
81. Decreasing order of size of Pb, Pb+2, Pb+4 will SECTION-B
be : This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(1) Pb+4 > Pb+2 > Pb can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(2) Pb > Pb+2 > Pb+4
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(3) Pb > Pb+4 > Pb+2 questions will be considered for marking.
(4) Pb+4 > Pb > Pb+2 86. Consider the following reactions at equilibrium
82. Factor which does not affect the ionization and determine which of the indicated changes
potential :- will cause the reaction to proceed to the right :-
(1) Atomic size (i) CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g)
(add CH4)
(2) Nuclear charge (ii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(3) Shielding effect of orbitals (remove NH3)
(iii) H2(g) + F2(g) ⇌ 2HF(g)
(4) Type of bond in the crystal lattice

(add F2)
83. Which of the following configuration will have (iv) BaO(s) + SO3(g) ⇌ BaSO4(g)
least electron affinity. (add BaO)

(1) ns2np5 (1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iv)
2 2
(2) ns np (3) (ii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) ns2np3 87. The total values of m for the electrons (n = 3)
2
(4) ns np 4 is:-
84. Which process is exothermic reaction ? (1) 8 (2) 9
(1) Na+(g) + e– → Na(g) (3) 16 (4) 12
(2) Cl–(g) + e– → Cl–2(g) 88. Find out Ka for 10–2 M HCOOH acid, having
pOH equal to 10.
(3) O–(g) + e– → O2–(g)
(1) Ka = 10–6 (2) Ka = 10–4
(4) Na(g) → Na+(g)
(3) Ka = 10–2 (4) Ka = 10–8
85. Incorrect electron affinity order is :-
89. A saturated solution of CaCl2 has concentration
(1) O < S < F < Cl of Cl– 2 × 10–6 M. Find solubility of CaCl2 in
(2) N < P < O < S presence of 10–2 M BaCl2 solution.
(3) N < P < C < Si (1) 4 × 10–14 (2) 10–14
(4) Na < Al < P < Si (3) 4 × 10–18 (4) None
ALLEN
90. Total gram atoms in 84 g CO are :- 95. Which of the following has highest IP ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) Ne (2) He⊕ (3) Na+ (4) He
(3) 3 NA (4) 6 NA 96. Match the following :-
91. For the reaction 2A + 3B → C, 5 mole of A & Outer
IP values (ev/atom)
8 mole of B will produce :- configuration
(1) 2.5 mole of C (2) 00.5 mole of C a ns1 P 19, 192,210, 230
(3) 2 mole of C (4) 3 mole of C b ns2 Q 24, 36, 42, 250, 270
92. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume
c ns2np1 R 22, 32, 200, 240
occupied by 1g of the gas at NTP is :-
d ns2np2 S 28, 34, 48, 54, 280
(1) 1 L (2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L (4) 4 L (1) a-S, b-R, c-Q, d-P (2) a-P, b-R, c-Q, d-S
93. SO2 gas was prepared by (i) burning sulphur in (3) a-Q, b-R, c-S, d-P (4) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q
oxygen (ii) reacting sodium sulphite with 97. Arrange Ne, N and Be in correct increasing
dilute H2SO4 and (iii) heating copper with order of E.A. :
conc. H2SO4. It was found that in each case (1) Ne < N < Be (2) N < Be < Ne
sulphur and oxygen combined in the ratio of
(3) Ne < Be < N (4) N < Ne < B
1:1 by wt. The data illustrate the law of –
98. If Electron affinity of an element M is x kJ/mol
(1) Conservation of mass
then ionisation potential of this element:-
(2) Multiple proportion
(1) More than x
(3) Constant proportion
(2) less than x
(4) Reciprocal proportion
(3) equal to x
94. The following equilibrium are given
(4) cannot be predicted

CO + H2O ⇌ CO2 + H2 ------- K1
2H2 + O2 ⇌ 2H2O --------- K2

99. Which of the following is the strongest base?
then equilibrium constant for the reaction
(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2
2CO + O2 ⇌ 2CO2 is :- (3) Al(OH)3 (4) Si(OH)4
K 12 100. Correct order of E.N. :-
(1) K1· K2 (2)
K2 (1) F > N > O > C (2) F > O > N > C
(3) K 1 ⋅ K 22 (4) K 12 ⋅ K 2 (3) F < N < O < C (4) F > N > C > O
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : CELL BIOLOGY & PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
SECTION-A 103.
Attempt All 35 questions
101. Pyruvic acid Acetaldehyde
'X' Enzyme is :-
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(2) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(3) Lactate dehydrogenase
Identify the process taking place in the given
(4) Phosphofructokinase experiment setup. Choose the correct option :-
102. In the given flow chart, the pathway of water (1) Plasmolysis (2) Deplasmolysis
movement is shown from soil to xylem. (3) Osmosis (4) Imbibition
Identify A, B, C, D and E and choose the 104. The step at which NADPH is required in calvin
correct option :- cycle is :-
(1) Carboxylation (2) Reduction
(3) Regeneration (4) Phosphorylation
105. Match the column I, II and III and identify the
correct option :-
Column I Column II Column III
A B C D E
Aerobic Rhodo
(1) (a) Free living (i)
Nitrogen fixer spirillum
Casparian
(1) Plasmodesmata Endodermis Apoplast Symplast Thio
(2) Nitrogen fixer (b) (ii) Azotobacter
strip bacillus

(3) Nitrogen fixer (c) Anaerobe (iii) Pseudomonas
Casparian
(2) Endodermis Symplast Apoplast Plasmodesmata (4)
Denitrifying
(d)
Cyano
(iv) Nostoc
strip bacteria bacteria
(3) Plasmodesmata
Casparian
Endodermis Symplast Apoplast
(1) 1–a–ii, 2–c–i, 3–d–iv, 4–b-iii
strip
(2) 1–a–i, 2–b–iv, 3–c–ii, 4–d-iii
(4) Plasmodesmata Endodermis Apoplast Symplast Casparian strip (3) 4–a–iii, 2–b–ii, 2–c–iv, 1–d-i
(4) 4–d–ii, 2–c–i, 2–b–iv, 1–a-iii
ALLEN
106. Which of the following is always negative ? 110. Which substances enter and leave a
mitochondria during aerobic respiration ?
(1) Solute potential
Enters Leaves
(2) DPD (1) Sucrose CO2
(3) Pressure potential (2) Pyruvate ATP
(4) Suction pressure (3) Glucose NADH2
(4) ADP Lactic acid
107. Before entering respiratory pathway, amino
acids are:-
111. The diagram shows the movement of
(1) Phosphorylated substances into in and out of a chloroplast :
(2) Hydrolysed
(3) Decarboxylated
(4) Deaminated
108. Which of the following intermediate of

respiration is used in synthesis of chlorophyll ?
(1) 3-PGAL
What do labels 1 to 4 represent ?
(2) α-Ketoglutaric acid 1 2 3 4
(3) Succinyl Co-A (1) CO2 ATP H2O Starch
(2) CO2 H2O Sugars O2
(4) Pyruvic acid
(3) H2O O2 CO2 Sugar
109. Photosystem-I and photosystem-II are named :- (4) Sugar H2O ATP O2
(1) in the sequence of their discovery 112. Excess of ATP inhibits the enzyme –
(2) in the sequence in which they function (1) Phosphofructokinase
during light reaction (2) Hexokinase
(3) in the sequence of their positions (3) Aldolase (Lyases)
(4) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(4) in the sequence of electron transfer
ALLEN
113. Glycolysis give rise to 117. The flowchart given below shows the steps in
glycolysis. Select the option that correctly fills in
(1) 8ATP, 2NADH2, 2 Pyruvate
the missing steps A, B, C and D :-
(2) 2ATP, 2CoA, 2NADH2
(3) 2ATP, 2NADH2, 2 Pyruvate
(4) 2ATP, 2 Acetate, 2NADPH2
114. How many ATP will be produced during the
production of 1 molecule of Acetyl Co-A
from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid ?
(1) 3 ATP
(2) 5 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) 38 ATP
115. Photorespiration is favoured by
(1) Low light intensity
(2) Low O2 and high CO2
(3) Low temperature
A B C D
(4) High O2 and Low CO2 Fructose- 1,3
Fructose-6-
(1) 1,6- 3-PGAL bisphospho-
116. Refer the given equation
phosphate
bisphosphate glyceric acid
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy

Fructose-
1,3
bisphospho-
(2) 1,6- 3-PGAL 3-PGAL
The RQ in this case is :- bisphosphate
glyceric
acid
(1) 1 1,3 Fructose-
(3) 3-PGAL bisphospho- 3-PGAL 1,6-
(2) 0.7 glyceric acid bisphosphate
Fructose- 1,3
(3) 1.45 (4) 1,6-
Fructose-6-
3-PGAL bisphospho-
phosphate
bisphosphate glyceric acid
(4) 1.62
ALLEN
118. When two molecules of acetyl-CoA enter 121. Select the correct option with respect to given
the TCA cycle, net gain at the end of the diagram :
cycle is :-
(1) 2NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 1GTP
(3) 6NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2GTP (A) (B) (C) (D)

Position of Shape during
Chromosome
119. Mark the incorrect statement for the organelle centromere Anaphase
Away from
(1) (A) Metacentric V-shape
which has cart wheel like organisation :
centre
Sub- Slightly away
(A) They are surrounded by amorphous peri- (2) (B)
metacentric from centre
L-shape
centriolar material
(3) (C)
Sub- Far away from
V-shape
metacentric centre
(B) the organisation is typical 9 + 2
(4) (D) Acrocentric Middle V-shape
(C) Each peripheral fibril is a doublet
122. Mark the statements true (T) or false (F) with

(D) They form basal body of cilia or flagella respect to the cell membrane :
(1) A and B (A) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that

are arranged as monolayer
(2) C and D (B) Lipid component mainly consist of

(3) A and D phosphoglycerides
(C) The membrane of erythrocyte has

(4) B and C approximately 40% protein and 52% lipid
120. Granular structures first observed under the (D) Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral
electron microscope as dense particle by movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
George Palade are : A B C D
(1) Composed of lipoprotein (1) T T T F
(2) F T T T
(2) Not surrounded by any membrane
(3) T F F T
(3) Found in plastids and Golgi bodies
(4) F T F T
(4) Consist of three sub-units
ALLEN
123. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes are 127. Read the following statements (A–C) carefully
separated during :
and choose the correct option :-
(1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-II

(A) Anything less than a complete structure of
(3) Metaphase-II (4) Anaphase-I a cell does not ensure independent living
124. Identify the mismatched pair with respect to (B) Rudolf virchow first explained that cells
phases of prophase-I
divided and new cells formed from pre-existing
(1) Zygotene – Synapsis of homologous chromosome
cells
(2) Pachytene – Recombination nodule formation

(C) Eukaryotic cells multiply more rapidly than
(3) Diakinesis – Can last for months or years the prokaryotic cells
in oocyte of some vertebrate
(1) Only (C) is incorrect
(4) Diplotene – Chiasmata distinct
(2) (A) & (C) are correct
125. Read the following statements carefully :
(A) At a number of places the nuclear envelope (3) (B) & (C) are correct
is interrupted by large pores.
(4) All statements are correct
(B) Materials of the nucleus stained by the
128. In plant as well as in animal cells :-
acidic dye was given the name chromatin by
Flemming (1) Ribosomes are found within plastids
(1) Both (A) and(B) are incorrect (2) Cilia are made up of flagillin protein
(2) Only (A) is incorrect (3) Plasma membrane are lipo-proteinaceous
in nature
(3) Only (B) is incorrect
(4) Cell wall protect the cell from mechanical
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct
damage
126. In a diploid cell, number of chromosomes are
129. Inner chamber of the "Power house of cell"
20 and each chromosome contain one DNA.
Then choose the correct option for number of possesses:-
chromosome and DNA in G2-phase and (1) Single stranded circular DNA, RNA and
anaphase of mitosis, respectively :- proteins
(1) G2- 40, 80 ; Anaphase - 40, 80
(2) Nucleic acids & 70s ribosomes
(2) G2- 80, 80 ; Anaphase - 80, 80
(3) 70 s ribosomes & Single linear DNA
(3) G2- 80, 40 ; Anaphase - 80, 80
(4) Single circular DNA, RNA and 80s
(4) G2- 20, 40 ; Anaphase - 40, 40 ribosomes
ALLEN
130. Find the incorrect statement with respect to 134. Which of the following statements are correct?
lysosome :- (A) Meiosis produces 2 genetically different

(1) Membrane bound vesicular structure cells.
(B) Meiosis involve pairing of homologous

(2) Rich in alkaline hydrolases chromosomes and recombination between
(3) Contain enzymes that are capable of them
digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (C) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
and nucleic acids meiosis - I.
(4) Formed by the process of packaging in the (D) Meiosis ensures the production of haploid
golgi apparatus phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
organisms.
131. The X-shaped structure formed after the
completion of the stage :- (1) A, B and D
(1) Leptotene (2) B, C and D
(2) Zygotene (3) C and D

(3) Pachytene (4) B and D
(4) Diakinesis 135. Identify the given diagram (A - D) : -
132. Single chromatid chromosomes can be seen
during:-
(1) Prophase, Anaphase - I, Telophase - I
(2) Anaphase, Anaphase - II
(3) Metaphase, Metaphase - II, Anaphase - II
(4) Anaphase - I, Anaphase
133. (A) Mechanical support → Lysosome
(B) Formation of glycolipid → Golgi body
(C) Autophagy → Cell Wall

Options :
(D) Intracellular exchange → ER
A B C D
1 Meta phase-I Prophase -I Telophase -I Prophase - II
How many of the above are mismatched?
2 Prophase-I Meta phase -I Meta phase Anaphase
(1) Four (2) Three 3 Prophase-I Meta phase Prophase Telophase
(3) Two (4) One 4 Prophase-I Meta phase-I Prophase - II Telophase
ALLEN
SECTION-B 139. Phloem sap is mainly made of
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) water and sucrose
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(2) water and minerals
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) oligosaccharides and hormones
questions will be considered for marking. (4) none of these
136. 140. Which of the following is required for
synthesis of auxin ?
(1) Boron (2) Manganese

(3) Copper (4) Zinc

141. Which of the following hormone is responsible
for closure of stomata ?
In above diagram what is the direction of (1) Auxin
movement of solute molecule which dissolve in (2) Cytokinin
solution across the membrane (3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid (ABA)
(1) A → B (2) B → A
142. The element which is required in greatest amount
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) No movement by plants -
137. Which of the following is incorrectly match ?
(1) Phosphorus (2) Nitrogen
(1) Root pressure – Positive pressure
(3) Sulphur (4) Calcium
(2) Guttation – Hydathodes 143. Read the following four statements (A - D) :-
(A) Vacuole is bounded by single membrane

(3) Casparian strips – endodermis called tonoplast which regulate the osmotic
(4) Imbibition – Type of negative
expansion of a cell.
hydrostatic pressure
(B) Centriole form the basal body of cilia and
give rise to spindle apparatus during cell
gradient division in plant cells
138. The force generated by transpiration can create (C) Leucoplast are the colourless plastids of
varied shapes and sizes with stored nutrients
pressure sufficient to lift water even up to the (D) Middle lamella is a layer of calcium
height of pectate, which holds the different neighbouring
animal cells together
(1) 130 feet (2) 130 meter How many of the above statement are right ?
(3) 230 feet (4) 230 meter (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
ALLEN
144. Chromosomes are composed of two types of 147. As the polar molecules cannot pass through the
macromolecules. They are : - non polar __I__ , they requires __II__ of the
membrane to facilitate their transport across the
(1) Protein and Carbohydrate membrane. Choose the correct word for I and II :-
(2) Carbohydrate and nucleic acid I II
(1) Cholesterol Carbohydrate
(3) Nucleic acid and Lipids
(2) Protein Lipid
(4) Proteins and nucleic acid
(3) Carbohydrate Protein
145. If in a cell 20 tetrads are present in prophase - I, (4) Lipid bilayer Protein
then what will be the number of chromatids in
148. Select the events that do not occur in interphase
each cell during metaphase - II and anaphase - II stage of cell cycle :
respectively? (a) RNA and proteins synthesis
(b) Cytoplasmic growth
(1) 40 and 40
(c) Assembly of spindle fibre protein
(2) 20 and 20 (d) Disappearence of golgi bodies and ER.
(e) DNA replication

(3) 20 and 40
(1) (c), (d) & (e) (2) (d) & (e) only
(4) 80 and 80
(3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (c) & (d) only
146. The given graph shows the change in 149. Poleward movement of chromatids occurs in the
DNA content in a single cell during the phase of cell division, also characterised by :-
mitosis. Which stage occurs between the (1) Study of the shape of chromosome
time x and y? (2) Segregation of homologous chromosone
(3) Assembly of nuclear envelop around
chromosome cluster
(4) Reformation of nucleolus
150. Which stage is characterised by the appearence
of recombination nodules and terminalisation
(1) Prophase of chiasmata ?
(1) Pachytene and Anaphase-I respectively
(2) Interphase
(2) Pachytene and diakinesis respectively
(3) Anaphase (3) Diplotene & zygotene respectively
(4) Telophase (4) Zygotene and pachytene respectively
ALLEN
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : ANIMAL TISSUE & ANIMAL DIVERSITY
SECTION-A 155. First phylum to have complete digestive tract
Attempt All 35 questions can be represented by : -
151. The phylum arthropoda is named so because of (1) Hydra (2) Taenia
presence of :- (3) Ancylostoma (4) Pheretima
(1) Jointed appendages 156. Osmoregulation in platyhelminthes occur
(2) Segmented through :-
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton (1) Kidney (2) Flame cells
(4) Organ-system level of organisation (3) Metanephridia (4) Body surface
152. Similarity between flatworm and round worm 157. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as :-
is :- (1) Pseudocoelom (2) Schizocoel
(1) Body plan (3) Haemocoel (4) Enterocoelom
(2) Phylum 158. Malpighian tubules are :-
(3) Symmetry (1) Excretory organs of insects
(4) Body cavity (2) Excretory organs of annelids
153. Which protozoan lives as a symbiont in the (3) Respiratory organs of insects
intestine of termites ?
(4) Respiratory organs of annelids
(1) Trichomonas vaginalis
159. Select the incorrect option for animal given in
(2) Trichonympha the figure:
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense
(4) Babesia
154. In general which of the following term is not
associated with poriferans ?
(1) Spongocoel
(1) Jointed appendages
(2) Choanocytes
(2) Respiration by trachea
(3) Unisexual
(3) Excretion by Malpighian tubules
(4) Indirect development
(4) Direct development
ALLEN
160. Organ of Bojanus is found in member of : 166. Which of the following is a common character
(1) Reptilia (2) Echinodermata between reptilia and aves ?
(3) Annelida (4) Mollusca (1) 3 Chambered heart
161. Mantle cavity is space between :- (2) Pneumatic bones
(1) Visceral hump and mantle (3) Warm blooded
(2) Head and mantle (4) Cloaca
(3) Visceral hump and head 167. Select the taxon which has maximum
diversification on the basis of habitats :
(4) Mantle and shell
(1) Mammalia (2) Amphibia
162. Which of the following structure is present in
all chordates ? (3) Pisces (4) Coelenterata
(1) Cranium (2) Notochord 168.
(3) Spinal cord (4) Vertebral column
163. In general the type of fertilisation in
chondrichthyes and osteichthyes is
___________ :-
(1) External and internal respectively
(2) Internal and external respectively
(3) Internal only
(4) External only
164. Select the wall lizard :-
In above classification A, B, C, D are

(1) Calotes (2) Chameleon respectively
(3) Hemidactylus (4) Chelone (1) bears jaw, lack jaw, mammalia,
165. How many statements are correct ?
Osteichthyes
(a) Heart is usually three chambered in reptiles
(2) lacks jaw, bears jaw, Osteichthyes,
(b) Snakes and lizard shed their scales as skin mammalia
cast
(3) lacks jaw, Osteichthyes, bears jaw,

(c) Development is indirect in pisces
mammalia
(d) Python is poisonous snake
(4) bears jaw, bears jaw Cyclostomata,
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 mammalia
ALLEN
169. Word animal tissue was coined by :- 173. Which of the following is not associated with
(1) Marcello Malpighi epithelial tissue ?
(2) Grew (1) Cells are compactly packed with little
intercellular space
(3) Ruysch
(2) it is highly vascularized
(4) Bichat
(3) It forms covering or lining of external and
170. The tissue which is found in female urethra ? internal surfaces
(1) Stratified epithelium (4) It help in protection, secretion, absorption,
(2) Transitional epithelium respiration, etc
(3) Simple epithelium 174. The sketch given below represent a type of
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium animal tissue.
171. Choose the incorrect pair :-

Tissue Functions
Simpe squamous
Forming diffusion
Which of the following statement is not related
(1)
epithelium boundary with above tissue ?
Simple cuboidal
(1) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption
(2) Secretion & absorption
epithelium (2) It's main function is to provide
protection against chemical and mechanical
Simple columnar
(3) Secretion & absorption stresses.

epithelium
(3) Cells are compactly packed with
Compound
Main function is
little intercellular matrix.
(4)
epithelium secretion & absorption (4) It is found in the lining of stomach
and intestine.
172. Pseudostratified ciliated-columnar glandular
175. Shape of cells in the innermost layer of
epithelium is not found in :-
transitional epithelium is :-
(1) Trachea (1) Cuboidal
(2) Bronchi (2) Columnar
(3) Bowman's capsule
(3) Squamous
(4) Bronchioles
(4) Either of (1) or (2)
ALLEN
176. Strongest cartilage is :- 181. Find the correct match from the following
(1) Hyaline cartilage table ?
(2) White fibrous cartilage I II III
(3) Elastic cartilage Collagen Delicate On boiling yield

(i)
(4) Calcified cartilage fibre fibre gelatin
177. Reticular Arzyrophil Found in lymphoid

(ii)

fibre fibre organ
Yellow Elastin
(iii) Most abundant fibre
Cells secrete fibres of structural protein in all fibre protein
connective tissue, except :-
(1) (ii) only (2) (i) & (ii)
(1) Bone and cartilage
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i) only
(2) Blood and adipose tissue
182. Osteocyte cells are present in -
(3) Only blood
(1) Blood (2) Lymph
(4) Only bone
(3) Thyroid (4) Lacunae
178. Most abundant fibres found in connective
tissue :- 183. Haversian system is a diagnostic feature of :
(1) elastic (1) All animals bone
(2) reticular (2) Avian bones
(3) actin (3) Mammalian bones only
(4) collagen (4) Reptilian bones
179. Loose connective tissue is 184. Anatomy refers to the study of :-
(1) Bone (2) Blood (1) Structure of external organs
(3) Cartilage (4) Areolar (2) Structure of Internal organs
180. Horizontal canals of bones are called :- (3) Structure of Muscular organs only
(1) Lacunae (4) Structure of Neural organs only
(2) Volkmann's canal 185. Human heart consists of _____ types of tissues.
(3) Haversian canal (1) Only one (2) Only two
(4) Canaliculi (3) Only three (4) All four
ALLEN
SECTION-B 189. In adult fishes the kidney is :-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) Pronephric
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(2) Metanephric
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) Mesonephric
questions will be considered for marking. (4) All
186. Which of the following is not correct ? 190. Birds and mammals share one of the following
(1) Sponges have tissue level of organisation characteristics as a common feature?
(2) Organ level of organisation is found in (1) Diaphragm
Platyhelminthes (2) Alimentary canal with crop and gizzard
(3) In annelids, arthropods, molluscs, (3) Viviparity
echinoderms and chordates organ system (4) Warm blooded
level of organisation is found 191. Match the name of the animal (column I), with
(4) Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult one characteristics (column II), and the
echinoderms have radial symmetry phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs.
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
187. Metagenesis is characteristic of coelenterates,
Column-I Column-II Column-III
where cylindrical form polyps and umbrella
radially
like medusae are found in the life cycle. Which (1) Adamsia Porifera
symmetrical
coelenterate of the following exhibits this
(2) Petromyzon ectoparasite Cyclostomata
phenomenon?
(3) Ichthyophis terrestrial Reptilia
(1) Gorgonia Body
(2) Pennatula covered by
(4) Limulus Pisces

(3) Obelia chitinous
exoskeleton
(4) Adamsia
192. Identify the correctly matched option:
188. Parapodia are Locomotory organs, found in:-
(1) Frog - Two chambered heart
(1) Amoeba
(2) Fish - Warm blooded animals
(2) Pheretima
(3) Toad - Three chambered heart
(3) Periplaneta
(4) Hyla - Limbless amphibian
(4) Nereis
ALLEN
193. Which cell junction stop substances from 196. Which of the following is a vasodilator :-
leaking across a tissue. (1) Histamine
(1) Desmosome (2) Serotonin
(2) Gap junction (3) Heparin
(3) Tight junction (4) Glycine
(4) Interdigitation 197. Given figures (I and II) show two specialised
194. Which statement is incorrect regarding connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and
basement membrane ?
the parts labelled as A and B.
(1) It is a thin, cellular membrane which is

semipermeable
(2) It is secreted by both epithelial &
connective tissue
(3) It is made up of glycoprotein &
mucopolysaccharide
(4) It is present between epithelial & I II A B
connective tissue
Collagen
(1) Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
195. Match the column I with column II.
fibres
Column-I Column-II Collagen

(2) Cartilage Bone Chondroclast
fibres
A
PCT
i
Stereocilia
(3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast

B
Stomach
ii
Cilia
Collagen
(4) Bone Cartilage Osteoblast
C
Bronchioles
iii
Microvilli
fibres
D
Vasa deference
iv
Glandular
198. Which of the following is hardest tissue of the
body?
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (1) Cartilage
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (2) Fibrous connective tissue
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (3) Bone
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (4) Areolar tissue
ALLEN
199. Decalcified Bone is :- 200. Trace out the different parts of bone from
outside to inside :-
(1) Bone with organic matter

(a) Haversian canal
(2) Bone with Inorganic matter (b) Concentric lamellae
(c) Interstitial lamellae
(3) Bone without living cells (d) Endosteum
(e) Inner circumferential lamellae
(4) Bone without peristomium (f) Outer circumferential lamellae
(g) Bone marrow
(h) Periosteum
(1) h-f-c-b-a-d-e-g (2) h-f-c-a-b-e-d-g
(3) h-f-b-c-a-e-d-g (4) h-f-c-b-a-g-e-d
Space for Rough Work
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Space for Rough Work
English / 12092021 Page 31/32
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This section will have 15 questions. Candidate →

Find the correct angle so that apple can be hit :-

electrons than neutrons ?

Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) ⇌ 2ClF3(g) ; ΔH = –329 kJ

(1) n3 → n2 (2) n4 → n3 Which of the following will increase the

(1) Atomic size (i) CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g)

(add CH4)

(2) Nuclear charge (ii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

(3) Shielding effect of orbitals (remove NH3)

(iii) H2(g) + F2(g) ⇌ 2HF(g)

(4) Type of bond in the crystal lattice

least electron affinity. (add BaO)

(4) cannot be predicted

2H2 + O2 ⇌ 2H2O --------- K2

108. Which of the following intermediate of

2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy

(4) 3NADH2 + 1FADH2 + 4GTP

(C) Each peripheral fibril is a doublet

122. Mark the statements true (T) or false (F) with

(1) A and B (A) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that

(2) C and D (B) Lipid component mainly consist of

(C) The membrane of erythrocyte has

(1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-II

(2) Pachytene – Recombination nodule formation

lysosome :- (A) Meiosis produces 2 genetically different

(B) Meiosis involve pairing of homologous

(2) Zygotene (3) C and D

(B) Formation of glycolipid → Golgi body

(C) Autophagy → Cell Wall

(3) Copper (4) Zinc

(A) Vacuole is bounded by single membrane

respectively? (a) RNA and proteins synthesis

(b) Cytoplasmic growth

(2) 20 and 20 (d) Disappearence of golgi bodies and ER.

(e) DNA replication

In above classification A, B, C, D are

(3) lacks jaw, Osteichthyes, bears jaw,

171. Choose the incorrect pair :-

(3) Secretion & absorption stresses.

(3) Elastic cartilage Collagen Delicate On boiling yield

177. Reticular Arzyrophil Found in lymphoid

(2) Pennatula covered by

(4) Limulus Pisces

(1) It is a thin, cellular membrane which is

Column-I Column-II Collagen

(3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast

(1) Bone with organic matter

(2) Bone with Inorganic matter (b) Concentric lamellae

(c) Interstitial lamellae

(3) Bone without living cells (d) Endosteum

(e) Inner circumferential lamellae

(4) Bone without peristomium (f) Outer circumferential lamellae

(g) Bone marrow