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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 300
for
JEE (MAIN)-2021 (Online) Phase-1
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.
1
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
PART–A : PHYSICS
allowed to slide down from rest at a height of
SECTION - I
1 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, find the
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains time taken by the body to reach the bottom.
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 2 1 3
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE g 9.8 m/s ; sin 30 ; cos 30
2 2
is correct.
t2 t1 ln (t 2 t 1) 21
(1) (2) T 1.3 s
ln 5 2 (sin30) 2.24
3. An inclined plane making an angle of 30° with (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
the horizontal is placed in a uniform horizontal (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
N (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
electric field 200as shown in the figure.
C (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
A body of mass 1 kg and charge 5 mC is Answer (3)
2
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
qinc 30
Sol. Tot Imax 0.2 A
0 (120)2 (90)2
qinc = 0 Tot = 0 +q –q 1 1
f 50 Hz
LC 2 LC
E0
7. The length of metallic wire is l1 when tension in
At P, it is T1. It is l2 when the tension is T2. The original
length of the wire will be
E = 0 and = 0
T1l1 T2l2 l1 l2
(1) (2)
T2 T1 2
P
r T2l1 T1l2 T2l1 T1l2
Q (3) (4)
T1 T2 T2 T1
Answer (4)
Sol. T1 = K(l1 – l0) ...(1)
5. A scooter accelerates from rest for time t1 at
constant rate a1 and then retards at constant T2 = K(l2 – l0) ...(2)
rate a 2 for time t 2 and comes to rest. The From (1) and (2),
t1 T l T l
correct value of will be l0 2 1 1 2
t2 (T2 T1)
a1 a 2 a1 8. The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane
(1) (2)
a1 a2 is y = x – x2, where and are constants and
x & y are respectively the horizontal and vertical
a2 a1 a 2 distances of the projectile from the point of
(3) (4) projection. The angle of projection and the
a1 a2
maximum height attained H are respectively
Answer (3) given by
Sol. We have, 4 2 2
(1) tan1 , (2) tan1 ,
a1t1 = a2t2 2
t 1 a2
2 2
(3) tan1 , (4) tan1 ,
t 2 a1 4
6. Find the peak current and resonant frequency Answer (4)
of the following circuit (as shown in figure). Sol. y x x2
tan tan1
100 mH
100 F dy
also, 2 x
V = 30 sin 100t dx
dy
0 x
dx 2
120
2 2 2
(1) 0.2 A and 50 Hz (2) 2 A and 100 Hz y at x
2 4 4 2
(3) 2 A and 50 Hz (4) 0.2 A and 100 Hz
9. An aeroplane, with its wings spread 10 m, is
Answer (1) flying at a speed of 180 km/h in a horizontal
direction. The total intensity of earth’s field at
V 30 that part is 2.5 × 10–4 Wb/m2 and the angle of dip
Sol. Imax max
Z R (XL XC )2
2 is 60°. The emf induced between the tips of the
plane wings will be _________ .
XL = 100 × 0.1 = 10 (1) 108.25 mV (2) 88.37 mV
1 (3) 62.50 mV (4) 54.125 mV
XC 100
100 104 Answer (1)
3
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
Sol. ind (Bv ) LV, Bv BTotal sin60 (1) A is false but R is true
(2) A is true but R is false
5
(2.5 104 )(sin60) 10 180
18 (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
= 108.25 mV
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
10. If ‘C’ and ‘V’ represent capacity and voltage
explanation of A
respectively then what are the dimensions of
where C/V = ? Answer (4)
(1) [M–1 L–3 I–2 T–7] (2) [M–2 L–4 I3 T7] Sol. Though image size is bigger than object size,
the angular size of the image is equal to the
(3) [M–2 L–3 I2 T6] (4) [M–3 L–4 I3 T7]
angular size of object
Answer (2)
13. Two masses A and B, each of mass M are fixed
1 2 together by a massless spring. A force acts on
Sol. U CV the mass B as shown in figure. If the mass A
2
starts moving away from mass B with
C U F L acceleration ‘a’, then the acceleration of mass
3
V V3 V B will be
F L
V F B A
IT
Ma F MF
C F L I3 T 3 (1) (2)
M F Ma
V F3 L3
F Ma F Ma
[M2 L4 T7 I3 ] (3)
M
(4)
M
11. The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it Answer (4)
emits a photon in going from n = 5 state to n = 1
Sol. B M f
state will be
F a
(1) 4.34 m/s (2) 2.19 m/s f
f = Ma
(3) 4.17 m/s (4) 3.25 m/s F + f = Ma1
Answer (3) F f F Ma
a1
E M M
Sol. P
C 14. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency
produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known
E
mv frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filed, the beat
C frequency decreases to 2 beats/s. What is the
E (13.6) 24 1.6 10 19 frequency of fork A?
v
mC 25 1.66 10 27 3 108 (1) 335 Hz (2) 338 Hz
12. Given below are two statements: one is labeled Answer (1)
as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Sol. fA = 340 ± 5
Reason R.
If fA increases, then beat frequency decreases
Assertion A : For a simple microscope, the fA = 335
angular size of the object equals the angular
15. A wire of 1 has a length of 1 m. It is
size of the image.
stretched till its length increases by 25%. The
Reason R : Magnification is achieved as the percentage change in resistance to the nearest
small object can be kept much closer to the eye integer is
than 25 cm and hence it subtends a large angle.
(1) 76% (2) 56%
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) 12.5% (4) 25%
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : Answer (2)
4
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
2 Sol. v A2 x2
Sol. R
A (Vol.) v2
x 2 A2
2
R1 ()2
V x2 v2
1 .... Ellipse equation
2 A2 (A)2
5
R2 18. The internal energy (U), pressure (P) and
V 4 volume (V) of an ideal gas are related as
R 9 U = 3PV + 4. The gas is
100 100 56%
R1 16 (1) diatomic only
(2) either monoatomic or diatomic
16. Draw the output signal Y in the given
combination of gates. (3) polyatomic only
(4) monoatomic only
Answer (3)
A
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s) A
Y Sol. U = (3)nRT + 4
B B dU = 3nRdT f = 6
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s)
19. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A second’s pendulum has a time
period of 1 second.
(1)
Statement II : It takes precisely one second to
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s) move between the two extreme positions.
In the light of the above Statement, choose the
correct answer from the options given
(2) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s) (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3)
Answer (4)
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s)
Sol. Time period of second pendulum is 2 sec
T
t 1
(4) 2
20. A cord is wound round the circumference of
0 1 2 3 4 5 t(s)
wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is
Answer (4) horizontal and the moment of inertia about it is
Sol. A = 0 Y = 0 for B = 0 or B = 1 I. A weight mg is attached to the cord at the
end. The weight falls from rest. After falling
A = 1 Y = 0 for B = 1 through a distance ‘h’, the square of angular
A = 1 Y = 1 for B = 0 velocity of wheel will be
SECTION - II GM 4
Sol. gC = 2
= g0
R 9
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section R + 2
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a 4 AB
gA = gC g0 = g0 1 –
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 9 R
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; 5R
AB =
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using 9
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad
4R
in the place designated to enter the answer. OA =
9
1. Two stream of photons, possessing energies OA 4
equal to twice and ten times the work function =
AB 5
of metal are incident on the metal surface
successively. The value of ratio of maximum x = 04.00
velocities of the photoelectrons emitted in the 3. The zener diode has a Vz = 30 V. The current
two respective cases is x : y. The value of x is passing through the diode for the following
_________. circuit is _______mA.
Answer (01.00) 4k
1
Sol. mv2 E –
2
90 V 5k
2
V2 = E –
m
2
V12 ...(1) Answer (09.00)
m
30
2 6 mA
V22 9 ...(2) Sol. I1 =
5,000
m
4k
From (1) & (2),
V1 1 I ID I1
V2 3 90 V 5k
x 1
y 3
(x = 01.00) also – 90 + 4000 I + 30 = 0
R = 6400 km T T 7T
t = + =
2 12 12
6
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
1.2 m
the relation V = KT 3 . The work done when
temperature changes by 90 K will be xR. The
Answer (150.00)
value of x is ____.
Sol. AB = 2 × (50 + 25) cm = 150 cm [R = universal gas constant]
B Answer (60.00)
50 cm Sol. W = pdV
25 nRT 2
25 cm p= , V = KT 2/3 dV = KT –1/3 dT
V 3
0.6 m 0.6 m nRT 2
W= KT –1/3 dT
KT 2/3 3
A 2
= (n)R T
3
6. A particle executes S.H.M. with amplitude ‘a’
and time period ‘T’. The displacement of the 2
= (n)R × 90 = 60 nR (assuming n = 1)
particle when its speed is half of maximum 3
xa 9. If the highest frequency modulating a carrier is
speed is . The value of x is ______. 5 kHz, then the number of AM broadcast
2
stations accommodated in a 90 kHz bandwidth
Answer (03.00)
are ____.
Sol. V = a2 – x2 Answer (09.00)
Total B.W.
a Sol. Number of stations =
= a2 – x 2 B.W. for each channel
2
90
a2 = =9
= a2 – x 2 2×5
4 10. 27 similar drops of mercury are maintained at
10 V each. All these spherical drops combine
3a2
x2 into a single big drop. The potential energy of
4 the bigger drop is ______ times that of a smaller
a 3 drop.
x Answer (243.00)
2
7. 1 mole of rigid diatomic gas performs a work of (C)Q2
Sol. U =
Q R
when heat Q is supplied to it. The molar
5 (C)(Q 0 )2
heat capacity of the gas during this For smaller drop, US =
r
xR (C)(27Q0 )2
transformation is . The value of x is____. For bigger drop, UB =
8
3r
[R = universal gas constant] 27 × 27
UB = US = 243 US
Answer (25.00) 3
7
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
PART–B : CHEMISTRY
3. Match List-I with List-II
SECTION - I
List-I List-II
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
Cl
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 + –
N2 Cl
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE (a) Cu2Cl 2 +N 2 (i) Wurtz reaction
is correct.
Cl
+ –
Choose the correct answer : N2 Cl
(b) Cu/HCl +N2 (ii) Sandmeyer
1. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature?
reaction
(1) CaO, SiO2 (c) 2CH3CH2Cl+2Na (iii) Fittig reaction
Ether
(2) B2O3, CaO → C2H5 – C2H5 + 2NaCl
⎯⎯⎯⎯
(d) 2C6H5Cl + 2Na (iv) Gatterman
(3) B2O3, SiO2
Ether
→ C6H5 – C6H5 + 2NaCl
⎯⎯⎯⎯ reaction
(4) N2O, BaO
Choose the correct answer from the options
Answer (3) given below
OH Cl List-I List-II
(Molecule) (Bond order)
(1) (2) (a) Ne2 (i) 1
OH CH2Cl OH CH2OH
(b) N2 (ii) 2
(c) F2 (iii) 0
Cl OH
(d) O2 (iv) 3
(3) (4) Choose the correct answer from the options
Cl CH2Cl Cl CH2Cl given below
(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)
Answer (4)
(2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)
Sol. OH OH
(3) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
SOCl2
(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
8
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
5. 2,4-DNP test can be used to identify (1) A > C > B > D (2) D > B > C > A
(1) Aldehyde (3) D > C > B > A (4) A > B > C > D
Answer (1)
O H 3C CH 3
N
Sol. 2,4 DNP test is used to identify – C – group. It
gives addition reaction with carbonyl (B) N, N-Dimethylaniline pK b = 8.92
compounds. So, it can be used to identify
aldehyde in the given option. It gives yellow/ NH – CH 3
orange PPt with carbonyl containing
compounds. (C) N-Methyl aniline pK b = 9.3
(3) Ketoses, proteins (4) Aldoses, ketoses (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
9
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
10
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
Choose the correct answer from the options Sol. Ceric ammonium nitrate is used for the
given below identification of alcohol.
(1) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
2R — OH (NH4 )2 Ce(NO3 )6
(ROH)2 Ce(NO3 )4 2NH4NO3
(2) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (v), (d) (iii) Alkoxy cerium ion IV
Compound
(3) (a) (iii), (b) (v), (c) (i), (d) (iv) Pink or Red colour
(4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (v), (d) (ii) CHCl 3/KOH is used for the identification of
Answer (3) primary amines.
Sol. Siderite FeCO3 warm
R NH2 CHCl3 3KOH(alc)
Calamine ZnCO3
Malachite CuCO3Cu(OH)2 R — NC 3KCl 3H2 O
Cryolite Na3AlF6 1 2 3 4
15. Identify A in the given chemical reaction. 17. In CH2 C CH CH3 molecule, the
hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4
CH2CH2 CHO
NaOH respectively, are :
C2 H5 OH, H 2O
A (Major Product)
CH2CH2 CHO
(1) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (2) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3
(3) sp3, sp, sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3
CHO
(1) Answer (2)
Sol. CH2 C CH CH3
CH2CH2 COOH sp2 sp sp2 sp3
(2)
Hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4
CH2CH2 CH2OH
respectively are sp2, sp, sp2 and sp3
O 18. Which of the following forms of hydrogen emits
(3) low energy – particles?
O 3
(1) Proton H+ (2) Tritium 1H
O
(3) Protium 11H (4) Deuterium 2
1H
C—H
Answer (2)
(4)
Sol. Out of isotopes of hydrogen, only tritium is
radioactive and emits low energy – particles.
Answer (4)
O OH (1) Zn/HCl
CH2 – CH 2 – CH CH2 – CH 2 – CH
19. (2) Cr 2 O3 , 773 K
NaOH O 10 - 20 atm
Sol.
Considering the above reaction, the major
CH2 – CH – CHO CH2 – CH
product among the following is :
CHO
H – OH COCH2CH3 CH3
CHO
CH3
(1) (2)
16. Ceric ammonium nitrate and CHCl3/alc. KOH CH2CH 2CH3 CH2CH 3
are used for the identification of functional
groups present in _____ and _____ respectively. (3) (4)
(1) Alcohol, phenol
Answer (4)
(2) Amine, phenol
CH2 CH3
(3) Amine, alcohol
(4) Alcohol, amine (1) Zn/HCl
Sol.
(2) Cr 2 O3 , 773 K
Answer (4) O 10 - 20 atm
11
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
20. Match List-I with List-II. 2. The average S-F bond energy in kJ mol–1 of
List-I List-II SF 6 is ____________. (Rounded off to the
nearest integer)
(a) Sucrose (i) -D-Galactose and
-D-Glucose [Given : The values of standard enthalpy of
formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are - 1100, 275
(b) Lactose (ii) -D-Glucose and and 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.]
-D-Fructose
Answer (309)
(c) Maltose (iii) -D-Glucose and
SF6(g) S(g) + 6F(g)
-D-Glucose
Choose the correct answer from the options H Hf (S) 6Hf (F) Hf (SF6 )
given below :
= 275 + 6 × 80 – (–1100)
(1) (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii)
= 1855 kJ mol–1
(2) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i)
(3) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii) Also, H 6HS F
(4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (ii) 1855
Answer (3) HS F 309.17 309 kJ mol1
6
Sol. Disaccharides Monomer present 3. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of an
Sucrose -D-glucose and aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per
mL is __________ g. (Rounded off to the
-D-fructose
nearest integer)
Lactose -D-Galactose and [Given : Atomic weight in g mol–1 - Na : 23; N :
-D-Glucose 14; O : 16]
Maltose -D-Glucose and Answer (13)
-D-Glucose Mass of Na+ in 50 mL = 70 × 50 mg
(a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii) 70 50
Millimoles of NaNO3 =
23
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 70 50 85 103
Mass of NaNO3 =
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five 23
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 12.9 13 g
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 4. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; 100 g of water, the freezing point of solution
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using was found to be –0.93°C (Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad mol –1 ). The number (n) of benzoic acid
in the place designated to enter the answer. molecules associated (assuming 100%
association) is __________.
1. If the activation energy of a reaction is 80.9 kJ Answer (02.00)
mol –1 , the fraction of molecules at 700 K,
having enough energy to react to form Tf iKf m
products is e–x. The value of x is _________.
(Rounded off to the nearest integer) 12.2 1000
0.93 i 1.86
[Use R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1] 122 100
Answer (14) i = 0.5
Energy of activation, Ea = 80.9 kJ mol–1 n(Benzoic acid) (Benzoic acid)n
Temperature of reaction, T = 700 K Total number of particles after association
i
Fraction of molecules having enough energy Number of particles before association
to react e Ea /RT e x
1
0.5
E 80900 n
x a 13.9 14
RT 8.31 700 n=2
12
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-E
5. The number of stereoisomers possible for Sol. According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle
[Co(ox)2(Br)(NH3)]2– is __________.
[ox = oxalate] h
xp
Answer (3) 4
Total number of stereoisomers possible for
[Co(OX)2Br(NH3)]2– is 3. h
x (P mV)
Br 2– 4 mV
6.63 1034 Js
OX Co OX
4 3.14 10 103 kg 90 ms1 0.05
13
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
PART–C : MATHEMATICS
Then the number of possible functions
SECTION - I
g : A A such that gof = f is :
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
(1) 55 (2) 105
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
(3) 5! (4) 10C
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE 5
is correct. Answer (2)
Choose the correct answer : Sol. Not that f(1) = f(2) = 2
1. If the mirror image of the point (1, 3, 5) with f(3) = f(4) = 4
respect to the plane 4x – 5y + 2z = 8 is f(5) = f(6) = 6
(, , ), then 5() equals :
f(7) = f(8) = 8
(1) 43 (2) 47 f(9) = f(10) = 10
(3) 41 (4) 39 gof(1) = f(1) g(2) = f(1) = 2
Answer (2) gof(2) = f(2) g(2) = f(2) = 2
1 3 5 4 1 5 3 2 5 8 gof(3) = f(3) g(4) = f(3) = 4
Sol. 2
4 5 2 16 25 4 In function g(x), 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 should be
mapped to 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 respectively. Each
1 3 5 2
of remaining elements can be mapped to
4 5 2 5
any of 10 elements.
8 10 4 Number of possible g(x) is 105
1, 3, 5
5 5 5
4. Let slope of the tangent line to a curve at any
5 5 5 5 47
xy2 y
2. A natural number has prime factorization point P(x, y) be given by . If the curve
x
given by n = 2x3y5z, where y and z are such
intersects the line x + 2y = 4 at x = –2, then the
5
that y + z = 5 and y–1 + z–1 = , y z . Then the value of y, for which the point (3, y) lies on the
6 curve, is :
number of odd divisors of n, including 1, is :
18 4
(1) 12 (2) 6x (1) (2) –
35 3
(3) 11 (4) 6
18 18
Answer (1) (3) – (4) –
11 19
Sol. y + z = 5 …(i) Answer (4)
1 1 yz 5
yz 6 …(ii) dy
y2
y
y z yz 6 Sol.
dx x
Equation with y and z as roots is dy y
y2
x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 dx x
x = 2, 3, y = 3, z = 2 (y > z) 1 dy 1 1
1
n= 2x · 33 · 52 y2 dx x y
For odd divisors x = 1 only 1
Let z
No. of odd divisors = 1 × 4 × 3 = 12 y
3. Let A = {1, 2, 3, ..., 10} and f : A A be 1 dy dz
defined as y2 dx dx
k 1 if k is odd dz 1
f(k) = z 1
k if k is even dx x
14
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
dz 1 A (r x) r 2 x 2
z 1
dx x
dA x r 2 x2 rx x2
1
dx r 2 x2 (r x)
IF = e x
e n x x dx r 2 x2 r 2 x2
z x 1 x dx r 2 rx 2x2 (x r) (2x r)
r x
2 2
r 2 x2
x 2
zx c
2 dA r
0 x
x x 2 dx 2
c …(i)
y 2 dA r
Sign change of at x A has
Putting x = –2 in x + 2y = 4, we get y = 3 dx 2
r
Put (–2, 3) in (i) maximum at x BC 2 r 2 x 2 3 r,
2
4 3
c AM r
3 2
AB AC 3 r
x x 2 4
(i) …(ii)
y 2 3 6. A seven digit number is formed using digits
3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5. The probability, that number
Put x = 3 in (ii)
so formed is divisible by 2, is :
3 9 4
1 6
y 2 3 (1) (2)
7 7
18
y
19 4 3
(3) (4)
5. The triangle of maximum area that can be 7 7
inscribed in a given circle of radius ‘r’ is :
Answer (4)
(1) An isosceles triangle with base equal to 2r.
Sol. For even number, units place should be filled
2r with 4 only.
(2) An equilateral triangle of height .
3 6!
6! 3! 3
P 2!2!2!
(3) A right angle triangle having two of its
sides of length 2r and r. 7! 2! 7! 7
(4) An equilateral triangle having each of its 2!3!2!
7. Let F1(A, B, C) = (A ~B) [~C (A B)] ~A
side of length 3 r.
and F2(A, B) = (A B) (B ~A) be two
Answer (4) logical expressions. Then :
Sol. Area of triangle ABC (1) F1 and F2 both are tautologies
A (2) Both F1 and F2 are not tautologies
(3) F1 is a tautology but F2 is not a tautology
r (4) F1 is not a tautology but F2 is a tautology
O Answer (4)
r r
x
B C Sol. A B
2
r -x 2
M
1
A BC AM
2
1 C
2 r 2 x 2 (r x)
2 A ~B
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
f(1 ) a b 1
f(1 ) 0
a b 1 0 a b 1 0
a + b = –1 ...(ii)
9. Let L be a line obtained from the intersection
~C (AB )
of two planes x + 2y + z = 6 and y + 2z = 4.
If point P( ) is the foot of perpendicular
from (3, 2, 1) on L, then the value of
21() equals :
(1) 68 (2) 102
(3) 142 (4) 136
Answer (2)
~A
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Sol. Direction of line L = 1 2 1 3iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
0 1 2
F1 is not a
tautology d.r’s = < 3, –2, 1>
A point on line (–2, 4, 0)
x2 y4 z
F1 Line =
3 2 1
B ~ A ~ B ~ A
Foot of perpendicular from (3, 2, 1) be (3 – 2,
–2 + 4, )
(3 – 5) . 3 + (–2 + 2) (–2) + ( – 1)1 = 0
9 – 15 + 4 – 4 + – 1 = 0
= F2
10
14 – 20 = 0
7
A B ~B ~A = ~(A B)
16 8 10
F2 is a tautology (, , ) , ,
7 7 7
8. Let f : R R be defined as 21( + + ) = (16 + 8 + 10)3 = 102
x 10. Let f(x) be a differentiable function at x = a
2 sin – 2 , if x – 1 with f(a) = 2 and f(a) = 4. Then
2 xf(a) – af(x)
f(x) | ax x b |, if – 1 x 1 lim equals :
sin (x), xa x–a
if x 1
(1) 4 – 2a (2) a + 4
(3) 2a – 4 (4) 2a + 4
If f(x) is continuous on R, then a + b equals :
Answer (1)
(1) –1 (2) –3
xf(a) af(x) 0
(3) 3 (4) 1 Sol. L lim 0 form
x a xa
Answer (1)
Using L’ Hospital rule we get
Sol. f(1 ) 2
f(a) af (x)
L lim
f(1 ) a b 1 x a 1
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
a2 a 3 b 2 b3
4 2 a ... b ...
A2 = sinx dx cosx dx 2 2 1
2 3
2 3
0
4 ln(1 + a) + ln(1 + b)
A1 : A2 = 1: 2 & A1 + A2 = 1 ln(1 + a)(1 + b) = ln 2
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
n2 6n 10
f(x)
x ln t
15. The sum of the series is equal Sol.
1 1 t
dt
n 1 (2n 1)!
to : 1 1/x ln t
then f 1 dt
x 1 t
41 19 –1
(1) e e 10 1 1
8 8 Let t dt du
u u2
41 19 –1
(2) e– e 10 1
8 8 ln
1
f
x u 1 dx
41 19 –1 x 1 1 2
(3) – e e 10 1 u
8 8 u
41 19 –1 1 x lnu x ln t
f du dt
(4) e e 10
x 1 u 1 u 1 t 1 t
8 8
Answer (2) 1 x 1 1
f x f ln t dt
1 t t 1 t
x 1
n2 6n 10 1 2n2 12n 20
(2n 1)! x 1 1 1
n1 2n 1 !
Sol. = ln t
2 n 1 dt
1 1 t t t 1
x ln t 1
1 n(2n 1) 11n 20 dt ln x 2
= 2 (2n 1)!
1 t 2
n1
1 1 2 1
f e f lne
11 29 e
2 2
11n
1 n 1 2 2
= 17. If vectors a 1 xiˆ – ˆj kˆ and a 2 ˆi yjˆ zkˆ are
2 n1 (2n)! 2 n1 (2n 1)!
collinear, then a possible unit vector parallel to
15 e e 1 11 e e 1
ˆi yjˆ zkˆ xiˆ j kˆ
= 2 2 4 2 10
1 x,y ,z
1
41 19 1 xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ
= e e 10
8 8
1
x i ˆj kˆ
loge t 1
16. For x > 0, if f(x) = (1 t) dt, then f(e) f e is Unit vector
1
1 2 2
2
equal to :
1 ˆi 2 ˆj 2kˆ
(1) 1 (2)
2 1 2 4
(3) 0 (4) –1 ˆi ˆj kˆ
Let 2 = 1, possible unit vector
Answer (2) 3
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
1 function fog is :
(1) (2) 1
3
4
1 1 (1) (– , – 2] – ,
(3) (4) 3
4 2
3
Answer (4) (2) (– , – 2] – ,
2
Sol. Let P(h, k)
(3) (– , – 1] [2, )
3 cos 2 sin
Required laws h and k
2 2
(4) (– , – 2] [–1, )
cos = 2h – 3 and sin = 2h – 2
Squaring and adding we get Answer (1)
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
Sol. ∵ + = 1 and = –1 Sol. Clearly the curve is a circle with centre (a, b)
Equation x2 – x = 0 has two roots and . Centre lies on the line x 2 2y 3 ...(i)
2 – = 1 and 2 – = 1
∵ Circle passes through A(3, –3) and B(4,
n + 1 – n = n – 1 and n + n – n = n – 1
2 2 )
n + 1 + n + 1 – n – n = n – 1 + n – 1
So centre lies on perpendicular bisector of
Pn + 1 – Pn = Pn – 1 AB, which is
Pn = 29 – 11
x 3 2 2 y 3 ...(ii)
(Pn)2 = 182 = 324
Clearly x = 3 and y = 0
2. The total number of 4-digit numbers whose a = 3 and b = 0
greatest common divisor with 18 is 3, is _____.
a2 + b2 + ab = 9
Answer (1000)
5. Let X1, X2, ....., X18 be eighteen observations
Sol. Let A denotes a set of number divisible by 3. 18 18
B denotes a set of number divisible by 2. such that (Xi ) 36 and (Xi )2 90 ,
i1 i1
and C denotes a set of number divisible by 9. where and are distinct real numbers. If the
standard deviation of these observations is 1,
Required number of numbers
then the value of | – | is _________.
= n(A) – n(A B) – n(c) + n(A B C) Answer (4)
= 3000 – 1500 – 1000 + 500 18
= 1000 Sol. ∵ (xi )2 90
i1
3. Let L be a common tangent line to the curves
18 18
and (xi ) (xi ) 18
4x2 + 9y2 = 36 and (2x)2 + (2y)2 = 31. Then the
square of the slope of the line L is _________. i 1 i1
Answer (3) = 36 + 18 ( – )
2
x 2 y2 (xi )
2
(xi )
Sol. Tangent to the curve 1 is Var x Var x
9 14 So i i
18 18
2
y mx 9m 4 90 2
1 2
and equation of tangent to the curve 18
31 2 2
x 2 y2 is
4
0, –4
y mx
31
4
1 m2 ∵ and are distinct, so 4
6. If the arithmetic mean and geometric mean of
31 31 2
for common tangent 9m2 4 m the p th and q th terms of the sequence –16,
4 4 8, –4, 2, .... satisfy the equation 4x2 – 9x + 5 =
5 2 15 0, then p + q is equal to _______.
m
4 4 Answer (10)
m2 = 3 p–1
1 p
Sol. Tp –16 – –1 .25–p
4. Let the normals at all the points on a given 2
curve pass through a fixed point (a, b). If the
q
and Tq –1 .25–q
curve passes through (3, –3) and (4, −2 2 ),
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JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-E
1
7. If Im, n xm1 (1 x)n1 dx, for m, n 1, and 1 0 0
0 9. If the matrix A 0 2 0 satisfies the
1 3 0 1
x m 1 x n 1
(1 x)mn
dx Im, n , R , then equals
0
________. 1 0 0
Answer (1)
equation A 20 19
A A 0 4 0 for some
0 0 1
Sol. ∵ Im,n m,n
real numbers and , then – is equal to
1 x m – 1 xn – 1 ______.
= 0 dx let x = tan2
1 x m n Answer (4)
/4 tan2m – 2 tan2n – 2
.2 tan sec2 d 1 0 0 1 0 0
0 2 m n
sec Sol. ∵ A 0 4 0 ,A 0 16 0 ,......
2 4
∵ z 1 represents the distance of z from –1. 10. Let a be an integer such that all the real roots
of the polynomial 2x5 + 5x4 + 10x3 + 10x2 + 10x
+ 10 lie in the interval (a, a + 1). Then, | a | is
equal to _________.
–5 B Answer (2)
–1
A Sol. Let f(x) = 2x5 + 5x4 + 10(x3 + x2 + x + 1)
∵ f(–1) = 3
z 1 is maximum is z is at A. and f(–2) = –34
z is at A.
hence roots of f(x) lies in (–2, –1)
2 2 2 2
AB z 1 4 4 – 2 4 4 cos135 32 16 2
= 32 and = 16 Clearly, a 2
21