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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Two projectiles are thrown with same initial velocity making an angle of 45 and 30 with the
horizontal respectively. The ratio of their respective ranges will be :
(A) 1: 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
Q2. In a Vernier Calipers, 10 divisions of Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. When
both jaws of Vernier callipers touch each other, the zero of the Verier scale is shifted to the left of
zero of the main scale and 4th Vernier scale division exactly coincides with the main scale
reading. One main scale division is equal to 1 mm. While measuring diameter of a spherical body,
the body is held between two jaws. It is now observed that zero of the Vernier scale lies between
30 and 31 divisions of main scale reading and 6th Vernier scale division exactly coincides with the
main scale reading. The diameter of the spherical body will be :
(A) 3.02 cm (B) 3.06 cm
(C) 3.10 cm (D) 3.20 cm
Q3. A ball of mass 0.15 kg hits the wall with its initial speed of 12 ms-1 and bounces back without
changing its initial speed. If the force applied by the wall on the ball during the contact is 100 N,
calculate the time during of the contact of ball with the wall.
(A) 0.018 s (B) 0.036 s
(C) 0.009 s (D) 0.072 s
Q4. A body of mass 8 kg and another of mass 2 kg are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of
their respective momenta will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
Q5. Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated by
a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then in equilibrium
condition, the ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface of the sphere A and B will
be :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-3
Q7. Light travels in two media M1 and M2 with speeds 1.5 108 ms 1
and 2.0 108 ms 1 respectively. The critical angle between them is :
3 2
(A) tan1 (B) tan1
7 3
3 2
(C) cos1 (D) sin1
4 3
Q8. A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of earth with a velocity equal to one third of
escape velocity. The maximum height attained by the body will be :
(Take radius of earth = 6400 km and g = 10 ms-2)
(A) 800 km (B) 1600 km
(C) 2133 km (D) 4800 km
Q9. The maximum and minimum voltage of an amplitude modulated signal are 60V and 20 V
respectively. The percentage modulation index will be :
(A) 0.5 % (B) 50 %
(C) 2 % (D) 30 %
M'
Q10. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts having masses
3
2M'
and M' M, The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of two parts will be :
3
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
Q11. An ice cube of dimensions 60 cm 50 cm 20cm is placed in an insulation box of wall thickness
1cm. The box keeping the ice cube at 0 C of temperature is brought to a room of temperature
40 C . The rate of melting of ice is approximately :
(Latent heat of fusion of ice is 3.4 105 J kg1 and thermal conducting of insulation wall is
0.05 Wm 1 C1 )
(A) 61 103 kg s 1 (B) 61 105 kg s 1
(C) 208 kg s 1 (D) 30 105 kg s 1
Q12. A gas has n degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heat of gas at constant volume to the
specific heat of gas at constant pressure will be :
n n2
(A) (B)
n2 n
n n
(C) (D)
2n 2 n2
Q13. A transverse wave is represented by y 2 sin t kx cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for
which the wave velocity becomes equal to the maximum particle velocity. Will be :
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) (D) 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-4
I 2
6V
Q16. Two concentric circular loops of radii r1 30cm and r2 50cm are
placed in X – Y plane as shown in the figure. A current I = 7A is
flowing through them in the direction as shown in figure. The net I
magnetic momentum of this system of two circular loops is r1
approximately : I
7 7
(A) k̂ Am2 (B) k̂ Am2 r2
2 2
ˆ
(C) 7k Am 2
(D) 7kˆ Am2
Q17. A velocity selector consists of electric field E E kˆ and magnetic field B B ˆj with B = 12 mT. The
value of E required for and electron of energy 728 eV moving along the positive x-axis to pass
undeflected is :
(Given. Mass of electron 9.1 1031kg )
(A) 192 kVm -1 (B) 192 mVm-1
-1
(C) 9600 kVm (D) 16 kVm-1
Q18. Two masses M1 and M2 are tied together at the two ends of a light
inextensible string that passes over a frictionless pulley. When the mass M2
is twice that of M1. the acceleration of the system is a1. When the mass M2 is
a
thrice that of M1 the acceleration of the system is a2. The ratio 1 will be :
a2
M1
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3 M2
3 1
(C) (D)
2 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-5
Q19. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of
1
3 3
(A) 4 : 3 (B)
4
1
4 3
(C) 1 : 1 (D)
3
Q20. The area of cross section of the rope used to lift a load by a crane is 2.5 10 4 m2 . The maximum
lifting capacity of the crane is 10 metric tons. To increase the lifting capacity of the crane to 25
metric tons, the required area of cross section of the rope should be :
(A) 6.25 104 m2 (B) 10 10 4 m2
(C) 1 10 4 m2 (D) 1.67 10 4 m2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-6
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1.
If A 2 ˆi 3ˆj kˆ m and B ˆi 2jˆ 2kˆ m. The magnitude of component of vector A along
vector B will be _________ m.
Q2. The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod about an axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and
passing through the centre will be ________ m.
Given, the length of the rod is 10 3 m.
Q4. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation given below :
2 2 4
1 X 1 X Y
2
The binding energies per nucleon for 12 X and 24 Y are 1.1 Me V and 7.6
Me V respectively. The energy released in this process is _________ Me V.
Q5. A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg, cross sectional area 0.4 m 2 and length 20 m is hanging from
a fixed support. Neglecting the lateral contraction. The elongation in the rod due to its own weight
is x 10 9 m. The value of x is __________.
(Given, young modulus Y 2 1011Nm2 and g 10ms2 )
0 x
100 200 300 400 I B A
Q7. Three point charges of magnitude 5 C , 0.16 C, and 0.3 C are located at the vertices A, B, C of
a right angled triangle whose sides are AB = 3 cm, BC = 3 2 cm and CA = 3 cm and point A is
the right angle corner. Charge at point A experiences _________ N of electrostatic force due to
the other two charges.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-7
Q8. In a coil of resistance 8 , the magnetic flux due to an external magnetic field varies with time
2
as
3
9 t 2 . The value of total heat produced in the coil, till the flux becomes zero, will be
_________J.
Q9. A potentiometer wire of length 300 cm is connected in series with a resistance 780 and a
standard cell of emf 4V. A constant current flows through potentiometer wire. The length of the
null point for cell of emf 20 mV is found to be 60 cm. The resistance of the potentiometer wire is
_________ .
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-8
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Hemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass. The number of Fe atoms in 3.3 g of hemoglobin is
(Given: Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u, NA = 6.022 1023 mol1.)
(A) 1.21 105 (B) 12.0 1016
20 22
(C) 1.21 10 (D) 3.4 10
Q3. Class XII students were asked to prepare one litre of buffer solution of pH 8.26 by their Chemistry
teacher. The amount of ammonium chloride to be dissolved by the student in 0.2 M ammonia
solution to make one litre of the buffer is
(Given: pKb (NH3) = 4.74
Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol1
Molar mass of NH4Cl = 53.5 g mol1)
(A) 53.5 g (B) 72.3 g
(C) 107.0 g (D) 126.0 g
Q4. At 30oC, the half life for the decomposition of AB2 is 200 s and is independent of the initial
concentration of AB2. The time required for 80% of the AB2 to decompose is
Given: log 2 = 0.30
log 3 = 0.48
(A) 200s (B) 323 s
(C) 467s (D) 532 s
Q5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Finest gold is red in colour, as the size of the particles increase, it appears purple
then blue and finally gold.
Reason R: The colour of the colloidal solution depends on the wavelength of light
scattered by the dispersed particles.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is true.
(D) A is false but R is true.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-9
Q6. The metal that has very low melting point and its periodic position is closer to a metalloid is
(A) Al (B) Ga
(C) Se (D) In
Q7. The metal that is not extracted from its sulfide ore is
(A) Aluminium (B) Iron
(C) Lead (D) Zinc
Q8. The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen peroxide and acidified potassium
permanganate are
(A) Mn4+, H2O only (B) Mn2+, H2O only
4+
(C) Mn , H2O, O2 only (D) Mn2+, H2O, O2 only
Q9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled
as Reason R.
Assertion A: LiF is sparingly soluble in water.
+
Reason R: The ionic radius of Li ion is smallest among its group members, hence has least
hydration enthalpy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q10. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled
as Reason R.
Assertion A: Boric acid is a weak acid.
Reason R: Boric acid is not able to release H+ ion on its own. It receives OH- ion from water and
releases H+ ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Q11. The metal complex that is diamagnetic is (Atomic number; Fe,26; Cu,29)
(A) K3[Cu(CN)4] (B) K2[Cu(CN)4]
(C) K3[Fe(CN)4] (D) K4[FeCl6]
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-10
Q13. The correct decreasing order of priority of functional groups in naming an organic compound as
per IUPAC system of nomenclature is
(A) COOH > CONH2 > COCl > CHO
(B) SO3H > COCl >CONH2 > CN
(C) COOR > COCl > NH2 > C=O
(D) COOH > COOR > CONH2 > COCl
Q14. Which of the following is not an example of benzenoid compound?
(A) (B)
NH2
(C) (D)
O
(B) EtO C CH2 CH2CH2CHO
O
(C) EtO C CH2 CH2CH2COOH
Q17. The correct sequential order of the reagents for the given reaction is
NO 2 OH
NH2 I
+ + +
(A) HNO2, Fe / H ,HNO2, KI, H2O/H (B) HNO2, KI, Fe / H ,HNO2, H2O / warm
(C) HNO2, KI, HNO2, Fe / H , H2O/H+
+
(D) HNO2, Fe / H+, KI, HNO2,H2O/warm
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-11
Q20. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Phenolphthalein is a pH dependent indicator, remains colourless in acidic solution
and gives pink colour in basic medium.
Reason R: Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. It doesn’t dissociate in basic medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-12
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. A 10 g mixture of hydrogen and helium is contained in a vessel of capacity 0.0125 m 3 at 6 bar
o
and 27 C. The mass of helium in the mixture is ___________ g, (nearest integer)
Given: R = 8.3 JK1 mol1.
(Atomic masses of H and He are 1 u and 4u, respectively)
Q4. The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution of non-volatile solute A is 3K. The depression in
freezing point for 2 molal solution of A in the same solvent is 6 K. The ratio of Kb and Kf i.e Kb/Kf is
1 : X. The value of X is [ nearest integer]
Q5. 20mL of 0.02 M hypo solution is used for the titration of 10mL of copper sulphate solution, in the
presence of excess of KI using starch as an indicator. The molarity of Cu2+ is found to
be_____________102 M. [ nearest integer]
Given: 2Cu2 4I Cu2I2 I2
I2 2S2 O32 2I S4 O 62
Q6. The number of non- ionisable protons present in the product B obtained from the
following reaction is______________________.
C2H5 OH PCl3 C2H5 Cl A
A PCl3 B
Q7. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the compound with strongest oxidizing ability among
MnF4, MnF3 and MnF2 is________ B.M [ nearest integer]
Q9. A 100 mL solution of CH3CH2MgBr on treatment with methanol produces 2.24 mL of a gas at
STP. The weight of gas produced is ____________ mg. [ nearest integer]
Q10. How many of the following drugs is / are example(s) of broad spectrum antibiotics?
Ofloxacin, Penicillin G, Terpineol, Salvarsan.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-13
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. The minimum value of the sum of the squares of the roots of x 2 3 a x 1 2a is :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
1 92 102 112
Q3. Let A 1 and B 122 132 142 , then the value of A'BA is :
1 152 162 172
(A) 1224 (B) 1042
(C) 540 (D) 539
n
n
Q4. Ci n C j is equal to
i,j 0
i j
(A) 22n 2n
Cn (B) 22n 1 2n1
Cn 1
1 2n
(C) 22n Cn (D) 2n 1 2n 1
Cn
2
2 2
Q5. Let P and Q be any points on the curves x 1 y 1 1 and y x2 , respectively. The
distance between P and Q is minimum for some value of the abscissa of P in the interval
1 1 3
(A) 0, (B) ,
4 2 4
1 1 3
(C) , (D) ,1
4 2 4
Q6. If the maximum value of a, for which the function fa x tan1 2x 3ax 7 is non-decreasing in
6 , 6 , is a , then fa 8 is equal to
9 4
(A) 8 (B) 8
4 9 2
9 4 2
1 2
(C) 8 2
(D) 8
9 4
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-14
d
Q8. The value of loge 2
dx
logcos x cos ec x at x is
4
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 2
(C) 4 (D) 4
20
2
Q9. sin x cos x
0
dx is equal to
(A) 10 4 (B) 10 2
(C) 20 2 (D) 20 2
dy xy x 4 2x
Q10. Let the solution curve y = f(x) of the differential equation 2 , x 1, 1 pass
dx x 1 1 x2
3
2
through the origin. Then f x dx is equal to
3
2
1 3
(A) (B)
3 4 3 4
3 3
(C) (D)
6 4 6 2
Q11. The acute angle between the pair of tangents drawn to the ellipse 2x 2 3y2 5 from the point (1,
3) is
16 24
(A) tan1 (B) tan1
7 5 7 5
32 38 5
(C) tan1 (D) tan1
7 5 35
2
Q12. The equation of a common tangent to the parabolas y x2 and y x 2 is
(A) y 4 x 2 (B) y 4 x 1
(C) y 4 x 1 (D) y 4 x 2
Q13. Let the abscissae of the two points P and Q on a circle be the roots of x 2 4x 6 0 and the
ordinates of P and Q be the roots of y 2 2y 7 0 . If PQ is a diameter of the circle
x 2 y 2 2ax 2by c 0 , then the value of a b c is……….
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 16
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-15
Q14. If the line x 1 0 is a directrix of the hyperbola kx 2 y 2 6 ,then the hyperbola passes through
the point
(A) 2 5, 6
(B) 5, 3
(C) 5, 2 (D) 2 5, 3 6
Q15. A vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of the plane determined by the vectors ˆi, ˆi ˆj and
the plane determined by the vectors ˆi ˆj, ˆi kˆ . The obtuse angle between a and the vector
b ˆi 2ˆj 2kˆ is
3 2
(A) (B)
4 3
4 5
(C) (D)
5 6
(C) 2x 1 x 1 4x
2 2
(D) 4 1 x 1 4x
2 2
4
Q18. Let X be a binomially distributed random variable with mean 4 and variance . Then,
3
54 P X 2 is equal to
73 146
(A) (B)
27 27
146 126
(C) (D)
81 81
1
1 cos x sin x
3
Q19. The integral dx is equal to
2
1 sin2x
3
x x
tan tan
1 2 12 C 1 2 6
(A) loge (B) loge C
2 x 2 x
tan tan
2 6 2 3
x x
tan tan
(C) loge 2 6 C 1
(D) loge 2 12 C
x 2 x
tan tan
2 12 2 6
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-16
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-17
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. Let A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and B 3, 6, 7, 9 . Then the number of elements in the set
C A : C B is………..
Q2. The largest value of a, for which the perpendicular distance of the plane containing the lines
r ˆi ˆj ˆi ajˆ kˆ and r ˆi ˆj ˆi ˆj akˆ from the point 2, 1, 4 is 3 , is……..
Q3. Numbers are to be formed between 1000 and 3000, which are divisible by 4, using the digits 1, 2,
3, 4, 5 and 6 without repetition of digits. Then the total number of such numbers is……..
10
k m
Q4. If k
k 1
4 2
, where m and n are co-prime, then m + n is equal to……..
k 1 n
Q5. If the sum of solutions of the system of equations 2sin2 cos 2 0 and 2cos 2 3 sin 0 in
the interval 0, 2 is k , then k is equal to ……..
Q6. The mean and standard deviation of 40 observations are 30 and 5 respectively. It was noticed
that two of these observations 12 and 10 were wrongly recorded. If is the standard deviation of
the data after omitting the two wrong observations from the data, then 382 is equal to………
dy
Q8. Suppose y y x be the solution curve to the differential equation y 2 e x such that
dx
lim y x is finite. If a and b are respectively the x and y intercepts of the tangent to the curve at x
x
= 0, then the value of a – 4b is equal to………..
Q9. Different A.P.’s are constructed with the first term 100, the last term 199 and integral common
differences. The sum of the common differences of all such A.P.’s having at least 3 terms and at
most 33 terms is……..
a b
, where a, b, c, d 1, 0, 1, 2, 3,.....,10 , such that A A ,
1
Q10. The number of matrices A
c d
is………..
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-18
FIITJEE
KEYS to JEE (Main)-2022
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A
9. B 10. C 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B
17. A 18. B 19. C 20. A
SECTION – B
1. 2 2. 5 3. 27 4. 26
5. 25 6. 200 7. 17 8. 2
9. 20 10. 2
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. A or B 15. B 16. A
17. B 18 C 19. C 20. C
SECTION – B
1. 8 2. 4 3. 57 4. 1
5. 4 6. 2 7. 5 8. 12
9. 3 10. 1
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-19
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. DROP 7. C 8. D
9. D 10. B 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B
17. D 18. B 19. A 20. D
SECTION – B
1. 112 2. 2 3. 30 4. 166
5. 3 6. 238 7. 125 8. 3
9. 53 10. 50
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-20
FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE (Main)-2022
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
2
u sin90
Sol1. R1
g
u2 sin60
R2
g
R1 2
R2 3
1.8 1.8
Sol3. F 100
t t
3.6
t 0.036 sec
100
2
Sol4. KE
2m
2 m
2
P 8 4
1
P
2 2 1
P 2
1
P2 1
Sol5. VA VB
kQ A kQB
RA RB
2 2
Q R R 1 2 2
A A B
QB RB R A 2 1 1
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-21
Sol6. B0 5 106
4 108
Speed of wave V 8 107
5
E V B 4 10 4 102 V / m
2GM
Sol8. Vc
R
Using conservation of Mechanical Energy
GMm 1 Ve2 GMm
m
R 2 9 R h
GM GM GM
R h R 9R
1 8 R 6400
h 800km
R h 9R 8 8
1 h / P1 1
Sol10.
2 h / P2 1
P1 P2 asFnet 0
Sol11. Area = 2 b bh h
A 2 0.6 0.5 0.5 0.2 0.2 0.6
1.04M2
t 1 102
R thermal
KA 0.05 1.04
d T 40 0.05 1.04
2
2.08 102 J / s
dt Rthermas 10
2.08 102 J / S m 3.4 105
m 61 105 kg / s
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-22
nR
Sol12. Cv
2
Cp Cv R
n 2 R
2
Cv n
CP n 2
Sol16. M I A1 IA 2
22 25 9 ˆ
M 7 k
7 100 100
7
M kˆ Am2
2
1
Sol17. KE = 728 1.6 10 19 9.1 10 31 V 2
2
V 16 106 m / s
For lorentz force to be zero
eE eVB
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-23
E vB 16 106 12 103
192 103 V / m
m2 g m1 g 2mg mg g
Sol18. a1
m1 m2 3m 3
3mg mg g
a2
4m 2
a1 2
a2 3
Sol19. R R A 1/3
mass mA mA
Volume 4 3 4 / 3 R03 A
R
3
Density is independent of mass number
Weight
Sol20. Breaking stress =
Area
10 25
2.5 10.4 A
A 6.25 104 m2
SECTION – B
A B
Sol1. Component of A Along B
B
=2
I m 2 / 12
Sol2. k
m m 2 3
10 3
k 5
2 3
mg dx
Sol5.
0
dy
0
x
AY
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-24
mg
25 109 m
2AY
x 25.00
IC RC
Sol6. Voltage gain
IB RB
5 103 2
6
100 10 0.5
= 200
Fnet 15 2 8 2
= 17 N
2
Sol8.
3
9 t2 0
t 3 sec
d 4t
Emf =
dt 3
4 t
Emf t
I 3
R 8 6
3
2 t2
Heat = I Rdt
0
36
8 dt 2J
4
Sol9. I
R 780
4R
Potential Difference across AB I R
R 780
4R 60
Potential Difference across AC =
R 780 300
4R
2 102 R 20
5 R 780
Sol10. In figure a
k 2k 2k
Keq
3k 3
3M
T 2 3s
2K
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-25
In figure b
K eq 3K
M
T ' 2
3K
T' 2 X 2
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
0.34 3.3
Sol1. Number of Fe atoms 6.022 1023
100 56
1.206 1020
Sol5. Finest gold sol is red in colour, as the size of particle increases, it appears purple then blue and
finally gold. The colour of colloidal solution depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the
dispersed particles. The wavelength of light further depends on size and nature of the particles.
Hence, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-26
Sol9. Due to high lattice energy, LiF is sparingly soluble in water. Li+ has high hydration energy among
its group members due to smallest size.
Sol10.
OH
OH +
B +H
H3BO 3 + H2O HO B OH2 HO OH
OH
OH
List-I List II
Pollutant Source
(A) Microorganisms (I) Domestic sewage
(B) Plant nutrients (II) Chemical fertilizer
(C) Toxic heavy metals (III) Chemical factory
(D) Sediment (IV) Strip mining
Sol14. The structure consisting benzene ring is called benzenoidal structure and options (A) and (B)
donot contain benzene ring, so they are non benzenoidal.
Sol15.
N2Cl OH
H2O + N2 + HCl
Sol16.
O
EtO C CH2 CH2 CH2 CN (i) DIBAL - H OHC CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO
(ii) H2O + EtOH
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-27
Sol17.
NO 2 NO 2 NO 2 NH2
HNO2 Fe / H+
KI
N2Cl I I
NH2
HNO2
OH N2Cl
H2O
N2 +
Warm
I I
Sol18. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a mixture of isoprene and sulphur.
Sol20. Phenolphtalein is a pH dependant indicator. It is a weak acid which is colourless in acidic medium
but gives pink colour in basic medium. The pink colour is due to its conjugate form.
Phenolphthalein dissociates in basic medium. Therefore, assertion is true but reason is false.
HPh aq. H Ph
(Pink )
(Colourless)
SECTION – B
Sol1. PV nmix RT
6 12.5
nmix 3
0.083 300
Let moles of He is x
Moles of H2 3 x
4x 2 3 x 10
x 2 mol
Mass of He = 8 gm
48 3
Sol2. 22 X Number of neutrons = 26
Number of electrons = 25
26 25
% of extra electrons 100 4%
25
Sol3. H U ngRT
H 59.6 1 8.314 300 103 57.10kJ / mol
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-28
4 3
Sol7. MnF4 MnF3
E.C Ar 3d3 Ar 3d4
2 E0 3 2 1.57V
MnF2 Mn |Mn
5 E0 4 2 1.27V
Ar 3d Mn |Mn
MnF3 is the strongest oxidizing agent
4 4 2 24 4.89 5 B.M
Sol8.
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(1) (1) (4) (4) (2)
Sol9.
OCH3
CH3CH2MgBr + CH3OH CH3CH3 + Mg
Br
3
2.24 10
Moles of C2H6 = 10 4
22.4
Weight of C2H6 10 4 30 3mg
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-29
Sol10. Ofloxacin is the only broad spectrum antibiotic given in the question.
Pencillin – G is narrow spectrum antibiotic.
Salvarsan is mainly active against spirochete, a bacteria that causes syphilis.
Terpineol is an antiseptic.
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
2
Sol1. Let and be the roots of the equation x + (3 – a)x + 1 = 2a
2 2 2 2 2
Therefore + = a – 3, = 1 – 2a + = (a – 3) – 2(1– 2a) = a – 6a + 9 – 2 + 4a = a –
2 2 2
2a + 7 = (a – 1) + 6 So, + 6
Sol2. |z – i| = | z + 5i| So, z lies on perpendicular bisector of (0, 1) and (0, –5) i.e., line y = –2
as |z| = 2 z = –2i x = 0 and y = –2 so, x + 2y + 4 = 0
Sol3.
92 10 2 112 1
A BA 1 1 1 122 132 14 2 1 =
15 2 162 172 1
1
92 122 152 2 2 2
2 2 2
10 13 16 11 14 17 1
1
9 2 122 15 2 10 2 13 2 16 2 112 14 2 17 2 539
n n n n n n
n
Sol4. Ci n C j n
Ci n C j n Ci n C j = n Ci n C j n Ci n Ci = 2n 2n 2n
Cn 22n 2n
Cn
i,j 0 i,j 0 i j j 0 j 0 i 0
2 2
Sol6. fa (x) tan 1 2x 3ax 7 fa (x) 2
3a fa (x) 0 3a
1 4x 1 4x 2
2 1 6 2 6 9
amax a fa tan1 3 7 8
3 2 9
2
8 8 8 9 2 4(9 2 )
1 4
36
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-30
e3 x 1
Sol7.
x e 1
,R
lim
3x
3 3x
x e3 x 1 x 0
e3 x 1
x
3x
9x 2
1 3 x ........ 1
2
1
3 x 1 5
lim 2
x 0 9x 2 2
1 3x ........ 1
2
logcos ecx
Sol8. Let f(x)=logcos x cosecx
logcos x
1
logcos x.sin x cos ecx cot x logcos ecx .(sin x)
cos x
f (x) 2
logcos x
1
log log 2
2 2
At x f 2
at x , loge 2f (x) = 4
4 4 1 log 2 4
log
2
2
20 2
cos 2x
Sol9. I = ( sin x cos x )2 dx = 20 (1 sin2x )dx 40 (1 sin2x )dx 40 x
0 0 0 2 0
1 1
40 20( 2)
2 2 2
xdx
dy xy x 4 2x x2 1
Sol10. 2 , I.F. e x2 1 1 x2 ( x (1 , 1) )
dx x 1 1 x2
x5
Solution of differential equation is y 1 x 2 x 4 2x dx 5
x2 c
x 5 5x 2
Curve is passing through origin , c = 0 y
5 1 x2
3
2
x 5 5x 2 3
dx
3 5 1 x 2 3 4
2
x2 y2
Sol11. 2
2
1
5 5
2 3
Equation of tangent having slope m is
5 2 5
y mx m , which passes through (1 , 3) and we get
3 3
44
m1 + m2 = - 4 and m1m2 = -
9
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-31
m1 m2 24
Acute angle between the tangents is tan1 tan1
1 m1m2 7 5
2 1
Sol12. Equation of tangent of slope m to y = x is y mx m 2 ………………….(i)
4
2 1
Equation of tangent of slope m to y = –(x – 2) is y m(x 2) m2 ……………(ii)
4
If both equation represent the same line therefore on comparing (i) and (ii) we get
m= 0 , 4
therefore equation of tangent is y = 4x − 4 .
2
Sol13. Abscissae of PQ are roots of x – 4x – 6 = 0
Ordinates of PQ are roots of y2 + 2y – 7 = 0 and PQ is diameter
Equation of circle is x2 + y2 - 4x + 2y - 13 = 0……………(i)
2 2
But, given x + y + 2ax + 2by + c = 0………………(ii)
By comparison a = –2, b = 1, c = –13 a + b – c = –2 + 1 + 13 = 12
kx 2 y2 a
Sol14. Given hyperbola : – 1 so eccentricity e 1 k and directrices x
6 6 e
6 6
x 1
k k 1 k k 1
x2 y2
k = 2 therefore equation of hyperbola is – 1 .
3 6
Hence it passes through the point
5, - 2 .
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Sol15. If n̂1 is a vector normal to the plane determined by î and ˆi ˆj then n̂1 1 0 0 kˆ
1 1 0
ˆi ˆj kˆ
If n̂2 is a vector normal to the plane determined by ˆi ˆj, and ˆi kˆ then n̂2 1 1 0 ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 0 1
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Vector â is parallel to nˆ 1 nˆ 2 i. e. â is parallel to 0 0 1 ˆi ˆj
1 1 1
Given b ˆi 2jˆ 2kˆ
â.bˆ 1
cosine of acute angle between â and b̂
ˆ ˆ
| a| . |b | 2
3
obtuse angle between â and b̂ =
4
sin1 x co s1 x
Sol16. Let = k sin1 x co s 1 x k( )
2k
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-32
Sol18. Mean = 4 = = np
4 4 2
Variance = 2 = np(1- p) = 4(1-p)= p n=6
3 3 3
P X k n Ck pk (1 p)n k
P X 2 P X 0 P X 1 P X 2
6 C0 p0 (1 p)6 6 C1p1(1 p)5 6 C2p2 (1 p)4
6 1 6 2 4
1 2 1 2 1 146
C0 6 C1 6 C2
6
1 3 1
1 cos x sin x 2 sin x
3 3 4
Sol19. dx dx
2 2
1 sin2x sin sin2x
3 3 3
3 1 3 1
sin x sin x
2 4 2 2 4
dx dx
sin sin 2x sin 6 x cos 6 x
3
2 sin sin x cos x cos x
1 12 4 dx 1 6 3 dx
2 2
sin x cos x sin x cos x
6 6 6 6
1
cos ec x dx sec x dx
2 6 6
x
tan
1 x x 1 2 12 C
= loge tan loge tan C = loge
2 2 12 2 6 2 x
tan
2 6
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-33
2 1 2
Sol20. Area = 2 1 x
2
1 dx 2 1 1 x 2 dx 2 x dx 83
2
2 1
0 0 1
SECTION – B
Sol1. C A and C B
If C is formed only by 1, 2, 4, 5 total number of subsets of A = 27.
Total number of subsets of 1, 2, 4, 5 24
Number of subsets where C B
27 24 112
i 3 k
Sol2. The normal vector to the plane is n1 n2 1 a 1 1 a ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 1 a
equation of plane is 1 a x 1 y 1 z 0
1 a x y z 2 a ………….(i)
Now distance from 2, 1, 4 3
2 1 a 1 4 2 a
3
2
1 a 1 1
2
3 1 a 2 5a
2
a 2a 8 0 a 4, 2 largest value of a = 2.
10
k
Sol4.
k 1 k 4 k2 1
1 10 1 1
2
2 k 1 k k 1 k k 1
2
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 .....
2 3 3 7 91 111
1 1 110 55 m
1
2 111 222 111 n
m n 166
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-34
xi
Sol6. x 30 xi 1200 ………..(i)
40
1 2
2 xii2 30 25
40
x2i 37000
after omitting two wrong observations
yi 1200 12 10 1172
yi2 37000 144 100 36756
2
yi2 yi
a2
38 38
2
36756 1178 2
31
38 38
38a2 36756 36158 238
Sol7. L1 : x y 3 1 z 1 , x 2y z 2
plane containing the line P : 3x 8y 7z 4
If n be vector parallel to L.
ˆi ˆj kˆ
then n 1 3 1 6 5 ˆi 3 2 ˆj 2 1 kˆ as P containing the line
1 2 1
3 6 5 8 3 2 7 2 1 0
2
3
5/3 5
If be the acute angle between line L & Y axis then cos
25 49 83
1
9 9
415 cos2 125
dy
Sol8. y 2 e x
dx
I.F = e e x
dx
soln
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-35
ye x 2e
x
e2 x dx
e2x
2e x C
2
e x
y 2 Cex
2
as for x y finite c 0
e x
y 2
2
dy ex
dx 2
dy 1
dx x 0 2
3
x 0, y equation of tangent at
2
0, 3 / 2 is
3 1
y x
2 2
2y 3 x
x 2y 3
3
a 3 b
2
a 4b 3 6 3
199 100
Sol9. d1 I
2
199 100
d2 33
3
199 100
d3 I
4
199 100
dn I
i 1
di 33 11 or 9
sum of common differences = 33 + 11 + 9 = 53
a b
Sol10. A
c d
a b a b a2 bc ab bd
A2 2
c d c d ac dc ac d
a2 bc bc d2 1 …………(i)
and b a d c a d 0 ……….(ii)
Case 1
bc0
then possible ordered pair of
a,d 1, 1 1, 1 1, 11, 1 total 4 possible case
Case 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (26th July-Second Shift)-PCM-36
a d
then a,d 1, 11, 1
then bc 0
now if b 0
then possible choice for 1, 0, 1, 2,.....10 12
Similarly if c = 0 then possible choice for b 1, 0, 1, 2,....10 is = 12
but 0, 0 counted twice
bc 0 in 12 12 1 23 ways
total number of ways = 2 23 46
Total number of required matrices = 46 + 4 = 50
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