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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES

HALF COURSE TEST – I

JEE (Main)-2022

TEST DATE: 27-12-2020


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 75 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 25 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.

Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is 105 cm. Where should the two
bridges be placed so that the fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the ratio of
1: 3: 15.
(A) 75 cm, 25 cm,
(B) 25 cm, 75 cm,
(C) 75 cm, 100 cm,
(D) None of these

2. A closed pipe and an open pipe sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of
the open pipe is 30 cm, find by how much the length of the closed pipe must be changed to bring
the two pipe in unison:
(A) 14.86 cm
(B) 15.14 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 0.14 cm

3. In a sonometer experiment the bridges are separated by a fixed distance. The wire which may be
slightly elastic emits a tone of frequency n when held by tension T tension is increased to 4T, the
tone emitted by the wire will be of frequency.
(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) Slightly greater than 2 n
(D) Slightly less than 2 n

4. A uniform rope of length 12 metre & mass 6 kg, is swinging vertically from rigid base. From its
free end, one 2 kg mass is attached. At its bottom end one transverse wave is produced of
wavelength 0.06 metre. At upper end of rope, wavelength will be-
(A) 1.2 m
(B) 0.12 m
(C) 0.12 cm
(D) 0.12 mm

5. In the shown system m1 > m2. Thread QR is holding the system. If this thread is
cut, then just after cutting
(A) Acceleration of mass m1 is zero and that of m2 is directed upward

(B) Acceleration of mass m1 is zero and that of m2 is directed downward


m2
(C) Acceleration of both the blocks will be same Q m1
R
 m  m2 
(D) Acceleration of system is given by  1  kg , where k is a spring
 m1  m 2 
factor

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6. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively
their centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should
be projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 ( M1  M 2 )
d
G
(B) ( M1  M 2 )
d
G
(C) (M1  M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2

7. The change in the value of acceleration of earth towards sun, when the moon comes from the
position of solar eclipse to the position on the other side of earth in line with sun is - (mass of
moon = 7.36 x 1022 kg, the orbital radius of moon 3.8×108 m .
(A) 6.73 × 10–2 m/s2
(B) 6.73 × 10–3 m/s2
(C) 6.73 × 10–4 m/s2
(D) 6.73 × 10–5 m/s2

8. Time period of spring mass system will be- k


k
m
3k
(A) 2 2k 2k
m
3k
(B) 3
m
1 3k
(C)
2 m
m
(D) 2
3k

9. One solid sphere, having mass 1kg & diameter 0.3m is suspended from a wire. If the twisting
couple per unit twist for the wire is 6 × 10–3 N-m/radian, then the time period of small oscillations
will be-
(A) 0.7 sec
(B) 7.7 sec
(C) 77 sec
(D) 777 sec

10. Two parallel and opposite forces, each 4000 N, are applied tangentially to 
the upper and lower faces of a cubical metal block of 25 cm on a side. If
10
the shear modulus for the metal is 8×10 Pa, then the displacement of the 
upper surface relative to the lower surface will be –
(A) 0.02 mm L = 0.25 m
(B) 0.2 mm
(C) 0.0002 mm
(D) 2 mm

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11. A solid sphere of mass m = 2 kg and specific gravity s = 0.5 is held stationary
relative to a tank filled with water as shown in figure. The tank is accelerating
vertically upward with acceleration a = 2 ms–2. Calculate tension in the thread
connected between the sphere and the bottom of the tank.
(A) 24 N
(B) 14 N
(C) 20 N
(D) 10 N

12. The figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height H. What B
should be the horizontal acceleration a of the tube so that the pressure at the
H a
point A becomes atmospheric.
A
 2H  L
(A) g 
 L 
H
(B) g 
 L
H 
(C) g 
 2L 
(D) None of these

13. An object of mass 5kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of
10 m/s. How much work is done by the push of the air on the object?
(A) 350 J
(B) 750 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 300 J

14. A uniform circular disc placed on a rough horizontal surface is initially given a 0
velocity v 0 and angular velocity 0 as shown in figure. The disc comes to
v0
rest after moving some distance in the direction of motion. Then is- v0
r0
1
(A)
2
(B) 2
1
(C)
3
(D) 3

15. A disc of moment of inertia I is rotating about its axis, which is initially along the vertical direction,
making ‘n’ revolution per minute. The axis gradually tilts become horizontal and the disc rotates
about the horizontal axis with the same revolution per minute. The total time, taken in doing so is t
seconds then the torque acting on the body is–
(A) Zero
2nI
(B)
60 t
2 2 nI
(C)
60 t
(D) None of these

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16. A square of side 'a' is cut from a square of side '2a' as shown in the figure.
Mass of this square with hole is M. Then its moment of inertia about an axis a
passing through its CM and perpendicular to its plane will be – a 2a
2
Ma
(A)
6 2a
2Ma 2
(B)
6
4Ma 2
(C)
6
5Ma 2
(D)
6
17. A solid body rotates about a stationary axis so that its angular velocity depends on the rotation
angle  as   0  k , where 0 and k are positive constants. At the moment t = 0, the angle
 = 0. Find the time dependence of rotation angle-
(A) K.  e –kt
0
0 –kt
(B) [e ]
K
0
(C) [1–e–kt]
K
K
(D) [e–kt – 1]
0

18. a 0  2m/s 2 starting from rest. A


A flat car is given an acceleration
a0
cable is connected to a crate A of weight 50 kg as shown.
50 kg
Neglect friction between the floor and the car wheels and also the
mass of the pulley. Calculate corresponding tension in the cable
if   0.30 between the crate and the floor of the car:
(A) 350
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 400

19. A chain of length  is placed on a smooth spherical surface of radius r


with one of its ends fixed at the top of the surface. Length of chain is
r
assumed to be  < . Acceleration of each element of chain when
2
upper end is released is–
g  r
(A) 1  cos 
r  
rg  
(B) 1  cos 
  r
g  
(C) 1  sin 
r  r
rg  
(D) 1  sin 
 r

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20. A particle is released from a certain height H = 400 m. Due to the wind the particle gathers the
1
horizontal velocity vx = ay where a  5 sec and y is the vertical displacement of the particle
from point of release, then the horizontal drift (displacement) of the particle when it strikes the
ground is–
(A) 2.67 km
(B) 8.67 m
(C) 1.67 km
(D) 5.1 km

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

21. A closed vessel A having volume V contains Nitrogen  N 2  at Pressure P and temperature T.
Another closed vessel B having the same volume V contains helium (He) at the same pressure P
but temperature 2T (twice that in vessel A). The ratio of masses of N 2 and He in vessels A and
B is X , then fin the value of X/2 .

22. Two sirens, situated at a distance of 1km are emitting sound of frequency 330Hz. An observer is
moving from one siren towards another with a velocity of 2 m/s. The beat frequency heard by the
observer will be
(v = 330 m/s.)

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

23. A calorimeter of water equivalent 15g contains 165g of water at 25 ° C. Steam at 100 ° C is
passed through the water for some time. The temperature is increased to 30ºC and the mass of
the calorimeter and its contents is increased by 1.5 g. Calculate the latent heat of vaporization of
water (in cal/g). Heat capacity of water is 1cal/g ° C.

3 3
24. A vessel of volume 8.0×10 m contains an ideal gas at 300 K and 200 kPa . The gas is allowed
to leak till the Pressure falls to 125 kPa . Calculate the amount of the gas (in moles) leaked
assuming that the temperature remains constant. (Take Gas Constant R = 8.3J/mol – K )

25. An aluminium rod 80 cm long clamped at the middle is used to create standing waves in a
Kundt’s tube experiment. If the tube is 1 meter long and the dust heaps accumulate at 6 cm,
intervals and velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. then determine the velocity of sound (m/s) in the
rod.

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

26. The below conversion can be carried out in multiple steps. Which of the following reagents
(May to be given in correct sequence) can be used?
CH
Br CH3

CH3
CH3

(A) Br2 / CCl4 , t  BuOK / t  BuOH , NaNH 2 / liq. NH 3 , H 3O  Workup


(B) alc. KOH , Br2 / CCl4 , excess alc. KOH, H 3O  Workup
(C) LiAlH 4 , Br2 / hv, NaNH 2 / liq.  NH 3
(D) Aq. KOH , PCC , PCl5 , NaI /acetone.

27. Which of the following statement is correct about the structure of CO2 as,

C  O  O

 
(A) Structure is incorrect because it contains more number of valence electrons.
(B) The formal charge on three elements  left to right  are 2,  2, 0 respectively.
(C) The above structure is incorrect because it has expanded the octet of central oxygen.
(D) Three elements in the above structure should not be collinear.

28. Which of the following elements/particles can be placed in the given nuclear reactions?
2 3
He 
 _____  2 1H
238
U 12 C   ____  244 Cf
(Atomic number of U and Cf are 92 and 98 respectively)
(A)
4
He, positrons  e 1 
(B) alpha, beta particles
(C) duetrium, neutrons.
4
(D) He , neutrons
29. Which of the statement about A or B is correct?
Br

t  BuOK , t  BuOH warm , conc . KMnO4


  ' A '  ' B '

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(A) 'A' is

(B) Compound 'B' can show geometrical isomerism.


(C) Compound 'B' can show optical isomerism.
(D) The degree of unsaturation in the compound 'B' is two.

30. Which statement is correct about major product of below reaction?


Cl
(A) Major product is

(B) Major product is formed by heterolytic breaking of bonds in the reactants.


(C) The rate of reaction will increase if chlorine is replaced by bromine.
CH3
(D) The major product is formed via free readial intermediate

31. Which is the correct structure of compound 'A' ?


1 conc.HNO3 , conc.H 2SO 4
 2 1  bromobutane / FeBr3
'A'
 3 H 2 , Pd / C
 4  NaNO2 / HCl , O  5C
 5  H 3 PO2
(A) NH2 (B)
O 2N
CH3
CH3

(C) O 2N (D) OH

CH3
CH3

32. Among the following species, the least angle around the central atom is in:
(A) O3
(B) I3
(C) NO2
(D) PH 3

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33. Colour of the bead in borax bead test is mainly due to the formation of:
(A) metal oxides
(B) boron oxide
(C) metal metaborates
(D) elemental boron

34. Which of the following statement is incorrect?


(A) Be forms covalent compounds
(B) Be  OH 2 and Al  OH 3 are amphoteric in nature
(C) BeO and Al2 O3 are low melting insoluble solids
(D) Be is lighter than Mg

35. Least stable hydride is:


(A) Stannane
(B) Silane
(C) Plumbane
(D) Germane

36. 1g mixture of equal number of mole of Li 2CO3 and other metal carbonate  M 2 CO3  required
21.6 mL of 0.5 N HCl for complete neutralisation reaction. What is the approximate atomic mass
of the other metal?
(A) 25
(B) 23
(C) 51
(D) 118

37. At low pressure, the van der Waal’s equations become:


(A) PVm  RT
(B) P Vm  b   RT
 a 
(C)  P  2  Vm  RT
 Vm 
RT a
(D) P 
Vm Vm2

38. Calculate the work done by the system in an irreversible (single step) adiabatic expansion of 2
mole of a polyatomic gas (   4 / 3 ) from 300 K and pressure 10 atm to 1 atm:
(A) 227 R
(B) 205 R
(C) 405 R
(D) 960 R

39. Which one of the following mixture does not act as a buffer solution?
(A) Boric acid and borax
(B) Sodium phosphate & disodium hydrogen phosphate
(C) Sodium propionate and propionic acid
(D) Sodium acetate and sodium propionate

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40. A solution is 0.10 M Ba  NO3 2 and 0.10 M Sr  NO3 2 . If solid Na 2 CrO 4 is added to the
solution, what is  Ba  when
2+
SrCrO 4 begins to precipitate?
 K sp  BaCrO4   1.2  1010 ; K sp  SrCrO4   3.5  10 5 
(A) 7.4 107
(B) 2.0 107
(C) 6.1107
(D) 3.4 107
41. Person working in cement plants and lime stone quarries are more prone to disease like:
(A) Asthma
(B) Cancer
(C) Silicosis
(D) Pneumoconiosis

42. Propene CH3CH = CH2 can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which sets of
regents amongst the following is ideal to effect the above conversion?
(A) KMnO4 (alkaline)
(B) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4/CH2Cl2)
(C) B2H6 and alkaline H2O2
(D) O3/Zn

43. H H
C C C 
Br2
CCl4
  A  . Product  A  of the reaction is:
H3C C(CH3)2CH2OH

(A) Br (B) Br

H3C H CH3
CH3
H3C O H3C O CH3

(C) Br (D)

H3C CH3
O Br
H O CH3

44. For a first order reaction:


(A) The degree of dissociation is equal to 1  e 
 kt

(B) A plot of reciprocal concentration of the reactant vs time gives a straight line.
(C) The time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the t1/2 of reaction.
(D) The pre-exponential factor in Arrhenius equation has the dimensions of Joule.
45. Select the correct option(s):
(A) Pauli’s exclusion principle state that no two electrons in an atom can have the same spin
(B) Quantum number n, l , and m for 5 px orbital must be 5, 1 , and 1, respectively.
(C) In the ground state of chromium atom, five electrons have magnetic quantum number 1
(D) None of these

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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

46. Find the number of molecules which is/are planar and having dipole moment:
SF4 , PCl3 F2 , PCl2 F3 , I 3 , BrF3 , ICl2 , XeF4

dP
47. For the reaction: 2 NO  g   H 2  g   N 2O  g   H 2O  g  , the value of  was found to
dt
be 1.5 Pa s 1 for a pressure of 372 Pa for NO and 0.25 Pa s 1 for a pressure of 152 Pa for NO,
dP
the pressure of H 2 being constant. If pressure of NO was kept constant, the value of  was
dt
1 1
found 1.60 Pa s for a pressure of 289 Pa for H 2 and 0.79 Pa s for a pressure of 144 Pa for
H 2 . If the order of reaction with respect to NO and H 2 are a and b , respectively, then the
value of a  b is:

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

48. Calculate the heat of formation of anhydrous Al2Cl6 (in kJ/mol) from the following data:
(i) 2Al  s   6 HCl  aq  
 Al2Cl6  aq   3H 2  1004.2kJ
(ii) H 2  g   Cl2  g  
 2 HCl  g   184.1 kJ
(iii) HCl  g   aq 
 HCl  aq   73.2 kJ
(iv) Al2Cl6  s   aq 
 Al2Cl6  aq   643.1 kJ

49. In the following reaction:


OH  +S2O32   Br2 
 SO 24  Br 
Starting with 0.15 mol of Br2 , 0.01mol of S2O32 and 0.4 mol of OH  ions. How many moles
of OH  ions are left in the solution after the reaction is complete:

50. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is in an excited state of principle quantum number x . It
x
can emit a maximum energy photon of 204 eV . If it makes a transition of shell, a photon of
2
energy 40.8eV is emitted. What is the minimum energy (in eV) of photons emitted by this atom
during de-excitation?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1  cos x  1  cos x
51. Consider the function f ( x)   x   x, 2   then f  x  is
1  cos x  1  cos x
 x
(A) cot   
 4 2
 x 
(B) tan   
 4 2
 x 
(C) cot   
 4 2
 x 
(D) tan   
 4 2

52. Ten Balloons targets are arranged as shown. If N be the number of different ways they can be
shot (One at a time) if no target can be shot until the target(s) below it has been shot. Find the
total number of divisor of N which are divisible by 10.

(A) 48
(B) 24
(C) 60
(D) 30

53. In the quadratic equation ax 2  bx  c  0 , if   b 2  4ac and    ,  2   2 ,  3   3 are in


G.P. where  ,  are the roots of ax +bx+c = 0 , then
2

(A) 0
(B) b Δ=0
(C) c Δ=0
(D) Δ=0

54. Let f ( x)  ax 2  bx  c where a, b , c are integers


 3 3 5 5   
sin  sin  sin  sin  sin  sin  f  cos  find the value of f(2)
7 7 7 7 7 7  7
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) None of these

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55. Let a1 ,a 2 , a 3 , a 4 and a 5 be such that a1 ,a 2and a 3 in A. P., a 2 ,a 3 and a 4 are in G.P. and
a, a 4 and a 5 are in H.P. Then log e a1 , log e a 3 and log ea 5 are in
(A) G.P.
(B) A.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) None of these

56. Let r, s and t be the roots of the equation 8x 3 +1001x+2008=0 the value of
 r+s  +  s+t  +  t+r 
3 3 3

(A) 251
(B) 751
(C) 735
(D) 753

57. f ( x)  x 3  9 x 2  24 x  c has three real and distinct roots  ,  and  if [ ]  [  ]  [ ]  8 ,


then the value of c, where [.] represents the greatest integer function.
(A) (20, 16)
(B) (20, 18)
(C) (18, 16)
(D) None of these

58. Let P be the point (–3, 0) and Q be a moving point (0, 3t). Let PQ be trisected at R so that R is
nearer to Q. RN is drawn perpendicular to PQ meeting the x-axis at N. The locus of the midpoint
of RN is
(A) (x + 3)2 –3y = 0
(B) (y + 3)2 –3x = 0
(C) x2 –y = 1
(D) y2 –x = 1

59. If diagonals of a square be the lines y = x and y = – x, and area of square be 2 sq. units then
combined equation of two adjacent sides of the square is
(A) xy =1
(B) xy – x – y + 1 = 0
(C) xy – y = 0
(D) None of these

60. If |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1 and z1 + z2 + z3 = 0 then the area of the triangle whose vertices are
z1, z2, z3 is-
3 3
(A)
4
3
(B)
4
(C) 1
(D) None of these
61. The equation of the circle passing through the point of intersection of the circles
x2 + y2 – 6x + 2y + 4 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2x – 6y - 6 = 0 and having its centre on y = 0 is
(A) 2x2 + 2y2 – 8x + 3 = 0
(B) 3x2 + 3y2 – 6x + 2y = 0
(C) x2 + y2 – 8x – y – 12 = 0
(D) none of these

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62. The locus of mid points of the chords of the circle x2  2x + y2  2y + 1 = 0 which are of unit length
is
3
(A) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 =
4
(B) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 = 2
(C) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 = 4
(D) none of these

63. From any point P on the straight line x = 1 a tangent PQ is drawn to the parabola y 2 –8x + 24 = 0.
Then the abscissa of N where N is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point A  (5, 0) to
PQ is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) none of these

64. The centre of the circle which touches the parabola y2 = x at (1, 1) and passes through the point
(2, 0) is
 1 1
(A) 3, 3
 
 2 1
(B)  3 , 3 

2 1
(C)  ,  
3 3
 4 1
(D) 3, 3
 

65. If r1 and r2 are distances of points on the ellipse 5x2 + 5y2 + 6xy – 8 = 0 which are at maximum
and minimum distance from the origin then r12  r22 is equal to
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) none of these

x2 y2
66. The normal at a variable point P on the ellipse 
 1 , a > b of eccentricity e meets the
a2 b2
axes of the ellipse at Q and R then the locus of the midpoint of QR is conic with a eccentricity e
such that
(A) e is independent of e
(B) e = 1
(C) e = e
(D) e = 1/e

67. The coefficient of x 3 y 4 z in the expansion of (1 + x + y – z)9 is-


(A) 2 · 9C7 · 7C4
(B) –2 · 9C2 · 7C3
(C) 9C · 7C4
7
(D) None of these

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 1  1
68. If  a,  and  b,  be the extremities of chord on hyperbola xy = 1, then line perpendicular to
 a  b
this chord will be equally inclined to co-ordinate axes if
(A) a2 = b 2
(B) a2b2 = 1
(C) (a + b)2 = 1
(D) none of these

69. If a rectangular hyperbola (x – 1) (y – 2) = 4 cuts a circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 at points


(3, 4), (5, 3), (2, 6) and (–1, 0), then the value of (g + f) is equal to
(A) –8
(B) –9
(C) 8
(D) 9

70. For a hyperbola whose centre is at (1, 2) if asymptotes are parallel to lines 2x + 3y = 0 and x + 2y
= 1, then equation of hyperbola passing through (2, 4) is
(A) (2x + 3y  5) (x + 2y  8) = 40
(B) (2x + 3y  8) (x + 2y  5) = 40
(C) (2x + 3y  8) (x + 2y  5) = 30
(D) none of these

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

71. A GP consist of an even number of terms. The sum of all its terms is five times the sum of old
terms. Then the common ratio of this progression is______:

72. The number of real root (s) of the equation x 2 tan x  1 lie(s) between 0 and 2 is/are_____:

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

73. Number of ways in which 5 boys and 4 girls can be arranged on a circular table such that no two
girls sit together and two particular boys are always together is_____.

74. If  1 is a cube root of unity, and a  b  21, a 3  b3  8001, then the value of
 a 2
 b  a  b 2  must be equal to______.

75. The sum of all integral values of a for which one root of equation  a  5  x 2  2ax  a  4  0 is
smaller than 1 and the other greater than 2 , must be equal to____.

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 16-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.


 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. If position time graph of a particle is since curves as shown, what will be its velocity-time graph?
x
t
(A) (B) V

(C) (D) V

2. Same number of mole of an ideal gas is enclosed in two identical A B


thermally insulated chambers A and B shown in the figure.
Temperature of gas in each chamber is T where as walls of A and B
are at temperatures TA and TB respectively. If gas in the chamber A TB
TA
exerts more pressure on the wall than the pressure by the gas in the
chamber B, then
(A) TA < TB
(B) TA > TB
(C) TA = T B
(D) Can’t say
P
3. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process consists of
n=1
concentric semi-circles on PV graph, starting from A(P0, V0) 2P0 n=2 Semi-circles
n=3
and ending at B(P0, 2V0). The point B is the common centre of
the PV semi circles. Let rn be the magnitude of radius of nth
circle. It is given that rn = 2/3 rn1, n  N. Find the magnitude P0
A B
of heat gained (or rejected) by the system in undergoing
whole process from A to B. Process is isobaric from (n-1)th to
nth circle. V
V0 2V0 3V0
 65  9 
(A)   P0 V0
 26 
4 
(B)   P0 V0
 2 
7  
(C)   P0 V0
 2 
 65  9 
(D)   P0 V0
 26 

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3 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

4. In the following diagrams three different liquids have been taken in three beakers and a ball make
of a material of specific gravity D remain in these three liquids as shown. If the three liquids X, Y,
Z have specific gravities Dx, Dy and Dz respectively, which of the following statement is correct?

Liquid X Liquid Y Liquid Z


(A) Dx > D y > D z
(B) Dz < D y > D x
(C) Dy > D x > D z
(D) Dx > D z > D y

5. A wooden block floats in a liquid with 40% of its volume inside the liquid. When the vessel
containing the liquid starts rising upwards with acceleration a = g/2, the percentage of volume
inside the liquid is
(A) 20%
(B) 60%
(C) 30%
(D) 40%

6. Two masses M and m are suspended together by a massless spring of force constant k. When
the masses are in equilibrium, M is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of
oscillation is:
Mg
(A)
k
mg
(B)
k
(C)
 M  m g
k
(D)
 M  m g
k
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A particle starts SHM at time t = 0. Its amplitude is A and angular frequency is  . At time t = 0 its
E
kinetic energy is . Assuming potential energy to be zero at mean position, the displacement
4
time equation of the particle can be written as:
(A) x  A cos  t   / 6 
(B) x  A sin t   / 3 
(C) x  A sin  t  2 / 3 
(D) x  A cos  t   / 6 

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

8. A ball of mass M is suspended from a bar of same mass with a light M

inextensible cord. The bar can slide on a frictionless slope of inclination.


Initially they are kept motionless and released from the position shown. Then 
just after the release: M

2g sin 
(A) Acceleration of the bar is
1  sin 2 
2g
(B) Acceleration of the ball is
 cosec2  1
 1  sin 2  
(C) Tension in the cord is Mg  
 cos  
2

 cos 2  
(D) Tension in the cord is Mg  
 1  sin  
2

9. A particle is rotating in a conical pendulum with help of a string of length  as


 
shown in the figure. The speed of the particle is constant and angle  is also
constant with time. It can be said that

(A) Angular momentum of the particle about the point of suspension is not constant.
(B) Only the direction of angular momentum of the particle about the point of suspension is
constant.
(C) Only the magnitude of angular momentum about the point of suspension is constant.
(D) Net torque on the particle about the point of suspension is zero.

10. Inside a uniform spherical shell


(A) The gravitational potential is zero
(B) The gravitational field is zero
(C) The gravitational potential is same everywhere
(D) The gravitational field is the same everywhere.

V3
11. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process = constant, if the
T2
temperature is raised by 300K then:
(A) Work done by the gas is 400 R
(B) Change in internal energy is 900 R
(C) Molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 13R/6
(D) Molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 3R/2

12. Two whistles A and B each have a frequency of 500 Hz. A is stationary and B is moving towards
the right (away from A) at a speed of 50 m/s. an observer is between the two whistles moving
towards the right with a speed of 25 m/s. The velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. Assume there is
no wind. Then which of the following statements are true
(A) The apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by person at A is 444 Hz (approximately).
(B) The apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by the observer is 469 Hz (approximately)
(C) The difference in the apparent frequencies of A and B as heard by the observer is 4.5 Hz
(approximately).
(D) The apparent frequencies of the whistles of each other as heard by A and B are the
same.

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

13. A pipe in the form of a half ring of radius r is placed on a horizontal C


surface as shown in figure. If is displaced through, a small quantity,
and then released. Assuming that it rolls without sliding determine the G
period of oscillations (in sec)
(Given r  10 /1.14m, g  10 m / s 2 ,   3.14 )

14. A wooden bar (10 kg) is placed on a smooth floor with its
both ends fixed (Fig. A). A gradual increasing force at
midpoint of it can break it at mid point when its value is F1 .
F1 F2
Now another identical bar is placed on the smooth floor with
two blocks (5kg) attached at the two ends. The maximum
force that can be applied without breaking it at midpoint is F2 .
Fig.A Fig.B
F
Then find the value of 2 .
F1

15. Pipe A has length twice the pipe B. Pipe A has both ends open & pipe B has one end open. If a
sound wave of same frequency was sent in both pipes. Which least harmonic of pipe A have a
frequency that matches with resonance frequency of pipe B.

16. A projectile is projected with velocity 10 m/s at angle 37°. Find out the distance of the point
where it lands from ground. Co-efficient of restitution for collision is 0.5. [Take the value of g =
10 m/s2]. (in m)

17. Two particles are performing circular motion in concentric circles of radii 10 m and 5m each, in
opposite sense. Velocities of the particles are 200 m/s and 79 m/s respectively. Find out the
angular velocity of line joining them, when they are farthest apart. (in red/sec)

18.
15 m/s

F ?

Water enters steadily in a U-shaped tube of uniform cross-section area as shown in figure. Find
out the magnitude of force F that is needed to keep the tube in equilibrium. (In N)
[Density of water = 1000 Kg/m3, cross-section area of the tube = 1 cm2]

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. Why does raising the pressure of a fixed mass of gaseous reactants at a constant temperature
cause an increase in the rate of reaction?
(A) More collisions occur per second when the pressure is increased.
(B) More molecules have energy greater than the activation energy at the higher pressure.
(C) Raising the pressure lowers the activation energy.
(D) All are correct

20. 4-chloroaniline is a pale yellow solid which in an important building block used for the production
of pesticides, drugs and dyestuffs.

Cl NH2

4-chloroaniline
Which of the following shows a suitable starting compound and sequence of steps to produce a
good yield of 4-chloroaniline?
Starting compound Step 1 Step 2
(A) Conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4 Sn, conc. HCl following by NaOH
Cl (aq.)

(B) Dil. HNO3 LiAlH4


Cl

(C) Cl2, AlCl3 Sn, conc. HCl following by NaOH


NO 2 (aq.)

(D) LiAlH4 Cl2 in CCl4


NO 2

21. High-energy irradiation in the stratosphere produces radicals from chlorofluoroalkanes, commonly
known as CFCs.
Which radical could result from this irradiation of CHFClCF2Cl?

(A) CHFCl C FCl

(B) C HClCF2Cl

(C) C HFCF2Cl

(D) C FClCF2Cl

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22. The bar chart shows the melting points of a series of consecutive elements arranged in order of
increasing atomic number. The elements sodium to chlorine form part of this series. Which bar
represents sodium?

(A) A = Na
(B) B = Na
(C) C = Na
(D) D = Na

23. Incomplete combustion of 20 cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon gave carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide in a 6:1 ratio, as well as water vapour. It was found that the carbon dioxide took up a
volume of 51.4 cm3 whereas the water vapour took up a volume of 80 cm3. All gas volumes are
measured at the same temperature and pressure. What is the molecular formula of the
hydrocarbon?
(A) C2 H4
(B) C2 H6
(C) C3 H 6
(D) C3 H 8
24. The reaction of hydrogen peroxide with iodide ions in acidic solution can be monitored by an initial
rate method.
H 2O2  aq   2 H   aq   2 I   aq  
 2 H 2O  l   I 2  aq 
The following results were obtained for a series of experiments with different volumes of each
regent used.
Experiment Volume of H2O2 Volume of H+ Volume of I- Volume of Time taken / s
number (aq.)/cm3 (aq.) / cm3 (aq.) / cm3 water / cm3
1 40 40 20 0 33
2 20 40 20 20 66
3 40 20 30 10 22
4 20 40 30 10 44
What could be the mechanism of this reaction?
(A) H O  H  
2 2  H O  OH   fast 
2
 
OH  2 I  H  
 H 2O  I 2  slow 
(B) H 2O2  I    H 2O  IO   slow 
H   IO    I   I 2  H 2O  fast 
HIO  H   I    I 2  H 2O  fast 
(C) 2 H   2 I  
 2 HI  fast 
2 HI  H 2O2   I 2  2 H 2O  slow 

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

(D) H 2O2  I   H  
 H 2O  HIO  fast 
 I 2  2 H 2O  slow 
HIO  I  

OH   H  
 H 2O  fast 
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. The value of the ionic product of water, Kw, varies with temperature.
Temperature/°C Kw/mol2 dm-6
25 1.0×10-14
62 1.0×10-13
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The ionic dissociation of water is an endothermic process.
(B) Water is a neutral liquid at 62°C.
(C) pH<7 at 62°C for water
(D) pH>7 at 62°C for water

26. Which of the following has the same value as the standard enthalpy change of formation, H f ,
of carbon monoxide?
(A) H combustion  C , graphite   H combustion  CO 
(B) H f   CO2   H combustion  CO 
1
(C) H  f  CO2 
2
1
(D) H Combustion  CO2 
2
27. The radius and charge of each of the six ions are shown below.
Ion J L M 2 X Y Z2 
Radius/nm 0.14 0.18 0.15 0.14 0.18 0.15
The ionic solids JX, LY and MZ are of the same lattice type. Which of the following statement are
correct?
(A) The melting point increases in the order LY<JX<MZ
(B) The numerical value of hydration energy of X is smaller than that of Z2 
(C)
2
The solution containing M ions is more acidic than the solution containing J  ions.
(D) The lattice energy of JX salt is highest among the given ionic solids.

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28. In which of the following pairs are the members, I and II,
Stereoisomers of each other, and the overall dipole moment of I is larger than that of II?

I II

(A) O 2N NO2 O 2N H

H H H NO2

(B) H3C H H3C Br

Br Cl H Cl

(C) Br Br

Br H Br H

Br Cl
H Cl H Br

(D) Cl Cl Cl H

H H H Cl

29. The numerical value of the solubility product of nickel (II) carbonate is 6.6×10-9 while that of silver
carbonate is 2.1×10-11 at 25°C
Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?
(A) Addition of silver nitrate increases the solubility of silver carbonate
(B) The solubility of silver carbonate is higher than the solubility of nickel (II) carbonate.
(C) Addition of nitric acid to a solution containing nickel (II) carbonate increases the solubility
product of nickel (II) carbonate.
(D) Nickel (II) carbonate precipitates first when sodium carbonate is added to a solution
containing equal concentrations of nickel (II) and silver ions.

2
30. Polythionates are a series of sulfur-oxo anions with the general formula Sn O 6 , where n>2 . A
2
simple example is tetrathionate ion, S4 O 6 .
(A) If n=2, average oxidation state of sulphur =3
(B) If n=4, average oxidation state of sulphur =2.5
(C) If n=3, averageoxidation state of sulphur =10/3
(D) If n=5, average oxidation state of sulphur =6

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

31. At constant pressure what would be the percentage decrease in the density of an ideal gas for a
10% increase in temperature?

32. 200 mL of 0.5 N solution of acidified KMnO 4 was mixed with 300 mL of 0.6 N FeC2O4 solution and
the mixture is gently heated for complete reaction according to the following equation.
MnO 4  FeC2O 4  H  Mn2   Fe3   CO2  H2O
What volume (in L) of CO2 gas is produced at STP in the reaction?

33. The percentage ionic character of a bond having 1.275 A0 as its length and 1.03 D its dipole
moment will be

34. How many of the following statements is/are correct?


h
(1) The orbital angular momentum for a d-electron is 6 .
2
(2) The number of orbitals in a shell with principal quantum number n is 2n 2 .
 1
(3) The set of quantum numbers for the last unpaired electron of Cl atom can be 3 ,1,1,  
 2 
(4) The ratio of energy in the first Bohr orbit of H – atom to the electron in the first excited
state of Be3+ is 1:4.

(5) The electronic configuration of Co ends with 3d74s2.

(6) The order of energy of subshells in a given principle quantum level for an H-atom are
ns<np<nd<.

(7) in silver atom (at.no. 47), 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 electrons have a
spin of opposite type.

35. In the compound Na2 [B4O5(OH)4]8H2O, if the


(i) number of BOB bonds is a
(ii) number of BB bonds is b
(iii) number of sp2 hybridized B atom is “c”
Calculate the value of a+ b+ c.

36. In 1869 Ladenburg suggested a structure for benzene, C6H6, in which one hydrogen atom is
attached to each carbon atom.

A compound C6H4Cl2 could be formed with the same carbon skeleton as the Ladenburg structure.
How many structural isomers would this compound have?

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11 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

n
37. Given that sin3 x. sin 3x   c m cos mx, c n  0, is an identity. The value of n is
m0

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) cannot be calculated

38. If the sum of first 100 terms of an arithmetic progression is -1 and the sum of the even terms lying
in first 100 terms is 1, then
13
(A) common difference is
50
7
(B) common difference is
50
151
(C) first term is
50
149
(D) first term is
50

39. If the focus of midpoints of portions of tangents intercepted between coordinate axes of hyperbola
x2 y2  9
  1is 2  2   , then ( + ) is equal to
16 9 x y
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20

40. Seven different lecturers are to deliver lectures in seven periods of a class on a particular day. A,
B and C are three of the lectures. The number of ways in which a routine for the day can be made
such that A delivers his lecture before B and B before C, is :
(A) 210
(B) 420
(C) 840
(D) None of these

41. If |zi|2 and z1 = 5 + 3i, (where i  1) , then the maximum value of |iz+z1| is:
(A) 2  31
(B) 7
(C) 31  2
(D) 31  2

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12

r 1 A B C
42. If in triangle ABC,  , then the value of tan  tan  tan  is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2
(A) 2
1
(B)
2
(C) 1
(D) None of these

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. The points (2, 3), (0, 2), (4, 5) and (0, t) are concyclic if the value of t is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 17
(D) 3

The equation of four circles are  x  a    y  a   a2 . The radius of the circle touching all the
2 2
44.
four circles is
(A)  2 1 a
(B) 2 2a
(C)  2  1 a
(D) 2  2  a
45. If the equation of the parabola is x2 + y2 – 2xy + 4x – 2y + 1= 0, then
(A) Axis is 2x – 2y + 3 = 0
5
(B) Tangent at vertex is 2x  2y   0
4
 1 11 
(C) Vertex is   , 
 8 8
 3 15 
(D) Focus is  , 
8 8 

46. Let us consider all complex numbers satisfying |z25i|15. Among all these complex numbers:
(A) complex number with least argument is tan1(3/4)
1
(B) complex number with maximum argument is   tan (3 / 4)
(C) complex number with at least magnitude is 10
(D) complex number with maximum magnitude is 40

n
47. For n  N, let S(k)  r
r 0
k n
( Cr )2 , then
2n
(A) S(0)  Cn
1 2n
(B) S(1)  ( Cn )
2

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13 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

2n
(C) S(0)  Cn1
n 2n
(D) S(1)  ( Cn )
2

48. The number of ways of arranging seven persons (having A, B, C and D among them) in a row so
that A, B, C and D are always in order A-B-C-D(not necessarily together is:
(A) 210
(B) 5040
(C) 6× 7C4
(D) 7P
3

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

49. If a, b, c are distinct integers and   1 is a cube root of unity and if minimum value of
1
a  b  c2  a  b2  c is 144  n , then the value of n must be equal to

The coefficient of x2009 in the expansion of (1  x) (1  x  x 2 )2007 is ……


2008
50.

51. The number of solutions of 2 loge 2x = loge(7x – 2 – 2x2) is

52. Let normals are drawn to the parabola y2 = 8x from any point on the line y = -4. If the locus of
vertices of triangle formed by the corresponding tangents is (x – ) (y – ) = c, then the value of
 –  + c is ____

 x  2  2x  3   x  6 
2 3

53. The number of integral values of x satisfying  0 is __________


 x  5
4

54. If  be the minimum value of y  (sin x  cosec x) 2  (cos x  sec x) 2  (tan x  cot x) 2 where
x  R . Find   6

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 16-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.


 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. A particle performing SHM undergoes displacement of A/2 (where A = amplitude of SHM) in one
second. At t = 0 the particle was located at either extreme position or mean position. The time
period of SHM can be: (consider all possible cases)
(A) 12s
(B) 2.4s
(C) 6s
(D) 1.2s
2. A cylinder of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 encloses He gas through a piston. Axis P0

of cylinder is vertical. Mass of piston is 10 kg. Atmospheric pressure P0 = 105


N/m2. When heat is supplied to the gas piston moves through 10 cm slowly.
He
Which of the following is true?
(A) work done by the gas is 20 J
(B) Internal energy change of gas is 30 J.
(C) Heat absorbed by the gas is 50 J
(D) Heat absorbed by the gas is 30 J

3. A train accelerating uniformly passes three successive kilometre posts at time t = 0, t = 75 and
t = 125 (all in second). In respect of this motion, which of the following statements are true?
 8  2
(A) The acceleration of the train is  m / s
 75 
(B) The speed at the last of the three posts is 22.67 m/s
(C) The initial velocity of the train is 10 m/s
(D) The train will travel the next one kilometre in 15 second

4. The position-time (x–t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their x
school O to their homes P and Q respectively along straight line path (taken Q B
as x-axis) are shown in figure below: Choose the correct statement(s): P A
(A) A lives closer to the school than B
(B) A starts from the school earlier than B
(C) A and B have equal average velocities from 0 to t0.   t
t0
(D) B overtakes A on the way

5. In the system shown in the figure the mass m moves in a circular arc
of angular amplitude 600. Mass 4 m is stationary. Then (strings and
pulley are ideal)

(A) The minimum value of coefficient of friction between the mass 4 m and the surface of the
table is 0.50
(B) The work done by gravitational force on the block m is positive when it moves from A to B
(C) The power delivered by the tension when m moves from A to B is zero
(D) The kinetic energy of m in position B equals to the work done by gravitational force on the
block when it moves from position A to B

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3 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

6. Inner and outer radii of spool are r and R, respectively. A thread is wound
over its inner surface and spool is placed over a rough horizontal surface.
Thread is pulled by a force F as shown in fig. In case of pure rolling which
of the following statements are false?
(A) Thread unwinds, spool rotates anticlockwise and friction acts leftwards.
(B) Thread winds, spool rotates clockwise and friction acts leftwards
(C) Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction acts rightwards.
(D) Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction does not comes into existence.

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A cubical box of dimension L = 5/4 metre starts moving with an


 
acceleration a  0.5 m/s2 i from the state of rest. At the same time,
   
a stone is thrown from the origin with velocity V  v1 i  v 2 j  v 3 k with
 
rest to earth. Acceleration due to gravity g  10 m/s2 ( j ). The
stone just touches the roof of box and finally falls at the diagonally
v1v 2
opposite point then calculate the value of .
v3

8. A ball is shot in a long hall having a roof at a height of 15 m with


speed of 25 m/s at an angle of 53o with the floor. The ball lands 15m
on the floor at a distance shown x = 6k metre from the point of 53
projection. (Assume collisions as elastic if any) Find k.
x

9. Four blocks are arranged on a smooth horizontal surface as


shown. The masses of the blocks are given (see the diagram). The
coefficient of static friction between the top and the bottom blocks
is µs. What is the maximum value of the horizontal force F, applied
to one of the bottom blocks as shown, that makes all four blocks
move with the same acceleration? µs = 0.25, m = 1kg, M = 3 kg

10. Consider the shown mechanism ABC. At a certain instant block B


C was found to be moving with a speed of 1 m/s to the right. At L L
this instant the magnitude of vertical component of velocity of B
30 C
N A
is m/s . Then find the value of N ?
2

11. A diatomic molecule has atoms of masses m1 and m2 . The potential energy of the molecule for
the interatomic separation r is given by U  r  =A+B  r-r0  , where
2
r0 is the equilibrium
separation, and A and B are positive constants. The atoms are compressed towards each other
from their equilibrium positions and released. What is the vibrational frequency of the molecule?
(Given m1 =1kg, m2 =2kg, B=1/3unit )

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

12. The temperature across two different slabs A and B are shown
in the steady state (as shown in figure). The ratio of thermal 60
C  C 50
conductivities of A and B , is
0

, then find the value of C? 40


2

Temperature
30
20 A B
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. Three blocks a,b and c of masses 10 kg, 10 kg and 20 kg


b
are arranged as shown in figure. All the surfaces are
frictionless and string is inextensible. Pulleys are light. A c a F
constant force F = 20 N is applied on block a as shown.
Pulleys and string are light. Part of the string connecting
both pulleys is vertical and part of the strings connecting
pulleys with masses m1 and m2 are horizontal. Then find the
value of Tension in the string (in N)

14. A rod of uniform density  and length  is hinged at O and kept at /2

horizontal frictionless surface. An impulse P0 ( 130 kg-m/s) along the O C


/4 
surface is applied on rod as shown in the figure. The impulse on the rod P0
due to hinge just after application of P0 in kg-m/s is? (in SI Units)[tan  =
9/7]

15. The light cone is in equilibrium under the action of hydrostatic forces of

two liquids of densities 1 and  2 . Find 1 2H
2 H 1 2

H
16. Two rods of same length and material transfer a given amount of heat in 125 sec, when they are
joined end to end but when they are joined lengthwise, they will transfer same heat in same
condition in how much time. (in s)

17. An aluminum wire of cross-sectional area 1 × 10–6m2 is joined to a copper wire of the same cross-
section. This compound wire is stretched on a sonometer, pulled by a weight of 10 kg. The total
length of the compound wire between the two bridges is 1.5m of which the aluminum wire is 0.6m
and the rest is the copper wire. Transverse vibrations are set up in the wire by using an external
force of variable frequency. The density of aluminum is 2.6×103 kg/m3 and that of copper
1.04×104 kg/m3. (g = 9.8 m/s2). Find the lowest frequency (in Hz) of excitation for which standing
waves are formed, such that the joint in the wire is a node.

18. A uniform thread in shape of a circular loop is rotating about an axis passing through its center
and normal to its plane with angular velocity 12.3 rad/sec. Find out velocity of transverse wave
pulse w.r.t. the medium in the thread. (in m/s)
Radius of loop is 0.4 m/s

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. The interhalogen compound BrF3 is a volatile liquid which autoionises.


 BrF2+  BrF4
2BrF3 
The electrical conductivity of BrF3 decreases with increasing temperature.
Which statement is/are correct?
(A) The autoionisation process is endothermic.
(B) The shape of the cation is linear.
(C) The autoionisation process is exothermic.
(D) The shape of the cation is non-linear.

20. Which oxides do react with dilute sodium hydroxide to produce a salt?
(A) Al2O3
(B) P4O10
(C) SO2
(D) SiO2

21. Samples of the gases CH3CH 2 Cl and Cl2 are mixed together and irradiate with light. Which of
the following is/are not likely to be formed in the reaction?
(A) CH 3CHCl2
(B) CH 2ClCH 2Cl
(C) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2CH 3
(D) CH4

22. Gaseous particle X has a proton number n, and a charge of +1.


Gaseous particle Y has a proton number (n+1), and is isoelectronic with X.
Which statement about X and Y is correct?
(A) When placed in an electric field, the angle of deflection for X is the same as that of Y.
(B) X requires less energy than Y when a further electron is removed from each particle.
(C) X releases more energy than Y when an electron is added to particle.
(D) X has a larger radius than Y.

23. Which sequence shows the correct order of increasing pK b in an aqueous solution of equal
concentration?
(A) CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2  CH 3CH 2CH  NH  CH 3CH 2C  N
(B) C2 H 5 NH 2  C6 H 5 NH 2  C2 H 5 NH 3  C2 H 5CONH 2
(C) C2 H 5 NH 2  C6 H 5 NH 2  C2 H 5CONH 2  C2 H 5 NH 3 
(D) C2 H 5 NH 3  C2 H 5CONH 2  C2 H 5 NH 2  C6 H 5 NH 2

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

24. At very high pressure, the van der Waals equation reduces to
(A) PV = RT + Pb
aRT
(B) PV  2
V
RT
(C) P
V b
a
(D) PV  RT 
V

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)

This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. Compound L has the following structure.


OH OH
H3C CH3

What is the total number of geometrical isomers that can be formed from the product of the
reaction of compound L with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 170°C? (Do not consider
rearrangement of carbocation)

26. Total number of moles of hydro chloric acid react with one mole of borax to converts all boron
atoms to boric acid.

27. Find out number of aromatic compounds or ion from following.

, , , N
H

,
, ,
O
O

28. How many of the following molecules or ions have sp3d hybridisation of their central atom?
I3 ,SbF6 ,F3 ,ClO 3 , XeO 2F2 , XeO 64  ,SF4

29. A commercial sample of H2O2 is labeled as ’10 volume’. What is its percentage strength (% w/v)?

30. The schrodinger wave equation for Hydrogen atom is


r
3 a0
e
1  1  2 r  2
 2s    x  
4 2  a0   a0 
Where a0 is Bohr’s radius. If the radial node in 2s be at r = 4a0 then x would be equal to _____.

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. How many of the following addition reactions are syn addition reaction.
H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3
(a)
C C 
Br2
CCl4
 (b)
C C 
H 2 , Ni

H H D D

H 2 , Pd  BaSO4
H 3C  C  C  CH 3   H 3C  C  C  CH 3 
Na , Liq . NH 3
(c) (d)

(e)

BH 3 ,THF
H O ,OH 
 (f)

Cold dil . alkaline KMnO4

2 2

CH 3
(g) 
1. PhCO3 H
2. H  / H O
 (h)
Br2  H 2O
 
2

CH 3

32. How many groups are o/p director in the electrophilic aromatic substitution?
(i)  NH 2
(ii)  CHO
(iii)  NO2 (iv)  COOH
(v) OMe (vi)

(vii)  Et (viii) O

H
C N Me
(ix) Cl (x) SO3 H

33. If enthalpy of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is -57.2 kJ mol-1 and with NH4OH is -50.1 kJ mol-1.
Calculate enthalpy of ionization (in kJ/ mol) of NH 4 OH  aq. .

34. Na2O2 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises chromic compounds into chromates. How many
moles of Na2O2 are required to convert one mole of Cr  OH 3 into sodium chromate?

M
35. 2g NaOH is added to 100 ml   H 2SO 4 solution and the resulting solution is obtained by
 20 
addition of 900 ml H2O. Assuming both the dissociation of H2SO4 to be 100%; the pH of resulting
solution at 25°C is (neglecting volume change due to reaction) (log 2 = 0.3)

36. The molar solubility of Mn  OH  2 (KSP = 4.5 1014 ) in a buffer solution containing equal

amounts of NH 4 and NH3 ( K = 5.55 1010 ) at 25°C is x×10-5 M . The value of x is___

a NH 4 

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. If x + y + z = , tan x tan y = 2, tan x + tan y + tan z = 6, then:



(A) x  m 
4
(B) y = n+tan12
(C) z = l+tan13
(D) all are correct (l, m, n  I)

38. In a triangle, the length of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,
then the length of the third side can be
(A) 5 6
(B) 3 3
(C) 5
(D) 5 6

39. Which of the following statement(s) true?


x2 y 2
(A) From any point on the directrix of an ellipse   1 (a > b), a pair of tangents are
a 2 b2
drawn to the auxiliary circle of the ellipse. The chord of contact will pass through the
corresponding focus of the ellipse.
(B) If two tangents to a parabola y2 = 4ax intersect on the line x = a then their chord of
contact always passes through the foot of directrix
x  3   y  4   x2  y 2  k 2  1,
2 2
(C) If P(x, y) is such that it moves on a hyperbola

then number of possible integral values of k is equal to 3


(D) For the parabola y2 = 4ax, focal chord can never subtend right angle at the vertex of
parabola.

40. If ,  be the roots of x2 – 2x – a + 1 = 0 and ,  the roots of x2 – 2(a + 1)x + a(a – 1) = 0 such
that  and  lie in the (, ), then
 1
(A) a   ,   1,  
 4 
 1 
(B) a    ,1
 4 
(C) a lies in (-1, 1)
(D) a  (1, )

41. If H(3,4) and O=(1,2) are orthocentre and circumcentre of PQR respectively and equation of
side PQ is xy+7=0, then:
(A) Equation of circumcircle of PQR is (x1)2+(y2)2=80
(B) Equation of circumcircle of PQR is (x1)2+(y2)2=100
Centroid of PQR is  , 
5 8
(C)
3 3
(D) Midpoint of PQ is (–2, 5)

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42. PQ is a double ordinate of the parabola y2=4ax. If the normal at P intersect the line passing
through Q and parallel to x-axis at G; then locus of G is a parabola with:
(A) vertex at (4a, 0)
(B) focus at (5a, 0)
(C) directrix as the line x3a=0
(D) length of latus rectum equal to 4a

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

1/3
43. If z1  2, z2  3, z3  4 and 2 z1  3z2  4 z3  9, then value of 8 z2 z3  27 z3 z1  64 z1 z2
is_____

44. A cricketer has score 4500 runs. Let an denotes the number of runs he scores in the n th match.
If a1  a2  ....a10  150 and a10 , a11 , a12 ..... are in A.P. with common difference  2  . If N be
the total number of matches played by him to score 4500 runs. Find the sum of the digits of
N_____

The least value of the expression  sin   cos ec    cos   sec     R is______
2 2
45.

46. Let a, b and c be the side lengths of a triangle ABC and assume that a  b and a  c . If
bca ax
x , then find the minimum value of , where r and R denotes in radius
2 rR
circumradius of triangle ABC.

x2 y2
47. If P is a point on the ellipse  =1 whose foci are S and S. Then PS + PS is______
16 20

48. The minimum value of sec2 + cos2 is______

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

147
49. The sum if an infinitely decreasing GP is 3.5 and sum of the squares of its terms is . The
16
sum of the cubes of the terms of the progression is:


50. If the straight line through the point P  3, 4  makes an angle with the x-axis and meets the line
6
3x  5 y  1  0 at Q, the length PQ is:

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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10


51. The length of the perpendicular on the tangent at the point whole eccentric angle is from the
3
x2 y 2
focus of the ellipse   1 nearer to the tangent is P find 100P :
25 16

52. Let the normals are drawn form  ,   to the hyperbola xy  1 and  x i, yi  , i  1, 2,3, 4 be the
feet of the co-normal points. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distance drawn from
 xi, yi  , i  1, 2,3, 4 on to a variable line vanishes, then the variable line passes through the point
  
 .  then the value of 256 must be:
  

 2 
53. If tan 2  .....  tan 2 7  
 tan 2
16 16 16
2
 x y 
and if x  y :  then fins 
y x

 10 

Where x, y  z :

54. If y 2 (y 2 -6)+x 2 -8x+24=0 and the minimum value of x 2  y 4 is m and maximum value is M;
m
then find the value of 1000M+
100

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II

JEE (Main)-2022

TEST DATE: 24-01-2021


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 75 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 25 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.

Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. A cubical frame is made by connecting 12 identical uniform E F


conducting rods as shown in the figure. In the steady state
the temperature of junction A is 1000 C while that of the G is A B
a
00 C . Then,
(A) H will be Hotter than B 00C
H G
(B) Temperature of F is 400 C
D a C
(C) Temperature of D is 66.670 C
(D) Temperature of E is 500 C

2. A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends the surface downwards
along the perimeter making an angle  with the vertical edge of the disc. If the disc
displaces a weight of water W and surface tension of water is T, then the weight of metal
disc is
(A) 2rT + W
(B) 2rT cos  – W
(C) 2rT cos  + W
(D) W – 2rT cos 

3. In order to do work :
(A) force must act at any angle to the displacement
(B) Force may not act along the same direction as is the displacement
(C) must act along the direction of displacement
(D) must act normal to the direction of displacement

4. A particle moves in a straight line so that after t second the distance x from a fixed point
2
O on the line is given by x   t  2   t  5  . Then :
(A) after 2s, the velocity of particle is zero
(B) after 2s, the particle reaches at O
(C) the acceleration is negative when t < 3s
(D) all of the above

5. A uniform disc of radius R lies in the x – y plane, with its centre at origin moment of
inertia about z – axis is equal to its moment of inertia about line y = x + c. The value of c
will be –
R
(A) 
2
R
(B) 
2
R
(C)
4
(D) –R

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6. An ideal gas after going through a series of four thermodynamic states in order, reaches
the initial state again (cyclic process). The amounts of heat (Q) and work (W) involved in
the states are
Q1  6000J; Q 2  5500J; Q3  3000J; Q 4  3500J
W1  2500J; W2  1000J; W3  1200J; W4  xJ
The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total heat absorbed by the gas is . The
value of x and  are nearly
(A) 500J; 7.5%
(B) 700J; 10.5%
(C) 1000J; 21%
(D) 1500J; 15%

7. A firecracker exploding on the surface of a lake is heard as two sounds a time interval t
apart by a man on a boat close to water surface. Sound travels with a speed u in water
and a speed v in air. The distance from the exploding firecracker to the boat is (u > v)
uvt
(A)
uv
t(u  v)
(B)
uv
t(u  v)
(C)
uv
uvt
(D)
uv

8. If B is the bulk modulus of a metal and a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides of
the metal with density D, then the fractional increase in density is given by
B
(A)
P
P
(B)
B
PD
(C)
B
BD
(D)
P

9. A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillate with a period T proportional to p a
db Ec where p is the static pressure, d is the density and E is the total energy of
explosion. The values of a, b, c are
(A) a = 0, b = 1, c = 2
(B) a = 1, b = 2, c = 1
(C) a = 5/6, b = -1/2, c = ½
(D) a = -5/6, b = 1/2, c = 1/3

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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4

10. Two satellites of same mass are launched in the same orbit around the earth so as to
rotate opposite to each other. If they collide inelastically and stick together as wreckage,
the total energy of the system just after collision is
2GMm
(A) 
r
GMm
(B) 
r
GMm
(C)
2r
GMm
(D)
4r

11. A simple pendulum has time period T = 2s in air. If the whole arrangement is placed in a
1
nonviscous liquid whose density is times the density of bob. The time period of the
2
simple pendulum in the liquid will be
2
(A) s
2
(B) 4s
(C) 2 2s
(D) 4 2s

12. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a steel wire of


cross section 2 cm2 going over a smooth pulley as shown in figure. The
longitudinal strain in the wire is: (g = 10 m/s2, Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
(A) 3.3 × 10–7
(B) 3.3 × 10–6
(C) 2 × 10–6 1 kg
(D) 4 × 10–6

2 kg

13. For a system in equilibrium as shown in figure elongation in spring will be


2mg
(A) k
k
mg
(B)
k
mg
(C)
2k m
mg
(D)
3k

14. Velocity time equation of a particle moving in a straight line is V  t 2  5t  6 . The


distance travelled by the particle in the time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec
(A) 0
17
(B)
3

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(C) 6
16
(D)
3

15. A heavy disc is thrown on a horizontal surface with an initial linear velocity of v 0. It will
start pure rolling when its linear velocity becomes
v0
(A)
2
2v 0
(B)
3
3v 0
(C)
5
5v 0
(D)
7

16. A heater of power 2000 kW is switched on inside a body, so that its surface temperature
is maintained at 270C. The surrounding temperature is zero kelvin. If the voltage is
dropped by 19%, the new equilibrium temperature of body is (consider heat loss due to
radiation only)
(A) 3000C
(B) –30C
(C) 2700C
(D) –60C

17. A tank with vertical walls is mounted so that its base is at a height H above the horizontal
ground. The tank is filled, with water to a depth h. A hole is punched in the side wall of
the tank at a depth x below the water surface. To have maximum range of emerging
stream, the value of x is (h > H)
Hh
(A)
2
H
(B)
2
h
(C)
2
Hh
(D)
2

18. In the following figure, the pulley P1 is fixed and the


pulley P2 is movable. If W1 = W2 = 100 N, what is the
angle AP2P1? (The pulleys are frictionless) if system is at
A
rest. P1
(A) 30° P2
(B) 60°
W1
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
W2

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19. A body of mass 1kg is suspended from a massless spring having force constant 600
N/m. Another body of mass 0.5 kg moving vertically upwards hits the suspended body
with a velocity 3 m/sec and gets embedded in it. The frequency of oscillation and the
amplitude of motion are
10
(A) Hz, 10 Cm

10
(B) Hz,5 Cm

5
(C) Hz,5 Cm

5
(D) Hz,10 Cm

20. A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is rolling without


slipping up a rough inclined plane which makes an angle 300
with the horizontal. If the coefficient of static and kinetic friction
are each equal to  and the only force acting on the disc are 
gravitational and frictional force then find the direction and
magnitude of the frictional force acting on it.
mg
(A) down the incline
6
mg
(B) up the incline
6
mg
(C) down the incline
3
mg
(D) up the incline
3

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

21. The pressure at the bottom of water in a lake is 3/2 times that at half its depth. The water
h
barometer reads 10 m at atmosphere. The depth of the lake (in m.) is h, then is
4

22. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D from two S1 4m D


coherent sources S1 and S2 is I0. The wave length of the
wave is  = 4m. Resultant intensity at D will be nI0 where n is
3m

S2

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

23. A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is four the length
of the other. Then the long piece will have a force constant “nk” where n is

24. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then tension in the string (in N.) will be


25. A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity. T is the time
5
period of the planet, then the shortest time spent by the planet between one end of
minor axis to the position closest to the sun is nT where n is

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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

26. XeF4 is planar whereas CF4 is tetrahedral because


(A) in XeF4, Xe is sp2 hybridised and C is sp3 hybridised in CF4.
(B) Xe is sp3d2 hybridised in XeF4 but due to the presence of two lone pairs of
electrons, the shape is planar whereas in CF4, C is sp3 hybridised.
(C) in both XeF4 and CF4, the central atom is sp3 hybridised.
(D) Xe is a noble gas whereas C is a non-metal.

27. In an experiment, 50 ml of 0.1M solution of a salt reacted with 25 ml of 0.1 M solution of


sodium sulphite. The half equation for the oxidation of sulphite ion is:
SO32   aq   H2 O 
 SO 24  aq   2H  aq   2 e 
If the oxidation number of the metal in the salt was 3, what would be the new oxidation
number of the metal?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

28. Which of the following compound can’t from any acid upon acidified permanganate
oxidation?
(A) CH3CH = CH2
(B) CH3CH = CHCH3
(C)

(D) H2C = CH2

29. Which one of the following compounds will give in the presence of peroxide a product
different from that obtained in the absence of peroxide?
(A) 1-butene HCl
(B) 1-butene, HBr
(C) 2-butene, HCl
(D) 2-butene, HBr.

30. Each of the following pair contains species with the same geometry EXCEPT
(A) P O34 , S O24
(B) NH4 , BF4
(C) CO2, C2H2
(D) N2O, NO2

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31. A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3 has partial pressures 2 atm, 1 atm and 3


atm respectively at 725 K. If the value of Kp for the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
 2NH3(g)
is 4.28  10–5 atm–2 at 725 K, in which direction the net reaction will go ?
(A) Forward
(B) Backward
(C) No net reaction
(D) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted.

32. A vessel contains 100 mL of 0.2 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH. How many moles of
CH3COONa is to be added to it so that the pH of resulting solution will be 6 [Ka of
CH3COOH = 10–5]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 0.4

33. If for two gases of molecular weights MA and MB at temperature TA and TB, TAMB = TBMA,
then which property has the same magnitude for both the gases?
(A) density
(B) pressure
(C) KE per mole
(D) Urms

34. Which of the following is a metasilicate?


(A) Mg2SiO4
(B) MgSiO3
(C) Mg3Si2O7
(D) Mg3(SiO4)(F, OH)2

35. Which of the following is not correct?


(A) G is zero for a reversible reaction
(B) G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(C) G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(D) G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction

36. The least water pollutant gas among the following is:
(A) CO2
(B) NO2
(C) N2
(D) SO2

37. In each of the following total pressure set-up at equilibrium is assumed to be equal and
is 1 atm. With equilibrium constants Kp given as K1, K2 & K3 for I, II & III equilibria
respectively, which of the following is correct ?
I. CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g), K1
II. NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g), K2
III. NH2CO2NH4(s)  2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3
(A) K1 = K2 = K3

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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10

(B) K1 < K2 < K3


(C) K3 < K2 < K1
(D) None of these

38. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm –3 of a
substance becomes half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero
k1
order kinetics, respectively. Ratio of the rate constants for first order (k1) and zero
k0
order (k0) of the reaction is :
(A) 0.5 mol–1 dm3
(B) 1.0 mol. dm–3
(C) 1.5 mol. dm–3
(D) 2.0 mol–1. dm3

39. Si Fe   3HCl   X   H2  FeCl3


 / AlCl3
  Y   SiCl4
In above reaction X and Y are respectively
(A) SiHCl3 and SiH4
(B) SiCl4 and SiH3
(C) SiH2Cl2 and SiHCl3
(D) SiCl4 and SiCl2

40. Aluminium chloride exists as a dimmer, Al2Cl6, in solid state as well as in solution of non-
polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives :
(A) Al3   3Cl
3
(B)  Al H2O    3Cl
 6
3
(C)  Al  OH   3HCl
 6
(D) Al2O3  6HCl

41. Which of the following compounds is not formed by acidic hydrolysis of borax?
(A) H2B4O7
(B) HBO2
(C) H3BO3
(D) H2B2O3

Br

42. BF
 CH3OH 
3
 Pr oduct
Cl
The major product of above reaction is
(A) Br (B) Br
H3C HO

Cl Cl

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(C) Br (D) Br

Cl Cl
CH3 OH

43. A mixture of aqueous solution of H2O2 and KI becomes coloured if


(A) KOH is added
(B) HCl is added
(C) Na2CO3 is added
(D) NH3 is added

44. Which of the following substance reacts with NaOH in a non-redox reaction?
(A) Cl2
(B) Si
(C) Al(OH)3
(D) S

45. Which one of the following compound has the highest dipole moment?
(A) BF3
(B) BF4
(C) BFCl2
(D) BCl3

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

46. The temperature of a sample of diatomic ideal gas is increased by 4.5 times of its initial
value. At this temperature the molecules are completely dissociated into atoms. How
many times will the gas velocity increase from initial value due to the change?

47. 10
1
10–1

P in atm 10–2
–3
10
–4
10

Time
The plot of partial pressure of the product and reactant is given above. What is the
value of Go in L atm unit at temperature ‘T’?
[Assume 2.303 RT = 4 L atm mol–1]

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

o
48. The energy of an electron of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV when it is 0.53 A away from the
nucleus. When the hydrogen atom is supplied with 12.75 eV energy the electron moves
o
to a higher orbit. What is the distance of that orbit from the nucleus in A unit?

49. 56.7 g anhydrous oxalic acid (H2C2O4) completely decolourises 200 mL of acidified
KMnO4 solution. What is the molarity of the KMnO4 solution?

50. A large number of structural isomers are possible with formula C4H11N
If x = Number of primary amines,
y = Number of secondary amines and
z = number of tertiary amines, then
What is (x + y + z)

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

51. If the axes are rotated through an angle of 45o in the clockwise direction about origin,
the coordinates of a point in the new system are (0, –2), then its original coordinates are
(A)  2, 2 
(B)   2, 2 
(C)  2,  2 
(D)   2,  2 
10
1 
52. The 7 term in   y 2  , when expanded in descending power of y, is
th

y 
210
(A)
y2
y2
(B)
210
(C) 210y 2
(D) none of these

53. If the line ax  by  c  0 is a normal to the hyperbola xy  1, then


(A) a  0, b  0
(B) a  0, b  0
(C) a  0, b  0
(D) None of these

54. The number of solutions of the equation x 3  x 2  4x  2 sin x  0 in 0,2 is


(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

55.  
If 1  y  1  2x  4x 2  8x3  16x 4  32x 5  1  y 6 ,  y  1 , then a value of
y
x
is

1
(A)
2
(B) 2

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1
(C)
4
(D) 4

x2 y2
56. If P  acos , b sin   is a point on ellipse   1 , then '  ' is
a2 b2
(A) angle of OP line from positive direction of x – axis (O is origin)
(B) angle of OQ line from positive direction of x axis [when Q is  acos ,a sin   ]
(C) it depends on the point P
(D) none of the above

 
57. If x   0,  ,tanm x  cotm x attains
 2
(A) a minimum value which is dependent of m
(B) a minimum value which is a function of m
(C) the minimum value of 2
(D) none of these
Which one of the above statements is correct?

2
58. If 0  a  b  c, and the roots  ,  of the equation ax  bx  c  0 are imaginary, then
the incorrect option is
(A)  
(B)  1
(C)  1
(D) 

59. 1  1  1  ......to  
(A) 1
(B) –1
(C) 
(D) 2

60. If n is a natural number, then


n3
(A) 12  22  .......  n2 
3
n3
(B) 12  22  .......  n2 
3
(C) 1  2  .......  n  n3
2 2 2

n3
(D) 12  22  .......  n2 
3

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61. The largest value of the positive integer k for which nk  1 divides
1  n  n2  .......  n127
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64

7z
62. If f  z   , where z  1  2i, then f  z  is equal to
1  z2
z
(A)
2
(B) z
(C) 2z
(D) None of these

63. The chords of contact of the pair of tangents to the circle x 2  y 2  1 drawn from any
point on the line 2x  y  4 pass through the point
 1 1
(A)  , 
2 4
 1 1
(B)  , 
4 2
 1
(C)  1, 
 2
1 
(D)  , 1
2 

64. A lamp post standing at a point A on a circular path of radius ‘r’ subtends an angle  at
point B(different from A) on the path and AB subtends an angle of 45o at any other point
on the path, then the height of the lamp post is
r
(A) tan 
2
(B) 2r tan 
(C) 2 r cot 
r
(D) cot 
2

e7 x  e x
65. The coefficient of x n in the expansion of is (where n is a non negative integer)
e3x
4n1   2 
n

(A)
n!

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4n1  2n
(B)
n!
4   1
n 1 n 1

(C)
n!
4   2 
n n

(D)
n!

12 12  22 12  22  3 2 12  22  .....  n2
66. The sum of the series    ....   ... equals
1.2! 2.3! 3.4! n.  n  1 !
(A) e2
1
 
2
(B) e  e 1
2
3e  1
(C)
6
4e  1
(D)
6

The total number of dissimilar terms in the expansion of  x1  x 2  ......  xn  is


3
67.
(A) n3
n3  3n2
(B)
4
n  n  1 n  2 
(C)
6
n2  n  1
2
(D)
4

68. The number of values of x in 0,2 satisfying the inequation cos x  sin x  2 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) none of these

69. If a hyperbola passing through the origin has 3x  4y  1  0 and 4x  3y  6  0 as its


asymptotes, then the equations of its transverse and conjugate axes are
(A) x  y  5  0 and x  y  1  0
(B) x  y  0 and x  y  5  0
(C) x  y  5  0 and x  y  1  0
(D) x  y  1  0 and x  y  5  0

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70. 6 boys and 4 girls sit in a line so that p is the number of arrangements when no two girls
sit together and q is the number of arrangements when all the girls sit together, then
p
is
q
(A) 1
7
(B)
2
(C) 5
(D) none of these

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

71.  
The number of solutions of logsin x 2tan x  0 in the interval  0,  is



2

x2
72. The number of real solutions of the equation  1 is
1 x  5

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

73. If x, y, z, t are odd natural numbers such that x  y  z  t  20, then the number of
values of ordered quadruplet (x, y, z, t) is

74. If the distances of 2 points P and Q on parabola y 2  4ax from the focus of parabola
y 2  4ax are 4 and 9 respectively, then the distance of the point of intersection of
tangents at P and Q from the focus is k, where (2021.55)k equals to

75. The number of triangles whose vertices are at the vertices of an octagon but none of
whose sides happen to come from the sides of the octagon is m, where (2017.32)m is

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 30-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.


 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –0 mark for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. Two spherical bodies A (of radius 6 cm) and B (of radius 18 cm) are at temperatures T1
and T2 respectively. The maximum intensity in the emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm
and in that of B is at 1500nm. Considering them to be black bodies, the ratio of the rate
of total energy radiated by A and B will be
(A) 3:1
(B) 9:1
(C) 27 : 1
(D) 81 : 1

2. Three identical rods are joined and hinged at A as shown. If the A


angle made by the rod AB with the vertical in equilibrium is  then
the value of sin will be D
3 B
(A)
5
4 C
(B)
5
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
2

3. The displacement (in cm) of a moving particle at any time t is given by the equation of
the form y  3 cos t  4 sin t where   2s1 . Its period of oscillation and its amplitude
of oscillation is
(A) 3.14s, 5cm
(B) 3.14s, 7cm
(C) 1.57s, 5cm
(D) 1.57s, 1cm

4. A particle moves along the y-axis of a coordinate system, with a force component
Fy = (2N/m3)y3 acting on it. As the particle moves from the origin to y = 3 m, how much
work is done on it by the force?
(A) 0J
(B) 40.5 J
(C) –40.5 J
(D) 162 J

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5. A fixed sphere of radius R and uniform mass density d has


a cavity of radius R/2 as shown in figure. The centre of the
solid sphere was at C while that of the cavity is at O. A
liquid of density d/2 is filled in the cavity. Find the C O
gravitational force exerted by the liquid on solid sphere.
R
G2R 4 d2
(A)
6
G R d
2 4 2
(B)
12
G2R 4 d2
(C)
9
G R d
2 4 2
(D)
18
x
6. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying cross-section are x
maintained at 200°C and 0°C respectively. In steady state
A B C D

0°C
200°C
(A) temperature difference across AB and CD are equal.
(B) temperature difference across AB is greater than that of across CD.
(C) temperature difference across AB is less than that of across CD.
(D) temperature difference may be equal or different depending on the thermal
conductivity of the rod.

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A narrow tube is bent in the form of a circle of radius R, as


shown in the figure. Two small holes S and D are made in the
tube at the positions right angle to each other. A source placed R
at S generates a wave of intensity I0 which is equally divided into S
two parts: one part travels along the longer path, while the other
travels along the shorter path. Both the part waves meet at the
point D where a detector is placed.
D
(A) If a maxima is formed at a detector then, the magnitude of wavelength  of the
wave produced is given by R.
(B) If a maxima is formed at a detector then, the magnitude of wavelength  of the
2R
wave produced is given by .
3
(C) If a minima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of wavelength  of the
3
wave produced is given by R
2
(D) If a minima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of wavelength  of the
wave produced is given by 2R

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8. In figure, a ladder of mass m is shown leaning against a wall. It is in


static equilibrium making an angle  with the horizontal floor. The
coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is 1 and that
between the floor and the ladder is 2. The normal reaction of the wall on
the ladder is N1 and that of the floor is N2. If the ladder is about to slip,
then
mg
(A) 1  0 2  0 and N2 tan  
2
mg
(B) 1  0 2  0 and N1 tan  
2
mg
(C) 1  0  2  0 and N2 
1  12
mg
(D) 1  0 2  0 and N1 tan  
2

9. Speed of particle moving in a circle varies with time as, v = 2t then


(A) angle between velocity vector and acceleration vector is increasing with time
(B) at is constant while ar is increasing with time
(C) at is decreasing but ar is increasing
(D) both (A) and (B) are wrong

10. A small solid ball of density  is held inside at point A a P Q


cubical container of side L, filled with an ideal liquid of L/2
density 4 as shown in the figure. Now, if the container starts A a
moving with constant acceleration a horizontally and the ball
L/2
is released from point A simultaneously, then
(A) For ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 3g R L S

(B) For ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 2g

L
(C) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g

2L
(D) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g
  
11. If A,B and C are non zero coplanar, choose the correct statements
  
(A) A BC  0 
  
(B) 
A. B  C = 0. 
   
(C) 
 A  B  . B  C  0, 
  
(D) A BC 0  

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12. If the kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to time ‘t’, the magnitude of the
force acting on the body is (Body is moving on straight line path)
(A) directly proportional to t
(B) inversely proportional to t
(C) directly proportional to the speed of the body
(D) inversely proportional to the speed of the body

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the cycle
ABCDA where AB is isochoric, BC is isobaric, CD is adiabatic
and DA is isothermal. Find the efficiency of the cycle. It is given
T v 1
that C  4, A  . [ln2 = 0.693]
TA v D 16


14. A thin uniform metallic rod of mass m, length L,
Young modulus of elasticity Y and crosssectional A
Shaded region
area A is rotated by angular velocity  about
extreme end AA’. Consider a section on the rod at 

midpoint of rod. What will be the normal stress in 


N/m2 on the shaded region? (Take the value of X= L/2
A
M2L2 cos2 
 10 N / m2 )
A

15. A bus B is moving with a velocity vB in the positive


B vB C Road x
x-direction along a road as shown in the figure. A
shooter ‘S ’ is at a distance l from the road. He has a
detector which can detect signals only of frequency l
1500Hz. The bus blows horn of frequency 1000 Hz.
When the detector detects a signal the shooter

immediately shoots towards the road along SC and S
the bullet hits the bus. Find the velocity of the bullet if
v 2
velocity of sound in air is v = 340 m/s and B  .
v 3 3

16. A wedge and block are connected by a mass less


string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in
the figure. At the instant shown, the speed of the m
wedge is 1m/s. Assume all surfaces are smooth. wedge
600
The speed of the block with respect to ground at the
instant shown is

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17. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  4 m / s at an angle  = 30° with the horizontal,
find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of projection,
when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)

18. In the figure, find the minimum value of mass ‘m’ (in kg) of the rod
rod so that the block of mass M =12 kg remains stationary on
m
the inclined plane (take g = 10 m/s2) assume there is no friction  = 0.5
between rod and block
M

30o

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. Weakest base among the following is:


(A) H (B)
N HN NH

(C) (D)
N NH2

20. 0.1 mole of a carbohydrate with empirical formula CH2O contains 1g of hydrogen. What
is its molecular formula?
(A) C4H8O4
(B) C6H12O6
(C) C5H10O5
(D) All the correct

21. Which of the following electronic transition of carbon atom, is accompanied with increase
in paramagnetism?
(A) 2p  3s
(B) 2s  2p
(C) 2p  3p
(D) None of these

22. In which of the following case/s all carbon atoms do not have same hybridization?
(–)
H2C CH CH3 CH CH3 CH 3CHCH 3 H 2C C CH2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I and II
(B) II and IV
(C) III and IV
(D) Only II

23. Which of the following have same bond order?


(I) CO, (II) N2 (III) CN- (IV) NO+
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

Cl

24. Dipole moment of is similar to

Cl
(A) Cl (B) Cl
Cl Cl

Cl
Cl
(C) H (D) All of these

Cl Cl

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. The pair(s) of molecules with different state of the hybridization of the central atom but
with the same shape is (are)
(A) [XeF2 , Br3 ]
(B) [CO 2 , I3 ]
(C) [XeF4 , Ni(CN) 42 ]
(D) [H 2O, SO2 ]

26. Which of the following contain(s) the decreasing order of ionization energies of the
concerned atoms?
(A) Li > Be > B > C
(B) S > P > Cl > Si
(C) Si > Mg > Al > Na
(D) F>N>O>C

27. Which of the following properties of alkali metals decrease(s) on moving down the
group?
(A) Hydrated radii of ions
(B) Ionisation energy
(C) standard reduction potential of Maq  / M(s) couple
(D) Basic nature of oxides

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28. Which of the following is characteristic of carbocation


(i) it can rearrange to a more stable carbocation
(ii) it can eliminate a proton to form an alkene
(iii) it can add to an alkene to form a new carbocation
(iv) it can abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
(A) i
(B) iii
(C) iv
(D) ii

29. Consider the conformation given below and choose the correct CH3
statement(s):
(A) it is optically active
(B) it has centre of symmetry H Cl
(C) it is optically inactive H
(D) it does not have plane of symmetry
CH3 Cl

30. In which case the hybridization of central atom changes


(A) BCl3 to BCl 4
(B) NH3 to NH 4
(C) BF3 to BF3  NH3
(D) SO2Cl2 to H2SO4

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

31. If an aqueous solution at 25°C has twice as many OH ─ as pure water its pOH will be
[log2 = 0.3010]
32. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The
pressure gauge of cylinder indicates 12 atm at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in building the
temperature starts rising. The temperature(oC) at which the cylinder will explode is.

33. Equal volumes of two solutions of a strong acid having pH 3 and pH 4 are mixed
together. The pH of the resulting solution will then be equal to [log 5.5 = 0.74]

34. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is 210–2 molL–1sec–1. If the concentration of
the reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial concentration must have been

35. 5.40 gm of an unknown gas at 27C occupies the same volume as 0.14 gm of hydrogen
at 17C and same pressure. The molecular weight of unknown gas is
36. Rate of the chemical reaction: nA  products, is doubled when the concentration of A
increased four times. If the half time of the reaction at any temperature is 16 min. then
time required for 75% of the reaction to complete is

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1 1
37. If cos       3 sin      , then  is equal to
1  3 sin2 1  3 sin 2
1
(A)
2
1
(B) 
2
1
(C)
4
1
(D) 
4
38. The side of a regular hexagon is 2 cm. The ratio of the radius of circumscribed circle to
the radius of inscribed circle is
3
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
(C) 2
2
(D)
3

39. If z  1 and arg  z   and   arg  z 5  iz  then 2 cos  equal to
4
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) None of these

b 3
40. Angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC are in AP. If  , then angle A is
c 2

(A)
6

(B)
4
5
(C)
12

(D)
2

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41. If in ABC the equation of angle bisector of angle B is y = x and that of angle C is
y = –x, then the equation of line BC, the coordinates of A are given to be (5, 7) is
(A) x  y 1 0
(B) 7y  5x  3  0
(C) 7y  5x
(D) None of these

42. If A = tan 6° tan 42° and B = cot 66° cot 78°, then
(A) A = 2B
1
(B) A B
3
(C) A=B
(D) 3A = 2B

43. A solution of the equation cot 1 2  cot 1 x  cot 1 10  x  where 1 < x < 9 is
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5

44. The centre of a circle S = 0 lies on 2x  2y  9  0 and S  0 cuts orthogonally the circle
x 2  y 2  4 . Then the circle must pass through the point:
(A) (1, 1)
(B) (–1/2, 1/2)
(C) (5, 5)
(D) (–4, 4)

45. The equation (13x – 1)2 + (13y – 2)2 = (a2 – 2a +1) (5x +12y -1)2
represents an ellipse. Then ‘a’ can be
(A) 0 < |a -1| < 1
(B) |a -1| < 1
2
(C) 0 < |a -1| <
3
1
(D) 0 < |a -1| <
3

46. If a1,a2 ,......an are positive real numbers whose product is a fixed number c
minimum value of a1  a2  .........  an1  2an is n  2c 
1/n
(A)
(B) maximum value of a1  a2  ........  an1  2a n cannot be calculated

minimum value of a1  a2  .........  an1  2an is  2c 


1/n
(C)
(D) None of these

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12

47. If  5, 12  and  24, 7  are the foci of a conic passing through the origin, then the
eccentricity of conic is
386
(A)
38
386
(B)
12
386
(C)
13
386
(D)
25

48. Let the parabolas y  x 2  a x  b and y  x  c  x  touch each other at the point (1, 0),
then
(A) a=–3
(B) b=1
(C) c=2
(D) b+c=3

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

r 1 A B C
49. If in triangle ABC,  , then the value of tan  tan  tan  is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2

n
 1
50. If the middle term of  x 2   is 924 x 6 , then value of =
 x

51. If the numbers 330, 486 and 604 divided by a positive number ’p’ leaving the remainder
7, 11 and 15 respectively, then the largest value of p is

The sum of all the coefficient of those terms in the expansion of  a  b  c  d which
8
52.
contains b but not c

53. Let n be the largest integer that is the product of exactly 3 distinct primes, x, y and 10x +
y; where x and y are digits. Then n is.

25
54. The complex number z satisfies the condition z   24 . The maximum distance from
z
the origin of co – ordinates to the point z is

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 30-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.


 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.


 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the
same time period (T) and equal amplitudes (A). At a A O B
particular instant one particle is at x = –A and the other is x=–A x=0 x=+A
at x = 0. They move in the same direction. They will
cross each other at time t and at position x then
4T
(A) t
3
3T
(B) t
8
A
(C) x
2
A
(D) x
2

2. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius 4 units is located with y


its center at the origin O of co-ordinates. Two spheres of equal
radii 1 units, with their centres at A(-2,0,0) and B (2, 0 ,0)
respectively, are taken out of the solid leaving behind spherical
m x
cavities as shown in figure. Then A
O B
(A) the gravitational field due to this object at the origin is zero.
(B) the gravitational field at the point B(2, 0, 0)is zero
z
(C) the gravitational potential is same at all points on the circle y2 + z2 = 36
(D) the gravitational potential is same at all points on the circle y2 + z2 = 4

V3
3. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process 
T2
constant, if the temperature is raised by 300K then
(A) work done by the gas is 400 R
(B) change in internal energy is 900 R
(C) molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 13/6 R
(D) molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 3/2 R

4. 10 gms of ice at 00C is mixed with 5 gms of steam at 1000C. If latent heat of fusion of ice
is 80 cal/gm and latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/gm. Then at thermal equilibrium
(A) temperature of mixture is 00C
(B) temperature of mixture is 1000C
(C) mixture contains 13.33 gms of water and 1.67 gms of steam
(D) mixture contains 5.3 gms of ice and 9.7 gms of water

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5. A point mass of 1 kg collides elastically with a stationary point mass of 5 kg. After their
collision, the 1 kg mass reverses its direction and moves with a speed of 2 ms-1. Which
of the following statement(s) is (are) correct for the system of these two masses?
(A) Total momentum of the system is 3 kg ms-1
(B) Momentum of 5 kg mass after collision is 4 kg ms-1
(C) Kinetic energy of the centre of mass is 0.75 J
(D) Total kinetic energy of the system is 4 J

6. A cylinder is rotated clockwise and lowered slowly on a rough
inclined plane with ( = 0.8). Then:
(A) cylinder will start going upwards
(B) cylinder will start going downwards.
(C) frictional force will act upwards.
(D) frictional force will act downwards. 60°

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A thin wire of area of cross-section A  10 2 m2 is used to make a ring of radius


r  10 1m . This ring is placed on a smooth horizontal floor & is given angular velocity
  2 rad / s about its centre. Find out stress in the ring (mass per unit length of wire  =
1 kg/m)
8. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle P
B(2P,V) C(2P,2V)
ABCDA as shown in the P–V diagram (see figure).
pv
The work done during the cycle is then n = ?
n

D(P,2V)
A(P,V)

9. A cubical open vessel of side 5m filled with liquid upto a


height of 4m is accelerated with an acceleration a. The 1m
minimum value of a so that pressure at mid point of AC is
equals to atmospheric is 4m
a

A B C
5m

10. Three metallic blocks A, B and C have masses m, m and 2m A


respectively. Specific heat of A, B and C are C, 2C and C
respectively. Initial temperature of A, B and C are 10°C, 5°C and 5°C
respectively. Now the blocks are connected by 3-identical rods as
shown. Find the final temperature of block A on Celsius scale B C
(Neglect any heat loss due to radiation).

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

11. A 20 cm long string, having a mass of 1.0 g, is fixed at both the ends. The tension in the
string is 0.5 N. The string is set into vibrations using an external vibrator of frequency
100 Hz. Find the separation ( in cm) between the successive nodes on the string.
12. Figure below shows a massless pulley, a spring of constant K = 250 N/m and a mass
1 kg. On displacing the mass slightly, find its frequency (approximate) of its vertical
oscillation

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. The speed of sound in air is 332 m/s at NTP. What will be the speed of sound (in m/s)
in hydrogen at NTP if the density of hydrogen at NTP is 1/16 that of air [assume
PH = Pair]?

14. The gravitational field in a region is E  (10 N / kg) (iˆ  2 ˆj  3 k).
ˆ Find magnitude of work
done by external agent to slowly move a particle of mass 3 kg from origin to point (3m,
4m, 5m) in joules.
15. A bullet of mass 20 gm moving horizontally with speed 500 m/s passes through a
wooden block of mass 10 kg which was initially stationary on level surface. Bullet
emerges with speed 100 m/s from other side of block and block slides 20 cm on surface
before coming to rest. Find  between block and surface. (Take: g = 10 m/s2)
16. A particle oscillating simple harmonically with an amplitude of 1.5 cm, has a maximum
energy of 0.25 J. At what displacement from the equilibrium position (in cm) will the
particle be acted upon by a force of 2.5 × 10–5 N?
17. A small bob of mass 50 g oscillates as a simple pendulum, with an amplitude of 5 cm
and period of 2s. Find the tension in the supporting thread (in N), when the velocity of
the bob is maximum. [Take g = 10 m/s2]
18. A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process
as shown in the figure. Find the quantity of heat (in J)
supplied to the system over one complete cycle.

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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. 
X  g 
 Y  g   Z  g
At above equilibrium, the no. of moles of X, Y and Z gases are same. The equilibrium is
attained at 1200 K and 12 atm pressure. The reaction takes place in a one litre
container. Choose correct statements.
(A) the equilibrium constant KP is 4 atm
(B) for the reaction, KP = KC
(C) the equilibrium constant KC is equal to the equilibrium concentration of any one
species (X or Y or Z)
(D) The decomposition of X increases by increasing pressure at equilibrium

20.
AlCl3
 ClCH2 CH2Cl   Product  s 

The possible product(s) of above reaction is/are:


(A) CH2CH2Cl (B) CH2CH3

(C) (D) CH3

21. Which of the following carbide(s) form CH4 when react(s) with water?
(A) Be2C
(B) CaC2
(C) Mg2C3
(D) Al4C3

22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the following reversible reaction?


2Mg  s   O 2  g  
 2MgO  s 
(A) KP < KC
1
(B) KP 
p O2
(C) KC = [O2]
KP 1
(D) 
K C RT

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23. The correct statement(s) regarding B2H6 is/are


(A) it contains 3c – 2e as well as 2c – 2e covalent bonds
(B) H2 gas is produced when it reacts with water
(C) it is used as a reducing agent in organic reactions
(D) it contains no B – B bond

24. The pressure of a thermodynamic system is found to be constant in


(A) isothermal process
(B) adiabatic process
(C) isobaric process
(D) isochoric process

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. What is the dipole moment of XeF4 molecule in debye unit?

26. How many moles of KMnO4 can completely oxidize five moles of C2O24 ions in acidic
medium?
MnO 4  C2O24   H 
 Mn2  CO2  H2O

27. Cr2  SO4 3  NaOH  H2O2  Yellow solution


If the oxidation number of chromium in the anion that provides yellow colour is +x, the
value of x will be

28. The r. m. s. velocity of CH4 at 800 K is equal to the most probable velocity of an
unknown gas at 300 K. What is the molecular mass of the unknown gas?

29. How many unpaired electron(s) is/are present in O 2[BF4] molecule?

30. How many grams of NaOH should be added to 400 mL of 0.5 N HCl for complete
neutralization?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. The energy of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What will be the second
ionization energy of helium atom in eV unit?
32. The product of rate constant and half-life period of the first order reactions is equal to

33. 

SO 2  g   NO2  g  
 SO3  g   NO  g 
One mole each of the above gases are taken in a one litre vessel. The mole fraction of
NO2 gas at equilibrium is 0.2. What will be the equilibrium mole of SO 3 in mol L–1 unit?

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34. If one mole of a monobasic ideal gas is heated at constant pressure of 2 atm from 25 oC
to 50oC, the change in internal energy in calories will be
Given (R = 1.937 cal K–1 mol–1)

35. Ammonium carbonate decomposes as



NH2COONH4  
 2NH3  CO2
 solid  gas   gas 
For the reaction, KP = 2.9  10–5 atm3. It we start wtih 1 mole of the compound, the total
pressure at equilibrium would be x  10–2 atm. Find x

36. The pH of 1 M ammonium acetate solution will be (Given PK a of acetic acid = 4.76 and
PK b of NH4OH = 4.75)

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. If Sn denotes the sum to n terms of the series 1  n  9  1  22  333  ...  999....9
 
9 times
then for n  2
(A) Sn  Sn1 
1
9

10n  n2  n 
(B) 
Sn  10n  n2  2n  2 
(C) 
9  Sn  Sn1   n 10n  1 
(D) S3  356
 16 
38. If the tangent at the point  4 cos , sin   to the ellipse 16x 2  11y 2  256 is also a
 11 
tangent to the circle x  y  2x  15, then  equals
2 2


(A)
3
2
(B)
3

(C) 
3
5
(D)
3
39. The solution of the equation 9 cos12 x  cos2 2x  1  6 cos6 x cos 2x  6 cos6 x  2 cos 2x
is/are

(A) x  n  , n  I
2
 2
(B) x  n  cos 1  4  ,n  I
 3
 
2
(C) x  n  cos1 4 ,n  I
3
(D) None of these

40. Equation of common tangent to 9x 2  9y 2  8 and y 2  32x is


(A) 9x  3y  8  0
(B) 9x  3y  8  0
(C) 9x  3y  8  0
(D) 9x  3y  8  0

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x2 y2
41. If the chord of contact of the tangents from P to the ellipse   1 always touches
a2 b2
the circle on the join of foci as diameter, then P moves on the ellipse

x2 y2 1
 
ak1 bk 2 ak 3  bk 4
(A) k1  k 2  8
(B) k1  k 2  0
(C) k3  k 4  4
(D) k3  k 4  0

42. The chord AB of parabola y2 = 4ax cuts the axis of the parabola at C. If
A  (at12 ,2at1 ) and B  (at 22 ,2at 2 ) and AC : AB = 1 : 3, then :
(A) t 2  2t1
(B) t 2  2t1  0
(C) t1  2t 2  0
(D) 6t12  t 2 (t1  2t 2 )

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. Let z be a complex number with minimum argument and z  1  z  2  i  2 then find
z
 z 
the value of cot n  
 5

      2
44. If 4 sin 27o    , then the value of is
5

45. The remainder when 22003 is divided by 17 is

46. Let a line with the inclination angle of 60o be drawn through the focus F of the parabola
y 2  8  x  2  . If the two intersection points of line and parabola are A and B and the
perpendicular bisector of the chord AB intersects the x – axis at point P. If the length of
3
bisector of the segment PF is , then  is equal to
2

47. Let P  ,   be a point in the first quadrant, circles are drawn through P touching the
co – ordinate axes such that the circles are orthogonal and  2  2  k then find the
value of k.

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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10


48. The number of solutions of sin2 x  sin2 2x  sin2 3x if   x   is
2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

49. The sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle is
twice the smallest one. Then semi perimeter of the triangle is equal to

Largest value of n  N for which 100! is divisible by  24  is k then value of


n
50. =

51. The possible number of ordered triplets (m, n, p) where m,n,p  N such that
1  m  100; 1  n  50;1  p  25 and 2m  2n  2p is divisible by 3 is

52. Sum of three numbers in G.P. is 21 and the sum of their squares is 189. If the common
ratio of the G.P. is ‘a’ or ‘b’ then a + b equals to

53. In a triangle ABC, the equation of the side BC is 2x  y = 3 and its circumcentre and
orthocentre are at (2, 4) and (1, 2) respectively. The value of ‘ 61 sin B sin C’ is equal to

54. If x,y  R , satisfy the equation


 x  4 2  y 2  1, then sum of largest and smallest
4 9
x2 y2
value of the expression  , is
4 9

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 06-06-2021

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.


 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. An object of 6 kg is in the state of limiting equilibrium on an inclined plane having angle of


inclination 30°. Now if the angle of inclination is increased to 60°, then the extra force along the
plane to be applied on the object, to keep it in equilibrium will be: (Take g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) 3 kg wt
(B) 2 3 kg wt
(C) 3 kg wt
(D) 3 3 kg wt

2. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively their
centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be
projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 (M1  M 2 )
d
G
(B) (M1  M 2 )
d
G
(C) (M1  M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2

3. The maximum velocity of a harmonic oscillator is  and its maximum acceleration is  . Its time
period will be-
2
(A)

2
(B)

(C) 2 

(D)

4. In the arrangement shown in fig., the spring has a spring constant of


2 Nm 1 . The mass M = 3kg and m = 1kg. Mass M is in contact with a
smooth surface. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.1. k m
The time-period of S.H.M. executed by the system is-
M
(A)  (6) sec
(B)  (2) sec
(C) 2 2 sec
(D) 2s

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5. A slender homogeneous rod of length 2L floats partly immersed in water,


being supported by a string fastened to one of its ends, as shown. The 2L
specific gravity of the rod is 0.75. The length of rod that extends out of
water is –
(A) L
L
(B)
2
L
(C)
4
(D) 3L

6. Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are arranged as shown in y


figure. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about yy' axis will be:
7
(A) PQ2 1 2
2
2
(B) PQ
7 3
2
(C) PQ2
5
5 y
(D) PQ2
2

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for a spherical body rolling without slipping on a
rough horizontal surface at rest?
(A) The tangential acceleration of the point of contact with the ground is zero
(B) The speed of some of the point (s) is/are zero
(C) Frictional force may or may not be zero
(D) Work done by friction is non Zero

8. A particle (A) of mass m1 elastically collides with another stationary particle (B) of mass m2.
Then–
m1 1
(A)  and the particles fly apart in the opposite direction with equal velocities
m2 2
m1 1
(B)  and the particles fly apart in opposite direction with equal velocity
m2 3
m1 2
(C)  and the collision angle between the particles 60° symmetrically
m2 1
m1 2
(D)  and the particles fly apart symmetrically at angle 90°
m2 1

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

9. A plank of mass M and length L is placed at rest on a m v0


smooth horizontal surface. A small block of mass m is
M
projected with a velocity v0 from the left end of it as
smooth
shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the plank is  , and its value is such that
the block becomes stationary w.r.t the plank before it
reaches the other end.
(A) The work done by the friction force on the block during the period it slides on the plank is
negative
1 m 2 Mv 02
(B) The work done on the plank during the same period is .
2 m  M 2
(C) The total work done by friction is positive.
(D) None of these

10. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10m/s 2. The
fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up. (Take g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) The maximum height reached is 16
(B) The maximum height reached 36km
(C) After finishing of fuel will the maximum height be reached in 3 min.
(D) After finishing of fuel will the maximum height be reached in 1 min.

11. Two moles of helium gas ( = 5/3) are initially at 27ºC and occupy a volume of 20 liters. The gas
is first expanded at constant pressure until the volume is doubled. Then it undergoes an adiabatic
change until the temperature returns to its initial value
(A) The P–V diagram in adiabatic process is a hyperbola.
(B) The final pressure of the gas is 4.4 × 104 Pa .
(C) The work done by the gas in the whole process is 12450 J.
(D) The final volume of the gas is 113 litres

12. A body of mass 25 kg is dragged on a horizontal rough road with a constant speed of 20 km/hr. If
the coefficient of friction is 0.5 and specific heat of the material of the body is 0.1 cal. gm –1(ºC)–1
mark the correct option(s).
(A) The heat generated in one hour is 5.83 × 105 cal.
(B) If 50% of the heat is absorbed by the body, the rise in temperature is 116.4 ºC
(C) Work done by the friction is positive
(D) None of these

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

13. A sounding body emitting a frequency of 150 Hz is dropped from a height. During its fall under
gravity it crosses a balloon moving with constant velocity of 2 m/s one second after it started to
fall. Find the number of beats heard by observer in the balloon at the moment he crosses the
body. Velocity of sound in air is 300 m/sec.

14. A closed pipe and an open pipe sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of
the open pipe is 30 cm, find by how much the length (in cm) of the closed pipe must be changed
to bring the two pipes in unison –

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15. For the arrangement shown in fig. Find the minimum and maximum M = 20 kg
value of the horizontal acceleration of the system (in m/s2) so that
the block remains stationary with respect to wedge. a µ = 0.5
(Take the value of g = 9.8 m/s2)
37º

16. A particle is suspended from a spring and it streches the spring by 1 cm on the surface of earth.
The same particle will stretch the same spring at a place 800 km above earth surface by (in cm)

17. A solid sphere of mass m = 2 kg and specific gravity s = 0.5 is held


stationary relative to a tank filled with water as shown in figure. The tank
is accelerating vertically upward with acceleration a = 2 ms–2. If the
thread snaps, calculate acceleration of sphere with respect to the tank (in
m/s2) (Density of water is  = 1000 kg m 3 ) (g = 10 ms 2 )

18. The ladder shown in figure has negligible mass and rests on a
frictionless floor. The crossbar connects the two legs of the ladder at the
middle. The angle between the two legs is 60°. The fat person sitting on W
the ladder has a mass of 80 kg. Find the tension in the crossbar 1m
60º
(in N, take the value of g = 9.8 m/s2).
N T T N
1m
30º

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. The major product of reaction


O
C O


Conc. HNO3 +Conc. H 2SO4

OMe
(A) O (B) O
C O C O

NO2
OMe NO2 OMe

(C) O (D) O
C O C O

NO 2
OMe NO2

20. IUPAC name of:


Cl
CH3

Br
CH3
(A) 4-Bromo-6-chloro-2-ethyl-1-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(B) 5-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex-2-ene
(C) 5-Bromo-3-chloro-1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(D) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-3-ethyl-4-methylcyclohex-3-ene

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21. 50 mL of a solution, containing 1gm each of Na 2 CO3 , NaHCO3 and NaOH , was titrated
with 1N HCl . What will be the titrate reading (volume of HCl used) if only phenolphthalein is
used as indicator?
(A) 34.4 mL
(B) 55.8mL
(C) 21.3mL
(D) 38.2 mL

22. Which of the following substances cannot be used directly as fertilizer?


(A)  NH4 2 SO4
(B) Ca 3  PO 4 2
(C) Ca  H 2 PO 4 2
(D) CaCN 2 +C

23. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction in aqueous solution is 0.90.
  H 3BO 3 -glycerine 
H 3 BO 3 +glycerine 
How many moles of glycerine should be added per litre of 0.10M H 3 BO3 so that 80% of
the H 3 BO3 is converted to the boric acid-glycerine complex?
(A) 4.44
(B) 4.52
(C) 3.6
(D) 0.08

24. Which of the following is INCORRECT for 17g/L of H 2 O 2 solution?


(A) Volume strength is 5.6 vol. at 273K and 1 atm
(B) Molarity of solution is 0.5M
(C) 1mL of this solution gives 2.8mL O 2 at 273K and 2 atm
(D) The normality of solution is 2N

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Select the correct curve(s):


If v  velocity of electron in Bohr ' s orbit
r  radius of electron in Bohr ' s orbit
PE  potential energy of electron in Bohr ' s orbit
KE  kinetic energy of electronin Bohr ' s orbit
(A) (B)

v
r

1
n n

(C) (D)

PE KE
1
n
n
26. Which is/are correct for real gases?
(A) lim  PVm   constant at constant high temperature
P 0

(B) lim  PVm   constant at constant low temperature


Vm 0

(C) lim
 PVm   1at high temperature
P 0 RT
(D) lim
 PVm   R
V 0 RT
27. The reaction of nitrogen monoxide and hydrogen gas
2NO  g  +2H 2  g   N 2  g   2H 2O  g 
is hypothesised to involve the following steps:
(I) NO+NO  N 2 O 2  fast 
(II) N 2O 2 +H 2  H 2O+N 2O  slow 
(III) N 2O+H 2  N 2 +H 2 O  fast 
Which of the following is true about the reaction?
(A) H 2 acts as a catalyst in this reaction.
(B) The overall order of the reaction is 2.
(C) There are 2 intermediates present in the reaction mechanism.
(D) Doubling the concentration of NO will increase the rate of reaction four times.

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28. Which of the following statements are correct?


(A) ClF3 is T – shape molecule
(B) In SF4 molecule, F-S-F equational bond angle is 103° due to lp-lp repulsion
 
-
(C) In ICl 4 molecular ion, Cl-I-Cl bond angle is 90°.
(D) PF2 Cl3 is non-polar molecule.

29. Twist boat conformer of cyclohexane is more stable than:


(A) Boat
(B) half-chair
(C) Chair
(D) Fully staggered conformer.

30. Which of the following statements(s) is/are FALSE?


(A) The heat of vaporization of water at 1000C is 40.6 kJ/mol. When 9 gm of water vapour
condenses to liquid at 1000C of 1 atm, then S system  54.42 J / K
(B) 
When G system T,p  0; the reaction must be exothermic
(C) dG  VdP  SdT is applicable for closed system, both PV and non-PV work
(D) None of these

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

31. Total number of isomers for C 4 H 6 Br2 containing cyclobutane ring are
(including stereoisomer)?
32. How many species from the following are aromatic?
(i) CH
+ (ii) CH
+ (iii) CH3

(iv) (v) (vi)

(vii) + (viii) (ix) +


CH CH

33. Among the following, total number of planar species are:


(i) SF4 (ii) BrF3
(iii) XeF2 (iv) IF5

(v) SbF 4 (vi) SF5
(vii) XeF4 (viii) CH 3+
(ix) PCl +4

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34. The bond order for a species with the configuration


 1s 2 1s 2 2 s 2  2 s 2 p1x Will be:

35. Calculate sum of bond order between same bonded atoms in Q and R compounds.
water
P+Q
0°C
Na 2 O 2
water
25°C P+R+S

36. When an equimolar mixture of Cu 2S and CuS is titrated with Ba  MnO 4 2 in acidic medium,
2+ 2
the final products contain Cu ,SO 2 and Mn . If the molecular mass of Cu 2S , CuS and
Ba  MnO 4 2 are M1 ,M 2 and M 3 respectively and equivalent mass of Cu 2S , CuS and
M1 M 2 M3
Ba  MnO 4 2 are , and respectively. Then the value of x  y  z is
x y z

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

37. If  is the 2014th root of unity and z1 and z2 be any two complex numbers such that
z1  3, z2  4
2

2013
value of k 0
z1   k z2 is
(A) 50250
(B) 50350
(C) 50450
(D) 50550

1
  1
88 r 1
38. Sum of the series is equal to
r 1
sin  r  1   sin 2 1
2

cot 2
(A)
sin 2
 cot 2
(B)
sin 2
(C) cot 2
cot 2
(D)
sin 2 2

Last digit of  7777   8888 


8888 7777
39.
(A) 4
(B) 9
(C) 2
(D) 8

2
40. The general solution of the equation 2cos 2 x  1  3.2 sin x is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

41. In ABC if r = 1 ; R = 3;   5 then (here r In radius R  circum radius   area of


ABC and a, b, c are the lengths of the sides BC, CA, AB respectively of ABC ) then  a 4 
(A) 64
(B) 72
(C) 84
(D) 88

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8
 2 1 1
42. The constant term in the expansion of  x  2  y   is
 x y
(A) 4900
(B) 4950
(C) 5050
(D) 5151

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. In ABC , lengths of median AD and BE are and respectively. If AD  BE , then which of
the following is – are true?
(A) Area of the  is 6xy square units
(B) If 2 x  y , then  is obtuse
(C) Ration of side AB to median from C is 2:3
1
(D) Area of quadrilateral (DCEG)  area of ABC . (G is centroid)
6

44. Let L1 : 3x  4 y  1 and L2 : 5 x  12 y  2  0 be two given lines. Let image of every point on L1
with respect to a line L lies on L2 then possible equation of L can be:
(A) 14 x  112 y  23  0
(B) 64 x  8 y  3  0
(C) 11x  4 y  0
(D) 52 x  45 y  7

45. Let A 1,1 and B  3,3 be two fixed points and P be a variable point such that area of PAB
remains constant equal to 1 for all position of P, then locus of P is given by:
(A) 2 y  2x 1
(B) 2 y  2x 1
(C) y  x 1
(D) y  x 1

46. If4a 2  5b2  6a  1  0 and the line ax  by  1  0 touches a fixed circle, then:
(A) centre of circle is at  3, 0 

(B) the radius of circle is 5


(C) the radius of circle is 3
(D) the circle passes through 1,1
47. Variable circle is described to pass through point 1, 0  and tangent to the

curve y  tan tan  1


x  . The locus of the centre of the circle is a parabola whose:

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(A) Length of the latus rectum is 2 2


(B) Axis of symmetry has the equation x  y 1
(C) Vertex has the co-ordinates  3 / 4,1/ 4 
(D) None of these

48. If a, b, c, d and p are distinct real numbers such



that a  b  c
2 2 2
p 2
 2  ab  bc  cd  p   b 2  c 2  d 2   0 and c, b, d are in A.P. Then
abcd
is
a bc  d
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 3

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
2 2
y x
49. Find the number of ordered pair (x, y) satisfying the equation 16 x  16 y 1

50. A1 A2 ....... A2 n is regular 2n side polygon. Find the ratio of number of obtuse triangles to the
number of acute triangles formed by joining the vertices of the polygon

51. Consider two lines L1  x  y  0 and L2  x  y  0 and a moving point P  x, y  .


Let d  P, L1  , i  1 ,2 represents the perpendicular distance of the point P from L1 . If point P
2
moves in certain region R in such a way that  d  P, L    2, 4 .
i 1
1 Let the area of region R is A,

A
then find …..
4
52. In the figure AB is tangent at A to circle with centre O; point D is interior to circle and DB
intersects the circle at C. If BC=DC=3, OD=2 and AB=6, then find the radius of the circle..
D 3
C

3

A 6 B
53. Given a convex quadrilateral ABCD circumscribed about a circle of diameter 1. Inside ABCD,
2 2 2 2
there is a point M such that MA  MB  MC  MD  2 . Find the area of ABCD …

x2 y2
54. A transversal cut the same branch of a hyperbola   1 in P, P ' and the asymptotes in
a 2 b2
Q, Q ', then find  PQ  PQ '   P ' Q ' P ' Q  :

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 06-06-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.


 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect for a spherical body rolling without slipping on a
rough horizontal surface at rest?
(A) The tangential acceleration of the point of contact with the ground is Nonzero
(B) The speed of some of the point (s) is/are zero
(C) Frictional force may or may not be zero
(D) Work done by friction is non Zero

2. From the velocity - time graph of a particle given in figure, 15 E


A
describe the motion of the particle qualitatively in the interval 0 10
to 4s 5 F
B D
0
(A) The distance travelled during first two seconds is 10 m 1 2 3 4 5 6 t(s)
–15
(B) Acceleration at t = 1/2 s is 10 m/s 2. –10
C
–5
(C) Acceleration at t = 2 s is – 10 m/s 2.
(D) None of these

3. At a harbour enemy ship is at a distance 1803m from the security cannon having a muzzle
velocity of 60m/s. The angle of elevation of the cannon to hit the ship can be.
(A) 45 
(B) 30 
(C) 60 
(D) 15 

4. A stone with weight W is thrown vertically upward in the air with initial speed v0 . If a constant
force F due to air drag acts on the stone throughout its flight:
v 02
(A) The maximum height reached by the stone is
 F
2g 1  
 W
1/ 2
 WF
(B) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v 0  
 WF
v02
(C) The maximum height reached by the stone is
 F
2 g 1  
 W
1/2
W  F 
(D) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v0  
W  F 
5. A uniform rod of mass M and length a lies on a smooth horizontal plane. A particle of mass m
a
moving at a speed v perpendicular to the length of the rod strikes it at a distance from the
4
centre and stops after the collision.
M
(A) The velocity of the centre of the rod just after the collision is v.
m

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3 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

5mv
(B) The angular velocity of the rod about its centre just after the collision is
Ma
m
(C) The velocity of the centre of the rod just after the collision is v.
M
3mv
(D) The angular velocity of the rod about its centre just after the collision is
Ma

6. A 5 g piece of ice at 20C is put into 10g of water at 30C . Assuming that heat is exchanged
only between the ice and the water. Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J/kg– C , specific heat
capacity of water = 4200 J/kg– C and latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg.
(A) The final temperature is 0C
(B) The final temperature is 5C
(C) Finally a mixture of ice and water will be left.
(D) Finally only water will be left

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A small sphere rolls down without slipping from the top of a A


track in a vertical plane. The track has an elevated section and
a horizontal part. The horizontal part is 1.0 meter above the
ground level and the top of the track is 2.4 meter above the
B
ground. Find the distance on the ground with respect to a point
B (which is vertically below the end A of the track as shown in
fig.) where the sphere lands (in m). 2.4 m

1.0 m
8. In figure there is no friction between m and M, and all other
surfaces are smooth and pulleys light. The acceleration of m
2 Xmg
is found to be . Then find the value of X.
M+5m

9. A circular disc of uniform thickness has diameter of 56 cm. A circular


portion of diameter 42 cm is removed from one edge of the plate as
shown in fig. Find the distance of center of mass of the remaining
object from the center of the disc (in cm).

42 cm

56 cm

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

10. A cylindrical tank having cross-sectional area A = 0.5 m2 is filled with


3 3
two liquids of density 1 = 900 kg m & 2 = 600 kg m , to a height
h (2)
h = 60 cm each as shown in figure. A small hole having area
a = 5 cm2 is made in right vertical wall at a height y = 20 cm from the
bottom. Calculate the velocity of efflux (in m/s).
h (1)
F y

11. Length of a horizontal arm of a U-tube is l = 21cm and ends of both


of the vertical arms are open to surroundings of pressure 10500
N m . A liquid of density   10 kg m is poured into the tube
2 3 3

a = 6 cm
such that liquid just fills horizontal part of the tube. Now, one of the
open ends is sealed and the tube is then rotated about a vertical
axis passing through the other vertical arm with angular velocity
0 = 10 radians/sec. If length of each vertical arm be a = 6 cm,
calculate the length of air column in the sealed arm (in cm).  = 21 cm

m 2 +km1
12. The period of free oscillations of the system shown here is 2  , if
k
the mass m1 is pulled down a little and the force constant of the spring is k m2
and the masses of the fixed pulleys are negligible. Then find the value of k
k
m1

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. What is the direction cosine along y-axis of the vector A = –4 î + ĵ + 8 k̂

14. A billiard ball, initially at rest, is given a sharp impulse


by a cue. The cue is held horizontally a distance h
above the central line fig. The ball leaves the cue with
a speed v0 and because of its forward 'English' (rolling h R
C mg
9 N
and sliding) eventually acquires a final speed of v. x
7 0 µN
If h = nR , where R is the radius of the ball, find the
value of n.
2
15. A rod of negligible heat capacity has length 20 cm, area of cross- section 1.0 cm and thermal
conductivity 200 W/m– C . The temperature of one end is maintained at 0 C and that of the
other end is slowly and linearly varied from 0 C to 60 C in 10 minutes. Assuming no loss of
heat through the sides find the total heat transmitted through the rod in these 10 minutes (in
joules).

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16. A uniform rope of a length 12 m and mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of
mass 2 kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06 m is
produced at the lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the
top of the rope (in cm)?

17. A column of air and a tuning fork produce 4 beats per second when sounded together. The tuning
fork gives the lower note. The temperature of air is 15 C . When the temperature falls to 10 C ,
the two produce 3 beats per second. Find the frequency of the fork (in Hz).

18. What will be the acceleration (in m/s2) due to gravity on the surface of the moon if its radius is
1/4th the radius of the earth and its mass is 1/80th the mass of the earth. Take the value of
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth to be 9.8 m/s 2

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. Which of the following reaction is/are disproprotionation reaction(s)?


(A) Br2 +CO32  H 2O 
 Br   BrO3  HCO3
(B) P4 +OH   H 2 O 
 PH 3 +H 2 PO 2
(C) H 2S+SO 2 
 S+H 2 O
(D) H 2 O 2 
 H 2O+O 2

20. Which statements are correct about PbO 2 ?


(A) It is amphoteric oxide.
(B) It is reducing agent
(C) It is oxidising agent
(D) The oxidation state of lead is +II in PbO2

21. Which of the following does/do not impart characterstic colour to the flame?
(A) MgSO 4
(B) CaCl2
(C) NaNO3
(D) BeCl2

22. Which of the following compound(s) is/are formed in the given reaction?
CH3
 
1 Hg OAc , CH OH 
 2
 2  NaOD,OD
3

(A) CH3 (B) CH3

OMe OMe
D H

H D

(C) OMe (D) CH3

OH
H D

D H

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23. A student performed an experiment to investigate a hypothetical reaction.


2A  B  C
The graph [A] against time (t) for the experiment is shown below.

3 1 3 1
Given that the initial [B] is 2.0 mol dm and units for the rate constant is mol dm min , which
of the following statements is FALSE.
(A) The reaction is elementary
(B) The half-life of the reaction remains constant when a catalyst is added.
(C) The gradient of tangent at t=0 min increases by four times when the initial [B] doubles
(D) The half-life of the reaction remains constant when [A] doubles but halved when [B]
doubles.

24. Which of the following statements are correct about entropy?


(A) For a reversible process in a closed system, ΔSuniv must be zero.
(B) An adiabatic process cannot decrease the entropy for a closed system.
(C) For a closed system, equilibrium has been reached when S has been maximized.
(D) For a closed system, ΔS can never be negative.

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. Number of resonating structures of the following compound is?


26. Number of hydrogen replaced by Deuterium in the given reaction are:


OH

-

D 2 O/DO
Prolonged

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

27. The degree of unsaturation of the compound ‘B’ is


CH3


Conc.HNO3
Conc.H 2SO 4 'A' 
Br2 / Fe
 'B'
CH3

28. How many of the molecules/ions are paramagnetic species;


  
NO2 , ClO2 , ClO3 , CH 3 , CH 3 , CH 3 , NO, OF2 , BH 3 , C3O2

29. The compound S4 N 4 decomposes completely into N 2 and S x vapour. If all measurements are
made under same conditions of temperature and pressure, it is found that for each volume of
S4 N 4 decomposed, 2.5 volumes of gaseous products are formed. The value of x is………..

30. How many monochlorinated products (possible) are formed in the below reaction?
CH3


Cl2 / hv

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. Consider a large number of hydrogen atoms with electrons randomly distributed in the
n=1, 2, 3 and 4 orbits. How many different wavelength of light are emitted by these atoms as the
electrons fall into lower energy orbits:

32. A buffer solution 0.04 M Na2HPO4 and 0.02 M Na3PO4 is prepared. The electrolytic oxidation of 1
milimole of the organic compound RNHOH is carried out in 100 mL of the buffer. The reaction is:
 RNO 2  4 H   4e 
RNHOH+H 2O 
The approximate pH of solution after the oxidation is complete is:
[Given: for H 3 PO4 , pKa1  2.2; pKa2  7.20; pKa3  12 , log2=0.30]

33. If 91 g V2 O 5 is dissolved in acid and reduced to V 2 by treatment with zinc metal, how many
grams of I 2 could be reduced by the resulting V 2 solution (in acidic medium), as it is oxidized
to VO
2
?  V=51, I=127 
34. Solubility of K 2 Zn 3  Fe  CN 6  is s mol/ltr and its K sp = x×s y . Then value of x+y is…
2

35. A container contains CH 4 and Helium gas in such a ratio that for every helium atom there are
sixteen hydrogen atoms present. Now this mixture is allowed to escape from very small pin hole.
The rate of decrease of hydrogen atoms w.r.t. helium atoms from the container is x time more.
Then value of x is………

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36.  A2 B3  g 
AB  g  +AB2  g   Kp1 =x atm1
 A 2 B 4  g 
2AB 2  g   Kp 2 =8atm 1
These two equilibria are simultaneously existing in a vessel at 298 K. If initially only AB and AB2
are present in 3: 5 mole ratio and total pressure at equilibrium is 5.5 atm with pressure of AB2
at 0.5 atm. Then x is……

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. If P  2
 1,   lie inside or on the triangle ABC , where equation
 3 1  1 
of AB is x  y  3, BC : y  m1 x  0, m1   ,   and AC : y  m2 x  0, m2   ,1 , then
 2 2 2 
3
(A)    2,1 for m1  1 and m2 
4
 3 1  3
(B)    2,1 for m1   ,  and m2 
 2 2 4
1 
(C)    2,1 for m1  1 and m2   ,1
2 
 3 1  1 
(D)    2,1 for m1   ,  and m2   ,1
 2 2 2 

38. A tangent with the slope m to the parabola y 2  4 x which bisect exactly two distinct chords of
hyperbola x 2  4 y 2  4  0 drawn from  2, 0  , then
1
(A) m
2
 2 
(B) m  1
 7 
1
(C) m
2
(D) m0

39. Let P lie inside the ABC , angle B  90 and each side subtends an angle of 120 at P . If
PA  10, PB  6 , then
(A) PC  33
(B) PC  12
(C) AB  14
(D) AB  12

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40. Three circles C1 , C2 , C3 of radius 9, 6,3 respectively touch as shown 9

in figure. A chord AB to circle C1 touch circles C2 and C3 at P and P

Q respectively, then Q 6
3
  
(A) PQ is of length 6 2 O3 O1 O2

(B) PQ is of length 5 2 C3
C2
(C) Length of chord AB is 8 7
C1
(D) Length of chord AB is 4 14

41. Let PAand PB be the pair of tangents drawn to hyperbola 9 x 2  4 y 2  36 from point P  2, 1 ,
then
(A) Equation of tangent from point P is x  2  0
(B) Equation of tangent from point P is x  2  0
(C) Equation of tangent from point P is 5 x  2 y  8  0
1
(D) Area of PAB is sq. units
4
2
42. Consider the complex numbers z , z , z 3 , z 4 . If these taken in order form a cyclic quadrilateral,
then (take   ang z ,    0, 2  )
(A) Circum-circle of given point has unit radius
 
(B)  can lie in interval   , 
 4
 5 
(C)  can lie in  ,  
 6 
 3 7  
(D)  can lie in  , 
 2 4 

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. If p,q, r and s are nonzero numbers such that ‘r’ and ‘s’ are roots of x2  px  q  0 and p,q are
the roots of x 2  rx  s  0 , then find the value of  4p  q  2r  s  .

44. If a, b are complex number and one of the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is purely real,
whereas the other is purely imaginary and a2 – a-2 = kb, then k is _______

45. A director circle is drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 4. Then a director circle is drawn to this director
circle. If this process is performed n number of times, so that the equation of last of these circles
is x2 + y2 = 64. Then n is equal to:

46. The number of solutions of the equation 1  x  2 x sin cos


2
 1
y   0 is

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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12

47. Minimum area of circle which touches the parabola’s y = x2 + 1 and y2 = x  1 is A. Evaluate
32
A

48. Any normal to the hyperbola x 2  2y 2  4 meet its axis in M and N. The rectangle OMPN is
completed where O is centre of hyperbola. If locus of P is a hyperbola then the value of b2  a2 is
________ (where a, b are length of transverse axis and conjugate axis of the locus of P)

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

147
49. The sum if an infinitely decreasing GP is 3.5 and sum of the squares of its terms is . The
16
sum of the cubes of the terms of the progression is:


50. If the straight line through the point P  3, 4  makes an angle with the x-axis and meets the line
6
3x  5 y  1  0 at Q, the length PQ is:


51. The length of the perpendicular on the tangent at the point whole eccentric angle is from the
3
x2 y 2
focus of the ellipse   1 nearer to the tangent is P find 100P :
25 16

52. Let the normals are drawn form  ,   to the hyperbola xy  1 and  x i, yi  , i  1, 2,3, 4 be the
feet of the co-normal points. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distance drawn from
 xi, yi  , i  1, 2,3, 4 on to a variable line vanishes, then the variable line passes through the point
  
 .  then the value of 256 must be:
 

 2 
53. If tan 2  .....  tan 2 7  
 tan 2
16 16 16
2
 x y 
and if x  y :  then fins 
y x

 10 

Where x, y  z :

54. The sum of the roots of equation cos 4 x  6  7 cos 2 x over the interval 0,314 in  , then the
numerical quantity  must be:

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST DATE: 25-04-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 Questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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Physics PART – A

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1
1. The dimensions of 0E2  0  permitticity of free space; E = electric field  is
2
(A) MLT 1 
(B) ML1T 2 
(C) MLT 2 
(D) ML2 T 1 

2. Four rods each of length  have been hinged to


B
form a rhombus. Vertex A is fixed to a rigid
support, vertex C is being moved along the x-
axis with a constant velocity v as shown in the
figure. The rate at which vertex B is approaching A v x
the x-axis at the moment the rhombus is in the
form of a square is
v
(A)
4 D
v
(B)
3
v
(C)
2
v
(D)
2

3. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 10 2 m/s at an angle of 45o with horizontal. The interval
between the moments when speed is 
125 m / s is g  10 m/s2 
(A) 1.0 s
(B) 1.5 s
(C) 2.0 s
(D) 0.5 s

4. A uniform rod of length 3 L and mass m is suspended


from a horizontal roof by two strings of length L and 2 L
as shown. Then the tension in the left string of length L is: L
(A) mg
mg 2 L
(B)
4
mg 3 L
(C)
2
mg
(D)
3

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5. A bead of mass m is attached to one end of a spring of natural B

length R and spring constant k


 
3  1 mg
. The other end of
R
30 o
the spring is fixed at point A on a smooth vertical ring of radius R A
as shown in figure. The normal reaction at B just after it is
released to move is
mg
(A)
2
(B) 3 mg
(C) 3 3 mg
3 3 mg
(D)
2

6. A particle of mass m moving with a speed v hits elastically m


another stationary particle of mass 2 m on a smooth horizontal
circular tube of radius r. The time in which the next collision will v
take place is equal to
2m
2r
(A)
v
4r r
(B)
v
3 r
(C)
2v
r
(D)
v

7. Two uniform rods of equal length but different O


masses are rigidly joined to form an L shaped
body, which is then pivoted as shown. If in
equilibrium, the body is in the shown
configuration, ratio M/m will be
(A) 2 m
(B) 3
M
(C) 2 90 o
(D) 3 30 o

8. A solid uniform sphere rotating about its axis with kinetic energy E1 is gently placed on a rough
horizontal plane at time t = 0, Assume that, at time t  t1, it starts pure rolling and at that instant
total KE of the sphere is E2. After sometime, at time t  t 2 , KE of the sphere is E3. Then
(A) E1  E2  E3
(B) E1  E2  E3
(C) E1  E2  E3
(D) E1  E2  E3

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9. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about the sum  m  Msun  with an orbital period. T. If A
be the area of orbit, then its angular momentum would be
2mA
(A)
T
(B) mAT
mA
(C)
2T
(D) 2mAT

10. A capillary is dipped in water vessel kept on a freely falling lift, then
(A) water will not rise in the tube
(B) water will rise to the maximum available height of the tube
(C) water will rise to the height observed under normal condition
(D) water will rise to the height below that observed under normal condition

11. Two wires of equal length and cross-section are suspended as shown.
Their Young’s modulii are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s
modulus will be
(A) Y1  Y2
Y1  Y2
(B)
2
Y1Y2
(C)
Y1  Y2
(D) Y1Y2

12. Let T1 and T2 be the time periods of two springs A and B when a mass m is suspended from
them separately. Now both the springs are connected in parallel and same mass m is suspended
with them. Now let T be the time period in this position. Then
(A) T  T1  T2
T1T2
(B) T
T1  T2
(C) T 2  T12  T22
1 1 1
(D)  
T 2 T12 T22

13. A particle is subjected to two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that its x and
y-coordinates are given by
x  sin t; y  2 cost The path of the particle will be
(A) an ellipse
(B) a straight line
(C) a parabola
(D) a circle

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14. If  1 and  2 are the lengths of air column for the first and second resonance when a tuning fork of
frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube, then the distance of the antinode from the top end
of the resonance tube is [Hint – Consider the end correction.]
(A) 2   2  1 
1
(B)  21   2 
2
 2  3 1
(C)
2
 2  1
(D)
2

15. A string of length '  ' is fixed at both ends. It is vibrating in its 3rd overtone with maximum

amplitude ‘a’. The amplitude at a distance from one end is
3
(A) a
(B) 0
3a
(C)
2
a
(D)
2

P0
16. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process P  2
. Hence, P0 and V0 are constants.
 V0 
1  
V 
Changes in temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V  V0 to V = 2V0 is
2P0 V0
(A) 
5R
11 P0 V0
(B)
10 R
5P V
(C)  0 0
4R
(D) P0 V0

T 2
17. Pressure P, volume V and temperature T of a certain material are related by P  . Here, 
V
is a constant. The work done by the material when temperature changes from T 0 to 2 T0 while
pressure remains constant is
(A) 6T03
3 2
(B) T0
2
(C) 2T02
(D) 3T02

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18. A body is displaced from  0,0  to 1 m, 1 m  along the path x  y by a force F  x 2 ˆj  yiˆ N. The 
work done by this force will be
4
(A) J
3
5
(B) J
6
3
(C) J
2
7
(D) J
5

19. Acceleration of a particle moving in x-y plane varies with time t as


 
 
a  tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj Here a is in m/s2 and t in second. At time t = 0, particle is at rest at origin. Mass of
the particle is 1 kg. Find the net work done on the particle in first 2s.
(A) 40 J
(B) 34 J
(C) 16 J
(D) 48 J

20. A wooden block is floating in a liquid. 50% of its volume is inside the liquid when the vessel is
stationary. Percentage of volume immersed when the vessel moves upwards with an
acceleration a = g/2 is
(A) 75%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 33.33%

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

21. A wooden cube of side 10 cm and density 0.8 gm / cm 3 is floating in water (density = 1 gm / cm3).
A mass of (100x) gm is placed over the cube so that cube is completely immersed without
wetting the mass. Find value of x.

22. A machine gun fires a bullet of mas 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms-1. The man holding it, can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can be fired per second at the most?

23. A wheel starting from rest is uniformly accelerated with angular acceleration of 4 rad / s 2 for 10
seconds. If is then allowed to rotated uniformly for next 10 seconds and finally brought to rest in
next 10 seconds by uniform angular retardation. Total angle rotated is (100 n) radian. Find value
of n.

24. Force constant of a weightless spring is 16 N/m. A body of mass 1 kg suspended from it is pulled
down through 5 cm from its mean position and then released. The maximum kinetic energy of
system (spring + system) is x joule. Find value of x?

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25. Two identical container joined by small pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure Po and
absolute temperature to one container is now maintained at the same temperature while the other
is heated to 2T0 the common pressure of the gases will be  X  P0 . find the value of x?

26. Two identical conducting rods are first connected independently to two vessels, one containing
water at 100o C and the other containing ice at 0o C. In the second case, the rods are joined end
to end and connected to the same vessels. Let q1 and q2 be the rate of melting of ice in two cases
q
respectively. The ratio of 1 is x. Find value of x.
q2

 20x 
27. A standing wave y  A sin   cos 1000t  is set up in a taut string where x and y are in
 3 
A
metre. The distance two successive points oscillating with the amplitude can be equal to (x)
2
cm. Find value of x.

28. A horizontal platform with an object placed on it is executing SHM in the vertical direction. The
amplitude of oscillation is 4  10 3 m. The least period of these oscillations, so that the object is

not detached from the platform is second. Find the value of x. Take g = 10 m/s2.
5x

29. A ball of mass 1 kg falls from a height of 5 m above the free surface of water. The relative density
2
of the solid ball is s  . The ball travels a distance of 2 m under water and becomes stationary.
3
The work done by the resistive forces of water is  100n  J. Find value of n.

30. A small ball rolls off the top landing of the staircase. It strikes the mid-point of the first step and
then the mid-point of the second step. The steps are smooth, and identical in height and width.
The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the first step is x. Find value of x.

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Chemistry PART – B

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31. When the concentration of ‘A’ is 0.1 M, it decomposes to give ‘X’ by a first order process with a
rate constant of 6.93 × 10–2 min–1. The reactant ‘A’ in the presence of catalyst gives ‘Y’ by a
second order mechanism with a rate constant of 0.2 min–1 M–1. In order that half-life of both the
processes is 10 min, one should start with an initial concentration of ‘A’ is
(A) 0.01 M
(B) 5.0 M
(C) 10.0 M
(D) 0.5 M
32. One gram of hydrogen and 112 g of nitrogen are enclosed in two separate containers each of
volume V L at 27oC. If the pressure of hydrogen is 1 atm, the pressure of nitrogen would be
(A) 12 atm
(B) 4 atm
(C) 8 atm
(D) 16 atm

33. Calculate the pressure of O2 (in atm) over a sample of NiO at 25oC if G0 = 212 kJ for the
reaction.
1
NiO(s)  Ni(s)  O 2 (g)
2
(A) 4.9  10 75 atm
(B) 7  10 38 atm
(C) 4.9  10 38 atm
(D) 7  10 75 atm

34. Which one of the following statement is not true?


(A) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.
(B) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 and 9.5.
(C) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.
(D) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
35. Bromine is added to cold dilute aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide. The mixture is boiled.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) During the reaction bromine is present in four different oxidation states.
(B) The greatest difference between the various oxidation states of bromine is 5
(C) On acidification of the final mixture, bromine is formed
(D) Disproportionation of bromine occurs during the reaction
36. Which of the following species can act as the strongest base?
(A) –OH

(B) –OR

(C) 
OC6H6
(D)
O

NO 2

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37. O
(i) CF 3 C O O H (1 eq.)
C C CH3
+
(ii) H3O
Identify the product?

(A) (B)
C C CH3 HO C C CH3

HO OH OH
(C) H O (D) OH

C C CH3 C C CH3

OH OH

38. A hydrocarbon C6H10 forms an insoluble silver salt when treated with silver nitrate in ethanolic
ammonia. Acid catalyzed hydration with a HgSO4 catalyst generates a single C6H12O ketone, and
permanganate oxidation yields a C5H10O2 carboxylic acid. This compound is most likely which of
the following?
(A) cyclohexene
(B) methylenecylopentane
(C) 1-hexyne
(D) 3-hexyne

39. CH3 CH3

Keq
CH3

CH3
Equilibrium constant for above reaction is:
(A) K=1
(B) K>1
(C) K<1
(D) K=0

40. Correct statement about the compound I, II, III are


COOCH 3 COOH COOH
H OH H OH H OH
H OH H OH HO H
COOH COOCH 3 COOCH 3

(I) (II) (III)


(A) I and II are identical
(B) I and II are diastereoisomer
(C) I and III are enantiomer
(D) I and II are enantiomers

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41. Which of the following reaction is an examples of used of water gas in the synthesis of other
compounds?
(A) CH4 (g)  H2O(g) 
1270K
(Ni)
CO(g)  H2 (g)
(B) CO(g)  H2O(g) 
673K
(Katalyst )
 CO2 (g)  H2 (g)
(C) CnH2n  2  nH2O(g) 
1270K
(Ni)
nCO  (2n  1)H2
(D) CO(g)  2H2 (g) 
cobalt
(catalyst )
 CH3 OH(l)

42. Excess of KI and dilute H2SO4 were mixed in 50 ml H2O2. The I2 liberated requires 20 ml of 0.1
(N) Na2 S2 O3 . The volume strength of H2O2 will be
(A) 0.12
(B) 0.224
(C) 0.39
(D) 0.52

43. Which of the following order regarding electronegativity is correct?


(A) Mo(II)  Mo(III)  Mo(IV)  Mo(V)  Mo(VI)
(B) Cl(VII)  Cl(V)  Cl(I)  Cl(III)
(C) sp carbon > sp2 carbon > sp3 carbon
(D) F > N > Cl > O

44. Correct order of metallic character is:


(A) Rb > K > Na > Li
(B) Mg > K > Al > B
(C) F>O>N>B
(D) Ba > Be > Mg > B

45. BF3  H2O  B(OH)3  X1 X1  BF3  X3


SiF4  H2 O  Si(OH)4  X2 X 2  SiF4  X 4
X3 & X4 are respectively:
(A) HF, HF
(B) HBF4, HSiF5
(C) H2BF5, H2SiF6
(D) HBF4, H2SiF6

46. Ca3 (PO 4 )2  SiO2  Calcium silicate + P1


P1  C  P2  CO
P1,P2 are respectively:
(A) P4 O6 ,P4
(B) P4 O10 ,P4
(C) P4 O6 ,PH3
(D) P4 O10 ,PH3

47. Which of the compound has odd e – molecule and central atom is sp3 hybridised?
(A) NO2
(B) ClO2
(C) ClO3
(D) NO

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48. Which of the following is example of strongest  bond if the molecular axis is x axis?
(A) 2p x  4p x
(B) 2p y  2p y
(C) 2p y  3dxy
(D) 2p z  4p z

49. In which case maximum number of atoms are present in same plane?
(A) B3N3H6
(B) C(CN)4
(C) I2Cl6
(D) IF7

50. Which of the following option regarding bond angle is correct?


H Cl H H

 C O  C O  C C

H Cl H H
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) None of these

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

51. How many reagents reacts with H2O2 but not with ozone?
K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]; K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ]  KOH; PbS;
SnCl2  HCl; KI  H ; KMnO4  H

52. Buckminster Fullerence (C60) has x1 vertices, x2 six membered ring and x3 five membered ring.
x x
Find out 1  1 .
x3 x2

53. If for a reaction A  B, H  10kJmol1 and Ea  50kJmol1 , then energy of activation for
reaction B  A will be (in kJ mol–1)

54. When FeS2 is burnt in air, it converts to Fe2O3. The change in percentage by weight of iron in the
process is (Fe = 56)

55. A gas present in a cylinder, fitted with a frictionless piston, expands against a constant pressure
of 1 atm from a volume of 2 litre to a volume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs 800 J heat from
surroundings. The increase in internal energy (in Joule) of process is (1 atm.litre = 101.26 Joule)

56. What will be the resultant pH when 200 mL of an aqueous solution of HCl (pH = 2) is mixed with
300 mL of an aqueous solution of NaOH (pH = 12)?

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57. A glass tumbler containing 243 mL of air at 100 kPa and 20oC is turned upside down and
immersed in a water bath to a depth of 20.5 metre. The air in the glass is compressed by the
weight of water above it. Calculate the volume (in mL) of air in the glass assuming the
temperature and the barometric pressure have not changed. (g = 9.81 m/s2)

58. A metal oxide has the formula X2O3. If can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water.
0.1596 g of metal oxide requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic mass of
metal in amu is:

59. SO3(g) is heated in a closed vessel. An equilibrium:


2SO3 (g)  2SO 2 (g)  O 2 (g)
is established. The vapour density of the mixture, in which SO3 is 50% dissociated, is:

60. The rate constants k1 and k 2 for two different reactions are 1016 e2000/ T and 1015 e 1000/ T ,
respectively. The temperature (in K) at which k1 = k2 is:

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Mathematics PART – C

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

61. If on a given base, a triangle be described such that the sum of the tangents of the base angle is
constant, the locus of the vertex is
(A) a circle
(B) a parabola
(C) a straight line
(D) none of these

62. A focal chord of y2  16x is a tangent to the circle  x  6 2  y 2  2 . Then the orthocentre of
triangle formed by the tangent and chord of contact is
(A) (0, 0)
(B) (4, 0)
(C)  4, 2 
(D)  4, 2 
63. The straight line x  2y  4  0 is one of the common tangents of the parabola y2  4x and
x2 y2
  1 . The equation of the another common tangent of these curves is
4 b2
(A) x  2y  4  0
(B) x  2y  4  0
(C) x  2y  2  0
(D) x  2y  2  0

x2 y2 y2 x2
64. If e, e are the eccentricities of hyperbolas   1 and   1, then
a2 b2 b2 a
(A) e = e
(B) e = –e
(C) e e = 1
1 1
(D)  1
2
e e2

x 2  3x  4 
3
 x  2 4
65. The number of positive integral solutions of 0
 x  5 5  2x  7 6
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Only one

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66. Values of a for which exactly one root of 5x 2   a  1 x  a  0 lies in the interval 1 < x < 3 is
(A) a>2
(B) 12  a  3
(C) a>0
(D) None of these

2cos y  1 x y
67. If cos x  , where x,y   0,   , then tan .cot is equal to
2  cos y 2 2
(A) 2
(B) 3
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
3

68. The equation tan4 x  2 sec 2 x  a2  0 will have at least one solution if
(A) a 4
(B) a 2
(C) a  3
(D) None of these

69. A pole 5 m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole
observed from a point A on the ground is 60o and the angle of depression of the point A from the
top of the tower is 45o. Find the height of the tower.
(A)
5
2
3 1 m 
(B)
2
5
3 1 m 
(C)
5
2
38 m 
(D) None of these

1 3 7 15
70.     .........'n' terms, is equal to
2 4 8 16
n
 1
(A) 2n  2   
2
n
 1
(B) n2 
2
n
 1
(C) n  1  
2
(D) None of these

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71. Solution set of the equation log x3  6  x 2  1  log 2 x2 5 x  x 2  1 is


   
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2, 1, 3

The value of   
2  1  , where [x] represents integral part of x, is
6
72.
 
(A) 199
(B) 198
(C) 197
(D) 196

73. Let f  n  10n  3.4n 2  5, n  N . The greatest value of the integer which divides f  n for all n is
(A) 27
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) None of these

  a  ib   
74. tan  i  ln
a  ib   , where a,b  R , is always equal to
 
(A) 2ab
a 2  b2
2ab
(B)
a2  b2
ab
(C)
a2  b2
ab
(D)
a2  b2

75. The value of   is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

76. A five-digit number divisible by 3 has to formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without
repetition. The total number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 216
(B) 240
(C) 600
(D) 3125

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77. The point P divides line joining the points A (–5, 1) and B (3, 5) in the ratio  : 1 internally. Points
Q and R are (1, 5) and (7, 2) respectively. Area of PQR is 2, for  =
19
(A)
5
31
(B)
9
(C) 23
(D) 19


78. Line ax  by  p  0 makes angle with x cos   y sin   p, p  R . If these lines and the line
4
x sin   y cos   0 are concurrent, then
(A) a2  b2  1
(B) a2  b2  2
(C) 
2 a2  b2  1 
(D) none of these

79. A straight line is drawn through the center of circle x2  y2  2ax parallel to the straight line
x  2y  0 and intersecting the circle at A and B. Then the area of  AOB is
a2
(A)
5
a2
(B)
7
2
a
(C)
3
a2
(D)
2

80. P and Q are two points on a line passing through (2, 4) and having slope m. If a line segment AB
subtends a right angles at P and Q, where A  (0, 0) and B  (6, 0), then range of values of m is
23 2 23 2 
(A)  , 
 4 4 
 23 2  23 2 
(B)  ,    , 

 4   4 
(C)  4, 4
(D)  ,  4    4,  

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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

81. For the equation 3x 2  px  3  0 , p > 0 if one of the roots is the square of the other then p
is____.

a 2  1 b2  1 c 2  1
82. Let a, b, c are positive real numbers. Then, minimum value of   is …………
bc ca ab

83. Let the centre of the circle represented by zz   2  3i  z   2  3i  z  9  0 be (x, y), then the
value of x2  y2  xy is ………..

 1 
84. If the points  2, 0 ,  1,  and cos , sin   are collinear the number of values of
 3
  [0, 2] is____.

85. If a circle passes through the points of intersection of the coordinate axes with the lines
x  y  1  0 and x  2y  3  0 , then the value of  is

86. If P1, P2, P3, are the points on ellipse 3x 2  y 2  12  0 and P1 ',P2 ',P3 ' are their corresponding
points on the auxiliary circle, then the area of triangle P1 'P2 'P3 ' is  times the area of triangle
P1P2P3 , then  2 is.

dy
87. If the family of integral curves of the differential equation  x 3 y  x is cut by the line x = 2; the
dx

tangents at the points of intersection are concurrent at  ,   . Then the value of .

x 1 y 1 z  2
88. If  is the angle between the line   and the plane 2x + y – 3z + 4 = 0, then
3 2 4
cosec2 is equal to

  ˆ r  kˆ  ˆi . If s is a unit vector such that p.s


  
89. Let p  ˆi  ˆj,q  ˆj  k,  0  qrs  and


s

ˆi  ˆj  kˆ  2
, then  ˆi  kˆ  kˆ is

Let Sn be the area of the figure enclosed by a curve y  x 2 1  x   0  x  1 and x-axis, if


n
90.
n
1
lim  Sk  , then ‘A’ is equal to
n 
k 1 A

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 Questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – A

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent 4m


S1  
sources S1 and S2 is I 0 . The wavelength of the waves is  =4m .
Resultant intensity at D will be: 3m
(A) 4I0
S2 
(B) I0
(C) 2I0
(D) Zero

2. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with a amplitude A1. When the mass M
passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move
 A1 
together with amplitude A2. The ratio of   is:
 A2 
M
(A)
M+m
M+m
(B)
M
1/2
 M 
(C)  
 M+m 
1/2
 M+m 
(D)  
 M 

3. A metal sphere is suspended from one pan of a sensitive balance and is immersed completely in
water. The other pan carries weights to balance the immersed sphere. The water is then heated
to a high temperature and the weights may have to be removed or added to balance the sphere
immersed in hot water. Which one of the following observations is correct?
(A) Sphere expands, water is displaced; weights are to be removed
(B) Sphere expands, water is displaced; weights are to be added
(C) Water expands, sphere sinks; weights are to be added
(D) Water expands, sphere sinks; weights are to be removed

4. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 2 are filled


in a vessel as shown in figure. Two small holes are punched at depths h v1

h / 2 and 3h / 2 from the surface of lighter liquid. If 1 and 2 are the
velocities of efflux at these two holes, then 1 / 2 is 2 v2
h

1
(A)
2 2

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3 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022

1
(B)
2
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
2

5. A circular plates of diameter d and a square plate of edge d are


kept flat such that their centres are separated by a distance R as
  
shown in the figure. The density of the material and the C
thickness of both objects are same. The line joining the two
centres is normal to one pair of the edges of the square. If the R
centre of mass C of this system lies at the mid-point of the
edge as shown, then what is the distance between the two
centres?
(A)  π+2  d/2π
(B)  π+4  d/π
(C)  π+2  d/π
(D)  π+4  d/2π
6. A cubical block of side ‘a’ and density '  ' slides over a fixed inclined
plane with constant velocity ' v ' . There is a thin film of viscous liquid
of thickness ' t ' between the plane & the block. Then the coefficient 
of viscosity of the film will be (Acceleration due to gravity is g):
 agt sin 
(A) 
v
2
 agt sin 
(B)
v
v
(C)
 agt sin 
(D) None of these

7. A particle of mass m moving horizontally with a velocity v0 collides and


M
stick to the bottom of the smoothly pivoted hanging rod of mass M
(=3m) and length  . Find the angular speed of the rod just after the 
collision is: V0
v0 m
(A)
2
v0
(B)

2v0
(C)

3v0
(D)
2

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8. A simple pendulum is making oscillations with its bob immersed in a liquid of density n times
lesser than. The density of the bob what is its time period?

(A) 2
ng

(B) 2
 1
1   g
 n

(C) 2
g

(D) 2
 n  1 g
9. Two wooden blocks A & B float in a liquid of density  L as in B
figure. The distance L & H are shown. After some time, block
B falls into the liquid so that L decreases & H increase. If A L
density of block B is  B , find the correct option: H
(A) L  B
(B) L  B
(C) L  B
(D) Unpredictable
10. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200m shows a decrease of 0.1% in its volume at the bottom. The
bulk modulus of the elasticity of the material of the ball is (g=10 m/s2)
(A) 109 N / m2
(B) 2  109 N / m 2
(C) 3  109 N / m 2
(D) 4  109 N / m 2
11. Two circular discs A & B are of equal masses and thicknesses but made of metal with densities
d A and d B  d A  dB  . If their moments of inertia about an axis passing through their centres
and perpendicular to circular faces are I A & I B , then:
(A) IA  IB
(B) IA  IB
(C) IA  IB
(D) IA  IB
12. If velocity V; acceleration A & force F are taken as fundamental quantities instead of mass M,
length L & time T, the dimension of Young’s modulus Y would be:
(A) FA2V 4
(B) FA2V 5
(C) FA2V 3
(D) FA2V 2

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13. 125 water droplets each of radius r, coalesce to form a single drop. The energy released raises
the temperature of drop. If  represent surface tension,  represent density, S represent
specific heat & J represent mechanical equivalent of heat then the rise in temperature of the
drop is:
12
(A)
5Jr  S
12 
(B)
7JrS
2 
(C)
S r
(D) Zero

14. When a mass of 8kg is suspended from a string its length is 1 if a mass 10 kg is suspended, its
length is  2 , lengths when a mass of 16 kg is suspended from it is given by:
(A) 2 2  1
(B) 2 2  1
(C) 4 2  31
(D) 4 2  3 1

15. Three particles A,B,C each of mass m lies on the vertices of an equivalent triangle of side a .
The system is released from rest what will be the net momentum of two particles A & B when
separation between the particles remains a / 2 :
2Gm3
(A)
a
Gm3
(B)
a
6Gm3
(C)
a
2Gm3
(D)
3a
16. The angle between two vectors A & B is θ . The resultant of these vectors makes on angle θ/2
with A. Which of the following is true?
(A) A=2B
(B) A=B/2
(C) A=B
(D) AB=1
17. A circular ring of mass M & radius a is placed in a gravity free space. A small particle of mass m
placed on the axis of the ring at the distance 3 a from the centre of ring, is released from rest.
The velocity with which the particle passes through the centre of the ring is:
Gm
(A)
a

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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6

Gm  M 
(B)  
2a  m 
Gm  M 
(C)  
3a  m 
GM  M 
(D)  
a  M+m 

18. An object is thrown from a point A on horizontal ground a as a0


shown. Air blows from right to left so that it imparts a constant u0
horizontal acceleration a0 to object towards left. Find the Breeze
θ
value of ' a0 ' such that projectile follows a straight line path is: g
(A) g tan 
(B) g cot 
(C) g sin 
(D) g cos

19. A non viscous, in compressible liquid of density  is flowing P Q


in a horizontal tube as in figure. The area of cross section at
point P, Q & R are A, 2A, A respectively. The velocity of flow R

of liquid at P & Q are v1 & v2 respectively. The force
experienced by the wall of the tube opposite to the point R is:
2
(A) A  v1  2v2 
2
(B) A  v1  2v2 
2
(C) 2 A  v1  2v2 
2
(D) A  2v1  v2 

20. A particle of mass m slides on a frictionless surface ABCD starting A


from rest as in figure. The part BCD is a circular arc. If it loses
contact at point P, the maximum height attained by the particle 2R
from point C is: R
P
 1  45°
(A) R 2   E B
R
D
 2 2 C
 1 
(B) R 1  
 2 2
(C) 3R
(D) None of these

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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

21. The second overtone of an open pipe is in resonance with the first overtone of a closed pipe of
length 2m. Length of the open pipe is:
rd
1
22. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes   in 2 second. If its amplitude after 6 second
3
1
is times the original amplitude, the value of n is:
n
23. Temperature of two stars is in ratio 3 : 2 . If wavelength of maximum radiation from first body is
4000Å , what is corresponding wavelength of second body (in Angstrom)?
24. A closed vessel contains 8g of oxygen & 7g of nitrogen. The total pressure is 10 atm at a given
temperature. If now oxygen is absorbed by introducing a suitable absorbent the pressure of the
remaining gas in atm will be:
25. The intensity level of two sounds are 90dB and 50dB what is the ratio of their intensities?

26. A disc of mass M & radius R is placed on a rough horizontal 2R


surface. A light rod of length 2R is fixed to the disc at point A 3/2 Mg
3 R/2
as in figure & force Mg is applied at the other end of the 
2 R
rod. Find the minimum value of coefficient of friction (up to
one decimal plane) between disc & horizontal surface so that
disc starts to roll without slopping:

27. A broad vessel with a square base of edge a=10cm is separated into A
two halves A & B by a smooth vertical piston. A spring of spring B
constant k=1500 N/m is filled across the compartment A &
compartment B which is filled with water up to a height 20 cm. Find
the compression in the spring (in cm). Take g = 10 m/s^2:
a

28. On doubling the temperature of source, the efficiency of heat energy becomes triple. The new
percentage efficiency is:
29. Consider the situation shown in figure. A uniform rod of length L can
rotate freely about hinge A in vertical plane pulley & strings are light & 
friction loss. If rod remains horizontal at rest when the system is released
then. Mass of the rod is:
M
2M

30. A block of mass 10 kg is lying over a rough horizontal plate form y


2
moving with a constant acceleration a  0.5 m / s along x-axis as in B
figure. The coefficient of friction between block & platform 10kg x
is  s  k  0.1  g  10m / s  .2
If block is at relatively rest to
platform the frictional force on block is:

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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8

Chemistry PART – B

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31. When a hydrogen atom, emits a photon of energy 10.20eV , the orbit angular momentum
changes by:
(A) 1.05 1034 J sec
(B) 2.111034 J sec
(C) 3.16 1034 J sec
(D) 4.22 1034 J sec
32. Consider the following reaction scheme.

Step I
Cl O
O OH
M

Step IV
Cl

Cl
Which of the following statements about this reaction scheme are correct?
(A) Step I requires a catalyst.
(B) Compound M is a planar molecule.
(C) Step IV is a substitution reaction
(D) None of these

33. Which one of the following ions is paramagnetic?


(A) Zn+2
(B) Fe2+
+
(C) K
(D) Mg2+

34. Which of the following statement is wrong?


(A) Polar stratospheric clouds  PSCs  are clouds formed over Antarctica
(B) Acid rain dissolves heavy metals such as Cu, Pb, Hg and Al from soil, rocks & sediments.
(C) H2SO4 is major contributor to acid rain, HNO3 ranks second.
(D) Fishes grow as well in warm as in cold water.

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35. Which of the molecule is See-Saw shaped?


+
(A) XeF5
+
(B) ICl4
(C) I 3-
(D) PF4+

36. The pressure p of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature T for two different constant
volumes, V1 and V2 . When V1  V 2 , the
(A) Curves have the same slope and do not intersect
(B) Curves must intersect at some point other than T  0
(C) Curve for V2 has a greater slope than that for V1
(D) Curve for V1 has a greater slope than that for V2

37. The temperature (T) dependence of the equilibrium constant (K) of a chemical reaction is
correctly described by the following statement:
(A) For an endothermic reaction, the slope of lnK v/s 1/T plot is positive.
(B) For an exothermic reaction, K is directly proportional to T.
(C) For an exothermic reaction, K at a higher temperature is lower than K at a lower
temperature.
(D) If ΔH is independent of temperature the change in K is also independent of
temperature.

38. What volume of 0.2 M C2O4-2 will completely reduce 11.2 L SO2 gas at STP to pure Sulphur?
(A) 10 L
(B) 5L
(C) 2.5 L
(D) 7.5 L

39. A 10L flask containing 10.8 g of N2O5 is heated to 373K, which leads to its decomposition
 4NO 2  g   O 2  g  . If the final pressure in the flask
according to the equation 2N 2 O5  g  

is 0.5 atm, then the partial pressure of O2  g  in atm is:


(A) 0.06
(B) 0.04
(C) 1.2
(D) 0.24

40. The rate constant (k) for nth order reaction, in general, is given by:
1  1 1 
k  n 1
 n 1 
n  1 t   a  x  a 

The above relation is valid when there is only one reactant or many reactants with same initial
concentration and same coefficient.
The ratio of t3/4 : t1/2 for nth order reaction is:
(A) 2n + 1
1
(B) 1
2n
n–1
(C) 2 +1
(D) 21 – n + 1

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41. CH3CHO (g) undergoes decomposition at very high temperature according to first order parallel
reactions:
k1
CH3 CHO  g    CH4  g   CO  g 
k2
CH3CHO  g   CH2CO  g   H2  g 
The mol % of CH4 in the reaction mixture excluding CH3CHO would be:
50k1
(A)
k1  k 2
100k1
(B)
k1  k 2
150k1
(C)
k1  k 2
200k1
(D)
k1  k 2

42. Me 2 N: :NMe2

1,8  Bis  dimethylamin  napthalene


The basic strength of above compound is 1010 more than 1 – dimethyl amino naphthalene.
Reason for high basic strength is:
(A) Lone-pair lone pair repulsion is minimized in conjugate acid of the base.
(B) Inductive effect
(C) Due to presence of two lone pairs there is more electron density, is the reason for its
higher basic strength
(D) Hyperconjugation

43. Which of the following graphs represents an exothermic reactions?


(A) (B)
ln k p ln k p

1 1
T T
(C) (D)
ln k p ln k p

1 1
T T
44. Mark the wrong option in the following.
(A) Acid rains is mainly due to oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(B) CO2 is responsible for global warming
(C) Ozone layer does not permit Infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
(D) None of these

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45. Which of the following is a buffer solution?


(A) 500mL of 0.1 M CH 3 COOH+500mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(B) 500mL of 0.2 M CH 3 COOH+500mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(C) 200mL of 0.5 M of CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.2 M NaOH
(D) 500mL of 0.1 M CH3COONa + 500 mL of 0.1 M HCl

46. Which of the following will NOT yield diborane as a product?


(A) Reaction of BF3 with LiAlH 4
(B) Reaction of NaBH 4 with water
(C) Reaction of NaBH 4 with I2
(D) Reaction of BF3 with NaH .

47. Resonance energy of these compounds will be in the order as:



I    II   III  H2C N CH2

N O H

H
(A) III  I  II
(B) I  II  III
(C) II  III  I
(D) II  I  III
48. H3C

HBr
OH  X, X is

(A) H3C Br (B) H3C

OH Br

(C) H3C (D) H3C Br

OH
OH
Br

49. Which of the following statements is not correct?


(A) A meso compound has chiral centres but exhibits no optical activity
(B) A meso compound has no chiral centres and thus are optically inactive
(C) A meso compound may contain even or odd number of chiral carbon.
(D) None of these

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50. Humulene can be extracted from camation flowers.


CH3

H3C

CH3
H3C
humulene
Which products are obtained from the reaction of Humulene with hot acidified concentrated
KMnO4?
(A) CH 3COCH 2 CH 2CO 2 H
(B) CH 3COCH 2 CO 2H
(C) HO2 CCH 2 C  CH 3  2 CO 2 H
(D) All of these

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

51. The following reaction is carried out at 1 atm & 300K.


 2 H 2O   
2H2  g   O2  g  
 U for the above reaction is 550 KJ. Assuming ideal gas behaviour for H 2 and O2 . Calculate
the value of ΔH (KJ). The value of gas constant, R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1 = 8.314 JK-1mol-1:
[Given: The volume of 1 mol of liquid water is 18mL under the above reaction condition]
52. A mixture of C3H8 and oxygen in 1L closed vessel has pressure of 4 atm at 100°C. When the
mixture is ignited, the reaction produces CO2(g) and H2O(g) until all the oxygen is consumed.
After the reaction, pressure of the vessel is 4.2 atm at the same temperature. Calculate the
weight (in gm) of oxygen present before the reaction. [Gas constant, R = 0.082 L atm mol -1 K-1]
53. Determine the enthalpy change (in kJ/mol) for the conversion of white phosphorus to the gaseous
diatomic molecule, P2.
P4  s  
 2 P2  g 
P – P bond energy 200 kJ/mol
P  P bond energy 485 kJ/mol
ΔH vap. P4  +12 kJ/mol

54. Copper (II) ions are pollutants found in water. One method of purification is via precipitation of
Cu  OH  2 or CuS .
K sp , CuS  6.3  1036 , K sp , Cu  OH   2.0  1019
2
2 2
The minimum concentration of Cu for a precipitate of CuS to form in 10ppm S solution is
32 3
x  10 mol / dm . (1 ppm = 1 mg/L). The value of x is?

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55. How many of the following species are diamagnetic?


O2 , O22 , N 2 , N 2 , He, NO2 , N 2O4 , KO2 , Zn 2  , Fe 2  , Mn 2  .

56. A hydrocarbon on reductive ozonolysis produces the following compound only.


O O

H H

H H
O O
What is the degree of unsaturation in the hydrocarbon?

PVm x dP
57. If = for a real gas at a temperature where =0 . What is the value of 'x' ?
RT 24 dVm

58. 1g of H 2 O 2 solution containing x% H 2 O 2 by weight requires x ml of KMnO 4 for complete


oxidation in acidic medium. The molarity of KMnO 4 solution is?

59. The degree of unsaturation in the compound ‘D’ is?


O O
Cl C C Cl Zn  Hg Cl2 1equivalent 
'A' 'B' 'C'
anhyd.AlCl3 Conc.HCl hv

Alc.KOH 

'D'

60. How many mole of NO2 will be liberated when 1 mole each of LiNO3 and NaNO3 is heated__

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Mathematics PART – C

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

61. If
1  i  x  2i   2  3i  y  i  i then the real values of x and y are given by
3i 3i
(A) x  3, y  1
(B) x  3, y  1
(C) x  3, y  1
(D) x  1, y  3
2
62. If z 2  1  z  1 , then z lies on.
(A) Circle
(B) The imaginary axis
(C) The real axis
(D) An ellipse

2
63. The angle  between the lines represented by 6 x  xy  y 2  0 is

(A)
2

(B)
3

(C)
4
(D) None of these

2
64. The locus of a point, the tangents from which to the circle x  y 2  1 include a constant angle  ,
is
(A) x 2
 y 2  2  tan   x2  y 2  1

(B) x 2
 y 2  2  tan   2 x 2  y 2  1

(C) x 2
 y 2  2   2 x 2  y 2  1 tan 
(D) None of these

2 2
65. The circle x  y  4 x  12 y  4  0 and x2  y 2  2 x  4 y  4  0
(A) Touch each other externally
(B) Touch each other internally
(C) Cut each other
(D) Cut each other orthogonally

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2
66. The length of the normal chord to the parabola y  4 x which subtends a right angle at the vertex
is.
(A) 6 3
(B) 3 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
2
67. The angle between the tangents drawn from the origin to the parabola y  4a  x  a  is.
(A) 90
(B) 30
1
(C) tan 1
2
(D) 45
68. The eccentricity of the curve represented by the equation.
x2  2 y2  2x  3 y  2  0
(A) 0
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
2
(D) 2

x2 y2
69. Let P be a variable point on the ellipse 2  2  1 with foci F1 and F2 . If A is the area of the
a b
triangle PF1 F2 , then the maximum value of A is.
(A) 2abe
(B) abe
1
(C) abe
2
(D) None of these

x2 y 2
70. The equation of triangle to the hyperbola   1 and which are perpendicular to
4 3
x  2 y  0 are
(A) y  13  2 x
(B) y  2 x  13
(C) y  2 x  19
(D) y  2 x  15

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71. The condition for the line px  qy  r  0 to be tangent to the rectangular hyperbola
c
x  ct , y  is
t
(A) p  0, q  0
(B) p  0, q  0
(C) p  0, q  0
(D) None of these

1  sin  1  sin 
72. If  lies in the second quadrant, then  
1  sin  1  sin 
(A) tan 
(B) 2 tan 
(C) 2 cot 
(D) cot 


73. If A  0, B  0 and A  B  , then maximum value of tan A tan B is
3
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
6

74. a x  b y  c z  d t and a, b, c, d are in G.P., then x, y , z , t are in


(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) None of these

75.
3

The co-efficient of x in the expression of log 1  5 x  6 x
2
 is
8
(A)
3
(B) 9
37
(C) 
3
35
(D) 
3

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76. In a ABC , A : B : C  3: 5 : 4 . Then a  b  c 2 is equal to


(A) 2b
(B) 2c
(C) 3b
(D) 3a

3
77. The sides of triangle are in A.P. and its area is  (area of an equilateral triangle of the same
5
perimeter). Then the ratio of the sides is.
(A) 1: 2 : 3
(B) 3: 5: 7
(C) 1: 3 : 5
(D) None of these

4 1  3x  x 2
78. Co-efficient of x in the expansion of is
ex
25
(A)
24
24
(B)
25
4
(C)
25
5
(D)
24

1 1 1
1    .......
79. 2! 4! 6! is equal to
1 1 1
1     .......
3! 5! 7!
e2  1
(A)
e2  1
e2  1
(B)
e2  1
(C) e2  1
(D) e2  1
x
80. The value of a for which the equation 4  a.2 x  a  3  0 has at least one solution are given by.
(A) a   2,  
(B) a   2,  
(C) a   0, 2 
(D) None of these

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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

3
81. The number of solution of the form x  x 2  4 x  2sin x  0

82. The number of solution of cos x  1  sin x , 0  x  3 , is

83. An observer on the top of a cliff 200m above the sea level, observes the angles of depressions of
two ships on the opposite sides of the cliff to be 45 and 30 respectively. The distance between
the ships if the line joining them points to the base of the cliff is.

x 1 1
84. The numbers of integral solution of  is____
x2  2 4

13 13  23 13  2 3  33
85. The sum of the series    .... upto 16 terms is______
1 1 3 1 3  5

86. The 10th common term between the series 3  7  11  ...... and 1  6  11  ....... is__

87. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls:

n n
1  1  4 x  1   1  4 x  1   5
88. If        a0  a1 x  ....  a5 x , then the value of n is:
4 x  1  2   2  

89. The number of non-negative integral solutions of 3x + y + z = 24, is

90. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls____

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V

JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST MONTH: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. C


The adjoining fig represents the shape of string at a given y D
instant. At this instant among the following choose the wrong B E
A x
statement
(A) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity F H

(B) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity G


(C) Points C and G have zero velocity
(D) Points A and E have minimum velocity

2 The first allowed excited state of a hydrogen atom is 10.2 eV above its lowest energy
(ground) state. To what temperature should hydrogen gas be raised so that inelastic
collisions may excite an appreciable number of atoms to their first excited state?
(A) 4.58×104 K
(B) 7.88×104 K
(C) 8.28×10 4 K
(D) None of these

3. A hot body placed in air cooled down according to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of
decrease of temperature being k times the temperature difference from the surrounding.
Starting from t=0 , find the time in which the body will lose half the maximum heat it can
lose.
ln 2
(A)
k
2 ln 2
(B)
k
(C) Cannot be determent
(D) None of these

4. Particles P and Q of mass 20 gm and 40 gm respectively


are simultaneously projected from points A and B on the Q
ground. The initial velocities of P and Q make 45 and P 45º 135º
135 angles respectively with the horizontal AB, as shown A B
in the figure. Each particle has an initial speed of 49 m.
The separation AB is 245 m. Both particles travel in the
same vertical plane and undergo a collision. After collision
P retraces its path. How much time after the collision does
the particle Q take to reach the ground? (g = 9.8 m/s2).
(A) 4.36s
(B) 3.54s
(C) 5.23s
(D) None of these

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5. A uniform cylinder of radius R and mass M can rotate freely about a


stationary horizontal axis O as shown in figure. A thin cord of length
 and mass m is wound on the cylinder in a single layer. Find the M R O
angular acceleration of the cylinder as a function of the length x of the
T x
hanging part of the cord. The wound part of the cord is supposed to a
have its centre of gravity on the cylinder axis.
2m g x m'g
(A)
(4m  M ) R
2m g x
(B)
(2 m  M ) R
4m g x
(C)
( m  M ) R
(D) None of these

6. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the A T
same metal, form the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC right
angled at B as shown in the figure. The points A and B are
maintained at temperature T and 2T respectively in the steady 90o
state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature B C
of point C will be  2T 
2
(A)
2 1
2
(B)
2 1
3T
(C)
2 1
T
(D)
3( 2  1)

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A thin uniform rod of mass m and length  is free to rotate about its upper end. When it is
at rest, it receives an impulse J at its lowest point, normal to its length. Immediately, after
impact-
(A) The angular momentum of rod is J 
3J
(B) The angular velocity of rod is
m
3J 2
(C) The kinetic energy of rod is
2m
3J
(D) The linear velocity of midpoint of rod is
2m

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

8. A horizontal plane supports a fixed vertical cylinder of


radius R and a particle is attached to the cylinder by a
horizontal thread AB as shown in figure. A horizontal O v0
velocity v0 is imparted to the particle, normal to the thread, R

mark the incorrect options during subsequent motion– B A


(A) Angular momentum of particle about O remains constant
(B) Angular momentum about B remains constant
(C) Momentum and kinetic energy both remain constant
(D) Kinetic energy alone remains constant

9. Regarding vectors, which of the following is a correct statement?


(A) Two equal vectors can never give zero resultant
(B) Three non-coplanar vectors cannot give zero resultant
        
(C)  
If a. b  c  0 and a  b  c , then a  b  c can never be a null vector
     
(D) If a  b  0 and a  b , then a  b can be zero

10. In the figure shown, water drains out through a small hole
of a large tank (P0 : atmospheric pressure)- A
(A) Pressure at the point C is atmospheric H/2
H H B
(B) Gauze pressure at the point B is g
2 C
H
(C) Gauze pressure at the point B is less than g
2
(D) Velocity head at the point B is negligible

11. Two concentric spherical shells have masses m1 and m2 and radii m2 m1 m3

r1 and r2 , there is a particle of mass m3 is placed at p. Then– r P


r1 O

r2

(A) Outer shell will have no contribution in gravitational field at point P


(B) Force on P is directed towards O
Gm1m 2
(C) Force on the particle at P is
r2
Gm1m 3
(D) Force on the particle at P is
r2

12. A particle of mass m is attached to three identical springs A, B and C C


B
each of force constant k as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m 90º
is pushed slightly against the spring A and released, then the time O m
period of oscillation is:
(A) Extension in springs are same A
m
(B) 2
2k
(C) Extension in A is different from B and C
m
(D) 2
3k

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A body of mass 25 kg is dragged on a horizontal rough road with a constant speed of 20
km/hr. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, If 50% of the heat is absorbed by the body, find
the rise in temperature in an hour (in degree Celsius). Specific heat of the material of the
-1
body is 0.1cal.gm -1  °C  . (g=9.8m/s2)

14. A calorimeter of water equivalent 5  103 kg contains 25  103 kg of water. It takes 3


minutes to cool from 28°C to 21°C . When the same calorimeter is filled with 30  10 3 kg
of turpentine oil, then it takes 2 minutes to cool from 28°C to 21°C . The calorimeter
losses heat at the same rate in both the cases. The specific heat of turpentine oil
 
is C in J kg -1 °C-1 . Then find the value of C.

15. A liquid of density ρ1 = 1000 gm/liter and ρ2 stand in


the bent tube as shown. Then find the value of ρ2 (in 2
1 2x
1000 gm/liter) :
[Take √3 = 1.73] M x
x N
60º 30º

16. For the arrangement shown in fig. Find the maximum M = 20 kg


value of the horizontal acceleration a of the system (in
m/s2) so that the block remains stationary with respect a µ = 0.5
to wedge. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
37º

17. The potential energy U in joule of a particle of mass 1 kg, moving in the XY plane, obeys
the law U = 3x + 4y, where (x, y) are the coordinates of the particle in meter. If the
particle is at rest at (6, 4) at time t = 0, then find the work done by the external force from
the position of rest of the particle and the instant of the particle crossing X-axis.

18. The difference between the apparent frequency of a source of sound as perceived by an
observer during its approach and recession is 2% of the natural frequency of the source.
Find the velocity of the source (in m/s). Take the velocity of sound as 350 m/s. (assume,
velocity of source to be very small as compared to the velocity of sound)

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. Which of the following is meso form?


CH3

(A) (B) HO OH
CH3

CH3

(C) (D) All of these

CH3

20. Which of the following reactions will give an alkyne?


NaNH 2 / heat
(A) CH 3 CHBr CH 2 Br 
Zn
(B) CH 3 CBr2 CHBr2 
dust
alc . KOH
(C) CH 3 CH 2 CHBr2 
NaNH 2 / heat

(D) All of these

21. 50 mL of a solution, containing 1gm each of Na 2 CO 3 , NaHCO 3 and NaOH , was


titrated with 1N HCl . What will be the titre reading if only phenolphthalein is used as
indicator?
(A) 34.4 mL
(B) 55.8mL
(C) 21.3mL
(D) 38.2 mL

22. Which statements is incorrect about rate constant (k)?


(A) Rate constant of a reaction depends on the temperature.
 Ea
(B) k  A. e RT
(C) Unit of rate constant and the rate of reaction are same for zero order reaction
(D) Radioactive decay is first order reaction and decay constant depends on the
temperature

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23. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction in aqueous solution is 0.90.
  H 3 BO3 -glycerine 
H3 BO3 +glycerine 
How many moles of glycerine should be added per litre of 0.10M H 3 BO 3 so that 80% of
the H 3 BO 3 is converted to the boric acid-glycerine complex?
(A) 4.44
(B) 4.52
(C) 3.6
(D) 0.08

24. Which of the following substances cannot be used directly as fertilizer?


(A)  NH 4 2 SO4
(B) Ca 3  PO4 2
(C) Ca  H 2 PO4 2
(D) CaCN 2 +C

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Which is/are correct statement(s)?


(A) CH 3COO  NH 4 have greater degree of hydrolysis in 0.2M solution in comparison
of 0.4M solution

(B) Anions which are weaker base than OH , do not hydrolyse

(C) The CH 3COO  have greater degree of hydrolysis in comparison of HCOO
when their salt solution have equal concentration
(D) SO42  hydrolysis but HSO4 does not undergo hydrolysis

26. Select the correct curve(s):


If v  velocity of electron in Bohr ' s orbit
r  radius of electronin Bohr ' s orbit
PE  potential energy of electron in Bohr ' s orbit
KE  kinetic energy of electronin Bohr ' s orbit
(A) (B)

v
r

1
n n

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(C) (D)

KE
PE
1
n
n

27. Which is/are correct for real gases?


(A) lim  PVm   constant at constant high temperature
P0

(B) lim  PVm   constant at constant low temperature


Vm 0

(C) lim
 PVm   1at high temperature
P 0 RT
(D) lim
 PVm   R
V 0 RT

28. Select correct statement(s) regarding 3py orbital:


(A) Total number of nodes are 2
2 2
(B) Number of maxima in the curve 4 r R vs r are two.
(C) The value of quantum number  is 1 .
(D) Magnetic quantum number may have a +ve value

29. Which of the following statements are correct?


(A) ClF3 molecule is bent T-shape
(B) In SF4 molecule, F-S-F equational bond angle is 103° due to lp-lp repulsion
-
(C) In  ICl4  molecular ion, Cl-I-Cl bond angle is 90°.
(D) In OBr2 , the bond angle is less than OCl 2

30. Which of the following is/are correct for 17g/L of H 2 O 2 solution?


(A) Volume strength is 5.6 at 273K and 1 atm
(B) Molarity of solution is 0.5M
(C) 1mL of this solution gives 2.8mL O 2 at 273K and 2 atm
(D) The normality of solution is 2N

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. The number of products obtained after monochlorination  Cl2 , hv  of compound 'A' are?

, AlCl3
Cl
'A'

32. How many of the following can be used as method of preparation of alkene?
Wurtz reaction, dehydration of alcohol, dehydrohalogenation, Reduction of alkyne,
oxidation of alcohol, hydration of alkyne, hydration of alcohol, hydrogenation of
alkanes_____

2
33. If 91 g V2 O 5 is dissolved in acid and reduced to V by treatment with zinc metal, how
2
many grams of I 2 could be reduced by the resulting V solution, as it is oxidized
4
to V ?  V=51, I=127 
V2O5  10 H   6e   2V 2   5 H 2 O
V 2   I 2  H 2 O  2 I   VO 2   2 H 

34. How many pairs are, in which first species has lower ionisation energy than second
species?
(i) N and O (ii) Br and K
(iii) Be and B (iv) I and I 
(v) Li and Li + (vi) O andS
(vii) Ba andSr

35. 2.0 mol of ideal diatomic gas at 300k and 0.5M Pa are expanded adiabatically to a final
pressure of 0.2M Pa against a constant pressure of 0.1M Pa. Then the magnitude of
change in internal energy  U  (in KJ) is?

1
36. A plot of Vs time is linear for the reaction
 BrO  
3BrO   aq. 
 BrO3  aq.  2Br   aq. . What is the order of the reaction with respect
to the hypobromite ion, BrO  ?

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

n
 1
37. Let a n =  1+  . Then for each n  N
 n
(A) an  2
(B) an  3
(C) an  4
(D) None of these

38. Number of solutions of equation


  2   

 

cos2  sin x  2 cos2 x  – tan  x  tan2 x   1 in [0, 2] is :
4  4 
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

39. Two chords are drawn from the point (h, k) on the circle x2 + y2 = hx + ky. If the y-axis
divides both the chorde in ratio 2 : 3 then
(A) K2 > 15h2
(B) 15k2 > h2
(C) h2 = 15k2
(D) None of these

40. If the lines y = mx and y = nx intersect the line x + y = 4 at point A and B respectively 
mn
OA, AB and OB are in A.P. (O is origin) thus min value of is :
1  mn
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) None of these
2
41. The circle |z| = 2 intersects the curve whose equation is Z2  Z  4i in the points A, B, C,
D. If z1, z2, z3, z4 represent the affices of these points, then
(A) Z1Z2Z3Z4 = 1
(B)  Z1  0
(C) Z  2 1

(D)  arg Z  2k


1 (k = 0, 1 or –1)

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11 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

2
42. If   then cos cos 2 cos3 .....cos1004 is equal to
2009
(A) 0
1
(B) 2008
2
1
(C) 1004
2
1
(D)
21004
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

2 x 2 4 x 4 2 x 3 4 x 5
43. If a  1    .... and b  x    .... where  is non-real cube root of
2 4 3 5
unity then:
(A) a2 – b2  = 1
ex  ex
(B) a
2
(C) a2 + b22 + 1 = 0
(D) None of these
44. If seven letter words can be formed by using the letter of the word SUCCESS so that
(A) If two C are together but no two S are together, no. of ways is 24
(B) If two C are together but no two S are together, no. of ways is 12
(C) If no two C and no two S are together then no. of ways is 120
(D) If no two C and no two S are together then no. of ways is 96

45. If , , ,  are roots of equation 4x4 – 24x3 + 31x2 + 6x – 8 = 0 and  = 1 then :


(A)  = 2
(B)  = – 2
(C)  +  = 7/2
(D)  +  = –7/2
2n 2n
r r
46. If  a  x  2   b  x  3 
r 0
r
r 0
r and ak = 1  k  n then:
2n1
(A) Cn  bn 1
2n1
(B) Cn  bn
(C) an + n+1C1 an+1 + n+2C2 an+2 + …. + 2nCn = bn
(D) an + n+1C1 . an+1 + n+2C2 an+2 + …. + 2nCn = bn+1

47. If locus of the orthocentre of triangle formed by the focal chord of the parabolas y2 = 4ax
and normal drawn at its extremities is S = 0 then
(A) length of latus rectum of S = 0 is a
(B) Vertex of S = 0 is (2a, 0)
(C) Centre of S = 0 is (3a, 0)
(D) Equation of directrix is 4x = 11a

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12

48. For ellipse 2x2 – 2xy + 4y2 – 3  2  0 ; 


(A) Slope of major axis is 2  1
(B) Slope of major axis is 2  1
(C) Equation of tangent to it  scam of perpendiculars dropped from foci is 2 units, is
3 3
y sin  x cos 1
8 8
(D) Equation of tangent to it  scam of perpendiculars dropped from foci is 2 units is
3x 3x
of y sin + x cos =1.
8 8

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

49. Let ABC be a non equilateral triangle with integer side Let D and E be respectively the
mid points of BC and CA Let G be the centroid of triangle ABC. Suppose D, C , E, G are
concyclic. Find the least perimeter of triangle ABC_____
1

50. Let a=3 223 +1 and for all n  3 , let f(n)= n C 0 .a n-1 - n C1.a n-2 + n C 2 .a n-3 -......+(-1) n-1.n C n-1.a 0 . Find
f(2007)+f(2008)
the value of
0.7

343
51. Let a and b be positive integer. The value of xyz is 55 and when a,x,y,z,b are in
55
arithmetic and harmonic progression respectively. Find the product
of λ1×λ 2 ×(a+b)×ab×0.2 where 10a+b has two values λ1 and λ 2

52. If y 2 (y 2 -6)+x 2 -8x+24=0 and the minimum value of x 2  y 4 is m and maximum value is
m
M; then find the value of 1000M+
100

53. Given real numbers x, y, z such that x + y + z = 3, x2 + y2 + z2 = 5, x4 + y4 + z4 = 9 then


x3 + y3 + z3 is :

1  x3 1 x  x2
54. Given n  4, n  N and | x | < l, let f  x   and g  x   2
if coefficient of xn in
1 x 1  x 
product f(x).g(x) is an + b then a + b is_________.

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST MONTH: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. Three identical adiabatic containers A, B and C contain helium, neon and oxygen
respectively at equal pressure and equal number of moles. The gases are pushed to
half their original volumes.
(A) The final temperatures in the three containers will be the same
(B) The final pressures of helium and oxygen will be the same but that of neon will
be different
(C) The final pressure of helium and neon will be the same but that of oxygen will be
different
(D) The final temperatures of helium and neon will be the same but that of oxygen
will be different

2. In the arrangement shown in figure pulley is smooth and mass


less and string is ideal. Friction coefficient between A and B
is μ . Friction is absent between A and plane. Select the
correct alternative(s):
B
A
 Fixed

(A) Acceleration of the system is zero if μ 


 mB -mA  tanθ and mB >mA
2m B
(B) Force of friction between A and B is zero if mA =mB
(C) B moves upwards if mA <mB
(D) Tension in the string is mg  sinθ-μcosθ  if mA =mB  m

3. A uniform metallic spherical shell is suspended by threads. It has Sand


two holes A and B at top and bottom respectively, as shown in A
figure. Then:

B
(A) If B is closed sand is poured A center of mass first falls and then rises.
(B) If shell is completely filled with sand and B is opened, then center of mass falls,
initially
(C) If shell is slightly filled with sand and B is opened, then center of mass falls
(D) None of these

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4. A thin rod, suspended from ceiling is free to rotate about its upper end. When it is at rest,
a particle strikes the rod, moving perpendicularly to the rod. Just after the collision the
particle comes to rest
(A) The angular momentum of rod and the particle is conserved about the hinge.
(B) The impulse of hinge reaction on the rod is opposite to the velocity of the particle
before collision.
(C) The impulse of hinge reaction on the rod is along the velocity of the particle
before collision.
(D) Kinetic energy may not be conserved

5. A liquid is kept in static equilibrium in a cylindrical container


up to a certain height h, as shown in figure. Now, it’s made
to rotate with a gradually increasing angular velocity about
the central axis of container. Pick the correct alternatives H
regarding the motion of free surface. h

(A) For H=3h/2, the liquid will reach the topmost surface before touching bottom
(B) For H=4h/3, the liquid will touch topmost surface before touching bottom
(C) For H=21h/10, the liquid will touch bottom before reaching topmost surface
(D) For H=5h/2, the liquid touches bottom and top simultaneously

6. A particle slides back and forth between two


inclined frictionless planes as shown in figure.
Which of the following statements are correct with h
respect to the motion of particle?  
(A) The motion is oscillatory
(B) The motion is simple harmonic
4 2h
(C) If h is the initial height, period =
sin  g
2h
(D) If h is the initial height, period = sin 
g

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. Two particles P and Q describe simple harmonic motions of same period, same
amplitude, along the same line about the same equilibrium position O. When P and Q
are on opposite sides of O at the same distance from O they have the same speed of 1.2
m/s in the same directions. When they cross their speed is 1.6 m/sec. The maximum
velocity in m/s of either particle is

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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

8. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a cyclic


process as shown in figure. Temperature at point 1 = 300 K
and process 2 – 3 is isothermal. Net work done by gas in
complete cycle is  n ln3+12 P0 V0 . Find the value of n

9. A particle moving in a straight line is acted by a force, which works at a constant power
and changes its velocity from u to v in passing over a distance x . The time taken
n  v2  u2 
is  3  x , find the value of n:
2  v  u 3 

10. A mass 4 kg, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with amplitude A1 . When
the mass M passes through its mean position, a block of mass 12 kg is placed over it
 A1 
and both move together with amplitude A 2 . The ratio of   is:
 A2 

11. An automobile of mass m accelerates, starting from rest, while the engine supplies
1/2
 8P  3/2
constant power P. The position is given as function of time by, s=   t , then find
 xm 
the value of 'x'

12. The figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height B
H. What should be the horizontal acceleration a of the tube so
a
that the pressure at the point A becomes atmospheric (H=5m, H
L=10m). A
L

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. If 6 Hz, 12 Hz, 16 Hz are the fundamental frequencies of the three segments into which
a string is divided by placing required number of bridges below it. Then the fundamental
frequency of the string is (nearest integer value)

14. Two identical sonometer wires have fundamental frequencies of 500 vibration/sec, when
kept under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wire would
cause an occurrence of 5 beats per sec. When both wires vibrate together?

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15. A pendulum is hanging from the ceiling of a cage. If the T


T1 T2
cage moves up with constant acceleration a, its tension is
T1 and if it moves down with same acceleration, the a a
a
corresponding tension is T2 . The tension in the string if the
cage moves horizontally with same acceleration a
T12  T22
is , then find the value of 'x'
x

16. A rod of length  0 made up of material A expands by A B


 when it’s temperature is raised from T1 and T2 . An
A B
identical rod made up of material B expands by a length
 50
when its temperature is raised from T1 to T2 . Now a
2 4
composite rod has to be made from material A and B
5 0 3
such that it’s length is and it expands by when
4 4

its temperature is raised from T1 to T2 . Find out A :
B

17. A wire of mass 6 gm lying horizontal on the surface of water. Find the minimum length of
wire so that it may not sink. (In meters)
(Surface Tension T = 70 × 10–3N/m, g = 9.8 m/s2)

18. A particle is suspended from a spring, and it stretches the spring by 1 cm on the surface
of earth. The same particle will stretch the same spring at a place 800 km above earth
surface by:

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. Which of the following does/do not impart characterstic colour to the flame?
(A) MgSO 4
(B) CaCl2
(C) Sr  NO3  2
(D) BeCl2

20. Twist boat conformer of cyclohexane is more stable than:


(A) Boat
(B) half-chair
(C) Chair
(D) all of these

21. When an equimolar mixture of Cu 2S and CuS is titrated with Ba  MnO4 2 in acidic
medium, the final products contain Cu 2+ ,SO 2 and Mn 2  . If the molecular mass of Cu 2S ,
CuS and Ba  MnO4 2 are M1 ,M 2 and M 3 respectively then:
(A) Equivalent mass of Cu 2S is M1 /8
(B) Equivalent mass of CuS is M 2 /6
(C) Equivalent mass of Ba  MnO4 2 is M 3 /5
(D) Cu 2S and CuS both have same equivalents in mixture

22. SiO 2 reacts with:


(A) Na 2 CO 3
(B) CO 2
(C) HF
(D) HCl
23. When photons of energy 4.25eV strike the surface of a metal ‘A’, the ejected photo
electrons have maximum kinetic energy, TA  in eV  and de-Broglie wavelength, λ A .
The maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons liberated from another metal ‘B’ by
photons of energy 4.20eV is TB  =TA -1.50eV  . If the de-Broglie wavelength of these
photo electrons is λ B  =2λ A  , then
(A) The work function of 'A' is 2.25eV
(B) The work function of 'B' is 3.70eV
(C) TA =2.00eV
(D) TB =2.75eV

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24. Which compounds liberate hydrogen gas on reaction with Na metal?


(A) OH (B) COOH
HO OH

CH3
(C) CH 4 (D) O

O O

HO OH

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. Number of enols of the given compound are:


O

 A2 B3  g  x
26. AB  g   AB2  g   Kp1  atm1
10
 A2 B4  g 
2 AB 2  g   Kp2  8atm 1
These two equilibria are simultaneously existing in a vessel at 298 K. If initially only AB
and AB2 are present in 3 : 5 mole ratio and total pressure at equilibrium is 5.5 atm with
pressure of AB2 at 0.5 atm. then x is……

27. Solubility of K 2 Zn3  Fe  CN 6  is s mol/ltr and its K sp  216 x s y . Then value of x  y


2
is……

28. How many of the following molecules/ions has centre of symmetry?


2
XeF6 , XeF4 , SF4 , SF6 , PCl5 ,  PtCl4  , CH 4 , NH 4 , SiF62  , I 3 , IF7 , XeOF2 , ClF3 , PCl3 F2

29. A container contains CH 4 and Helium gas in such a ratio that for every helium atom
there are sixteen hydrogen atoms present. Now this mixture is allowed to escape from
very small pin hole. The rate of decrease of hydrogen atoms w.r.t. helium atoms in the
container is x times. Then value of x is………

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30. Which of the following mentioned positions in the given compound is more reactive
towards electrophilic substitution?
4
5 3
6 2
7 N
1
H

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. Vander wall’s gas equation can be reduced to virial equation and viral equation (in terms
B C
of volume) is Z  A    .....
vm vm 2
Where A = first virial coefficient, B = second virial coefficient,
C = third virial coefficient.
2
The third virial coefficient of Hg(g) is 625 cm /mol .  2

What volume (L) is available for movement of 10 moles He(g) atoms present in 50L
vessel?

32. The internal energy change in the conversion of 1 mole of calcite form of CaCO3 to the
aragonite form is +0.21kJ. The enthalpy change (J) in the conversion at 2.7 bar is:
(Given the densities of solid calcite & aragonite are 2.7g cm-3 & 3.0g cm-3 respectively)

33. A liquid aromatic organic compound (A) containing carbon (92.3%) and hydrogen (7.7%)
decolourised KMnO4, and on ozonolysis gave methanal and another compound (B). The
molecular mass of (A) is 104. What is the molecular mass (g/mol) of compound 'B'?

34. What is the value of N+M?


Cl 2  hv
 A, C3H 8  N  number of isomers including stereoisomers 
Monochlorination

Cl 2 +hv  Dichlorination 

Cl 2  hv
M  number of isomers including stereoisomers 
Dichlorination

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35. How many sp 2 hybridised carbon atoms are there in compound 'A'?
O3 /H 2 O
 A   C8H10  Acid  B  C 4 H 6 O 2 
or
acidic KMnO 4

4 mol
of H 2  Pt
C
36. 25 mL of household solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4N acetic
acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48mL of 0.25 N Na2S2O3 was used to reach
the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

π
37. The sum of three positive numbers α,β,γ is equal to . If e cotα ,e cotβ ,e cotγ form a GP then
2
Which of the following holds good?
(A)  cotα=  cotα
(B) 2cotβ=cotα+cotγ
(C) cotαcotγ=3
(D) 4  cosα=  sin2α

38. Let z1 , z 2 , z3 be the three non-zero complex numbers such


a b c
that z2  1, a  z1 , b  z2 and c  z3 . Let, b c a  0 . Then
c a b
2
z   z z 
(A) arg  3   arg  3 1 
 z2   z 2  z1 
(B) Orthocentre of triangle formed by z1 ,z 2 ,z 3 is z1 +z 2 +z 3
3 3 2
(C) If triangle formed by z1 ,z 2 ,z 3 is equilateral, then its area is z1 .
2
(D) If triangle formed by z1 ,z 2 ,z 3 is equilateral then z1 +z 2 +z 3  0

39. If polynomials of the form ax 2  bx  c which are divisible by x2 + 1 and a, b, c belong to


(1, 2, 3….n) then:
(A) b2
(B) b 1
(C) ca
(D) No. of polynomials = n
40. Let ABC be a triangle and a circle C1 be drawn lying inside the triangle touching its in-
circle C externally and also touching the two sides AB and AC, then ratio of the radii of
the circles C1 and C is equal to :
A
(A) tan2  
 4 
A
(B) tan2  
 4 
1  sin A / 2
(C)
1  sin A / 2
1  sin A / 2
(D)
1  sin A / 2

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41. If (1 + ax + bx2)(1 – 2x)18 be expressed in ascending powers of x  coefficient of x3, x4


are zero then :
(A) a = 16
272
(B) b
3
(C) a=7
27
(D) b
4

42. If (a, 0) is point on a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 = 4, then x2 – 4x – a2 = 0 has:


(A) Exactly one real root is [–1. 0]
(B) Exactly one real root in [2, 5]
(C) Distinct roots greater than –1
(D) Distinct roots less than 5

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. If the range of parameter t in the interval (0, 2 ) , satisfying


(2 x 2  5 x  10)
 0 for all real values of x is (a, b) , then (a  b)  k .
(sin t ) x 2  2(1  sin t ) x  9 sin t  4
Find the value of k.

ab bc
44. For a, b, c  R  {0} ,let , b, are in A.P. If  ,  are roots of the quadratic
1  ab 1  bc
equation 2acx 2 +2abcx  ( a  c)  0 , then find the value of (1   )(1   ) .

 2 i 2   2 i 6   2 i 56 
45. Consider a triangle formed by the points A  e , B e  and C  e  . If
 3   3   3 
2 2 2
P(z) be any point on its incircle, then AP +BP +CP is equal to:

46. If N denotes the number of non-empty subsets of {1,2,3……,12} having property that the
sum of largest element and smallest element is 13, then number of divisors of N divisible
by 5 is:

20
2 10 r a7
47. Let (2 x  3x  4)  a x
r 0
r , then the value of
a13
is.

9 15 23 33
48. If sum of the series     ........up to  is k find [k] (where[.] represent
3! 4! 5! 6!
greatest integer function)

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

49. If a, b, c are positive integers forming G.P. and b – a is a perfect cube and log6a + log6b
+ log6c = 6, then a + b + c =

50. For each positive integer n consider the point p with abscissa n on the curve y2 – x2 = 1.
If d n represents the shortest distance from the point p to the line g = x then lim  n  dn 
n 

has the value equal to______.

51. A variable circle is described to pass through (1, 0) and touch the line y = x. The locus of
the center of the circle is a parabola, whose length of latus rectum is ____________.

52. Triplet  x, y , z  chosen from the set {1, 2, 3, 4………n}  x  y > z. If number of such
n
triplets possible is 165 then is ________.
2

3 4 5 6 –1
53. Let S denote sum of the series     ... , then the values of s is_____.
23 24.3 26.3 27.5


logx1 3  2x  x 2   x  3 x has.
54. Number of solutions of the equation x  1  

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 Questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – A

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. In an adiabatic expansion of air if the volume changes by 5% the change in pressure in


percentage is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 2.5
(D) 7
y
2. The end of a rigid rod of length l is moved with a constant
velocity v. Find the speed of the midpoint of the rod
v
(A)
2 sin 
v l
(B) tan 
2
 v
v O P
x
(C) cot 
2
v
(D)
2 cos 

3. A T-shaped object with dimensions shown in the figure, is lying on a 



smooth floor. A force F is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that A B
the object has only the translational motion without rotation. Find the
location of P with respect to C. P 2
4
(A)
3 C
(B) 
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
2

4. What can be the maximum amplitude (in m) of the 1 kg


 = 0.6

system so that there is no slipping between any of the 2 kg  = 0.4


K = 24 N/m
blocks
(A) 1 3 kg
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

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5. A pendulum bob of mass 10-2 kg is raised to a height 510-2m and then released. At the
bottom of its swing, it picks up a mass 10-3kg. To what height will the combined mass
rise?
(A) 0.6 m
(B) 0.54 m
(C) 0.41 m
(D) 0.8 m

6. A hollow sphere of mass M and radius R is immersed in a


tank of water (density w). The sphere would float if it were
set free. The sphere is tied to the bottom of the tank by two R

wires which makes angle 450 each with the horizontal as M


T1
shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the wire is
4 3 450 45
0

R  w g  Mg
(A) 3
2
2 2
(B) R w g  Mg
3
4 3
R  w g  Mg
(C) 3
2
4 3
(D) R  w g  Mg
3

7. A block X of mass 0.5 kg is held by a long massless Y

string on a frictionless inclined plane of inclination 300 to


the horizontal. The string is wound on a uniform solid X
cylindrical drum Y of mass 1.5 kg and of radius 0.2 m as
shown in figure. The drum is given an initial velocity
such that the block X starts moving up the plane. At a
certain instant of time when the magnitude of the
angular velocity of Y is 10 rad/s-1 calculate the distance 300

traveled by X (in m)from the instant of time until it comes


to rest
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

8. A pipe’s lower end is immersed in water such that the length of air column from the top
open end has a certain length 25 cm. The speed of sound in air is 350 m/s. The air
column is found to resonate with a tuning fork of frequency 1750 Hz. By what minimum
distance should the pipe be raised in order to make the air column resonate again with
the same tuning fork?
(A) 7 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 35 cm
(D) 10 cm

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9. What change in surface energy will be noticed when a drop of radius R splits up into
1000 droplets of radius r, surface tension of T?
(A) 4R2 T
(B) 7 R2 T
(C) 16 R2 T
(D) 36 R2 T

x
10. A transverse wave is described by the equation y  y 0 sin 2 (ft  ) the maximum

particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
(A)   y0 / 4
(B)   y 0 / 2
(C)   y 0
(D)   2y 0

11. Forces acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with the velocity of the particle

as F  where  is constant. The work done by this force in time interval t is
v
(A) t
1
(B) t
2
(C) 2t
(D) 2 t

12. A thin uniform metallic rod of mass m, length L,
Young modulus of elasticity Y and crosssectional A
Shaded region
area A is rotated by angular velocity  about
extreme end AA’. Consider a section on the rod at 

midpoint of rod. What will be the normal stress on 

the shaded region A


X= L/2

3 M2L2 cos2 
(A)
8 A
3 M L sin2 
2 2
(B)
4 A
3 M L sin2 
2 2
(C)
8 A
(D) None of these

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13.

If (1) represents isothermal and (2) represents adiabatic, which of the graphs given
above in respect of an ideal gas are correct?
(A) (I) and (II)
(B) (II) and (III)
(C) (I), (II) and (III)
(D) Only (III)

14. A string of length 1m and linear mass density 0.01 kg m–1 is stretched to a tension of 100
N. When both ends of the string are fixed, the three lowest frequencies for standing
wave are f 1, f2 and f3. When only one end of the string is fixed, the three lowest
frequencies for standing wave are n1, n2 and n3. Then
(A) n3 = 5n1 = f3 = 125 Hz
(B) f3 = 5f1 = n2 = 125 Hz
(C) f3 = n2 = 3f1 = 150 Hz
f f
(D) n2 = 1 2 = 75 Hz
2

15. The given plot shows the variation of U, the potential U


energy of interaction between the particles with the A
distance separating them, r
(1) B and D are equilibrium points
(2) C is a point of stable equilibrium E
(3) The force of interaction between the two
particles is attractive between points C and B
and repulsive between points D are E on the B D
curve r
(4) The force of interaction between the particles is
repulsive between C and A C
Which of the above statements are correct
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 2 and 3

16. A boat having length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by one cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg
(B) 62 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) 128 kg

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17. A viscous liquid flows through a horizontal pipe of varying cross sectional area. Identify
the option which correctly represents the variation of height of rise of liquid in each
vertical tube
(A) (B)
A A

B B

(C) (D) None of these


A

18. A particle is dropped in three tunnels ACB, AEB & ADB C


t1
through earth and takes time to reach at point B respectively
t1, t2 and t3. E
A B
Then which of the following relation is correct: (D is not the D
t2
centre of the earth) t3
(A) t1 > t2 > t3 O

(B) t1 < t2 > t3


(C) t3 > t2 > t1
(D) t2 < t1 < t3

19. Two balls A & B both of mass m & connected by a light


inextensible string of length 2 . Whole system is on a frictionless A
horizontal table. Ball B is given a velocity u (as shown) r to AB.
The velocity of ball A just after the string becomes taut is 
u 3
(A) u
4
B
(B) u 3
u 3
(C)
2
u
(D)
2

20. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length
 Kx 2 
  where K is a constant and x in the distance from one end is:
 L 
3L
(A)
4
L
(B)
8

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L
(C)
K
3L
(D)
K

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

21. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then find tension in the string.

22. A pendulum has period T for small oscillations. An obstacle is


placed beneath the pivot, so that only the lowest one quarter of
3L
the string can follow the pendulum bob, when it swings in the left 4 L
of its resting position as shown. The pendulum is released form
rest at a certain point A. The time taken by it to return to that
point is ‘x’ times of T. Find the value of ‘x’. A

23. Two rods are of same material and have same length and area. Heat R flow through
them in 12 minutes, when they joined side by side. If now both the rods are joined in
parallel, then in what time (in minutes) the same amount of heat R will flow.

24. A string is wrapped on a wheel of moment of inertia 0.20 kg m2 and


radius 10 cm and goes through a light pulley to support a block of
mass 2.0 kg as shown in figure. Find the acceleration of the block.
(in m/s2) 10 cm

2 kg

25. A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passes through an obstacle. Find the
fractional change in its speed

26. A SHM is represented by the equation x = 20sin [t+(/6)] in S. I. Units. Find its
amplitude,

27. A block of mass 2kg is gently placed over a massive plank moving horizontally over a
smooth surface with velocity 6 m/s. The coefficient of friction between the block and
plank is 0.2. Find the distance (SI unit) travelled by the block till it slides on the plank is
(g = 10 m/s2)

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28. A string of length 1 m and mass 10 gm is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the
string is 4 N. Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time t.
What is the minimum value of t (in sec.) which allows a constructive interference
between successive pulses?

29. What is the speed of 10 kg block at the end of 3 second.  = 0.2 10 kg F = 5t N


=0 20 kg

30. A cubical body floats in a mercury bath with half of its volume submerged. What fraction
of the body will be inside mercury if a layer of water is poured on the mercury covers the
body completely? (Sp. gr. of mercury = 13.6)

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Chemistry PART – B

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31. In which of the following compounds nitrogen exhibit more than one oxidation state?
(A) (NH4)3N
(B) N2O5
(C) (NH4)NO3
(D) N2H4

32. What is the equivalent weight of H3PO3 (Mo = Molar mass) in the reaction
4H3PO3  3H3PO4  PH3
2MO
(A)
3
MO
(B)
2
3MO
(C)
2
MO
(D)
6

33. Which of the following does not exhibit -bond resonance?


(A) CO32
(B) BO33
(C) PO34
(D) SO24

34. Which of the following is correct order of shielding effect of electron in a given subshell.
(A) s<p<d<f
(B) s>p>d>f
(C) s<d<p<f
(D) s<p<f<d

35. The unit of rate of reaction and rate constant for a reaction of second order are
respectively
(A) mol L–1 sec–1, mol–1Ls–1
(B) mol–1 L sec–1 for both
(C) mol L–1 s–1 for both
(D) mol L–1 sec–1, mol–2L2s–1

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36. Which of the following reactions will proceed towards the forward reaction with decrase
in pressure?
(A) 

H2  g   Cl2  g  
 2HCl  g
(B) 

N2O4  s  
 2NO2  g 
(C) 

N2  g   3H2  g  
 2NH3  g 
(D) 

2SO2  g   O2  g 
 2SO3  g 

37. 
BaCO3  s   2 2
 Ba  aq   CO3  aq 
Addition of which of the following compound make the above solubility reaction proceeds
towards the forward reaction
(A) KCl
(B) NaOH
(C) HCl
(D) NaNO3

38. What is the pH of 0.1 M solution of ammonium acetate CH3COO NH4  


(Given: pKa(CH3COOH) = pKb(NH4OH) = 4.76)
(A) 6.5
(B) 6.9
(C) 7
(D) 10.0

39. Which of the following mixture upon heating forms inorganic benzene?
(A) H3BO3 + HNO3
(B) B2O3 + N2
(C) B2H6 + NH3
(D) H3BO3 + NH3

40. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of
lowest frequency is
(A) n = 1 to n = 2
(B) n = 3 to n = 8
(C) n = 2 to n = 1
(D) n = 4 to n = 1

HO heat  Na CO
41. SiCl4 
2
  A   B  
2
Heat
3
 C
The compound(C) is
(A) SiO2
(B) Si
(C) SiC
(D) Na2SiO3

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42. The electrophile generated in nitration of benzene by use of nitrating mixture is


(A) NO2
(B) NO2
(C) NO

(D) NO

43. Which of the following compounds is most acidic?


(A) C2H5OH (B) OH

(C) CH3COOH (D) CF3COOH

44. Which of the following carbocation is least stable?


(A) (B)
CH2 CH2

NO2
(C) (D)
CH2 CH2

CH3 C(CH3)3

45. Consider the following reactions


HCl

Peroxide
A
CH3CH = CH2
HCl
 B
Which of the following statements is correct regarding A and B
(A) A and B are position isomers
(B) A and B are identical
(C) formation of (A) includes free radical
(D) None of the above is correct

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46. Arrange the following in decreasing order of E2 reaction:


Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl

Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl
(X ) (Y) (Z)
(A) X>Y>Z
(B) X>Z>Y
(C) Z>X>Y
(D) Y > X> Z
47. OH

H
 P, P is

HO

OH
[info there is interconversion between the given compounds



CH2  ]

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

48. Solubility of AgCl in water, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.01M NaCl and 0.05M AgNO3 are S1, S2, S3
and S4 respectively then.
(A) S1  S2  S3 < S4
(B) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
(C) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4
(D) S1 > S3 > S4 < S2
49. Aluminium chloride exists as a dimmer, Al2Cl6, in solid state as well as in solution of non-
polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives :
(A) Al3   3Cl
3
(B)  Al H2 O  
 6
 3Cl
3
(C)  Al  OH   3HCl
 6
(D) Al2O3  6HCl

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50. A mixture of two gases is formed when an organic acid heated with conc.H2SO4 when
the gaseous mixture is passed through KOH solution, one gas is absorbed. The
unabsorbed gas combines with chlorine and forms a poisonous gas. The organic acid
and the two gases evolved with conc. H2SO4 are respectively:
(A) CH3COOH, CO2, CO
(B) oxalic acid, CO2, CO
(C) HCOOH, CO, H2O
(D) None of these

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

51. The number of unpaired electrons in superoxide ion is

52. The number of deactivating groups of the following is



–NO2, –CH3, –SO3H, –Cl, –CHO, –CONH2, –NH2, –NHR,  NH3

53. How much volume (in mL) of 0.1 M acetic acid should be added to 50 mL to 0.2 M
sodium acetate to prepare a buffer of pH = 4.91?(pKa = 4.76)

54. For the given process in equilibrium at 700 K



CaCO3  s  
 CaO  s   CO2  g 
Go = 130.2 kJ/mol. The equilibrium pressure of CO2 gas is x  109Pa, then x will be

55. In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the
system. What is the change in internal energy for the process (in Joules)

56. A sample of H2SO4(density 1.8 g/ml) is 90% by weight. What is the volume of the acid
(in mL) that has to be used to make 1 L of 0.2 M H2SO4?

57. The average oxidation number of Fe in Prussian blue complex Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 is

58. The energy required to ionize a helium atom is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy required to
remove both the electrons from the helium atom (in eV) would be

59. The density of steam at 100oC and 105 Pa pressure is 0.6 Kg m–3. Calculate the
compressibility factor of steam.

60. Enthalpy of neutralization of acetic acid by NaOH is -50.6 kJ mol–1. Calculate H for
ionization of CH3COOH(in kJ mol). Given the heat of neutralization of a strong acid with
a strong base is -55.7 kJ/mol

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Mathematics PART – C

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

2
61. If three distinct real numbers a, b and c satisfy a  a  p   b2  b  p   c 2  c  p  where
p  R , then value of bc  ca  ab is
(A) –p
(B) p
(C) 0
p2
(D)
2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
62. Suppose A, B, C are defined as A  a b  ab  a c  ac , B  b c  bc  a b  ab
and C  a 2c  ac 2  b2c  bc 2 ,
where a  b  c  0 and the equation Ax 2  Bx  C  0 has equal roots, then a, b, c
are in
(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H. P.
(D) A. G.P.

3 4
63.
3
Let a and b be the coefficient of x in 1  2x  x  3x  2
 and
4
1 2x  x 2
 3x 3  4x 4  respectively. Find the value of (a – b).
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 0
(D) –1

64. The locus of mid points of the chords of the circle x2  2x + y2  2y + 1 = 0 which are of
unit length is
3
(A) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 =
4
(B) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 = 2
(C) (x  1)2 + (y  1)2 = 4
(D) None of these

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65. Let z1 = a + ib and z2 = c + id be two complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = 1 and
Re  z1z2  = 0.If a, b > 0 and c < 0, then
(A) 0  z1  z2  2
(B) 0 < z1  z2 < 2
(C) 2  z1  z2  2
(D) 2  z1  z2  2

a3 2 a 2
66. The locus of vertices of the family of parabolas y  x  x  2a, is
3 2
105
(A) xy 
64
3
(B) xy 
4
35
(C) xy 
16
64
(D) xy 
105

67. If a, b, c are related by 4a2  9b2  9c 2  12ab  0 then the greatest distance between
any two lines of the family of lines ax  by  c  0 is:
4
(A)
3
2
(B) 13
3
(C) 3 3
(D) 0

68. The value of cos12o  cos 84o  cos156o  cos132o is


(A) 1/8
(B) –1/2
(C) 1
(D) 1/2

69. If the line x + y = 1 touches the parabola y2 – y + x = 0, then the co-ordinates of the point
of contact are
(A) (1, 1)
 1 1
(B)  , 
2 2
(C) (0, 1)
(D) (1, 0)

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70. The coefficient of x10 in the polynomial x  10C 0   x  3 10


C1  x  5 10C 2 ....  x  21 10 C10 
is
(A) 10.210
(B) 10.211
(C) 11.210
(D) 10.29

zi 
71. Perimeter of the locus represented by arg    (where i = –1) is equal to
 z i  4
(A) 3/2
(B) 3/2
(C) /2
(D) 2

72. If x 2  2ax  b  c, x  R , then


(A) b  c  a2
(B) c  a  b2
(C) a  b  c2
(D) None of these

73. If ,  are the roots of the equation 2x 2  4x  5  0 , the equation whose roots are the
reciprocals of 2  3 , and 2  3 is
(A) 11x 2  10x  1  0
(B) x 2  10x  11  0
(C) x 2  10x  11  0
(D) 11x 2  10x  1  0

1 1 1 1 1  1 1 1
74. If 1 
     ...  , then value of    ... is
3 5 7 9 11 4 1.3 5.7 9.11

(A)
8

(B)
6

(C)
4

(D)
34

75. If a vertex of triangle is (1, 1) and the mid points of two sides through this vertex are
(–1, 2) and (3, 2), then the centroid of the triangle is
(A) (1, 7/3)
(B) (1/3, 7/3)
(C) (–1, 7/3)
(D) (–1/3, 7/3)

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x2 y2
76. The length of intercept, which is the largest on any tangent line by ellipse + =1, is
4 16
(A) 4 units
(B) 20 units
(C) 8 units
(D) 6 units

77. If the latus rectum of an ellipse is equal to half the minor axes then its eccentricity is
equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/2
(C) 1/4
(D) 3/4

78. A circle is drawn on the major axis of the ellipse 9x 2 +16y 2 =144 as diameter. The
equation of the circle is
(A) x2 + y2 = 4
(B) x2 + y2 = 3
(C) x 2 + y 2 = 16
(D) x2 + y2 = 9

79. The curve represented by x = 2(cos t + sin t), y = 5(cos t  sin t), is
(A) a circle
(B) a parabola
(C) an ellipse
(D) a hyperbola

x2 y 2
80. PQ and PR are tangents drawn from a point P to the hyperbola - =1 . If equation of
9 4
QR is 4x  3y  6 = 0, then the coordinates of P are
(A) (2, 6)
(B) (6, 2)
(C) (3, 4)
(D) None of these

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

81. We have 21 identical balls, which needs to be distributed among 3 boys A, B, C such
that A always gets even number of balls. If number of possible ways of doing this is ‘n’
then =

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82. If the integral part of the number ( 3  1)10 is ‘n’ then =

83. The equation of directrix of the parabola y2 + 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is x = k then k is

84. From a group of 6 Indians and 8 foreigners a committee is formed then number of
committee in which at least 2 Indians are always selected and number of foreigner is
double of number of Indian, is

85. If the midpoint of the common chord of circle x 2  y 2  2x  6y  6  0 and the circle is
(1, 3) then find the radius of circle C. (where the centre of circle C is (2, 1))

86. A (5, 0) and B (–5, 0) are two fixed point and P is moving point such that PA = 3.PB and
2
radius of P is r then 4r =?

87. Find the number of 2 digit numbers of ‘n’ for which 7n  3n is divisible by 10.

2 7 12
88. If a series 1     ........... (upto infinite terms) is given, then the value of S is
3 3 2 33

89. If  and  are the roots of the equation x 2  x  1  0 where n  n  Pn and


Pn1  29, Pn1  11 . Find Pn2

25
90. If in an increasing G.P., the sum of second and sixth term is and the product of third
2
and fifth term is 25, then the sum of fourth term, sixth term and eight term is

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.

Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. In an adiabatic expansion of air if the volume changes by 5% the change in pressure in


percentage is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 2.5
(D) 7
y
2. The end of a rigid rod of length l is moved with a constant
velocity v. Find the speed of the midpoint of the rod
v
(A)
2 sin 
v l
(B) tan 
2
 v
v O P
x
(C) cot 
2
v
(D)
2 cos 

3. A T-shaped object with dimensions shown in the figure, is lying on a 



smooth floor. A force F is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such A B
that the object has only the translational motion without rotation. Find
the location of P with respect to C. P 2
4
(A)
3 C
(B) 
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
2

4. What can be the maximum amplitude (in m) of the 1 kg


 = 0.6

system so that there is no slipping between any of the  = 0.4


2 kg
blocks K = 24 N/m

(A) 1 3 kg
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

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5. A pendulum bob of mass 10–2 kg is raised to a height 5  10-2 m and then released. At
the bottom of its swing, it picks up a mass 10–3 kg. To what height will the combined
mass rise?
(A) 0.6 m
(B) 0.54 m
(C) 0.41 m
(D) 0.8 m

6. A hollow sphere of mass M and radius R is immersed in a


tank of water (density w). The sphere would float if it were
set free. The sphere is tied to the bottom of the tank by two R

wires which makes angle 450 each with the horizontal as M


T1
shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the wire is
4 3 450 45
0

R  w g  Mg
(A) 3
2
2 2
(B) R w g  Mg
3
4 3
R  w g  Mg
(C) 3
2
4 3
(D) R  w g  Mg
3

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A sound wave is traveling along positive x-direction. Y

Displacement (y) of particles from their mean positions


at any time t is shown in the figure.
P Q R S T x

(A) Particle located at S has zero velocity.


(B) Particle located at T has its velocity in the negative direction.
(C) Change in pressure at S is zero
(D) Particles located near R are under compression.

8. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing m


machine placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a
body of mass m. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of
cabin and weighing machine,
Mm
(A) measured mass of man is
(M  m)
mg
(B) acceleration of man is
(M  m)

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

Mg
(C) acceleration of man is
(M  m)
(D) measured mass of man is M.

9. A disc is given an initial angular velocity 0 and placed on rough


horizontal surface as shown. The quantities which will not depend
on the coefficient of friction is/ are

(A) The time until rolling begins


(B) The displacement of centre of mass of the disc until rolling begins
(C) The velocity when rolling begins
(D) Angular velocity when rolling begins

10. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first

11. Figure shows a massless spring fixed at the bottom end of an


2kg
inclined of inclination 370 (tan 370 = 3/4). A small block of mass
2 kg start slipping down the incline from a point 4.8 m away
from free end of spring. The block compresses the spring by 20 4.8m
cm, stops momentarily and then rebounds through a distance 1
m up the inclined, then (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) coefficient of friction between block and inclined is 0.5.
(B) coefficient of friction between block and inclined is 0.75. 370
(C) value of spring constant is 1000 N/m
(D) value of spring constant is 2000 N/m

12. Two particles are projected from the same point with same speed u at angles of
projection  and  from horizontal strike the horizontal ground. The maximum heights
attained by projectiles is h1 and h2 respectively, R is the range for both and t1 and t2 are
their time of flights respectively then:

(A) 
2
(B) R  4 h1h2
t1
(C)  tan 
t2
(D) tan   h1 / h2

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  2 2 m / s at an angle  = 450 with the
horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)

14. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is placed


horizontally. A block of mass 1kg is placed as shown.
The co efficient of friction between the block and all
a=20 m/s2
2
surfaces of groove in contact is   . The disc has an
5
acceleration of 20 m/s2. Then acceleration of the block 
w.r.t disc will be. Take g = 10 m/s2. ( = 370)

15. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces.
It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
separation a. Find the initial velocity (assuming all values in S.I. units) that should be
GM 
given to each particle.  take a 
 20 

16. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth wire tightly stretched A


between point A and B on a vertical circle of radius 10 m. Find
the time taken(In s) by the bead to reach the point B, if the 
bead slide from rest from the highest point A on the circle.
take g=9.8m/s2
O

17. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
18. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then find tension in the string.

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. In which of the following molecules all the carbons are in the same hybridisation state
(A) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(B) CH2 = CH – CHO
(C) CH2= CH – CN
(D) CH2 = CH – CH2OH

20. The volume strength of a sample of H2O2 is ‘9.08 V’. The mass of H2O2 present in 250
mL of this solution is
(A) 0.4 g
(B) 27.2 g
(C) 6.8 g
(D) 108.8 g

21. The expression for compressibility factor for one mole of an Van der Waal’s gas at
Boyle’s temperature is
b2
(A) 1
V  V  b
b2
(B) 1
V2
b
(C) 1
V
b2
(D) 1 2
V

22. Which of the following molecules is aromatic?


(A) (B)

(C) (D)

23. Which of the following solution when added to a solution of CH3COONa can give a
buffer?
(A) CH3COOH
(B) HF
(C) HCl
(D) All of these

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24. A spontaneous reaction is impossible if


(A) both H and S are negative
(B) H and S are positive
(C) H is negative and S is positive
(D) H is positive and S is negative

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under (P1, V1, T1)
adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in
figure. Which of the following statements is (are) P
correct? (W 1, W 2 are the work done by the ideal 1
gas) (P2, V2, T2)
(A) T1 = T 2 2
(B) T3 > T 1 (P3, V3, T3)
(C) W1 > W2
V
(D) U1  U2

26. Find out the correct statements about dianion of squaric acid.
O O

O O
(A) it is more stable than phenoxide ion
(B) its all C – O bonds are of same length
(C) its C – C bonds are of same length
(D) it has four equivalent resonance structure

27. A solution containing a mixture of 0.05 M NaCl and 0.05 M NaI is taken(Ksp AgCl = 10–10,
Ksp AgI = 4  10–16). When AgNO3 is added to such a solution
(A) conc. of Ag+ required to precipitate Cl– is 2  10–9 M
(B) conc. of Ag+ required to precipitate l– is 8  10–15 M
(C) AgCl and AgI will ppt together
(D) first AgI will precipitate

28. Which of the following molecules have non-zero dipole moment?


(A) CN (B) OH

CN OH

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(C) Cl (D) SH

Br SH

29. What are the product(s) obtained in the following reaction?

AlCl
  CH3 3 C  COCl 
3
?

(A) COC(CH3)3 (B) C(CH3)3

(C) CO (D) COC(CH3)3

COC(CH3)3

30. Which of the following reactions give meso product?


(A) H3C H (B) H3C CH3
C C Br ,CCl C C

2 4

Cold

KMnO
H CH3 H H 4

(C) H3C H (D)


Cold KMnO Br ,CCl
C C 
4
 
2 4

H CH3

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. If 20 mL of 0.1 M solution of sodium sesquicarbonate (Na2CO3.NaHCO3) is titrated


against 0.05 M HCl using (i) phenolphthalein and (ii) methyl orange as indicators then
what difference in titre values (in mL) would be recorded?

32. The ionization energy for hydrogen atoms is 13.6 eV. What would be I.E for Li2+ ion in
ground state in eV?

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33. The product(P) obtained in the reaction given below has molar mass Mo, then
OH

Br
2
H O
 'P '
2

Mo
then is ? (atomic mass of Br = 80)
5

34. A weak acid type indicator was found to be 60% dissociated at pH = 9.18. What will be
percentage dissociation at pH = 9.0? (log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)

35. Find the bond enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of three centre two electron bond in B2H6 from the
following data
Hof [BH3(g)] = 100 kJ/mol, Hof [B2H6(g)] = 36 kJ/mol,
Ha[B(s)] = 565 kJ/mol, Ha[H2(g)] = 436 kJ/mol

36. 

The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2  g   O2  g 
 2NO  g  is 0.09 at 3500 K.
The fraction of equimolar mixture of N2 and O2 converted to NO is

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1  xn
37. Let xn 1  ,  x  N and xk  x1  35 , then k can be
1  xn
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 36
(D) 38

n
38. 
If R  7  48  , n  N then the value of  4  R  3  R   R R   4 , where [R] is integral
part of R is.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

39. The length of three unequal edges of a rectangular solid block are in GP. The volume of
block is 216cm3 and total surface are is 252cm2. The length of the shortest edge is
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

40. If 0 < x < /2, then the minimum value of (9sec2x + 4 cosec2x) is N, then N17 =
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

41. If  is a complex seventh root of unity, then the equation whose roots are    2   4
and  3   5   6 is x 2  x  c  0 where c is ____
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

42. Five digit numbers divisible by 9 are to be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
without repetition. The total numbers of such numbers is 3, then  is
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9

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(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. If  5, 12  and  24, 7  are the foci of a conic passing through the origin, then the
eccentricity of conic is
386
(A)
38
386
(B)
12
386
(C)
13
386
(D)
25

3p  25
44. If p is a positive integer, then can be a positive integer, then all possible
2p  5
value(s) of p
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 35

45. Let the parabolas y  x 2  a x  b and y  x  c  x  touch each other at the point (1, 0),
then
(A) a=–3
(B) b=1
(C) c=2
(D) b+c=3

2 2 2 1 2m
46. If     then
1!13! 3!11! 5!9! 7!7! n!
(A) m + n =27
(B) m2 = 1 + 2n
(C) n2 – m2 = 27
(D) n=1+m

47. If the equation ax2+2bx+4c=16 has no real roots and a + c > b + 4, then integral value of
c can be equal to
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 20

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12

48. The equation a 8 x 8  a 7 x 7  a 6 x 6  .....  a0  0 has all its roots positive and real
(where a8 = 1, a7 = 4, a0 = 1/28), then
1
(A) a1  
24
1
(B) a1  8
2
7
(C) a2  4
2
1
(D) a3  2
2

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

49. If a0, a1, a2, a3, …….. and b0, b1, b2, b3, …………. are two geometric progressions with
101
52
a1 = 23 and b1 
9
3 if 3a99b99 = 104, and  a b = k then
i 0
i i =

50. 3 circles with radii r1,r2 ,r3 where  r1  r2  r3  touch each other externally. If they have a
r1 r
common tangent, then the value of  1 is
r2 r3

4n  4n2  1 40
51. If Tn 
2n  1  2n  1
, and  Tn  k then
n 1

52. If the line y  3x  3  0 cuts the parabola y 2  x  2 at A and B, if PA .PB  k


 3 2 
3
[where P is  
3, 0 ] then k =

x2 y2  9
53. If the lines x – 2y = 12 is tangent to the ellipse 2
 2  1 at the point  3,  , then the
a b  2
length of the latus rectum of the ellipse is

2 2 2 2
54. Let x, y, z, t be real numbers such that x  y  9,z  t  4 and xt  yz  6 then the
greatest value of xz.

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

6
1. A wave pulse in a horizontal string is represented by a function y  x,t   2
2   x  3t 
(c. g .s system) then
(A) wave is propagating along ‘+x’ axis
(B) amplitude of the wave is 4 cm
(C) velocity of the wave is 3 cm/sec
(D) amplitude of wave is 6 cm

2. A container of large uniform cross sectional area A A

resting on a horizontal surface holds two immiscible


non viscous and incompressible liquids of density d H/2 d
and 3d, each of height H/2. The lower density liquid
is open to the atmosphere having pressure P0. A tiny
hole of area a(a<<A) is punched to the vertical side H/2 3d
h
of lower container at a height h (0<h<H/2) for which
range is maximum.
(A) h = H /3 Range R
2H
(B) Range R =
3
3H
(C) Range R =
2
2
(D) Velocity of efflux v  gH
3

3. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line


with the same time period (T) and equal amplitudes A O B
(A). At a particular instant one particle is at x = –A x=–A x=0 x=+A
and the other is at x = 0. They move in the same
direction. They will cross each other at time t and at
position x then
4T
(A) t
3
3T
(B) t
8
A
(C) x
2
A
(D) x
2

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4. Speed of particle moving in a circle varies with time as, v = 2t then


(A) angle between velocity vector and acceleration vector is increasing with time
(B) at is constant while ar is increasing with time
(C) at is decreasing but ar is increasing
(D) both (A) and (B) are wrong

5. Two masses MA = 1kg and MB = 2kg are connected by a A B


4N
massless spring as shown in figure. A force of 4 N acts on the
2 kg mass.
3
(A) when acceleration of A is 1 m/s2 the acceleration of B is m / s2
2
4 4
(B) when acceleration of A is m/s2 the acceleration of B is m / s2
3 3
(C) the acceleration of A always be less or equal to the acceleration of B
(D) none of these

6. In figure, a ladder of mass m is shown leaning against a wall. It is


in static equilibrium making an angle  with the horizontal floor. The
coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is 1 and that
between the floor and the ladder is 2. The normal reaction of the
wall on the ladder is N1 and that of the floor is N2. If the ladder is
about to slip, then
mg
(A) 1  0  2  0 and N2 tan  
2
mg
(B) 1  0  2  0 and N1 tan  
2
mg
(C) 1  0  2  0 and N2 
1  1 2
mg
(D) 1  0 2  0 and N1 tan  
2

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A solid cylinder of mass m is placed over a plank of same mass


as shown in figure. The plank is placed on smooth horizontal F
surface. There is sufficient friction between cylinder and plank
to prevent slipping. If a force is applied at the centre of the Plank
cylinder then find the ratio of magnitude of acceleration of Smooth
cylinder to magnitude of the acceleration of the plank.

8. A long cylindrical glass vessel has a small hole of radius r at its bottom. If the depth
upto to which the vessel can be lowered vertically in a deep water bath (surface tension
xT
‘T’ and density of water ‘’) without any water entering inside is, d = then find ‘x’.
rg

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9. A cylindrical block of area of cross section A and of


material of density  is placed in a liquid of density one
third of density of block. The block compresses a spring
and compression in the spring is one third of the length of
the block. If acceleration due to gravity is g, the spring
constant of the spring is n Ag. Find n

10. An object is displaced from point A(1m, 2m, 3m) to a point B(2m, 3m, 4m) under a

 
constant force F  2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ N . Find the work done by this force in this process. (in
joule)

11. A bus is moving towards a huge wall with a velocity of 5 m/s. The driver sounds a horn
of frequency 200 Hz. The frequency of the beats heard by a passenger of the bus will be
(In Hz) nearly (velocity of sound in air = 338 m / s )

12. If P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is plotted, it is a straight line passing through origin.
The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process is nR where n is an integer. Find the
value of ‘n’.

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. Two blocks of masses 3kg and 1kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected
by a spring. An external kick gives a velocity of 9 m/s to the heavier block in the direction
of lighter one. Calculate the velocity gained by the centre of mass.

14. For what value of m (in kg), the pulley P1 remains at rest.

15. The displacement x (in m) of particle of mass m (in kg) is related to time t (in second) by
9
x  t 2  3 . Find the work (in J) done in the first two seconds. (take m = kg)
32

16. A boat which has a speed of 1.25 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along
the shortest possible path in 60 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.

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1
17. A particle of mass kg starts from origin and move in xy-plane. The velocity of the
8

particle is given by v  2iˆ  3 1  4y ˆj where y is the y-coordinate of the position of the
particle. Find the magnitude of average force (in N) acting on the particle.

18. A tangential force F acts at the top of a thin spherical shell of


mass m and radius R. If it rolls without slipping then F

xF
acceleration is given by a  . What is the value of ‘x’. R
5m m

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. In which of the following species bond angle is expected to be more than 120o?
(A) PCl4
(B) NO2
(C) NO2
(D) XeF2

20. The crystalline form of borax has


(A) tetranuclear [B4 O5(OH)4]2– unit
(B) all boron atoms in same plane
(C) equal number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised boron atoms
(D) one terminal hydroxide per boron atom

21. An acid-base indicator has Ka = 10–5. The acid form of the indicator is red and basic form
is blue. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) At pH = 4.52, solution is red
(B) At pH = 5.47, solution is blue
(C) At pH = 6, solution is 75% red
(D) At pH = 8, solution is 75% blue

22. Which of the following will undergo Friedel-Craft alkylation reaction?


(A) CH3 (B) NH2

(C) Br (D) CH2OH

23. Which of the following reaction will give acetone?


(A) Hg2  ,H2 SO 4 (B) B2H6
CH3C  CH  
CH3C  CH  OH ,H O 2

(C) KMnO ,  (D) CH  CH  CH3OH 



4
 
OH

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24. Which of the following is/are major/minor products obtained in the reaction?

OH Conc H2SO 4
 ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. The spin only magnetic moment of a second period element in excited state is 2 6 B.M.
What is the atomic number of the element?

26. What is the minimum pH at which precipitation of ZnS is not possible from a solution of
0.01 M ZnCl2 saturated with 0.1 M H2S? If K a1  K a2 of H2S = 10–20 M and Ksp of ZnS is
10–21 M?

27. The number of electrons in antibonding molecular orbital of N2 are

28. 

Consider the reaction 2CaCO3  s   2 CO2  g  
 2 CaC2  s   5 O2  g  . If KP =
KC(RT)n, n for the above reaction is


29. In the reaction: 2L  B 2H6  BH2L 2  BH4 , among the given lewis base(L), how
many will give the above reaction
CO, NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, Et2S, PF3, PPh3

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30. Examine the structural formulas shown below and find out how many compounds will
show oxidation reaction with acidic KMnO4.
CH3

CH3 H3C CH3

, , , ,

Ph
CH = CH2 Ph Ph

, ,

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. The bond order of C – O bond for CO32 ion \is

32. The electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is 3.7 eV. How much energy in Kcal is released
when 2 g of chlorine is completely converted to Cl– ion in gaseous state?
(1 eV = 23.06 kcal/mol)

33. The van der Waal’s constant ‘b’ of Ar is 3.22  10–5 m3 mol–1. Calculate the molecular
diameter of Ar(in nm)

34. The bond energies of C = C and C – C at 298 K are 590 and 331 kJ mol–1 respectively.
The enthalpy of polymerization per mole of ethylene in kJ/mol is

35. The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 30. Calculate the percentage
dissociation of N2O4 at this temperature.

36. The volume of CH4 obtained at STP in L when 4.6 g of ethanol reacts with CH3MgBr as
per reaction
C2H5OH  CH3MgBr  C2H5OMgBr  CH4

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. If  and  be the roots of the equation x 2  2x  2  0 , then the value(s) of n for which
n

   1 is:

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

38. A van has 3 seats in the front (inclusive of driver’s seat) and four seats at the back of a
car. If 2 girls and 4 boys be seated in the van and one particular girl and one particular
boy only know driving, then the total number of ways they can be seated is
(A) 2(6!)
(B) 1440
(C) 3×4!×5!
(D) 2×5!×3!

2 3
3 1 4  1 5  1
39. If Sn represents sum of series          .... up to n terms,
1 2 2 2  3  2  3  4  2 
then which of the following is/are true
191
(A) S5 
192
1
(B) S11  1 
3  213
3
(C)  S7  1
4
(D) S11>1

40. A point on the straight line, 3x  5y  15 which is equidistant from the coordinate, axes
will lie only in:
(A) 4th quadrant
(B) 2nd quadrants
(C) 1st quadrant
(D) 3rd quadrants

41. Let S be the set of all   R such that the equation, cos2 x +  sin x = 2 – 7 has a
solution. Then integral values of S are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7

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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

42. The common tangent(s) to the parabola y2 = 12x and the hyperbola 8x2 – y2 = 8.
(A) y = 3x +1
(B) y = -3x +1
(C) y = 3x - 1
(D) y = -3x -1

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. ABC is inscribed in a unit circle. The three bisectors of the angles A, B and C asre
extended to intersect the circle at A1, B1 and C1 respectively. Then the value of
A B C
AA1 cos  BB1 cos  CC1 cos
2 2 2 is
sin A  sinB  sinC

44. In a book with page numbers from 1 to 100, some pages are torn off. The sum of the
numbers on the remaining pages is 4949, then number of pages which are torn off, is

2
z  z3  2z1
45. If z1, z2 ,z3 are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, then 2 is
z 2  z3

46. If the area of the triangle whose one vertex is at the vertex of the parabola,
 
y 2  4 x  a 2  0 and the other two vertices are the points of intersection of the
parabola and y – axis, is 250 sq. units, then a value of ‘a’ is:

47. If the equation x32x2+px+2=0 and x37x2+px+d=0 have two roots in common. Then, the
sum of non-common roots will be

48. In a triangle ABC, b  c  2a and A  60o . Let O be an interior point and its distance
from three sides 3,4,5 units , then circum radius of triangle ABC is

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

49. Let a1,a2,a3 ,.....an be an increasing arithmetic progression of positive integers. If a3  13 ,


5
then the maximum value of a
n 1
an is k then =

50. If triangle ABC, BD is a median. CF intersects BD at E such that BE = ED. Point F is on


AB, if BF = 5, then find the length of AB.

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11 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

51. AB is the hypotenuse of a right ABC, Median AD = 7 and median BE = 4. Square of


length of (AB) is

52. If z  C the eccentricity of | z  (1  2i) |  | z  (1  2i) |  4 is

53. Number of terms in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10, 15,…….5050 is

54. The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords intercepted on the circle,
x 2  y 2  16, by the lines, x  y  n,n  N , where N is the set of all natural numbers is k
then =

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 Questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – A

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The two masses collide in air and get stick together. After how m Just dropped
much time combined mass will fall to the ground (calculate the
time from the starting when the motion was started) (g = 10
m/s2)
(A) 1  2  s 20 m
20 m/s

(B) 2 2s
(C) 2  2  s m

(D)  3  1 s
2. A boat having length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by one cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg
(B) 62 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) 128 kg

3. Two sound waves of slightly different frequently have amplitude ratio 11/9. What is the
different of sound levels in decibels of maximum and minimum intensities head at a
point?
(A) 100
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 20

4. Kundt’s tube can be used to


(A) Produce standing wave.
(B) Determine viscosity of water.
(C) Produce Doppler’s effect in sound.
(D) Determine velocity of the source of the disturbance.

5. A particle is dropped in three tunnels ACB, AEB & ADB C


t1
through earth and takes time to reach at point B respectively
E
t1, t2 and t3. Then which of the following relation is correct: (D A B
t2
is not the centre of the earth) D
(A) t1 > t2 > t3 t3
O
(B) t1 < t2 > t3
(C) t3 > t2 > t1
(D) t2 < t1 < t3

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M, R
6. A sphere of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal
y
surface with velocity v0 as shown in figure. Its angular v0

momentum about a fixed point O on the surface is
(A) Mv0R O
x
2
(B) MR 20
5
1 2 
(C) Mv 0R   MR2  0
25 
2
(D) Mv 0R  MR 2 0
5

7. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity u hits another stationary sphere of
the same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then ratio of final velocity of the
sphere moving initially to the final velocity of the sphere initially at rest is:
 1 e 
(A)  
 1 e 
 1 e 
(B)  
 1 e 
 e  1
(C)  
 e  1
 e  1
(D)  
 e  1

8. A projectile is throw horizontally from a big tower with a speed of 20 ms1. If g = 10 ms2,
the speed of the projectile after 5 second will be nearly,
(A) 0.5 ms1
(B) 5 ms1
(C) 54 ms1
(D) 500 ms1

9. A container having two immiscible liquids of density  and 2 moves with O


an upwards acceleration a = g. The value of PQ – PO is (P0 = atm A
 h
pressure) :
(A) 5 gh 2
2h
(B) 10 gh
(C) 2.5 gh Q
(D) gh

10. If error in the measurement of mass is 0.8 of and in volume it is 0.4% then error in the
measurement of density is
(A) 1.2 %
(B) 0.4 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1%

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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4

11. A moving body in straight line is covering the distance directly proportional to the square
of time. The acceleration of the body is:
(A) Increasing
(B) decreasing
(C) zero
(D) constant

12. An open pipe is closed at one end. As a result the frequency of the third harmonic of the
closed pipe is found to be higher than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe by
100 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the open pipe?
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 100 Hz
(C) 200 Hz
(D) 300 Hz

13. The velocity v versus t graph of body in a straight line is 2 v (m/s)

as shown in figure then displacement in 6 sec will be


(A) 2m 1

(B) 3m
0
(C) 4m 1 2 3 4 5 t(s)

(D) 5m 1

2

14. The adjacent graph shows the extension (l) of a wire  4


 10 m 
of length 1 m suspended from the top of a roof at one 
end and with a load W connected to the other end. If
the cross sectional area of the wire is 10-6 m2,
4
calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of the
wire 3
(A) 2 × 107 N/m2 2
(B) 2 × 109 N/m2
(C) 2 × 1011 N/m2 1

(D) 2 × 1013 N/m2 W(N)


20 40 60 80

15. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in two circular paths of radii R1 and R2
with same speed. The ratio of respective coefficient of friction so that the cars just take
the safe turn is
(A) R1 R 2
(B) R 2 R2
1 2
(C) R 2 R1
(D) R 2 R2
2 1

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16. A body of mass m is situated in a potential field U x = U0 (1  cosx) when U0 and  are
constants. The time period of small oscillations of the mass is
m
(A) 
uo  2
m
(B) 2
uo  2
2m
(C) 2
uo  2
3m
(D) 2
uo  2

17. One half mole of a monoatomic ideal gas absorbs 1200 J of heat energy while
performing 2196 J of work. The temperature of the gas changes by
(A) 1600C
(B) 800C
(C) 400C
(D) –1600C

18. In a tug of war, the team that exerts a larger tangential force on the ground wins.
Consider the period in which a team is dragging the opposite team by applying a larger
tangential force on the ground. Which of the following works are negative?
(A) work by the loosing team on the winning team.
(B) work by the ground on the winning team.
(C) work by the ground on the loosing team.
(D) None of these

19. P–V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat
capacity of the gas in the process will be
(A) 4R
(B) 25R
(C) 3R
(D) 4R/3

20. The escape velocity of a body on an imaginary planet which is thrice the radius of the
earth and double the mass of earth is (v0 is the escape velocity of earth)
(A) 2 / 3v 0
(B) 3 / 2v 0
(C) 2 / 3v 0
(D) 2 / 3v 0

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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

21. Three identical sources S1, S2 and S3 are placed at the S1


vertices of an equilateral triangle. If they have intensity I0
each at centroid c of triangle. The resulting intensity of
sound at c will be …. Times I0
C

S2 S3

22. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to
gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the
R
radius of Earth is R, the radius of planet would be , where ‘x’ is
x

d2 x
23. The time period of the SHM represented by 2
 42 x  0, where x is the displacement
dt
at time t, in seconds is

24. A moving car encounters air resistance which is proportional to the square of the speed
2  Power required at 40 kmph
of the car. Find the value of
Power required at 80 kmph

25. A mass M is oscillating with frequency f o if hung with a spring of


stiffness k. Now it is cut in two parts in the ratio of 2 : 1 and k1

1 k
connected as shown. The new frequency is ‘x’ times of . Find M M
 2M
the value of ‘x’. k2

26. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward
according to the relation. y = Kt2. (K = 1m/s2) where y is vertical displacement. The time
T2
period now become T2. The ratio of 12 is (g = 10 m/s2)
T2

27. In the shown diagram two point masses m are joined by a


massless rod of length 5.5 m. The lower end of the mass m
system is dragged with constant velocity v0 rightwards. The
magnitude of velocity of centre of mass when  = 370, as L
multiples of v0 will be
m
 v0

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28. For a system in equilibrium as shown in figure elongation in spring will be


(n mg) /k, then n is
k

29. Velocity time equation of a particle moving in a straight line is V  t 2  5t  6 . The


distance travelled by the particle in the time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec

30. A hollow sphere and a solid sphere have equal mass and equal moment of inertia about
the respective diameter. Find the ratio of their square of radii is given by

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Chemistry PART – B

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31. Which quantum number is different for the unpaired electrons of carbon atom?
(A) Principal quantum number
(B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number
(D) Spin quantum number

32. Which of the following molecule has the highest value of dipole moment?
(A) PF2Cl3
(B) PBr3Cl2
(C) PCl5
(D) PCl2F3

33.
T1

T2
Fraction of
molecules

V1 V2 V3 V4 V5
Velocity
Which of the following velocity is expressed correctly?
3RT1
(A) V1 
M
2RT2
(B) V4 
M
2RT1
(C) V2 
M
3RT2
(D) V3 
M

34. Which of the following substance absorbs CO2 and evolves O2 gas in a single reaction?
(A) CaO
(B) KO2
(C) Na2O
(D) Li2O

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35. 

2Mg  s   O 2  g  
 2MgO  s 
Above reaction attains equilibrium at 80oC and 0.5 atm pressure. The equilibrium
constant Kp of the reaction is:
(A) 1.5 atm–1
(B) 0.5 atm–1
(C) 2 atm–1
(D) 2.5 atm–1

36. Which of the following solution mixture does not behave as buffer?
(A) CH3COOH + NaOH (2 : 1 molar ratio)
(B) NH4OH + HCl (1 : 2 molar ratio)
(C) CH3COOH + NH4OH (1 : 1 molar ratio)
(D) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (8 : 1 molar ratio)

37. What is the overall order of the following elementary reaction?


2X  g   Y2  g  X2 Y2  g 
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

38. The entropy of a reversible process at equilibrium is 150 J K–1 mol–1 at 25oC. What would
be the entropy of the surrounding?
(A) 75 J K–1 mol–1
(B) –150 J K–1 mol–1
(C) 150 J K–1 mol–1
(D) –75 J K–1 mol–1

39. Hydrolysis of borax produces


(A) B(OH)3, Na+, H2B4O7

(B) Na+, BO3 , B  OH 4
(C) HBO2, Na+, B 4O24
(D) B(OH)3, Na+, [B(OH)4]–

40. The most acidic compound out of the following is:


(A) CH3CH2COOH (B) CH3CHCOOH

CH3

(C) ClCH2COOH (D) O2NCH2COOH

41. Silicones are polymers of


(A) silicon chloride
(B) silanes
(C) alkyl silicon hydroxides
(D) alkyl silanes

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42. The acyclic functional isomer of 2-butyne contains


(A) one triple bond
(B) one double bond
(C) two double bonds
(D) one triple bond and one double bond
43.
AlCl3
 ClCH2CH2Cl   Product

Which is not a product of above reaction?


(A) (B)
CH2CH2Cl CH2CH2

(C) CH3 (D)


CH = CHCl
CH

44. Which of the following reaction does not form CH4?


Sodalime Alc.KOH
(A) CH3COONa  
 (B) C2H5Cl  

(C) CH3MgBr  CH3OH  (D) LiAlH4


CH3Cl 

45. Which of the following substance on ozonolysis does not form CH3CHO?
(A) 2-butene
(B) 2-pentene
(C) 2-hexene
(D) 3-hexene
46.
Electrolysis
COONa   Product

The organic product of above reaction?


(A)
CH3

(B)
CH2 - CH2

(C)

(D)
CH2

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47. Which does not form precipitate with ammonical solution of AgNO3?
(A) CH3CH2CH2C  CH
(B) CH3 – C  C – CH3
(C) HC  CH
(D) CH3 – C  CH

48. Which of the following carbocation is most stable?


(A) Me (B) Et

Me - C Et - C

Me Et

(C) Ph (D) CH2Ph

Ph - C PhCH2 - C

Ph CH2Ph

49. Which of the following gases deplete ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
(A) CHF3 and NO2
(B) CF2Cl2 and NO
(C) CFCl3 and N2O
(D) CH2Cl2 and NO

50. Which of the following represents a first order reaction?


(A) (B)

Rate
Rate

(Initial concentration)2
Initial concentration

(C) (D)

t1/2
Rate

Initial concentration.
Initial concentration

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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

51. What is the pH of 0.1 M NaHCO3 solution?


[H2CO3: K a1 = 10–7 & K a2 = 10–10]

52. CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CH2


How many geometrical isomer(s) is/are possible for the above compound?

53. The atomic number of iron is 26. How many maximum number of electron(s) of an iron
atom has/have s = +½?

54. What is the translational kinetic energy of one mole of an diatomic ideal gas at 480 K in
calorie unit?

55. What volume in mL of 0.4 M acidified KMnO4 solution can completely oxidize 0.9612
moles of Fe2+ into Fe3+ ions?

56. A container contains 240 mL of 0.2 M HCl solution. 360 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution was
added to it. What volume in litre of 0.16 M NaOH solution can completely neutralize the
acid solution?

57. A  g   B  g   C  g 
In above first order reaction, gas A was taken in a container at 142 mm of Hg. What will
be the partial pressure of A(g) in the container in mm of Hg unit after three half-lives?
58. An acyclic compound(A) contains six carbon atoms and the required number of
hydrogen atoms. It can absorb one molecules of H2 in presence of metal catalyst. It
forms one monochloro substituted product when reacts with Cl2 in presence of light.
What is the mass of all CH3 groups present in (A) in g mol–1 unit?

59. What is the mass of one mole of beryllium pyrosilicate in g unit?


[At. mass of Be = 9, Si = 28, O = 16]

60. A
1200
T (in K)

C
400 B

4 12
V(in L)
One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to the above thermodynamic process. What is the
pressure of the system in atm unit?

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Mathematics PART – C

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

8 16 24 128
61. Let S     ........  18 , then
5 65 325 2 1
1088
(A) S
545
545
(B) S
1088
1056
(C) S
545
545
(D) S
1056

62. If the curve y = x2 + bx + c touches the straight line y = x at the point (1, 1), then b and c
are given by
(A) –1, 1
(B) –1, 2
(C) 2, 1
(D) 1, 1

63. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations
cos  xy   x

 tan  xy   y
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6

  3 
64. The total number of solutions of In sin x   x 2  2x in   ,  is equal to
 2 2
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) None of these

65. In triangle ABC, base BC and area of triangle  are fixed. Locus of the centroid of
triangle ABC is a straight line that is
(A) parallel to BC
(B) right bisector of side BC
(C) right angle of BC
 
(D) inclined at an angle sin1  to side BC
 BC 
 

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66. Let AD be a median of the ABC. If AE and AF are medians of the triangle ABD and
ADC, respectively. And AD  m1, AE  m2 , AF  m3 , then a2/8 is equal to
(A) m22  m23  2m12
(B) m12  m22  2m32
(C) m12  m32  2m22
(D) none of these

n 1 n
 k 
67. The value of   
r 1 k 1
Cr 1  (where r, k, n  N) is equal to

n 1
(A) 2 2
(B) 2n 1  1
(C) 2n 1
(D) None of these
2001
1 2001
68. If bn1 
1  bn
for n  1 and b1  b 3 , then br 1
r is equal to

(A) 2001
(B) –2001
(C) 0
(D) None of these

69. The number of points (p, q) such that p, q  1,2,3,4 and the equation px 2  qx  1  0
has real roots is
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) none of these

70. On the portion of the straight line x  y  2 which is intercepted between the axes, a
square is constructed, away from the origin, with this portion as one of its side. If p
denotes the perpendicular distance of a side of this square from the origin, then the
maximum value of p is
(A) 2 3
(B) 3 2
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
2

71. If common chord of the circle C with centre at (2, 1) and radius r and the circle
x 2  y 2  2x  6y  6  0 is a diameter of the second circle, then value of r is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 3/2
(D) 1

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x2 y2
72. If PQ is a double ordinate of the hyperbola   1 such that OPQ is an equilateral
a 2 b2
triangle, O being the centre of the hyperbola. Then the eccentricity e of the hyperbola,
satisfies
2
(A) 1 e 
3
2
(B) e
3
3
(C) e
2
2
(D) e
3

73. The number of positive integral solutions of the equation x1 x 2 x3 x 4 x 5  1050 is


(A) 1800
(B) 1600
(C) 1400
(D) None of these

74. Reflection of the line az  az  0 in the real axis is


(A) a z  az  0
a z
(B) 
a z
(C)  
aa zz 0 
(D) None of these

75. If a,b,c  R and a  b  c  0 , then the quadratic equation 3ax 2  2bx  c  0 has
(A) at least one root in [0, 1]
(B) at least one root in [1, 2]
3 
(C) at least one root in  , 2 
2 
(D) None of these

76. Let a and b be non – zero real numbers. Then the equation
  
ax 2  by 2  c x 2  5xy  6y 2  0 represents
(A) four straight lines, when c = 0 and a, b are of the same sign.
(B) two straight lines and a circle, when a = b and c is sign opposite to that of a.
(C) two straight lines and a circle, when a = b and c is of sign opposite to that of a
(D) a circle and an ellipse, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign
opposite to that of a.

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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16

77. If x=9 is the chord of contact of the hyperbola x2 - y2 = 9, then the equation of the
corresponding pair of tangents is
(A) 9x 2  8y 2  18x  9  0
(B) 9x 2  8y 2  18x  9  0
(C) 9x 2  8y 2  18x  9  0
(D) 9x 2  8y 2  18x  9  0

78. If laturs recturm of the ellipse x 2 tan2   y 2 sec 2   1 is ½, then  (0 < < ) is equal to
(A) /12
(B) /6
(C) 7/12
(D) None of these

79. If the circle x2 + y2 = 1 cuts the rectangular hyperbola xy = 1 in four points (xi, yi) i = 1, 2,
3, 4, then
(A) x1x2x3x4 = 1
(B) y1y2y3y4 = 1
(C) x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 = 0
(D) All of the above

80. Let z1, z2 be two complex numbers represented by points on the circle z  1 and z  2
respectively, then
(A) max 2z1  z 2  4
(B) min z1  z2  1
1
(C) z2  3
z1
(D) All of the above

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

 
  sin2  x  
tan  x    4
81. If number of roots of the equation 2  4
 2  0.25  cos 2x  1  0 are p then (p+1)/4 is

82. If AEX, T is the midpoint of XE, and P is the midpoint of ET. If APE is equilateral of
side length equal to unity, then the value of (AX)2 / 2 is

6
 5 
83. The remainder when   20 C2k 1  is divided by 11, is k then k/9 is
 k 1 

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      2
84. If 4 sin 27o    , then the value of is
5

85. If cos 4x  a0  a1 cos2 x  a 2 cos 4 x is true for all values of x  R, then the value of
5a0  a1  a2

86. If A = tan 6° tan 42° and B = cot 66° cot 78°, then 3A / 2B is

87. If the point  ,   lies on the line 2x  3y  6 , the smallest value of  2  2 is

88 If tangent at (1, 2) to the circle x 2  y 2  5 intersects the circle x 2  y 2  9 at P and Q and


tangent at P and Q to the second circle meet at point R, then the X co – ordinates of R is

89. If the intersection point of the straight lines represented by


 5
x 2  2xy  4y 2  2ax  8y  c  0 is  1,   , then c - 3a is
 4

90. The number of solutions of 3 sec   5  4 tan  in 0, 4 is k then k/5 is

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.

Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. In an adiabatic expansion of air if the volume changes by 5% the change in pressure in


percentage is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 2.5
(D) 7

2. What can be the maximum amplitude (in m) of the 1 kg


 = 0.6

system so that there is no slipping between any of the 2 kg  = 0.4


K = 24 N/m
blocks
(A) 1 3 kg
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

3. Two narrow cylindrical pipes A and B have the same length. Pipe A is open at both ends
and is filled with a monatomic gas of molar mass MA. Pipe B is open at one end and
closed at the other end, and is filled with a diatomic gas of molar mass MB. Both gases
are at the same temperature. If the frequency of the second harmonic in pipe A is equal
to the frequency of the third harmonic in pipe B, what is the value of MA/MB?
100
(A)
189
200
(B)
189
400
(C)
189
500
(D)
189

4. Two soap bubbles of radii 2mm and 4mm are brought in contact. If the surface tension of
liquid is 7 x 10-2 Nm-1. Then the radius of the common surface is
(A) 2  10 3 m
(B) 4  103 m
(C) 6  10 3 m
(D) 8  10 3 m

5. Two planets are revolving around the earth with velocities v1, v2 and in radii r1 and
r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Then
(A) v1  v 2
(B) v1  v 2

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3 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

(C) v1  v 2
v1 v 2
(D) 
r1 r2

6. An ideal gas is allowed to expand freely against a vacuum in a rigid insulated container.
The gas undergoes
(A) an increase in its internal energy
(B) a decrease in its internal energy
(C) neither an increase or decrease in temperature or internal energy
(D) an increase in temperature

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A small ball of mass m suspended from the ceiling at a point O


by a thread of length  moves along a horizontal circle with a
constant angular velocity . Choose from following the correct
option(s).
(A) Angular momentum is constant about O
(B) Angular momentum is constant about C
(C) Vertical component of angular momentum about O is
constant.
(D) Magnitude of angular momentum about O is constant.

8. A point moves with deceleration along the circle of radius R so that at any time its
tangential and normal acceleration are equal in magnitude. At the initial moment t =0,
the velocity of the point is v 0 . The velocity of the point will be
v0
(A) v at t second
v0t
1
R
S / R
(B) v  v0e after displacements
(C) v  v 0 eSR after displacements
v0
(D) v at t second
v0t
1
R

9. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

10. A small solid ball of density  is held inside at point A a P Q


cubical container of side L, filled with an ideal liquid of density
L/2
4 as shown in the figure. Now, if the container starts moving
with constant acceleration a horizontally and the ball is A a
released from point A simultaneously, then L/2
(A) For ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 3g
(B) For ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 2g R L S
L
(C) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g
2L
(D) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g

11. A metal cylinder of mass 0.5 kg is heated electrically by a 12 W heater in a room at


15oC. The cylinder temperature rises uniformly to 25oC in 5 min and finally becomes
constant at 45oC. Assuming that the rate of heat loss is proportional to the excess
temperature over the surroundings,
(A) the rate of loss of heat of the cylinder to surrounding at 20oC is 2 W
(B) the rate of loss of heat of the cylinder to surrounding at 45oC is 12 W
240
(C) specific heat capacity of metal is J / kgoC
ln  3 / 2 
(D) none of the above

12. A block of mass 1 kg moves under the influence of external forces on a rough horizontal
surface. At some instant, it has a speed of 1 m/s due east and an acceleration of 1 m/s2
due north. The force of friction acting on it is F
(A) F acts due west
(B) F acts due south
(C) F acts in the south west direction
(D) the magnitude of F cannot be found from the given data

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A thin wire of area of cross-section A  10 2 m2 is used to make a ring of radius


r  10 1m . This ring is placed on a smooth horizontal floor & is given angular velocity
  2 rad / s about its centre. Find out stress in the ring (mass per unit length of wire
 = 1 kg/m)

14. A wedge and block are connected by a mass


less string passing over a frictionless pulley as
shown in the figure. At the instant shown, the
speed of the wedge is 1m/s. Assume all m
wedge
surfaces are smooth. The speed of the block 600
with respect to ground at the instant shown is

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15. A bus B is moving with a velocity vB in the positive


B vB C Road x
x-direction along a road as shown in the figure. A
shooter ‘S ’ is at a distance l from the road. He has a
detector which can detect signals only of frequency l
1500Hz. The bus blows horn of frequency 1000 Hz.
When the detector detects a signal the shooter

immediately shoots towards the road along SC and S
the bullet hits the bus. Find the velocity of the bullet if
v 2
velocity of sound in air is v = 340 m/s and B  .
v 3 3

16. A satellite is moving round the earth. In order to escape it the velocity of satellite must be
increased by what percent?

17. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released
in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract
each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by smaller body just
before collision is …….times R

18. The pressure at the bottom of water in a lake is 3/2 times that at half its depth. The water
barometer reads 10 m at atmosphere. The depth of the lake, in meters is

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. For which of the following substance the hydration energy is much larger than the lattice
energy?
(A) Be(OH)2
(B) Mg(OH)2
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Ba(OH)2
20. Which of the following molecule has square planar shape?
(A) SF4
(B) CF4
(C) XeF4
(D) SeF4
21. The white precipitate. Al(OH)3 is not soluble in
(A) NaOH
(B) HCl
(C) NH4OH
(D) H2SO4
22. Which has the highest value of boiling point?
(A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (B) CH3CH2NHCH3
(C) CH3 - N - CH3 (D) CH3CH2CH3

CH3

23. C2H5

Catalyst
 CH3CH2OH  

Which is used as an catalyst for the above reaction?


(A) BF3
(B) AlCl3
(C) NH3
(D) BI3

24. BN  NaOH  H2O  P   NH3


What is product(P) in above reaction?
(A) NaBO2
(B) NaBO3
(C) Na3BO3
(D) Na[B(OH)4]

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(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Which of the following compound(s) display(s) position isomerism?


(A) CH3CH2CH = CH2 (B) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(C) OH (D) Cl

Cl

26. The central atom(s) of which of the following molecule use(s) d-orbital for bond
formation?
(A) H2S
(B) SO2
(C) SCl2
(D) SO3

27. 

AgCN  aq  
 Ag  aq   CN  aq
 

Which of the following substance can increase the solubility of AgCN according to above
reaction?
(A) NaCl
(B) HNO3
(C) KCN
(D) NH4OH

28. Which of the following substance(s) undergo(es) decomposition on heating?


(A) Na2SO4
(B) Na2CO3
(C) NaNO3
(D) NaHCO3

29. Which of the following compound(s) show optical isomerism?


(A) 2-butanol
(B) 2-pentanol
(C) 2-propanol
(D) cyclohexanol

30. Which of the following substance(s) exist(s) in two different forms in aqueous solution?
(A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (B) CH3COCH2CH3

(C) CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3 (D) CH3

CH3CH2CHCH2CHO

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. The half-life of a second order reaction is 8.4 minute. How much time in minute is
required to complete 75% of reaction?

32. The hydrolysis constant KH of the following reaction is 10–2.6.



A   H2O 
 HA  OH

What is the pK a value of HA?

33. The root mean square velocity of C2H6 at 400 K is equal to the most probable velocity of
neon at temperature TK. What is the value of T? [At. Wt of Ne = 20]

34. CH3 CH3


H3C C C CH3
CH3 CH3
For the above compound, if
x = Number of 4o carbon atoms present in it
y = Number of 1o free radicals formed from it
z = Number of moles of H2O molecules formed by one mole of it during complete
combustion.
Then (x + y + z) is

35. OH

CH3
Conc.H SO
 2 4
High Temperature
 Product  s 

How many total number of hyperconjugation structures can be formed by all the cyclic
products of above reaction?

36.
40
t1/2
(in sec)
20

0.4 0.8
[A] (in mol L–1)
Above graph is drawn for a particular chemical reaction. If the rate constant of the
reaction is expressed as 10–x mol L–1 s–1, what is x?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

37. The range of values of ‘a’ such that the angles  between the pair of tangents drawn

from (a, 0) to the circle x2 + y2 = 1 satisfies    , is
2
(A) (1, 2)
(B) (1, 2 )
(C) (  2 , –1)
(D)   
2,  1  1, 2 
x2 y2
38. Three points A, B, C are taken on the ellipse   1with accentric angles ,  + 
a 2 b2
and   2, then
(A) the area of  ABC ab sin2 
(B) the area of  ABC is independent 
3
(C) the maximum value of area is ab
4
3 3
(D) the maximum value of area is ab
4

39. The total number of squares of any size on chess board is


(A) 196
(B) 200
(C) 204
(D) 208

40. The maximum number of points of intersection of 8 circles, is


(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 56

41. A hyperbola has focus at origin, its eccentricity is 2 and corresponding directrix is
x  y  1  0 . The equation of one of its asymptotes is
(A) x 1 0
(B) x 2  0
(C) y 1 0
(D) y 2  0

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42. P is a point on x 2  2y 2  2 with foci S and S ' . Consider the locus of incentre of
triangle PSS’ then the length of latus rectum of the locus is
(A) 3 2
(B) 42 2
(C) 53 2
(D) 64 2
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. If 16a2 +25b2 – c2 = 40ab, then the family of lines ax + by +c = 0 is concurrent at the
point(s)
(A) (4, -5)
(B) (-4, -5)
(C) (- 4, 5)
(D) none of these

1 2
2
44. For 0  x  2, then 2cos ec x y  y 1 2
2
(A) is satisfied by exactly one value of y
(B) is satisfied by exactly two value of x
(C) is satisfied by x for which cos x = 0
(D) is satisfied by x for which sin x = 0

45. If  sin   x 2  2x  b  2 for all the real values of x  1 and    0,  / 2     / 2,   , then


the possible real values of b is/are
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
46. Sides of ABC are in A.P. if a < min {b, c}, then cos A may be equal to
4b  3c
(A)
2b
3c  4b
(B)
2c
4c  3b
(C)
2b
4c  3b
(D)
2c

47. sin   3 cos   6x  x 2  11, 0    4 , x  R, holds for


(A) no value of x and 
(B) one value of x and two values of 
(C) two values of x and two values of 
(D) two pairs of values of  x, 

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48. The solution of the equation 9 cos12 x  cos2 2x  1  6 cos6 x cos 2x  6 cos6 x  2cos 2x
is/are

(A) x  n  , n  I
2
 2
(B) x  n  cos1  4  ,n  I
 3
 
2
(C) x  n  cos1 4 ,n  I
3
(D) none of these

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

49. The sum of the digits in the tens place of all numbers formed with the help of 4, 5, 6, 7

taken all at a time is given by  . Then =
5

50. The number of values of x between 0 and 2 that satisfies the equation
n
sin x  sin 2x  sin3x  cos x  cos 2x  cos 3x is ‘n’ then =
5

51. A ray emanating from the point (–3, 0) is incident on the ellipse 16x 2  25y 2  400 at the
point P with ordinate 4. If the equation of the reflected ray after first reflection is

4x  3y  , then the value of is
16

52. If locus of middle points of normal chords of the hyperbola x 2  y 2  2 is


3 30
 
y 2  x 2  k x 2 y 2 then value of
k
equals

53. The sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle is
twice the smallest one. Then semi perimeter of the triangle is equal to

54. If the number of ordered pairs (S, T) of subsets of 1,2,3,4,5,6 are such that S  T

contains exactly three elements is  , then the value of is
16

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first

2. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of


inclination 370 (tan 370 = 3/4). The coefficient of friction between 10kg
block and surface is 0.4. A horizontal force F = 50 N is applied on
F
=0.4
the block, then (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) acceleration of block is zero.
(B) acceleration of block is 2.4 m/s2 along the inclined plane. 370
(C) frictional force between block and surface is 44 N.
(D) frictional force between block and surface is 20 N.

3. A small block of mass m is released from rest from position A A


R
inside a smooth hemispherical bowl of radius R as shown in
figure. Choose the wrong option.
(A) Acceleration of block is constant throughout.
B
(B) Acceleration of block is g at A.
(C) Acceleration of block is 3g at B.
(D) Acceleration of block is 2g at B.

4. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The molar heat capacity
of this gas as a function of its volume, V
 R  V
(A) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 e
  V 
 2R  V
(B) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 e
  V 
 R  V
(C) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process P  P0e
 (1   V) 
 R  V
(D) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes process P  P0e
  V 

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5. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg move towards each other in mutually perpendicular
direction with the velocities 3 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. If the bodies stick together
after collision the energy loss will be
(A) 13 J
13
(B) J
3
(C) 8J
(D) 7J

6. A train starts from rest at S = 0 and is subjected to a(m/s)2


acceleration as shown
(A) Change in velocity at the end of 10 m 6
displacement is 50 m/s.
(B) Velocity of the train for S = 10 m is 10 m/s.
(C) The maximum velocity attained by train is not S(m)
30
greater than 14 m/s
(D) The maximum velocity of the train is between 15
m/s and 16 m/s.

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  2 2 m / s at an angle =450 with the


horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)

8. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth wire tightly stretched A


between point A and B on a vertical circle of radius 10 m. Find
the time taken(In s) by the bead to reach the point B, if the 
bead slide from rest from the highest point A on the circle.
O

9. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
        
10. If A  B  A  B and A & B are 2 2 and 3 respectively, determine C  A  B .

11. Two cars leave one after the other and travel with an acceleration of 0.4 m/s2. Two
minutes after the departure of the first, the distance between the cars becomes 1.9 km. If
a
time interval between the departure of the cars is min, then a =
6

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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

12. Two blocks of mass m = 1kg and M = 2kg are in contact M


on a frictionless table. A horizontal force F(=3N) is
F
applied to m. The force (In N) of contact between the
blocks will be m

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the cycle
ABCDA where AB is isochoric, BC is isobaric, CD is adiabatic
and DA is isothermal. Find the efficiency of the cycle. It is given
T v 1
that C  4, A  . [ln2 = 0.693]
TA v D 16

14. The displacement x (in m) of particle of mass m (in kg) is related to time t (in second)
by x  t 2  3 . Find the work (in J) done in the first two seconds.(take m = 0.5 kg)

15. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is 5 m/s 2,
then what frictional force acting on the block (in newton.)

16. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then tension in the string (in Newton) will
be

17. Six identical conducting rods are joined as shown in


figure. Points A and D are maintained at constant 0
200 C 200C
temperatures of 2000C and 200C respectively. A B C D
Temperature of junction B in degree celcius will be

18. In the figure shown, the heavy cylinder (radius R) resting


on a smooth surface separates two liquids of densities
h 2 3
2 and 3. The height h/R… for the equilibrium of R R
cylinder must be

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5 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. The bond angle of BF3 is


(A) greater than that of CH4
(B) less than that of CO2
(C) equal to that of NH3
(D) less than that of H2S

20. The half-life of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the initial concentration of
reactant. The characteristic(s) of the reaction is/are
(A) the rate of reaction does not depend on the concentration of reactant
(B) the unit of rate constant is mol L-1s–1
(C) rate of reaction increases with decreasing temperature
(D) rate constant is independent of temperature

21. Which of the following compound(s) is/are formed if potassium is treated with oxygen?
(A) K2O
(B) K2O2
(C) KO2
(D) KO

22. Which of the following has higher pK a value than CH3CH2CH3?


(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) C4H10
(D) C5H12

23. CH3 CH3 CH3


Cl
FeCl
 Cl2 
3

Cl
Which of the following solvent(s) can be used in above reaction?
(A) Nitrobenzene
(B) H2O
(C) Phenol
(D) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene

24. Dehydration of orthoboric acid produces


(A) HBO2
(B) H2B4O7
(C) H3BO2
(D) H4B4O7

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SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. How many unpaired electron(s) is/are present in chlorine at third excited state?

26. How many stereoisomer(s) is/are possible for

CH2 = CH - CH - CH = CH - CH = CH - CH3
?
CH3

27. 

2NO  g  O2  g  
 2NO2  g 
0.2 moles of each of NO, O2 and NO2 gases are present in a one litre container at above
equilibrium. If one mole each of NO and O2 are added. What will be the equilibrium
constant?

28. What is the pH of 0.001 M aqueous solution of NaCl at 25oC?

29. The rate constant of a chemical reaction is 5  10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the reaction starts with
0.4 mol L–1 of reactant, how much time in second is required to reduce the concentration
of reactant from 0.4 to 0.1 mol L–1?

30. What is the sum of the number of oxygen atoms and oxygen ions present in anhydrous
sodium perborate?

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. 80 g 128 g
CH4 SO2

VL VL
TK TK
If the ratio of the rate of effusion of both gases through identical orifices is expressed as
x : y, the value of x + y is

32. HA  NaOH  NaA  H2O


In above reaction HA is a weak acid and NaA is it’s sodium salt. The ionization constant
Ka of HA is 10–8.42. What is the pH of a 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaA?

33. P  g   B  g   C  g
In above first order reaction, the initial pressure of P is 400 mm of Hg. After 42 second
the total pressure becomes 600 mm of Hg. How much time in second is required to
complete 75% of the reaction?

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34. If x = Number of 2c – 2e bonds present in Al2Cl6.


y = Number of coordinate bonds present in Al2Cl6
z = Number of Al – Al bonds present in Al2Cl6
then, the value of (x + y + z) is

35. CH3 Cl2 / h  1 eq  P

Cl2(1 eq)
FeCl Q
3
CH3
The sum of molar masses of P and Q in g mol–1 unit is

36. The solubility product constant of M(OH)4 is 25  10–17. What is the pH of its saturated
solution?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

n
 1
37. In the expression of  x 2  1  2  , n  N ,
 x 
(A) number of terms is 2n + 1
(B) coefficient of constant term is 2n1
(C) coefficient of x 2n  2 is n
(D) coefficient of x 2 in n

an21
38. Consider a sequence an  with a1  2 and an  for all n  3, terms of the sequence
an 2
being distinct. Given that a 2 and a5 are positive integers and a5  162 then the possible
value(s) of a5 can be
(A) 162
(B) 64
(C) 32
(D) 2

39. a, b, c are in 3 distinct numbers in H.P., a, b, c >0, then


b c a c ab a bc
(A) , , are in A.P.
a b c
bc c a ab
(B) , , are in A.P.
a b c
(C) a5  c 5  2b5
ab a
(D) 
bc c
100
40. If C6  4. 100C7  6. 100
C8  4 . 100
C9 100 C10 has the value equal to x C y ; then the
possible value (s) of x  y can be:
(A) 112
(B) 114
(C) 196
(D) 198

41. If 3 sin   sin  2    , then:


(A)  cot   cot       cot   3 cot  2     6
(B) sin   cos      sin 
(C) tan       2 tan 
(D) 2 sin   sin      cos 

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42. A tangent to a parabola y2 = 4ax is inclined at with the axis of the parabola. The point
3
of contact is
(A) (a/3,. -2a/ 3 )
(B) (3a, –2 3 a)
(C) (3a, 2 3 a)
(D) (a/3, 2a/ 3 )

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. If the equation sec   cos ec   c , then the least integer which c 2 can be

44. The number of solutions of 3 sec   5  4 tan  in 0, 4 is

      n
45. If sin    cos    , then the integer n which satisfies the above equation is __
 2n   2n  2

46. If 3101  2100 is divided by 11, the remainder is

n
r
47. The sum of all digits of n for which r 2  2  2n10 is:
r 1

  
48. The number of points in interval   ,  , where the graphs of the curves y  cos x and
 2 2
 
y  sin3x,   x  intersects is___________
2 2

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

x2 y2
49. If e1 is the eccentricity of the ellipse
  1 and e 2 is the eccentricity of the
16 b2
x2 y2 b2
hyperbola  2  1 and e1e2  1, then equal to
9 b 100

50. Let N denotes the number of odd integers between 550 and 800 using the digits 4, 5, 6,
N
7, 8 and 9. Then =.
4

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r 1 A B C
51. If in triangle ABC,  , then the value of tan  tan  tan  is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2

4 1
52. The least value of ‘a’ for which   a, has at least one solution in the
sin x 1  sin x
  
interval  0,  is  , then the value of is
 2 4

53. The total number of integral values of n so that sin x(sin x  cos x)  n has at least one

solution is  , then the value of is
4

54. Suppose x and y are real numbers and that x2 + 9y2 – 4x + 6y + 4 = 0 then the minimum
value of (4x – 9y) is k then k/48 is

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 02-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to a vertical


wall and the other to a body of mass m resting on a smooth
A
horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x0 2x0 B
from body. The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and x0
C
released. The time taken to strike the wall is
 k
(A)
6 m
k
(B)
m
2 m
(C)
3 k
 k
(D)
4 m

2. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r 1


and r2 and kept at temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. The radial r2
rate of flow of heat in a substance between the two concentric
spheres in proportional to r1

r1r2
(A)
r2  r1 T2
T1

(B)  r2  r1 
 r2  r1 
(C)
r1r2
r
(D) loge  2 
 r1 

3. A particle which is attached to a massless spring oscillates horizontally with SHM with a
1
frequency of   Hz and total energy of 10J. If the maximum speed of the particle is 0.4

m/s, the force constant of the spring and maximum potential energy of the spring during
this motion are:
(A) 50 N/m, 5J
(B) 5 N/m, 10 J
(C) 10 N/m, 10J
(D) 500 N/m, 10J

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4. Steam is passed into 54 gm of water of 300C till the temperature of mixture becomes
900C. If the latent heat of steam is 536 cal/ gm, the mass of the mixture will be
(A) 80 gm
(B) 60 gm
(C) 50 gm
(D) 24 gm

5. Six identical conducting rods are joined as shown in


figure. Points A and D are maintained at constant 2000C 200C
temperatures of 2000C and 200C respectively. A B C D
Temperature of junction B will be
(A) 1200C
(B) 1000C
(C) 1400C
(D) 800C

6. The path difference between the two waves : y1  a1 sin  t  kx  and


y2  a2 cos  t  kx    is :

(A)   
 2 
 
  /2 
(B)   
 2 
2  
(C)   
  2

(D)  2  
  
 

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity

8. A sound wave is traveling along positive x-direction. Y


Displacement (y) of particles from their mean positions
at any time t is shown in the figure.
P Q R S T x

(A) Particle located at S has zero velocity.


(B) Particle located at T has its velocity in the negative direction.
(C) Change in pressure at S is zero
(D) Particles located near R are under compression.

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9. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing m


machine placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a
body of mass m. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of
cabin and weighing machine,
Mm
(A) measured mass of man is
(M  m)
mg
(B) acceleration of man is
(M  m)
Mg
(C) acceleration of man is
(M  m)
(D) measured mass of man is M

10. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first

11. Figure shows a massless spring fixed at the bottom end of an


2kg
inclined of inclination 370 (tan 370 = 3/4). A small block of mass
2 kg start slipping down the incline from a point 4.8 m away from
free end of spring. The block compresses the spring by 20 cm, 4.8m
stops momentarily and then rebounds through a distance 1 m
up the inclined, then (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) coefficient of friction between block and inclined is 0.5.
(B) coefficient of friction between block and inclined is 0.75 370
(C) value of spring constant is 1000 N/m
(D) value of spring constant is 2000 N/m

12. A disc is given an initial angular velocity 0 and placed on rough


horizontal surface as shown. The quantities which will not depend
on the coefficient of friction is/ are
(A) The time until rolling begins
(B) The displacement of centre of mass of the disc until rolling begins
(C) The velocity when rolling begins
(D) Angular velocity when rolling begins

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 30 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.

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14. Three points masses A, B, C each having mass m are kept on the x-axis at the points
(0, 0), (a, 0) and (2a, 0) respectively. Initially, they are all at rest. They start moving due
to the gravitational force between themselves. Then the instantaneous acceleration of
1 Gm
the centre of mass of the system consisting of (B + C) will be
n a2

15. A long uniform rod of length L, mass M is free to rotate in a


y
horizontal plane about a vertical axis through its end. Two 
springs of constant K each are connected as shown. On L/2 L/2
equilibrium, the rod was horizontal. The frequency of
1 nK K K
oscillation will be
2 M

16. In the figure shown, the heavy cylinder (radius R) resting on a


smooth surface separates two liquids of densities 2 and 3. h 2 3
The height h for the equilibrium of cylinder must be R R

17. The power of sound from the speaker of a radio is 20 mW. By turning the knob of
volume control the power of sound is increased to 60 mW. What is the power increase
as compared to the original power?

18. A body of mass 1 kg is suspended from a massless spring having force constant 600
N/m. Another body of mass 0.5 kg moving vertically upwards hits the suspended body
with a velocity 3 m/sec and gets embedded in it. The frequency of oscillation (in Hz) is

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. 4NH3  3 O2   2N2  6H2 O


If molecular weights of NH3 and N2 are M1 and M2 respectively, and their equivalent
weights are E1 and E2 respectively, then (M1 – M2) is equal to
(A) 3E1 – 6E2
(B) 3E1 – 3E2
(C) 6E1 – 6E2
(D) 6E1 – 3E2

20. Which is the correct relationship between three bond angles given below;
O O O

P P P
1 2 3
Cl Cl Br Br F F
Cl Br F
(A) 1  2  3
(B) 1  3  2
(C) 3  1  2
(D) 1  2  3

21. How many radial nodes is/are associated with the orbital of sodium that contains one
valence electron?
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three

22. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of
lowest frequency is
(A) n = 1 to n = 2
(B) n = 3 to n = 4
(C) n = 2 to n = 1
(D) n = 4 to n = 3

23. Which of the following molecule has non-zero dipole moment?


(A) PF2Cl3
(B) PCl2Br3
(C) PCl2F3
(D) PF2Br3

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24. A solution of HCl is diluted so that its pH changes by 0.3. How does concentration of H+
ion change?
(A) 0.5 times of initial value
(B) 0.3 times of initial value
(C) 10–3 times increases
(D) None of these

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Which of the following expression(s) of ionization energy of magnesium is/are correct?
(A) I.E2 > I.E1
(B) I.E3 >> I.E1
(C) I.E3 – I.E1 > I.E2 – I.E1
(D) I.E1 > I.E2 > I.E3

26. CO2 is isostructural with


(A) HgCl2
(B) C2H2
(C) SnCl2
(D) NO2

27. In which species nitrogen atom show(s) more than one oxidation state?
(A) NH4NO3
(B) (NH4)N3
(C) (NH4)3N
(D) NH4NO2

28. Which of the following substance(s) can decompose O 3?


(A) CF2Cl2
(B) CF4
(C) NO
(D) CO2

29. Which of the following carbonium ion(s) is/are more stable than CH2

(A) (B)
CH2 CH - CH3

(C) (D)
CH - CH3

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30. Aluminum metal is not corroded when exposed to atmosphere because of formation of
which compounds on it’s surface?
(A) Al2O3
(B) Al(OH)3
(C) Al2(CO3)3
(D) Al2S3

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. 8 g of 51.2 g
Helium of SO2
V = 10 L V = 10 L
If the ratio of relative rates of effusion of the gases from the vessels is x : y, what is
(x + y)?

32. 

A  g   2B  g  
 C  g
The equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C gases are 4 mol L–1 each. The reaction is
carried out in an one litre container. How many moles of (A) should be added at
equilibrium so that the concentration of ‘C’ will be 5 M at the new equilibrium.

33. NaOH pellets and gas(P) react in 1 : 1 molar ratio to produce a solid(Q). Reaction of (Q)
with NaOH produces(R). Reaction of (R) with chlorine produces NaCl, NaOCl and CO 2.
If molar mass of (Q) is x g mol–1 and molar mass of (P) is y g mol–1, then (x - y) is

34. The half-life of a first order reaction R  P is 4.2 minutes. If the fraction of reactant
remains unreacted after 16.8 minutes from the start of reaction is expressed as x : y,
then (x + y) is
[1 mole of reactant is taken for reaction]

35. How many hyperconjugation structure(s) is/are possible for the following compound?
CH3
H3C - CH = CH C
C2H5

36. A secondary symmetrical and acyclic alkyl chloride (A) containing five carbon atoms
reacts with sodium metal in presence of dry ether producing a saturated hydrocarbon
(B). (B) forms four monochloro products out of which two chlorides show optical
isomerism. What is the molar mass of (A) in g mol–1 unit?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

37. If a, b, c are unequal and different from 1 such that the points
 a3 a 2  3   b3 b 2  3   c3 c2  3 
 , , ,  and  ,  are collinear, then
 a 1 a 1   b 1 b 1   c 1 c 1 
(A) bc  ca  ab  abc  0
(B) a  b  c  abc
(C) bc  ca  ab  abc
(D) bc  ca  ab  abc  3  a  b  c 

  1
n
38. If 5  2 6  m  f, where n and m are positive integers and 0  f  1, then  f is
1 f
equal to
1
(A)
m
(B) m
1
(C) m
m
1
(D) m
m

8 16 24 128
39. Let S     ........  18 , then
5 65 325 2 1
1088
(A) S
545
545
(B) S
1088
1056
(C) S
545
545
(D) S
1056

2001
1
40. If bn1 
1  bn
for n  1 and b1  b3 , then b
r 1
r
2001
is equal to

(A) 2001
(B) –2001
(C) 0
(D) none of these

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41. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations
cos  xy   x
 is
 tan  xy   y
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6

42. The value of a for which the equation x 3  2ax  2  0 and x 4  2ax 2  1  0 have a
common root is
17
(A)
8
17
(B) 
8
15
(C)
8
15
(D) 
8

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. The value of x satisfying the equation, x  2  2  2  x is:


(A) 2cos10o
(B) 2cos 40o
(C) sin80o cos ec 40o
(D) 2cos80o

44. An equation of the straight line which meets the circle x2  y 2  a2 at points which are at
a distance d from a point A  ,   on the circle is:
(A) 2x  2y  2a2  d2
(B) 2x  2y  2a2  d2
(C) 2x  2y  2a2  d2
(D) 2x  2y  2a2  d2

45. A circle ‘S’ is described on the focal chord of the parabola y 2  4x as diameter. If the
focal chord is inclined at an angle of 45o with axis of x, they which of the following is/are
true?
(A) Radius of the circle is 4
(B) Centre of the circle is (3, 2)
(C) The line x  1  0 touches the circle
(D) The circle x 2  y 2  2x  6y  3  0 is orthogonal to ‘S’

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46. The area of the triangle formed by the lines x  y  0, x  y  0 and any tangents to the
hyperbola x 2  y 2  a2 is A where A can not be equals to
(A) 2a2
(B) 4a2
(C) a2
(D) 3a2

47. The points of intersection of the two ellipses x 2  2y 2  6x  12y  23  0 and


4x 2  2y 2  20x  12y  35  0
8  1 47
(A) lie on a circle centred at  , 3  and of radius
3  3 2
8  47
(B) lie on a circle centered at  ,3  and of radius
3  18
1 47
(C) lie on a circle centred at (8, 9), and of radius
3 3
(D) None of these

1  x  x 
100
If coefficient of x n in 1  x 
101 2
48. is non zero, then n can be of the form
(where n and t are positive integers)
(A) 3t  1
(B) 3t
(C) 3t  2
(D) None of these

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

49. If 1  3  5  .......  p   1  3  5  ......  q  1  3  5  ......  r  where each set of


parentheses contains the sum of consecutive odd integers as shown, the smallest
possible value of p  q  r (where p>6) is k, where (2018.85)k equals to

50. If m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation x 2    


32 x 
3  1  0 and if area of
the triangle formed by the lines y  m1x, y  m2 x, and y  c is a  b  c 2, then the


value of 2019 a2  b2 must be 

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51. The slopes of sides BC, CA, AB of triangle ABC whose orthocentre is origin are –1, –2,
m
–3 respectively. If locus of centroid of triangle ABC is y    x, where m, n are
n
relatively prime then find value of  2021.35 n  m  .

52. If a represents the number of permutations of  x  2 things taken together, b


represents the number of permutations of 11 things taken together out of x things, and c
represents the number of permutations of (x – 11) things taken together so that a = 182
bc, then the value of (1458.36)x =

53. A circle passes through the vertex C of a rectangle ABCD and touches its sides AB and
AD at M and N, respectively. If the distance from C of the line segment MN is equal to 5
units and the area of the rectangle ABCD is S sq. units, then the value of (2020.5)S is

54. Let N denotes the number of all 9 digits numbers if (a) the digits of each number are all
from the set (5, 6, 7, 8, 9) and (b) any digit that appears in the number, repeats at least
three times. Then the value of N is

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 02-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases

Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of


inclination 370 (tan 370 = 3/4). The coefficient of friction between 10kg
block and surface is 0.4. A horizontal force F = 50 N is applied on the F
block, then (g = 10 m/s2)
=0.4
(A) acceleration of block is zero.
(B) acceleration of block is 2.4 m/s2 along the inclined plane. 370
(C) frictional force between block and surface is 44 N.
(D) frictional force between block and surface is 20 N.
2. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The molar heat capacity
of this gas as a function of its volume, V
 R 
(A) is  Cv  if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 eV
 V 
 2R  V
(B) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process T  T0 e
  V 
 R  V
(C) is  Cv   if the gas undergoes the process P  P0 e
 (1  V) 
 R 
(D) is  Cv  if the gas undergoes process P  P0 eV
 V 

3. A metallic circular disc having a circular hole at its centre rotates about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. When the disc is heated:
(A) its speed will decrease
(B) its diameter will decrease
(C) its moment of inertia will increase
(D) its speed will increase
4. A particle is projected at an angle  = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s
then
(A) After 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) At 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s
5. A 10 kg block is resting on a rough horizontal F (N)
surface. A horizontal force F is applied to it for 4s.
The variation of force with time is shown in the 10 kg F 100 N
figure. (µs = µk = 0.5, g = 10 m/s2). Then
(A) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s 4s
(B) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is zero
(C) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 20 m/s
(D) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s

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6. A turning fork is found to give 5 beats in three seconds when sounded in conjunction
with a stretched string vibrating transversely under a tension of either 10.2 kgf or 9.9 kgf,
Then
(A) Frequency of the fork is approximately 224 Hz
(B) Frequency of the fork is approximately 125 Hz
(C) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 10.2 kgf is
approximately 125 Hz
(D) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 9.9 kgf is
approximately 222 Hz

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A stone is projected with initial velocity u  2 2 m / s at an angle  = 450 with the


horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)

8. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces.
It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
separation a. Find the initial velocity (assuming all values in S.I. units) that should be
GM 
given to each particle.  take a 
 16 

9. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is placed


horizontally. A block of mass 1kg is placed as shown. The
co efficient of friction between the block and all surfaces of
a=20 m/s2
2
groove in contact is   . The disc has an acceleration of
5
20 m/s2. Then acceleration of the block w.r.t disc will be in 
nearest integer. ( = 370)

10. A bead is free to slide down on a smooth wire tightly stretched A


between point A and B on a vertical circle of radius 10 m. Find
the time taken (In s) by the bead to reach the point B, if the 
bead slide from rest from the highest point A on the circle.
O

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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4

11. Velocity versus displacement curve of a particle moving in v(m/s)


straight line is shown in the figure. From a point P, a line is
P
drawn perpendicular to displacement axis and line PR is
drawn normal to the curve at P. The magnitude of
acceleration of the particle at point P is (in m/s 2) Q R s(m)
(2, 0) (3, 0)

12. P –V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown, work done P


by the gas in the process ABCD is n P0 V0
C D
2P0

A
P0
B

V
V0 2V0 3V0

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A motor cycle starts form rest and accelerates along a straight path at 25 m/s2. At the
starting point of the motor cycle, there is a stationary electric siren. How far has the
motor cycle gone when the driver hears frequency of siren at 94% of its value when
motor cycle was at rest (Speed of sound = 330 m/s)

x
14. A transverse wave is described by he equation y  y 0 sin  2  ft    . The maximum
   
particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if   ny 0 where n is

15. The centrifugal force per unit mass (F) acting on a satellite in a circular orbit around the
sun satisfies (T : time period of the satellite) F  Tn where n is

16. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross sectional L/3


area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the
forces in the figure. The elongation of the rod is 3F F 2F
nFL
where n is close to
AY

17. A conical flask of mass 11 kg and base area 103 cm2 is


floating in liquid of specific gravity 1.2 as shown in the figure.
The force that liquid exerts on curved surface of conical flask  10cm
is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

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18. The mass collide in air stick together. After how much time m Just dropped
combined mass will fall to the ground (calculate the time from
the starting when the motion was started) (g = 10 m/s2)

20 m
20 m/s

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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. In each option one litre solution containing different quantity of acids, bases and salt are
given. In which option the pH of the solution mixture is/are correct? [log2 = 0.3]
 10 2 mol HCl 
 
(A)  10 2 mol HNO3  pH  1.7
 2 
 10 mol NaCl 
 
 10 M HCl
4 
 
(B)  10 5 M NaNO3  pH  2
 2 
 10 M NaOH 
 
 10 M NaOH 
4
 
(C)  10 4 M KOH  pH  10.3
 3 
 10 M KNO3 
 
 10 6 M H3O 
 
(D)  10 2 M NaCl  pH  6
 4 
 10 M KNO3 
 

20. Which of the following substance(s) form(s) polymers under given processes?
(A) (CH3)2SiCl2 upon hydrolysis
(B) BeCl2 vapour upon solidification
(C) Sodium (Na) metal upon heating
(D) Na2CO3 upon crystallization

21. CH2Cl
NaNH  excess  CH Br  excess 

2
P  
3
 Q 
CH2Cl
The characteristics of compound(Q) is/are
(A) it forms trans-alkene when treated with Na in liquid NH3
(B) it forms cis-alkene when treated with H2/Ni
(C) it forms 2-butanone upon treatment with H2O/HgSO4/H2SO4
(D) it is oxidized to formic acid

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O
22. Which of the following isomer(s) of has/have higher boiling point?
(A) OH

(B) O

(C) O

(D)

OH

23. The product(s) of which of the following reactions form(s) gas(es) when react with
water?
(A) CaC2  N2 
High temperature
(B) CaO  C  
air
(C) Mg  
oxygen
(D) Na  

24. Which of the following compound(s) is/are more reactive than phenol towards
electrophilic substitution reaction with a common electrophile E+ in solvents like
C2H5OC2H5?
(A) ONa (B) NH2

(C) CH3 (D) NO2

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. The characteristic properties of the ionic compound MnF2 are given below:
x = Number of unpaired electrons present in it.
y = Number of p-orbital electrons present in the compound
 y
Find the value of  x  
 8

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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8

26. How many of the following species has bond order equal to 2.

N2 , O2+ +
2 , NO , CN

O 2 , N22 , NO  , NO+2
NO, NΘ2 , O+2 , NO 2+

27. NH4NO3  N2O  2H2O


If the equivalent mass of NH4NO3 in above reaction is expressed as 5y, what is the value
of ‘y’?

28. The vapour density of a gas is 32. How many moles of the gas weighs 128g?

29. How many moles of B2O3 is formed by decomposition of one mole of borax(Na2B4O7)?

30. OH

Conc.H SO

2 4
 Pr oducts
,
If x = Maximum number of exocyclic products
y = Maximum number of 1, 2-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
& z = Maximum number of 1, 6-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
What is (x + y + z)?

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. A  g   2B  g   C  g 
Following data are given for above reaction
Expt [A]0 in mol L–1 [B]0 in mol L–1 Rate in mol L–1 s–1
1. 0.2 0.2 4  10–6
2. 0.4 0.4 8  10–6
3. 0.4 0.8 8  10–6
4. 0.8 0.4 16  10–6
If the rate constant of the reaction is expressed as (y  10–6) in proper unit. What is ‘y’?

32. What is the pH of 100 mL of an aqueous solution containing 0.01 mole of CH3COO– and
0.01 moles of Cl– ion?
[pka of CH3COOH = 4.78]

33. How many geometrical isomer(s) is/are possible for the given diene?
C2H5CH = CH – CH = CHC2H5

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B H ,THF
34. CH3CH  CH2 
2 6
NaOH,H O
Product
2 2

What is the molar mass of the organic product of above reaction?

35. The solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble base M(OH)2 is 32  10–12. What is
the pH of the saturated solution of the base?
[log2 = 0.3]

36. Siderite is an ore of iron. It contains FeCO3 with impurities. How much gram of pure
FeCO3 should be added to 200 mL of 0.4 M acidified KMnO4 solution in order to
decolourize it completely?
[At. Wt of Fe = 56]
MnO4  Fe2  H  Mn2  Fe3   H2O

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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. Which of the following expansions will not have term containing x 3 ?
25
 1 3
(A)  x  2x 5 
5
 
 
24
 3  
1
(B)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 
23
 3  
1
(C)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 
22
 3  
1
(D)  x  2x 
5 5
 
 

1 1
38. A solution (x, y) of the system of equations x  y  and cos2 ( x)  sin2 ( y)  is given
3 2
by :
7 5 
(A)  , 
6 6 
2 1
(B)  , 
3 3 
 5 7
(C)  ,  
 6 6
13 11
(D)  , 
6 6

A B C
39. If in the triangle ABC, tan , tan and tan are in harmonic progression, then the
2 2 2
B
least value of cot is M where M can not be equals to
2
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5

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40. All the chords of the hyperbola 3x 2  y 2  2x  4y  0 subtending a right angle at the
origin pass through the fixed point (h, k). Which of the following do not represent (h, k)
(A) (1, –2)
(B) (–1, 2)
(C) (1, 2)
(D) (–1, –2)

1  nz   1   
c n
41. If 1  c 2  nc  1 and z  ei , then
2n  z
(A) 1  c cos 

(B) 2c cos2  1  c 
2
(C) 1  2c cos 

(D) 2c cos2  1  c 
2

42. If ,  are the roots of the equation 375 x2  25x  2  0 and Sn  n  n , then
n
Lt  Sr is A where A can not be equals to
n
r 1
7
(A)
12
1
(B)
12
35
(C)
12
5
(D)
12
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. If x,y  0,10 , then the number of solutions (x, y) of the inequation
2
x 1
3sec 9y 2  6y  2  1 equals to

4  3i
44. The reflection of the complex number , in the straight line iz  z is x + iy where
1  2i
3x + y equals to

45. Let a, b, c be distinct positive numbers such that each of the quadratics
2
ax 2  bx  c, bx 2  cx  a and cx  ax  b is non – negative for all x  R . If
2 2 2
a b c
R , then number of integral values of R is
ab  bc  ca

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46. If p(x) = ax2 + bx and q(x) = lx2 + mx + n with p(1) = q(1), p(2) – q(2) = 1, and p(3) – q(3)
= 4, then p(4) – q(4) is equal to

47. The number of integral solutions of x  y  z  29 such that x  0, y  1, z  2 , having


four digits in the form of abcd, then a + b =

48. From a point P on the normal y  x  c of the circle x 2  y 2  2x  4y  5   2  0, two


tangents are drawn to the same circle touching it at points B and C. If the area of the
quadrilateral OBPC (where O is the centre of the circle) is 36 sq. units, then the possible
positive value of , if it is given that the point P is at a distance of   
2  1 from the
circle, is

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

1
49. The orbit of the earth is an ellipse with eccentricity with the sun at one focus, the
60
major axis being approximately 186  106 miles in length. If the shortest and longest
distance of the earth from the sun is m and M then M  m   104 equals to

50. How many numbers greater than 0 and less than a million can be formed with the digits
from 0 to 9, whose sum of digits equals to 18.

 x  1
  y  2  1 and  x  7    y  10   4 increases
2 2 2 2
51. Let the radii of the circles
uniformly by 0.3 unit/sec and 0.4 unit/sec respectively with respect to time. If t1 and t 2
are the time when they touch externally and internally respectively, then the value of
t
(235.79) 2 is ________
t1

52. The points on the axis of the parabola 3y 2  4y  6x  8  0 from where 3 distinct
 2
normals can be drawn is given by  a,   where the least integral value of a is k, then
 3
(1079.5)k equals to

1 1 P
53. For x  1,   , if P  x 3  3
and Q  x  , If the minimum value of 2 equals to M,
x x Q
then 105 3 M equals to

54. If the point of concurrency of the lines ax  by  c  0 , where a, b, c satisfy the relation
3a  2b  4c  0 is (x, y) then (x + y) equals to

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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST DATE: 28-02-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 Questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. A table is rotating about its axis with angular speed 5 rev/sec. A source of sound of frequency
1
1000 sec is fixed on the table at a distance 0.70 m from the axis. What are the maximum and
minimum frequency heard by listener at rest at a certain distance from the table? The speed of
sound at room temperature is 352 m/s.
(A) 966 Hz, 941 Hz
(B) 1250 Hz, 1052 Hz
(C) 1000 Hz, 960 Hz
(D) 1066 Hz, 941 Hz

2. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is 105 cm. Where should the two
bridges be placed so that the fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the ratio of
1: 3 :15 .
(A) 75 cm, 25 cm,
(B) 25 cm, 75 cm,
(C) 75 cm, 100 cm,
(D) None of these

3. Two identical sonometer wires have fundamental frequencies of 500 vibration/sec, when kept
under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wire would cause an
occurrence of 5 beats per second. When both wires vibrate together?
(A) 1.020
(B) 1.20
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.020

4. n1 and n 2 moles of two ideal gases of thermodynamics constant  1 and  2 respectively are
C
mixed, P for the mixture is –
CV
1   2
(A)
2
n1 1  n2 2
(B)
n1  n2
n1 2  n2 1
(C)
n1  n2
n1 1   2  1  n2 2   1  1
(D)
n1   2  1  n2   1  1

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5. A lump of 0.10 kg of ice at – 10  C is put in 0.15 kg of water at 20  C. How much ice will be found in
the mixture when it has reached in thermal equilibrium (specific heat of ice = 0.50 kcal/kg while its
latent heat 80 kcal/kg.)
(A) 68.75 gm
(B) 181.25 gm
(C) 90.75 gm
(D) 145.25 gm
6. A piston weighing W = 3 kg has the form of a circular disc of radius R = 4 cm.
The disc has a hole into which a thin - walled pipe of radius r = 1 cm in
inserted. Initially the piston is at the bottom of the cylinder. What height will h
the piston rise to if m = 700 g of water is poured into the pipe?
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 20 cm H
(D) 12 cm

7. Water rises in a capillary tube upto a height of 10 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by 3.42 cm. If
the angle of contact and density of mercury are 135 and 13.6 gm/cc respectively then find the
ratio of the surface tensions of water and mercury.
(A) 1/7
(B) 5/26
(C) 3/14
(D) 2/13
8. A heavy plank of mass 100 kg hangs on three vertical wires of equal
length arranged symmetrically (see fig.). Find the tension in the steel
wire. All the wires have the same cross-section. Take the modulus of copper steel copper
elasticity of steel to be double that of copper (g= 10 ms -2).
(A) Zero
(B) 250 N
(C) 500 N A B C
(D) 1000 N
9. An elastic string of natural length  meters is extended by a mass m kg suspended from it. Find
the length of the string when with its weight it makes n revolutions per second as a conical
pendulum.
(A) 4 π2 n 2 a 2
(B) g-5 2 n 2 a
g
(C)
g-4 2 n 2 a
(D) g  4 2 n 2 a
10. Periodic time of oscillation T1 is obtained when a mass is suspended from a spring if
another spring is used with same mass then periodic time of oscillation is T2 . Now if k1
this mass is suspended from series combination of above springs then time period m
will be-
(A) T12  T22
k2
(B) T1  T2
m
(C) T12 T22
(D) T12  T22

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11. For a simple pendulum, graph between velocity (v) & displacement (x) is-
(A) Parabolic
(B) Circular
(C) Elliptical
(D) Straight line

12. Four particles, each of mass m, are placed at the corners of square and moving along a circle of
radius r under the influence of mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be -
Gm
(A) (2 2 + 1)
r
Gm
(B)
r
Gm  2 2  1 
(C)
r  4 

2 2Gm
(D)
r

13. Select the correct choice: mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal 2m


table. Two point masses m and 2m moving in the same
v 3a
horizontal plane with speeds 2v and v respectively strike the
C
bar as shown in figure and stick the bar after collision.
Denoting angular velocity (about the centre of mass,) total 2v
a 2a
energy and centre of mass velocity by  , E and m
vc respectively, we have after collision %
(A) vc  0
(B)   2v/5a
(C)   v/6a
(D) E = 3mv2

14. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively their
centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be
projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 ( M1  M 2 )
d
G
(B) ( M1  M 2 )
d
G
(C) ( M1  M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2

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15. An ideal massless spring can be compressed 2 metre by a force of 200N. This spring is placed at
the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane which makes an angle θ=30° with the horizontal. A 20
kg mass is released from rest at the top of the inclined plane and is brought to rest momentarily
after compressing the spring 4 metre. Through what distance does the mass slide before coming
to rest?
(A) 4.17 m
(B) 1.00 m
(C) 8.17 m
(D) 2.17 m

16. A certain physical quantity is calculated from the formula (a2 – b2) h, where h, a and b are all
3
length. The quantity being calculated can be-
(A) Velocity
(B) Length
(C) Area
(D) Volume
2
17. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10 m/s .
The fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up.
(a) The maximum height reached.
(b) After how much time from then will the maximum height be reached?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 36km, 1 min
(B) 6km, 1 min
(C) 36km, 1 sec
(D) 36 km, 1 sec
18. Two boats A and B move away from a buoy anchored at the middle of a river along
mutually perpendicular straight line. The boat A moves along the stream and the boat B across
the river. After moving off an equal distance of 500 metre from the buoy both the boats returned
to their original position. The ratio of the time taken by boat A to that taken by boat B if the
velocity of each boat with respect to water is 20 m/s and the stream velocity is 10 m/s, will be-
(A) 2: 3
(B) 3:2
(C) 4: 3
(D) 3:4
19. The semi-major axes of the orbits of Mercury and Mars are respectively 0.387 and 1.524 in
astronomical units. If the period of Mercury is 0.241 year, what is the period of Mars?
(A) 1.2 years
(B) 3.2 years
(C) 3.9 years
(D) 1.9 years

20 Three liquids having densities 1 ,  2 and 3 are filled in a U-tube. Atmoshpere Atmoshpere
Length of each liquid column is equal to  . 1   2   3 and liquids
remain at rest (relative to the tube) in the position shown in figure. It is
possible that: 3
 1 
(A) U-tube is accelerating leftwards
2
(B) U-tube is accelerating upwards with acceleration g
(C) U-tube is moving with a constant velocity 
(D) None of these

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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

21. A hot body placed in air cooled down according to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of decrease
of temperature being k times the temperature difference from the surrounding. Starting from t = 0,
ln 2
the time in which the body will lose half the maximum heat it can lose is find the value of k
4

22. Length of a horizontal arm of a U-tube is l = 21cm and ends of both


of the vertical arms are open to surroundings of pressure
2 3 3
10500 Nm . A liquid of density   10 kg m is poured into the

a = 6 cm
tube such that liquid just fills horizontal part of the tube. Now, one of
the open ends is sealed and the tube is then rotated about a
vertical axis passing through the other vertical arm with angular
velocity  0  10 radians/sec. If length of each vertical arm be a = 6
cm, calculate the length (in cm) of air column in the sealed arm.  = 21 cm

23. The difference between the apparent frequency of a source of sound as perceived by an observer
during its approach and recession is 2% of the natural frequency of the source. Find the velocity
(in m/s) of the source. Take the velocity of sound as 350 m/s.

24. Three moles of an ideal gas at 300K are isothermally expanded to five times its volume and
heated at this constant volume so that the pressure is raised to its initial value before expansion.
In the whole process 83.14 KJ heat is required. Calculate the ratio CP/CV of the gas. loge5 = 1.61
and R = 8.3 Joules/mole –K.

25. A solid sphere of mass m = 2 kg and specific gravity s = 0.5 is held


stationary relative to a tank filled with water as shown in figure. The tank is
2
accelerating vertically upward with acceleration a = 2 ms . If the thread
2
snaps, calculate acceleration (in ms ) of sphere with respect to the tank.
3
(density of water is  = 1000 kg m )
2
(g = 10 ms )

26. When the speed of a body is increased by 100% the K.E. of the body is increased by

27. Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2 ( m1  2 m2 ) are moving in circular orbits of radii r1
and r2 ( r1  4 r2 ) respectively, around the earth. If their periods are TA and TB , then the ratio
TA / TB is

28. Two particles P and Q describe simple harmonic motions of same period, same amplitude, along
the same line about the same equilibrium position O. When P and Q are on opposite sides of O at
the same distance from O they have the same speed of 1.2 m/s in the same directions. When
they cross their speed is 1.6 m/sec. The maximum velocity in m/s of either particle is

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29. A non-viscous liquid of constant density 103 kg/m3 flows in streamline


motion along a vertical tube PQ of variable cross-section. Height of
P and Q are 2m and 2.5m respectively. Area of tube at Q= 3 times
area of tube at P. Find the work done per unit volume (in J/m3 )by
pressure as liquid flows from P to Q. Speed of liquid at P is 3 m/s
(g =10 m/s2):

30. A boy throws a table tennis ball of mass 20 g upward with a velocity u0 = 10 m/s at an angle 0
with the vertical. The wind imparts a horizontal force of 0.08 N, so that the ball returns to the
starting point then, the angle 0 must be such that, tan 0 is

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31. Phosphorous pentachloride when heated in a sealed tube at 700 K it undergoes decomposition
as:
 PCl3  g   Cl2  g  , K p  38 atm
PCl5  g  
The value of Kp increases on increasing the temperature, the reaction is?
(A) Endothermic
(B) Exothermic
(C) May be endothermic or exothermic
(D) Unpredictable

32. For the equations


C  diamond  +2H 2  g  
 CH 4  g  ΔH1
C  g  +4H  g  
 CH 4  g  ΔH 2
Predict whether
(A) H1  H 2
(B) H1  H 2
(C) H1  H 2
(D) ΔH1 =ΔH 2 +Δ vap H  C  +Δ diss H  H 2 

33. When CaCO3 is heated to a high temperature, it undergoes decomposition into CaO and
CO 2 whereas it is quite stable at room temperature. The most likely explanation of it is:
(A) The enthalpy of reaction  ΔH  overweighs the term T S at high temperature.
(B) The term T S overweighs the enthalpy of reaction at high temperature.
(C) At high temperature, both enthalpy of reaction and entropy change become negative.
(D) None of these

34. Which is correct statement, in case of Hund’s rule?


(A) It states that if more than one atomic orbital of the same energy is available, electrons will
occupy different atomic orbitals with parallel spins, as far as possible, in the configuration
of lowest energy.
(B) Total energy of many electron atom with more than one electron occupying a set of
degenerate orbitals is lowest, if as far as possible, electrons occupy different atomic
orbitals and have parallel spins.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

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35. A Geigger Muller counter is used to study the radioactive process. In the absence of radioactive
substance A, it counts 3 disintegration per second (dps). At the start in the presence of A, it
records 23 dps; and after 10 min 13 dps. What does it count after 20 min?
(A) 8dps
(B) 6dps
(C) 7 dps
(D) 5dps

36. The decreasing order of basic characters of the following compounds is:

NH 2

NH2
NH


N N

H
I  II   III   IV 
(A) III>I>IV>II
(B) II>I>IV>III
(C) IV>III>II>I
(D) I>II>III>IV

37. The solubility of solid silver chromate, Ag 2CrO4 , is determined in three solvents.
(I) Pure water
(II) 0.1M AgNO3
(III) 0.1M Na 2CrO4
Predict the relative solubility of Ag 2CrO 4 in the three solvents. ( K sp of Ag 2 CrO 4  9  10 12 )
(A) I=II=III
(B) I<II<III
(C) II=III<I
(D) II<III<I
38. Which of the following are resolvable?
(A) CH3 (B) OH
CH(Me)
H
OH

(C) H CH3 (D) All of these

CH
CH3 3 H H

H CH3

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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 10

39. The major product ‘A’ in the above reaction is?

MeO  1 H+

 2  Br2 , FeBr3
 'A'
OH

(A) (B) MeO


Br
MeO

Br
Br

(C) MeO (D)

O
Br
H3C CH3
Br

40. Which of the following reaction would produce racemic mixture as the product?
(A) Br (B) Cl

HCl
Br2 Br   

CCl4

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

41. Which of the following reactions is NOT disproprotionation reaction?


(A) Cl 2 +2OH    Cl   ClO   H 2 O
(B)  Cu  Cu 2   4Cl   2 H 
2HCuCl 2 
(C) HCHO+OH  
 CH 3OH+HCOO 
(D) MgCO 3 
 MgO+CO 2

42. Sc 2Si 2O7 is an example of:


(A) Pyrosilicate
(B) Linear chain silicate
(C) Sheet silicate
(D) Ortho silicate

43. Which of the following is not the method of preparation of diborane?


(A) BF3 +LiAlH 4
(B) NaBH 4 +I 2
(C) B2O3 +CaF2 +H 2SO 4
silent electric
(D) BCl3 +H2 
discharge

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44. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?


(A) BeCl2  s  dimer contains 3c  4e bond.
(B) BeH 2  s  exists in polymeric chain with non-planar rings joined together.
(C) H 2 contains one electron in antibonding molecular orbital.
(D) H +2 contains 2c-2e bond.

45. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following species is the most likely to exist?
(A) H 2+
2

(B) N 2+
2

(C) Be 2
(D) O 2+
2

46. Consider the following statements:


+
(I) Cs ion is most hydrated than other alkali metal ions.
(II) Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, Li has the highest melting point.
(III) Among the alkali metals, only Li form a stable nitride by direct combination.
(A) (I) and (III) are correct.
(B) (II) and (III) are correct.
(C) (I), (II), and (III) are correct.
(D) (I) and (II) are correct.

47. At a certain temperature and 2 atm pressures equilibrium constant K p   is 25 for the reaction
 SO3  g  +NO  g 
SO2  g  +NO2  g  
Initially if we take 2 moles of each of the four gases and 2 moles of inert gas, what would be the
equilibrium partial pressure of NO2 ?
(A) 1.33atm
(B) 0.1665atm
(C) 0.133atm
(D) None of these

40% yield
48. H 2 O 2 +2KI   I 2 +2KOH
50% yield
H 2 O 2 +2KMnO 4 +3H 2SO 4   K 2SO 4 +2MnSO 4 +3O 2 +4H 2 O
150 mL of H 2O 2 sample was divided into two parts. First part was treated with KI and formed
KOH required 200 mL of M/2 H 2SO 4 for neutralisation. Other part was treated with KMnO4
yielding 6.72 litre of O 2 at 1 atm, and 273 K. Using % yield indicated find volume strength of
H 2O 2 sample used:
(A) 5.04
(B) 10.08
(C) 3.36
(D) 33.6

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49. The first ionization energy of Na, Mg , Al and Si are in the order:
(A) Na  Mg  Al  Si
(B) Na  Mg  Al  Si
(C) Na  Mg  Al  Si
(D) Na  Mg  Al  Si

50. Which of the following will has least enol content?


(A) O O (B) O O

(C) O (D) O

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

51. Degree of unsaturation in the compound B is:


Br
 1 t  BuOK / t  BuOH 1 Hg  OAc  ,

 2  mCPBA 'A' 
 2  NaBH 4
2
 'B'
 
3
 
Ph 

MgBr
4 H  workup
 alcohol 

52. Find the number of molecule(s) which is/are bent in shape:


XeF2 , BF2 , SF2 , H 2O , SnCl2 , I 3 , I 3

53. Following is the graph between log t1/2 and log a ( a initial concentration) for a given reaction
at 27°C .

45°
log t1/2

log a
Find the order of reaction.

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54. If 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled from 273ºC to 0ºC, keeping the volume
constant, its pressure (in atm) would become

55. A 10 g mixture of NaHCO3 and KOH is dissolved in water to make 1000 mL solution.
100 mL of this solution required 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl for complete neutralisation in the presence
of phenolphthalein as indicator. What is the percentage of NaHCO3 in the mixture?

56. If a reaction A + B  C is exothermic to the extent of 30 kJ/ mol and the forward reaction has
an activation energy of 70 kJ/mol. The activation energy (in kJ/mol) of reverse reaction is_____

57. What is the value of a+b+c+d+e in balanced chemical equation given below
a P4 + b NaOH + c H2O  d PH3 + e NaH2PO2

58. What is the hardness (in terms of ppm of CaCO3) of a sample of water containing 10.8 mg of
MgSO4(mol. Mass 120) per kg of water?

59. What is the degree of unsaturation in the following compound?


CN

OH
OHC

60. What is the heat of formation (in kJ, magnitude) of 2.8 mol. of SO2 from its elements, sulphur and
oxygen?
3
S  s   O2  g    SO3  g  H   395.2 kJ / mol.
2
2SO2  g   O2  g  
 2 SO3  g  H   198.2 kJ / mol

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

z z
61. The number of complex number z satisfying the conditions   1, z  1 and
z z
arg  z  0, 2  is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8

62. Let   1 and  13  1 . If a     3   4   4   3   1 and


b   2   5   6   6   5   2 , then the quadratic equation, whose roots are
a and b is:
(A) x2  x  3  0
(B) x2  x  4  0
(C) x2  x  3  0
(D) x2  x  4  0

3 1 1  1
63. The number of rational value of x satisfying the equation x  3
 x2  2  6  x    7  0
x x  x
is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
4 2
64. The set of values of a for which the equation sin x   a  2  sin x   a  3   0 possesses
solution, is:
(A)  , 3
(B)  2,  
(C)  3,  2 
(D)  0, 
3k  3
65. The remainder when 3  26k  27 is divided by 276 is (where k  2 )
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 13
(D) 27

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66. Six different letters are placed in boxes of the figure as shown below such that no row is empty.
(In each box, only letter can be placed).

The number of such arrangements is


(A) 2920
(B) 6480
(C) 8640
(D) 10800

1 1 1 1 1
67. The sum of the infinite series      .... upto infinity is:
15 35 63 99 143
1
(A)
6
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
3
1
(D)
2

p q r
68. If , , are in H.P. then:
q  r  2 p r  p  2q p  q  2r
(A) p, q, r are in AP
(B) p, q, r are in GP
(C) p, q, r are in HP
(D) q  pr

69. A rectangle PQRS joins the points P, Q, R, S. Co-ordinates of P and R be (2, 3) and (8, 11)
respectively. The line QS is known to be parallel to the y-axis. Then coordinates of Q and S are:
(A)  0, 7  and 10, 7 
(B)  5, 2  and  5,12 
(C)  7, 6  and  7,10 
(D)  7, 2  and  7,12 

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70. The orthocenter of the triangle formed by pair of lines 3 x 2  5 y 2  8 xy  5 x  7 y  2  0 and


x  y  0 is:
1 1
(A)  , 
2 2
 2 1
(B)  , 
 3 3
1 1
(C)  , 
3 3
(D)  1,1
71. If the two feet of normals drawn from a point to be parabola x 2  6 x  4 y  5  0 be  7,3 and
 1,3 , then the third foot is:
(A) 1, 0 
(B)  3,8 
(C)  3,  1
(D)  5, 0 
72. Consider an ellipse with centre at the origin. From an arbitrary point P on the ellipse,
perpendiculars PA are PB are dropped on the axes of the ellipse. Then the locus of the point O
that divides AB in the fixed ratio m:n may be:
(A) Pair of straight lines
(B) An ellipse
(C) A hyperbola
(D) Parabola

73. Let ABC be a triangle whose vertices are A  5, 5  and B  7,  1 . If vertex C lies on the circle
2
whose director circle has equation x  y 2  100 , then the locus of orthocenter of ABC is:
(A) x 2  y 2  4 x  8 y  30  0
(B) x 2  y 2  4 x  8 y  30  0
(C) x 2  y 2  4 x  8 y  30  0
(D) x2  y2  4x  8 y  0

74. Let A, B, C be three points on a straight line such that B lying between A and C. Consider all
circles passing through B and C. The points of contact of the tangents from A to these circles lie
on:
(A) A straight line
(B) A parabola
(C) A circle
(D) Ellipse

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2 2
75. The four sides of a quadrilateral are given by equation  xy  12  4 x  4 y    2 x  2 y  . The

equation of a line with slope 3 which divides area of quadrilateral in two equal parts is:
(A) y  3  x  4
(B) y  3x  4
(C) y  3  x  4  4
(D) y  3  x  4

x2 y 2
76. From any point P on the hyperbola   1 , tangents are drawn to the hyperbola
9 4
x2 y 2
  1 . The area cut-off by the chord of contact and the asymptotes of the first hyperbola:
18 8
(A) Depends only on abscissa of the point P
(B) Depends only on ordinate of point P
(C) Is 48 sq. unit
(D) Is 24 sq. unit

77. Tangents a drawn from  ,   to the hyperbola 3 x 2  2 y 2  6 and are inclined at angles 1 , 2
to the positive x-axis. If tan 1 , tan  2  2, then value of  2 2   2  is equal to:
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 5
(D) 6
2
78. Line y  x  2 is a tangent to the parabola y  8 x . Let M be the point on this line from where
other tangent is drawn which is perpendicular to this tangent. The distance of M from

N 1, 2 2 is: 
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5
79. The number of points with integral coordinates that lie in the interior of the region common to be
circle x 2  y 2  16 and the parabola y 2  4 x is:
(A) 10
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 13

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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 18

2 2
80. Given a circle  x  4    y  2   25 . Another circle is drawn passing through  4, 2  and
touching the given circle internally at the point A  4, 7  , AB is the chord of length 8 units of the
larger circle intersecting the other circle at the point C. Then AC will be:
(A) 4 units
(B) 17 units
(C) 5 units
(D) 3 units

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
2
81. If tan A and tan B are the roots of the quadratic equation, 4 x  7 x  1  0 then evaluate
4sin 2  A  B   7 sin  A  B  .cos  A  B   cos 2  A  B  .

82. A1 A2 A3.......A18 is a regular 18 sided polygon, B is an external point such that A1 A2 B is as


equilateral triangle. If A18 A1 and A1 B are adjacent sides of a regular n sided polygon, then n  .

83. The 10th common term between the series 3  7  11  ...... and 1  6  11  ....... is_____

84. An observer on the top of a cliff 200m above the sea level, observes the angles of depressions of
two ships on the opposite sides of the cliff to be 45 and 30 respectively. The distance between
the ships if the line joining them points to the base of the cliff is_______

13 13  23 13  2 3  33
85. The sum of the series    .... upto 16 terms is____
1 1 3 1 3  5

86. If the normal to the curve x  t  1, y  3t 2  6 at the point 1, 6  make intercepts a and b on x
a + 12b
and y-axes respectively, then the value of is ______
100
2n
i  Hi  Hi 1   4 
87. If H1 , H 2 , H 3 ,...., H 2n+1 are in H.P., then  (1)  H  H
i1 i
 is equal to 
i 1   7
 n , then  is equal

to

88. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls:
n n
1  1  4 x  1   1  4 x  1   5
89. If        a0  a1 x  ....  a5 x , then the value of n is:
4 x  1  2   2  

90. The number of non-negative integral solutions of 3x+y+z=24, is

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 06-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The displacement time graph for a one dimensional motion of a

Displacement, (m) 
particle is shown in figure. Then the instantaneous velocity at t = 20 2
sec is –
(A) –0.05 m/s
1
(B) –0.1 m/s
(C) 0.1 m/s
(D) 1.0 m/s 0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Time, sec 

2. Two guns are pointed at each other one upwards at an angle of elevation of
30º and other at the same angle of depression, the muzzle being 30 m
apart. If the charges leave the gun with velocities of 350 m/s and 300 m/s 30
respectively. Find when will they meet?

30°
(A) 3/65 sec
(B) 5/65 sec
(C) 3/95 sec
(D) 3 /15 sec

3. A force - time graph for the motion of a body is shown in


figure. Change in linear momentum between 0 and 8 s F
+2
is – (in N)
0 2 6 8
4

–2
t in s
(A) 10 N-s
(B) 4 N-s
(C) 8 N-s
(D) zero

4. In the given arrangement, n number of equal masses are n 4 3 2 1


connected by strings of negligible masses. The tension in m ….. m m m m
the string connected to nth mass is–
M

mMg
(A)
nm  M
mMg
(B)
nM  m
(C) mg
(D) mng

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5. All pulleys and strings shown in figure are light and there 0.5 8kg 6kg
0.4
is no friction in any string and pulley. The acceleration of
hanging block if mass of hanging block is 9 kg -

m
9
(A) m/s2
31
10
(B) m/s2
31
10
(C) m/s2
41
11
(D) m/s2
32

6. A rigid body is made of three identical thin rods, each of length L fastened together in the form of
the letter H. The body is free to rotate about a horizontal axis that runs along the length of one of
the legs of the H. The body is allowed to fall from rest from a position in which the plane of the H
is horizontal. What is the angular speed of the body when the plane of H is vertical?
5 g
(A)
2 L
3 g
(B)
2 L
g
(C)
L
(D) None of these

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. A uniform rod of 8m and length 6a lies on a smooth horizontal 2m


table. Two point masses m and 2m moving in the same
v 3a
horizontal plane with speeds 2v and v respectively strike the bar
C
as shown in figure and stick the bar after collision. Denoting
angular velocity (about the centre of mass,) total energy and 2v
a 2a
centre of mass velocity by E and vc respectively after m
collision, mark the correct options.
(A) vc = 0
(B)  = 3v /5a,
(C)  = v/5ª
(D) E = 3mv2 /5

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4

8. Figure shows two cylinders of radii r1 and r2 having moments


1 2
of inertia I1 and I2 about their respective axes. Initially, the
cylinders rotate about their axes with angular speeds 1 and r1 I1 r2 I2
2 as shown in the figure. The cylinders are moved closer to
touch each other keeping the axes parallel. The cylinders first
slip over each other at the contact but the slipping finally
ceases due to the friction between them. The angular speeds
of the cylinders after the slipping ceases become '1 and '2
respectively. Then mark the correct options.
I  r I  r
(A) '1 = 1 1 22 2 22 1 r2
I 2 r1  I1 r2
I1 1 r2  I 2 2 r1
(B) '1 = r1
I 2 r12  I1 r22
I1 1 r2  I 2  2 r1
(C) '2 = r2
I 2 r12  I1 r22
I1 1 r2  I 2  2 r1
(D) '2 = r1
I 2 r12  I1 r22

9. A heavy plank of mass 102.5 kg is placed over two F


cylindrical rollers of radii R = 10 cm and r = 5 cm. Mass of
rollers is 40 kg and 20 kg respectively. Plank is pulled 10cm
towards right by applying a horizontal force F = 25 N as
shown in fig. During first second of motion the plank gets
displaced by 10 cm.
If plank remains horizontal and slipping does not take place, calculate magnitude and direction of
force of friction acting between.
(A) The magnitude of force of friction between the plank and bigger roller is 1.5 N.
(B) The magnitude of force of friction between the plank and smaller roller is 1.5 N.
(C) The magnitude of force of friction between bigger roller and the floor, and is 1 N.
(D) None of these

10. In the position 1 (figure) the spring of constant K is undeformed. F



2
A force F (which is always directed along the tangent to the a
smooth hemi spherical surface) is applied on the small block of 0
a 1
mass m to shift it from the position 1 to position 2. The
magnitude of force is varied such that the black moves slowly.

 KR 2  0 2
(A) Work done by the force F is mgR sin  +
2
(B) Potential energy stored in the spring increases during consequent motion.
(C) Gravitational potential energy of the block + earth system increases during consequent
motion.

(D) Work done by the force F is mgR sin  + KR 2 0 2

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11. A stone with weight W is thrown vertically upward in the air with initial speed v o. If a constant
force F due to air drag acts on the stone throughout its flight:
v02
(A) The maximum height reached by the stone is : h =
 F
g 1  
 W
1/2
W  F 
(B) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v = v 0  
W  F 
v 02
(C) The maximum height reached by the stone is : h =
 F
2g 1  
 W
1/ 2
 WF
(D) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v = v 0  
 WF

12. A car of mass M is moving on a horizontal circular path of radius r. At an instant its speed is v and
is increasing at a rate a -
(A) the acceleration of the car is towards the centre of the path
(B) the magnitude of the frictional force on the car is greater than mv 2/R
(C) the friction coefficient between the ground and the car is not less than a/g
(D) the friction coefficient between the ground and the car is µ = tan –1v2/Rg

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.

13. An engine driver of a passenger train travelling at 40 m/s sees a goods train, ahead of his. The
goods train is travelling in the same direction as the passenger train, with a constant speed of 20
m/s. The passenger train driver has reaction time of 0.5 sec. He applies the brakes which causes
the train to decelerate at the rate of 1 m/sec2, while the goods train continues with its constant
speed. By what least distance (in m) last compartment of the goods train should be ahead of the
engine of the passenger train in order to avoid the crash?

14. In the figure at the free end a force F is applied to keep the suspended mass of 18 kg at rest. The
value of F is (in N)- (take g = 10 m/s2)

18 kg

15. A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot
of light P moves along, the wall at a distance 3m. What is the velocity (in m/s) of the spot P when
 = 45° ?

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6

16. A ball of mass m = 1kg is hung vertically by a thread of length  = 1.50 m. 1.50m
Upper end of the thread is attached to the ceiling of a trolley of mass M = 4kg. m M
m
Initially, trolley is stationary and it is free to move along horizontal rails without v0
friction.
A shell of mass m = 1kg, moving horizontally with velocity v0 = 6 ms–1, collides with the ball and gets
stuck with it. As a result, thread starts to deflect towards right. Calculate its maximum deflection (in
degrees) with the vertical. (g = 10 ms–2)

17. The velocities of A and B are marked in the figure. The velocity 3m / s
(in m/s) of block C is (assume that the pulley are ideal and
string inextensible): 

C B
1m / s 

A 

18. A car 2 m long and 3 m wide is moving at 13 m/sec when a bullet 2m Vcar
-1
hits it in a direction making an angle θ=tan 3/4 with the car as
seen from the street. The bullet enters one edge of the corner and 3m 13 m/s
passes out at the diagonally opposite corner. Neglecting any
interaction between bullet and car find the time for the bullet to cross θ
the car: V

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. When 1g of an ideal gas A is introduced into an evacuated vessel at 300 K , the pressure was
found to be 1 atm. Two grams of another ideal gas B is then added to A and the pressure is now
found to be 1.5 atm. What is the ratio between the average speeds of A and B at the same
temperature?
(A) 2 :1
(B) 1: 2
(C) 1: 4
(D) 4 :1
20. In a reaction, 4moles of electrons are transferred to one mole of HNO3. The possible product
obtained due to reduction is:
(A) 0.5 mole of N2
(B) 0.5 mole of N2O
(C) 1 mole of NO2
(D) 1 mole of NH3

21. If K1 and K 2 are the equilibrium constants for a reversible reaction at T1 K and T2 K
temperature T1  T2  and the reaction takes place with neither heat evolution nor absorption,
then:
(A) K1  K 2 at high temperature
(B) K1  K 2 at high temperature
(C) K1  K 2 only at high temperature
(D) K1  K 2 at any temperature

22. The polymerization of propene to form polypropene occurs readly at room temperature?
H C H CH3 H
3
n C C C C
H H H H n
What is the correct signs of G, H and S respectively for the polymerization reaction at
room temperature?
(A)  ve,  ve,  ve
(B) ve,  ve,  ve
(C)  ve,  ve,  ve
(D)  ve,  ve,  ve

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23. Mg  s   2 HCl 
 MgCl2  H 2
The rate of the redox reaction between HCl and Mg can be followed by measuring the time
taken for the same volume of H 2 to be produced from a range of hydrochloric acid
concentrations.
To find the order with respect the HCl , which would be the most suitable graph to plot using the
data?
(A)  HCl against time
(B) Volume of H 2 against time
(C)  HCl against 1/time
(D) Volume of H 2 against 1/time

24. Which can be act as buffer?


(A) CH 3COOH  NaOH , if CH 3COOH  NaOH   
(B) HCl  CH 3COONa , if CH 3COONa    HCl 
(C) HCN  NaCN
(D) All of these

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Van der Waals’ constants for three different gases are given:
Gas a b
X 3.0 0.025
Y 10.0 0.030
Z 6.0 0.035
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Maximum critical temperature Y
(B) Most ideal behaviour  X
(C) Maximum critical volume  Z
(D) Maximum critical pressure  X

26. Select the correct statements:


(A) the Molecularity of an elementary reaction indicates how many reactant species take part
in the step
(B) the rate law of an elementary reaction can be predicated by simply seeing the
stoichiometry of reaction
(C) the slowest elementary step in sequence of the reactions governs the overall rate of
formation of product
(D) a rate law is often derived from a proposed mechanism by imposing the steady state
approximation or assuming that there is a pre-equilibrium

27. During which of the following reactions/process entropy of system will increase?
(A) Ag   aq.  Cl   aq.  AgCl  s 
(B) CaCO3  s  

 CaO  s   CO2  g 
(C) PCl3  g   Cl2  g  
 PCl5  g 
(D) Raw egg 
 Boiled egg

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28. Gaseous particle X has a proton number n and a charge of +1. Gaseous particle Y has a proton
number  n  1 and is isoelectronic with X. Which statement about X and Y is/are correct?
(A) When placed in an electric field, the angle of deflection for ‘X’ is the same as that of Y.
(B) X requires more energy than Y when a further electron is removed from each particle.
(C) ‘X’ has a larger radius than Y.
(D) ‘X’ releases less energy than Y when an electron is added to particle.

29.  3 AlCl  g 


2 Al  l   AlCl3  g  
In the reaction vessel at 1573K , 0.2mol of AlCl3  g  was reacted with 0.4 mol of molten
Al . When the reaction system achieved equilibrium with a total pressure of 1.50 atm, it was
determined that 0.20mol of molten Al remained in the vessel.
The same reaction vessel was heated to 1700K rapidly in a way such that no reaction took
place during short interval of heating. It was found that partial pressure of AlCl3  g  was
0.390 atm when equilibrium was re-established. Which of the following statement is/are?
(A) K p =3.80 at 1573K
(B) The chemical reaction in above equilibrium is exothermic in nature.
(C) At 1700K , the equilibrium position has shifted to the right
(D) K p =2.80 at 1700K

30. When 25ml of 0.10M strong monobasic acid was titrated against 0.20M of a weak base X,
12.50ml of the base was required to completely neutralise the acid. Which statement is/are
correct for this experiment?
(A) Bromocresol green p  k In
=4.7  is a suitable indicator for this titration.
(B) 1 mol of X reacts with 2 mole of the monobasic acid.
(C) A solution of maximum buffer capacity was formed when 6.25ml of the base was added.
(D) The pH of the solution would be less than 7 at equivalent point

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.

31. For 3s orbital of hydrogen atom, the normalised wave function is:
3/ 2 r
1 1  18r 2r 2  3a0
 3s     27   2 e
81 3  a0   a0 a0 
d
If distance between the radial nodes is d , calculate the value of
1.73 a0
32. N 2  g  reacts with H 2  g  in either of the following ways depending upon supply of H 2  g  :
N 2  g   H 2  g  
 N2 H 2 l 
N 2  g   2 H 2  g  
 N2 H 4  g 
If 5L N 2  g  and 3L H 2  g  are taken initially (at same temperature and pressure), calculate
the contraction in volume after the reaction (in L)?

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10

33. A solution is saturated in SrCO3 and SrF2 . The CO32  was found to be 103 mol/L. If the
concentration of F - in solution is represented as y×102 M then what is the value of y ?
[Given: K sp  SrCO3   2.5  10 ; K sp  SrF2   1010 ]
10

34. Solid NH4I on rapid heating in a closed vessel at 357°C develops a constant pressure of 380 mm
Hg owing to the partial decomposition of NH4I into NH3 and HI but the pressure gradually
increases further (when excess solid residually remain in the vessel) owing to the dissociation of
HI. The final pressure developed under equilibrium is x atm. Then the value of x is?
 NH 3  g  +HI  g 
NH 4 I  s  
 H 2  g  +I 2  g  , K p =1/16  pressure being in atm terms 
2HI  g  

35. A 3 mol sample of triatomic non-linear ideal gas (consider only translational and rotational degree
of freedom) at 300 K is allowed to expand under reversible adiabatic condition from 5 L to 40 L.
The magnitude of work done (in kJ) in this process is:

8
36. A-diatomic molecules has a dipole moment of 1.2D . If the bond length is 1.0×10 cm , what
fraction of charge does exist each atom?

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11 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

37. If are roots of equation . Then the value of

is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 11
(D) 44

38. If are the roots of the equation then the value of


is
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 5

39. The quadrilateral formed by the lines and has


area 18. The quadrilateral formed by the lines and
has area 72. If a, b, c, d are positive integers then the least possible value of the
sum (a + b + c + d) is
(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16

40. Let be the equation of tangent to a parabola at the point (7, 13). If the focus of
the parabola is at (-1, -1), its directrix is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

41. If the line is a tangent to a parabola for any real value of m, then
the equation of the parabola is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 12

42. The range of a for which


x  x  2    a  3  x 2  x  2  x 2  x  1   a  4   x 2  x  1  0 has atleast
2 2 2
equation
one real root
 19 
(A)  5, 
 3
(B)  0,1
(C)  1, 0 
 19 
(D) 0, 3 

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

Let y  4ax be a parabola and PQ be a focal chord. Let R be the point of intersection of the
2
43.
tangents at P and Q, then:
 ( PQ ) 2
(A) Area of circum circle of PQR is
4
(B) orthocentre ofPQR lies at the directrix
(C) Incentre of PQR lies at the vertex
minimum area of the circumcircle of PQR is 4 a
2
(D)

44. Number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying x + y =1and x +y =a is


2 2 2
 then
1
(A) λ=0 if a< ,a>1
2
1
(B) λ=4 if a= ,a=1
2
1
(C) λ=8if <a<1
2
(D) None of these

45. Let L1 : 3 x  4 y  1 and L2 : 5 x  12 y  2  0 be two given lines. Let image of every point on
L1 with respect to a line L lies on L2 then possible equation of L can be:
(A) 14 x  112 y  23  0
(B) 64 x  8 y  3  0
(C) 11x  4 y  0
(D) 52 x  45 y  7

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46. Let A 1,1 and B  3,3 be two fixed points and P be a variable point such that area of PAB
remains constant equal to 1 for all position of P, then locus of P is given by:
(A) 2 y  2x  1
(B) 2 y  2x 1
(C) y  x 1
(D) y  x 1

47. If 4a2  5b2  6a  1  0 and the line ax  by  1  0 touches a fixed circle, then:
(A) centre of circle is at  3, 0 
(B) the radius of circle is 5
(C) the radius of circle is 3
(D) the circle passes through 1,1
48. P is a point which moves in the x-y plane such that the point P is nearer to the centre of square
then any of the sides. The four vertices of the square are   a,  a  . The region in which P will
move is bounded by parts of parabolas of which one has the equation:
(A) y 2  a 2  2ax
(B) x 2  a 2  2ay
(C) y 2  2ax  a 2
(D) None of these

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.

The normal to the parabola y  8 x at the point (2, 4) meets it again at 18,  12  . If length of
2
49.

normal chord  , then the value of 2 must be:

The locus of a point that divides a chord of slope 2 of the parabola y  4 x internally in the ratio
2
50.

1: 2 is a parabola. If the vertex of parabola is   ,   , then the value of 129      must be:
2

51. Let 1 be the area of ΔPQR inscribed in an ellipse and Δ 2 be the area of the ΔP ' Q ' R '
whose vertices are the points lying on the auxiliary circle corresponding to the points P, Q, R
4 3 
respectively. If the eccentricity of the ellipse is then the ratio 343 2 must be:
7 1

52. The area of the triangle formed by tangents form the point  4,3 to be circle x 2  y 2  9 and the
line segment joining their points of contact is  square unit, then the value of  250.5  must
be:

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 14

53. If the area of the triangle formed by the lines y  9 xy  18 x  0 and


2 2
y  9 is  sq. unit, then
the value of  3
must be:

54. If roots of the equationx 2  10cx  11d  0 are a, b and those of x 2  10ax  11b  0 are c, d ,
then the value of a  b  c  d must be equal to  a, b, c and d are distinct numbers.

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER – 2
TEST DATE: 06-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. The displacement-time graph of a body acted upon by some forces is shown in figure.

B C

s
A

O
t
Select the correct alternative(s) :
(A) Work done by the forces during BC is zero
(B) Work done by the forces during AB is zero
(C) Work done by the forces during AB is positive
(D) Work done by the forces during OA is positive (OA is a part of a parabola)

2. A cannon and a supply of cannon balls are inside a sealed L


railroad car as show in figure. The cannon fires to the right, M
the car recoils to the left. The cannon balls remain in the car
m
after hitting the far wall. The whole system is as rest
initially.(Assume No friction between the car and the railroad)

(A) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than L.
(B) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than L/2.
(C) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than 2L.
(D) Linear momentum of the whole system is conserved in horizontal direction.

3. A greased block P may slide along any of the three frictionless slopes P
A, B, or C, to reach the ground. The work done on the block by the
block’s weight Mg, are WA, WB, and WC for the three slopes
respectively. Then- A B C

(A) WA < W B < W C


(B) WA > W B > W C
(C) WA = W B = W C
(D) work done by the normal reaction is zero

4. A particle (A) of mass m1 elastically collides with another stationary particle (B) of mass m1 .
Then –
m1 1
(A)  and the particles fly apart in the opposite direction with equal velocities
m2 2
m1 1
(B)  and the particles fly apart in opposite direction with equal velocity
m2 3

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3 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022

m1 2
(C)  and the collision angle between the particles 60º symmetrically
m2 1
m1 2
(D)  and the particles fly apart symmetrically at angle 90º
m2 1

5. A racing car is travelling along a track at a constant speed Track


car
of 40 m/s. A T.V. camera men is recording the event from a
distance of 30m directly away from the track as shown in 40 m/s
figure. In order to keep the car under view in the position
shown, then - 30 m

30º

T.V Camera
(A) The rate of increase in the distance between the car and the camera is 20 m/s
(B) The rate of increase in the distance between the car and the camera is 40 m/s
(C) The angular speed with which the camera should be rotated 3/4 rad/sec
(D) The angular speed with which the camera should be rotated 1 rad/sec

6. A balloon starts rising upward with constant acceleration a and after t 0 second a packet is
dropped from it which reaches the ground after t second. What is the value of t .
at  g 
(A) t = 0  1   1
g  a 
at 0  g
(B) t= 1  1  
g  a 
(C) Just after leaving the balloon the packet keeps on moving in the upward direction for
some time
(D) Just after leaving the balloon the packet starts on moving in the downward direction.

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. In an experiment the spring constant of two springs were measured to be as given below.
K1  5.0  0.2 N/m and K 2  10.0  0.1N/m . Find their percentage error in equivalent spring
constant in parallel;

2 xmg
8. In figure the acceleration of m is assuming that there
M  5m
is no friction between m and M, and all other surfaces are
smooth and pulleys light. Then find the value of x.

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4

9. A smooth table is placed horizontally and a spring of unstretched length l0 and force constant k has
one end fixed to its centre. To the other end of the spring is attached a mass m which is making n
X  2 n 2 m 0 k
revolutions per second around the centre. If Tension in the spring is , then find the
(k  4 2 n 2 m)
value of X.

10. Consider a one dimensional elastic collision between a given incoming body A and body B,
initially at rest. What should be the ratio of mass of A to the mass of B in order that B should
recoil with greatest kinetic energy?

11. A billiard ball, initially at rest, is given a sharp impulse by a


cue. The cue is held horizontally a distance h above the h R
C mg
central line fig. The ball leaves the cue with a speed v0 N
x
9 4 µN
and eventually acquires a final speed of v . If h = R,
7 0 n
where R is the radius of the ball, find the value of n.

12. The potential energy  (in Joule) of a particle of mass 1 kg moving in the XY plane obeys the law
 = 3x + 4y, where (x, y) are the co- ordinates of the particle in metre. If the particle is at rest at

 6, 4  at time t = 0, then find out the magnitude of x-component of its acceleration  m/s 2  .
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

2
13. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10 m/s . The
fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up. Find out the maximum height reached.
2
(in m) (Take g = 10 m/s )

14. A small block of mass m1 =2kg is placed at rest on a large block of mass m 2 =3kg as shown in
the fig. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is  =0.3 and the horizontal surface is
smooth.
2
(Take g = 10 m/s )
m1
m2
smooth
A constant horizontal force F is applied on the lower block. What is the maximum value of F at
which both the blocks move together (in N)?

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15. A 0.5 kg, block slides from the point A on a horizontal track
with an initial speed 3m/s towards a weight less horizontal
spring of length 1m and force constant 2 N/m. The part AB of D
the track is frictionless and the part BC has the coefficient of A B
C
static and kinetic friction as 0.22 and 0.20 respectively. (see
figure) If the distance AB and BD are 2m and 2.14m
respectively, find the total distance (in m) through which the
block moves before it comes to rest completely. (g = 10
m/s 2 )
16. The centre of a solid cylinder is attached to a horizontal massless spring, so that it can roll without
slipping along a horizontal surface. The force constant k of the spring is 3.0 N/m. If the system is
released from rest at a position in which the spring is stretched 0.25 metre, find the rotational
kinetic energy of the cylinder as it passes through the equilibrium position in (milli Joules).

17. A thin uniform bar lies on a frictionless horizontal surface and is free to move in
any way on the surface. Its mass is 0.16 kg and length is ( 3 ) m. Two
particles, each of mass 0.08 kg are moving on the same surface and towards A
10 m/s
the bar in a direction perpendicular to the bar, one with a velocity of 10 m/s and
the other with 6 m/s as shown in figure. The first particle strikes the bar at point C
A and the other at point B. Point A and B are at a distance of 0.5 m from the
centre of the bar. The particles strike the bar at the same instant of time and B
6 m/s
stick to the bar on collision. Calculate the loss of KE of the system in the above
collision process (In joules).

18. A uniform disc of radius R is spinned to the angular velocity  and N


then carefully placed on a horizontal surface. The pressure exerted by
the disc on the surface can be regarded as uniform. If the disc comes
3 R  r
to rest after , what is the value of co-efficient of friction between
g dr
the disc and the surface?

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water, whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because:
(A) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy
(B) The lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its hydration energy
(C) The lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy.

20. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons, there should be an increase in:
(A) Intensity of radiation
(B) wavelength of radiation
(C) Frequency of radiation
(D) both wavelength and intensity of radiation

21. Which of the following compounds can be oxidised further with a strong oxidising agent?
(A) CrO3
(B) Al2O3
(C) SO2
(D) MnO3

22. In the given figure bulb contains an excess of volatile solid A. At 250 C equilibrium formed as
shown below

A ' g   H2S  g 
A g 

A s
At equilibrium; total pressure inside bulb is 10 mm whereas partial pressure of H 2S inside bulb is
4 mm. If some A(g) is removed from bulb at equilibrium
(A) Decomposition equilibria will shift forward
(B) Sublimation equilibria will shift forward
(C) Total pressure when equilibrium restablished will be equal to 10 mm.
(D) A  g  will form till its partial pressure becomes 2 mm Hg.

23. From the position of elements in periodic table and the physical properties of the compounds,
which compounds are covalent?
(A)  CH3 2 SiCl2  b. p. 70C 
(B) GeCl2  b. p. 86C 
(C) AlBr3  b. p. 265C 
(D) I2  m. p. 114C 

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24. Elements W, X, Y and Z are in period 3 of periodic table.


(i) W has highest malting point among all the period 3 elements.
(ii) The chlorides of Y and Z are acidic while the chlorides of X is neutral.
(iii) The oxide of Y is basic while the oxide of Z is amphoteric.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The atomic radius order is W<Z<Y<X
(B) The first ionisation energy order is X<Y>Z<W
(C) The pH of the chlorides has the order W>Z>Y>X
(D) The electrical conductivity increases in the order W<Z<Y<X

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. Washing soda  Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O  is widely used in softening of hard water. If 1 L of hard water
requires 0.0143 g of washing soda, what is hardness of water in terms of ppm of CaCO3 ?

26. How many of the following species have bond order of 2.5 ?
i  N 
2  ii  N 2
 iii  O2  iv  O2
 v  NO  vi  CN
27. The number of correct options is:
(a) P2 O 5 >ZnO>MgO>Na 2 O 2  acidic strength 
(b) Tl 2 O 3 >Tl 2 O>Ga 2 O 3 >Al 2 O3  basic strength 
(c) MnO>P2 O 5 >CrO 3 >Mn 2 O 7  ionic character 
(d) H 2 O>HF>NH 3  melting point 
(e) H 2 O>HF>NH 3  boiling point 

28. Consider the following species and find out total number of species which are polar and can act
as Lewis acid
CCl4 , CO2 , SO2 , AlCl3 , HCHO, SO3 , SiCl4 , BCl3 , CF4

29. A sample of 20ml of 0.20M FeSO 4 solution is titrated against 0.05M KMnO4 in the
presence of excess fluoride ions. It is found that 20ml of the manganate (VII) solution is
requires to reach the end point. What is the oxidation number of manganese at end-point?

x
30. For the reaction: M  MnO4 
 MO3  Mn 2 . If one mole of MnO 4 oxidizes 1.67 moles
M x of to MO3 , the value of x in the reaction is:

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

2 2
31. 2.5 mL of
5

M weak monoacidic base K b  1 1012 at 25C is titrated with
15
M  HCl 
The value of concentration of  H   10 at equivalence point is

in water at 25°C.

K w  11014 at 25C 

32. The volume strength of 10% (w/w) aqueous H2O2 solution of specific gravity 1.19 is:

33. 0.7875g of crystalline barium hydroxide is dissolved in water. For the neutralization of this
solution 20 mL of N/4 HNO3 is required. How many moles of water of crystallization are present
in one mole of this base? (Given: Atomic mass Ba=137, O=16, N=14, H=1 )

34. A mixture of nitrogen and water vapours is admitted to a flask at 760 torr which contains a
sufficient solid drying agent. After long time the pressure attained a steady value of 722 torr. If
the experiment is done at 27°C and drying agent increases in mass by 0.9 gm, what is the volume
of the flask? Neglect any possible vapour pressure of drying agent and volume occupied by
drying agent?

35. For the reactions


 i  A k
P
I

 ii  B K
 Q,following observation is made
II

2M 2M

Concentration Concentration
1M 1M
0.5M  A  B
30 60 30
Time  min  Time  min 
kI
Calculate , where k I and k II and rate constant for the respective reaction:
K II

36.  Ag  S 2O3 3  aq.  Br   aq.


AgBr  s   2 S2O32  aq.  2

K sp  AgBr   5  1013 ; K f Ag  S 2O3 2  5  1013


3
Given:
The molar solubility of AgBr in 0.1 MNa2 S 2O3 is ' x ' . The value of 10  x is?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

37. Tangents are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 50 from a point ‘P’ lying on the x-axis. These tangents
meet the y-axis at points ‘P1’ and ‘P2’. Possible coordinates of ‘P’ so that area of triangle PP1P2 is
minimum, are
(A) (10, 0)
(B) (10 2 , 0)
(C) (–10, 0)
(D) (–10 2 , 0)

Consider the parabola y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4by. The straight line b y  a x  a b2 / 3  0


1/ 3 1/ 3 2/3
38.
(A) Touches y2=4ax
(B) Touches x2 = 4by
(C) Intersects both parabolas in real and distinct points
(D) Touches y2=4ax and intersect x2 = 4by at two real and distinct points

x2 y2
39. The parametric angle  , where –  <    , of the point on the ellipse  = 1 at which
a2 b2
the tangent drawn cuts the intercept of minimum length on the co-ordinates axes, is/are :
–1
b
(A) tan
a
–1 b
(B) –tan
a
–1
b
(C)  – tan
a
–1
b
(D)   + tan a

x2 y2 
40. If a chord AB of the hyperbola 2
 2  1 subtends an angle at the origin then.
a b 2
1 1 1 1
(A) maximum value of 2
 2
 2 2
OA OB a b
1 1 1 1
(B) maximum value of 2
 2
 2  2
OA OB a b
1 1 1 1
(C) The value of  is constant and equal to 2  2
OA 2 OB 2
a b
(D) Area of OAB is constant

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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10

41. The area of a triangle is 5 sq. units. Two of its vertices are  2,1 and  3, 2  . The third vertex
lies on y  x  3 . The co-ordinates of the third vertex can be:
 3 3
(A)  , 
 2 2
3 3
(B)  , 
4 2
 7 13 
(C)  , 
2 2 
 1 11 
(D)  , 
 4 4

x2 y2
42. Consider the ellipse   1 and f  x  is a positive decreasing
f  k 2  2k  5  f  k  11
function, then:
(A) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is x-axis is  3, 2 
(B) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is   , 2 
(C) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is   , 3    2,  
(D) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is  3,  

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. If the equation ax 2  xy  y 2  bx  cy  d  0 represents pair of lines whose slopes are m and
m2 , then number of possible values of a is….

44. A line intersect a hyperbola at  2, 6 and  4, 2 one of the asymptote at 1, 2 . If the centre

of hyperbola is  p, q  , then p  q is….


2 2

45. If the quadratic polynomial f  x    a  3 x 2  2ax  3a  7 ranges from  1,   for every
x  R , then the value of a is…..

46. Number of real roots of the equation ecos x  e cos x  4  0 ….

47. Three normals drawn from any point to the parabola y 2  4ax cut line x  2 a in points whose
ordinates are in arithmetic progression. If the slope of normals be m1 , m2 and m3 then
 m1  m3 
   is equal to:
 m2  m2 

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48. Given a circle C : x


2
 y 2  4 and a parabola P : y 2  4ax , if the maximum value of a for which
there exists a point from where perpendicular tangents can be drawn to C and P is amax, then
(amax / 2 ) = ___.

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

49. If the roots of 10 x 3  cx 2  54 x  27  0 are in harmonic progression, then the value of c must
be equal to:

50. If  and  are the roots of the equation x 2  px  q  0 and also x3900  p1950 x1950  q1950  0
 
x n  1   x  1  0, then the value of n must be equal to:
n
and if , are the roots of
 

51. If the lengths of external and internal common tangents to two circles
x 2  y 2  14 x  4 y  28  0 and x 2  y 2  14 x  4 y  28  0 are  and  the value of   
must be:

The circle x  y  1 cuts the x-axis at P and Q, another circle with centre at Q and variable
2 2
52.
radius intersects the first circle at R above the x-axis and the line segment PQ at S. If the
maximum area of the QSR is  sq. unit, then 27 2 must be:

53. The equation of the ellipse referred to its centre whose minor axis is equal to the distance
between the foci and whose latusrectum is 10 is mx 2  ny 2  100 , when m, n  N , then the
value of 10m  20n must be:

x2 y2
54. If the normal at an end of a latusrectum of an ellipse   1 passes through one extremity
a2 b2
625  2e 2  1 must be:
2
of the minor axis. If e be the eccentricity of the ellipse then the value of

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I

JEE (Main)-2022

TEST DATE: 05-12-2020


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 75 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 25 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.

Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. “Consider the situation shown in figure. Both the pulleys and the
string are light and all the surfaces are frictionless”
The force exerted by the clamp on the pulley A in the figure is–
2Mg
(A)
3
2Mg
(B)
4
2Mg
(C)
5
(D) None of these

2. 1 kg and 4 kg blocks lie on a rough horizontal surface. The


coefficient of friction between 4 kg block and surface is 0.2
while the coefficient of friction between 1 kg block and the
surface is 0.6. All the pulley shown in the figure are massless
and frictionless and all strings are massless.

(A) The frictional force acting on 1 kg block is 2 N.


(B) The frictional force acting on 1 kg block is 6 N.
(C) The tension in the string connecting 4 kg block and 1 kg block is 7 N.
(D) The tension in the string connecting 1 kg block and 4 kg block is zero.

3. Which of the following statements is Incorrect about work?


(A) in a certain reference frame.

(B) Work done by friction is always negative.


(C) Work done by a force is defined as the dot product of the force and the displacement of
the point of application of force.
(D) Work done by conservative force in moving a body from A to B = potential energy of the
body at A – potential energy of the body at B.

4. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the rough hill by a force F which at
each point was directed along the surface of the hill. Work done by the force:

(A) is independent of shape of trajectory


(B) depends upon vertical component of displacement but independent of horizontal
component
(C) does not depend upon coefficient of friction
(D) none of these

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5. The kinetic energy of a projectile at its highest position is K. If the range of the projectile is four
times the height of the projectile, then the initial kinetic energy of the projectile is:
(A) 2K
(B) 2K
(C) 4K
(D) 2 2K
6. A block X slides down upon a frictionless inclined plane when
released from the top of the inclined plane while another block
falls freely from the same point then:

(A) Block X will strike the ground first


(B) Block Y will strike the ground first
(C) Both blocks will strike the ground simultaneously.
(D) None of these.

7. A smooth sphere is moving on a horizontal surface with a velocity vector


 2iˆ  2 ˆj  m / s immediately before it hit a vertical wall. The wall is parallel to vector ĵ and
1
coefficient of restitution between the sphere and the wall is e  . The velocity of the sphere
2
after it hits the wall is
(A) iˆ  ˆj
(B) iˆ  2 ˆj
(C) iˆ  ˆj
(D) 2iˆ  ˆj

8. A smooth wedge having a semicircular track is kept on a smooth surface.


Small particle is set free from highest point A of the wedge. Then:

(A) momentum of the system (particle +wedge) will be not be conserved in x-direction
(B) speed of wedge will be maximum when particle is at B and particle’s velocity is in positive
x-direction
(C) particle cannot reach D during the course of subsequent motion
(D) particle cannot reach A during the course of subsequent motion

9. Three identical thin rods each of mass m & length l are placed along x, y & z-axis respectively
they are placed such that, one end of each rod is at origin 'O'. Then moment of inertia of this
system about z-axis is:
m 2
(A)
3
2m 2
(B)
3
(C) m2
m 2
(D)
4

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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4

10. A solid cylinder rolls without slipping down the rough inclined surface as
shown. Choose the correct alternative (s):
(A) If  is decreased, the force of friction will decreases
(B) frictional force is dissipative
(C) frictional force is necessarily equal to  mg cos 
(D) None of these

11. A disc of mass m and radius R is lying on a smooth horizontal surface. A


particle of mass m moving horizontally with a velocity v0 , collides with the
disc at B and sticks to it. Speed of the point A on the disc just after impact
will be

31
(A) v0
8
5
(B) v0
16
5v0
(C)
16
v0
(D)
2
12. A cockroach of mass m is moving on the rim of a disc with velocity v (w.r.t ground) in the
anticlockwise direction. The moment of inertia of the disc about its own axis is I and it is rotating in
the clockwise direction with angular speed  . If the cockroach stops moving then the angular
speed of the disc will be
l
(A)
 l  mr 2 
l  mvr
(B)
l  mr 2
l  mvr
(C)
l  mr 2
l  mvr
(D)
l
13. A uniform rod AB of length 7m is undergoing combined rotational
and translational motion such that, at some instant of time,
velocities of its end point A and centre C are both perpendicular to
the rod and opposite in direction, having magnitude 11 m/s and 3
m/s respectively as shown in the figure. Velocity of centre C and
angular velocity of the rod remains constant
(A) Acceleration of point A is 56 m/s2
(B) Acceleration of point C is 56 m/s2
(C) At the instant shown in the figure acceleration of point B is more than that of point A.
(D) Angular velocity of the rod is 14 rad/sec

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14. A uniform wire is bent in the form of a circle of radius r = 0.4 m. It is initially
at rest and its diameter OA is horizontal. It is then released and allowed to
swing about point O in the vertical plane. During its motion when the
diameter occupies the position OB, then its angular speed is

(A) 4 rad/sec
(B) 3 rad/sec
(C) 5 rad/sec
(D) None of these

15. A uniform rod of mass M is hinged at its upper end. A particle of mass m moving horizontally
strikes the rod at its midpoint elastically. If the particle comes to rest after collision the find value
of M/m
(A) 1
(B) 1/ 4
(C) 1/ 2
(D) 3/ 4

16. A cube of side ‘a’ and of mass M is moving with a uniform velocity ‘v’
along the horizontal smooth surface hits with a small obstacle at P
and topples about it. The angular velocity of the cube just after the
impact is
(A) 3v / 4a
(B) v / 4a
(C) v/a
(D) v / 2a

17. A slender uniform rod of length l is balanced vertically at a point P on a horizontal surface having
some friction. If the top of the rod is displaced slightly to the right, the position of its centre of
mass at the time when the rod becomes horizontal:
(A) lies at some point to the right of P
(B) lies at some point to the left of P
(C) must be l / 2 to the right to P
(D) lies at P

18. Which of the following statements is correct?


(A) friction acting on a cylinder which is rolling without slipping on an inclined surface is
always upward along the incline irrespective of any external force acting on it.
(B) friction acting on a cylinder which is rolling without slipping on an inclined surface may be
upward and may be downwards depending on the external force acting on it.
(C) friction acting on a cylinder which is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface must
be zero.
(D) nothing can be said exactly about it as it depends on the friction coefficient on the
inclined plane.

19. A body weighs 6 gms when placed in one pan and 24 gms when placed on the other pan of a
false balance. If The beam is horizontal when both the pans are empty, the true weight of the
body is:
(A) 13 gm
(B) 12 gm
(C) 15.5gm
(D) 15gm

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20. A uniform ball of radius R rolls without slipping between two rails such that the horizontal distance
is d between two contact points of the rail to the ball. If R=10cm, d=16cm and the angular velocity
is 5rad/s then find the velocity of centre of mass of the ball.
(A) 0.3m/s
(B) 0.2 m/s
(C) 1.2 m/s
(D) 0.5 m/s

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

21. Force F is applied on upper pulley. If F  30t where t is time in second. Find the
time when m1 loses contact with floor: (Take g  10 m / s 2 )

22. A stone falls from rest. The total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion is equal to
the distance covered in the first three seconds of its motion. How long does the stone remain in
the air?

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

23. Position time graph of two bodies A and B of the same mass ‘m’ is given
a coefficient of restitution for collision is 0.5. Find the speed of B after
collision.

24. Two balls A (0.10 kg) and B of are connected by a stretched spring. The system is placed on a
smooth table. The initial acceleration of ball B is 2 m/s 2 westward when the system is released.
The acceleration of ball B is 5 m/s2 in eastward. The mass of B would be (in kg)……

25. A uniform rod of length l and mass m is lying on a frictionless horizontal


plane and is pivoted at one of its ends A, as shown in the figure. A
particle of the same mass m moving on the plane with velocity v strikes
the rod at point B making an angle of 37 with the rod. Particle comes
to rest just after a collision. If the angular velocity of the rod will n(v/l)
after collision, find the value on n.

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

26. A balloon of helium gas of radius r0 is released from sea-level, it rises above in atmosphere but
within troposphere. Then the radius of balloon at elevated heights is:
(A) Less than r0 because temperature decreases.
(B) More than r0 because temperature and pressure increases.
(C) Less than r0 because pressure decreases.
(D) Not equal to r0 because pressure and temperature decreases differently with height of
atmosphere.
3/2 Z
1 2Z Z 2 2 3a0 r
27.  r , ,    .r .e .sin  cos  cos  (  is angle with Z  axis) which orbital
81   a0  a02
represents the above wave function:
(A) 3p x
(B) 3d xz
(C) 3d Z 2
(D) 2s

28. When two moles of N 2  g  are mixed with one mole of O 2  g  at the same temperature and
pressure, which of the following statement is incorrect considering ideal behaviour of gas?
(A) S surrounding  0
(B) S system  0
(C) Suniverse  0
(D) None of these

29. The slope of Z as a function of P as P  0 is related to Vanderwall’s parameter by:


 Z  1  a 
(A) lim 
P  0 P
  b  
 T RT  RT 
 Z   a 
(B) lim    RT  b  
P  0 P RT 
 T 
 Z  a
(C) lim   b
P  0 P RT
 T
 Z 
(D) lim 
P  0 P
 0
 T

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30. Ca  OH  2 and PbCl2 both have limited solubility in neutral water. When acid is added, the
solubility of above salts varies. Which is the correct statement?
(A) Acid reaction with Ca 2+ ions and solubility of Ca  OH  2 increases
(B) Acid reacts with Cl ions and solubility of PbCl2 increases.
(C) Acid increases the solubility of any sparingly soluble salt so solubility of both salts
increases.
(D) The solubility of Ca  OH  2 goes way up but that of PbCl2 does not change.

31.  H   aq.  OH   aq. H  57kJ / mol.


H 2O    
14
Given that the value of equilibrium constant, K w  1.0  10 at 298K , which of the following
statement is true?
(A) Water is not a neutral liquid at a temperature lower than 298K

(B) When water is heated, the concentration of OH increases.
(C) The pH of water at temperature higher than 298K is greater than 7 .
(D) The association of water molecules by hydrogen bonding increases as temperature rises.

32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?


(1) Reaction with more negative values of G° are spontaneous and proceed at a higher rate
than those with less negative values of G° .
(2) The activation energy Ea is usually about the same as U is change in internal energy, for
a reaction.
(3) The activation energy for a reaction does not change significantly as temperature changes.
(4) Molecularity of a reaction is always an integer and it is equal to order of the reaction for
elementary reaction.
(A) 1, 2, 4
(B) 2,3, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2,3

33. Which of the following molecules does not exist or unstable at normal conditions:
(A) SH 6
(B) HFO 4
(C) FeI3
(D) All of these

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34. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of gas M at a given temperature is shown below:

nb
nc
na
n=number of molecules
with a given energy
A B C
molecular energy
Which statements are correct for the number of molecules with molecular energies A, B and C?
(A) nc decreases when more gas M is added at the same temperature.
(B) n a increases when temperature is lowered.
(C) The above curve is symmetrical about the maximum value.
(D) The above curve becomes more broader when molar mass of gas increases.

35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?


(1) Buffer capacity is maximum for a solution when salt  =  Acid 
(2) Buffer capacity of a solution changes with temperature.
(3) When 3 mol. H 3PO 4 , 2 mol. NaH 2 PO 4 and 1 mol. Na 3 PO 4 are dissolved into 10L water,
a buffer solution is obtained.
(4) A buffer solution shows different change in pH values on addition of same number of moles
of acid or base separately.
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2,3, 4
(C) 1,3
(D) 1, 2,3, 4
57
36. In an experiment lanthanum, La was reacted with H 2 to produce the non-stoichiometric ionic
compound LaH 2.9 . Assuming that the compound contains La 2 , La 3 and hydride ions, what is
the % of La 3 present in LaH 2.9 ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 80%
(D) 90%
46 48
37. The two most common isotopes of titanium are Ti and Ti which statement is correct about
isotopes of titanium?
(A) Both isotopes have same abundance in nature. (Atomic weight of titanium is 47.87 u)
(B) Both isotopes have more electrons than neutrons.
(C) The electronic configuration of Ti 2+ ion for both isotopes in the same.
46 48
(D) In the same electric field strength Ti will be deflected more than Ti .

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38. 2A+B 
C

0.05

A
M
0.025

0.0125

0 20 40 time  min 

Given that the initial  B   4.0M and units of the rate constant is mol
1
dm3 min 1 . Which of the
following is true?
(A) The half life of the reaction remains constant when  A doubles but halved when  B
doubles.
(B) The reaction is elementary reaction.
(C) The half life of the reaction remains constant when catalyst is added.
(D) The gradient of tangent at t  0 min increases by four times when the initial  B
doubles.
39. Which of the following statement, best explained why helium has the highest 1 st ionisation energy
among all elements in periodic table?
(A) It is unreactive.
(B) It is the least electronegative element.
(C) It has only one completely filled principle quantum shall.
(D) Its valence electron is poorly shielded and is very close to the nucleus.

40.  2 random coils


DNA double helix 
When heated, the DNA double helix separates into two random coil single strands. When cooled,
the random coils reform the double helix which of the following graphs corresponds to the forward
process?
(A) (B)

G G
 kJ/mol   kJ/mol 

O
O T K T K

(C) (D)

G
O
T K
 kJ/mol 
G
 kJ/mol 
O T K

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41. Which property of the period 3 elements increases consistently across the period?
(A) Enthalpy change of atomisation
(B) Number of unpaired electrons
(C) Electronegativity
(D) Atomic radius

42. The K sp of Mg  OH 2 is X and the solubility of magnesium hydroxide is S at 25°C . Which of


the following statement is correct at 25°C ?
The pH of saturated solution of magnesium hydroxide is 14+log  2x 
1/3
(A)

(B) The solubility of Mg  OH 2 in a solution of MgCl 2 is larger than S .


(C) When solid NaOH is dissolved is a saturated solution of Mg  OH  2 , K sp of magnesium
hydroxide becomes smaller than X .
(D) The K sp of barium hydroxide is smaller than X .

43. Na2CO3  s   2CH 3COOH  aq. 


H r
 2CH 3COONa  aq.  H 2O     CO2  g 
In an experiment to determine H r of reaction, 5.3g of solid Na 2 CO3  MW=106  was added
3
to 50cm of excess of aqueous acetic acid. The temperature of the resultant solution was
monitored at varies time interval and the following graph was obtained:

20
temperature  C 
15

12

time  minutes 
3
Given that the specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.18 J cm K 1 , what is the enthalpy
change of the reaction ΔH r ?
(A) +33.44 kJ/mol
(B) -33.44 kJ/mol
(C) +20.90 kJ/mol
(D) -20.90 kJ/mol

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44.  R  g   S   
P  g   Q  g  
The stoichiometry of a catalysed reaction is shown by equation above:
Which changes in the conditions might explain the results shown?

experiment 1
Amount of  R  experiment 2

time
(A) A different catalyst was used in experiment 2.
(B) Product S was continuously removed from the reaction vessel in experiment 2.
(C) A lower pressure was used in experiment 2.
(D) The results in experiment 2 can only be obtained when temperature is less than
experiment 1.

45. 1, 3, 5 – triazine is an aromatic compound and its structure resembles that of benzene.
N

N N

Which statement about 1, 3, 5 – triazine is correct?


(A) Its empirical formula is CN.
(B) A molecule of 1, 3, 5 – triazine has six  - bonds.
The C  N  bond is formed by 2 sp  2 sp overlap.
2 2
(C)
(D) All the carbon-nitrogen bonds have equal bond lengths.

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

46. Maximum number of atoms that can be present in one plane in CO  CH 3 2 is?

47. Total number of  - bonds in the following compounds are:


SNF3 , CaC 2 , CaO, Na 2O, HNCO, C2 H 5OH, CO .

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

48. If 30 ml of 0.15M solution of Na 2CO3 .NaHCO3 solution is titrated against 0.04M HCl ,
using phenolphthalein and methyl orange as indicators. The difference in the titrate readings (in
ml) of above two titrations is?

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49. In a piston, the addition of 16.7kJ of heat to 100g sample of a liquid at constant temperature of
35.2C caused the liquid to vaporise. The vaporised gas expanded against on external pressure
of 1.80 atm and a volume change of 12.7L was observed. (1 atm L = 101.3J).
What was the change in the internal energy  ΔU is kJ  ?

50. When 250.0ml of a 0.150M solution of  NH 4 2 S is poured into 500.0ml of a 0.060M


cadmium sulfate solution, a yellow ppt of cadmium sulfide is formed. The concentration of sulfide
ions (in M) in the solution is:

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

From a point ‘P’ on the line 2 x  y  4  0 , which is nearest to the circle x  y  12 y  35  0 ,


2 2
51.
tangents are draws to given circle. The area of quadrilateral formed by these pair of tangents and
pair of radii, is:
(A) 8
(B) 110
(C) 19
(D) 19

52. The lines 5 x  12 y  10  0 and 5 x  12 y  40  0 touch a circle of radius 3 units. If the centre
of circle lies in the first quadrant, then the coordinates of centre is:
(A)  5,3
(B)  5,1
(C)  5, 2 
(D)  5, 6 
53. Let A   2, 0  and B   2, 0  , then the number of integral values of a, a   10, 10 for
which line segment AB subtends an acute angle at point C  a, a  1 is:
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 21

54. If the circlesx 2  y 2   3  sin   x  2 cos   y  0 and x 2  y 2  2 cos   x  2cy  0 touch


each other, then the maximum value of ' c ' is:
1
(A)
2
(B) 1
3
(C)
2
(D) 2

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3 1
55. Two circles C1 and C2 of radii and respectively touch each other externally and '  ' is
2 2
their common tangent as shown in figure:

Then the perimeter of shaded region is


5
(A)  3
6
2
(B)  3
3
(C)  3
(D)  3

56. Vertices of a variable triangle are  3, 4  ,  5 cos  , 5sin   and  5sin  ,  5cos   . Then locus
of its orthocenter is:
 x  y  1   x  y  7   100
2 2
(A)

 x  y  7    x  y  1  100
2 2
(B)

 x  y  7    x  y  1  100
2 2
(C)

 x  y  7    x  y  1  100
2 2
(D)

57. If P1  x1 , y1  and P2  x2 , y2  be the images of point P  x, y  about lines L1  ax  by  c  0


and L2  bx  ay  c '  0 respectively then the line joining points P1 and P2 always passes
through:
(A) Point of intersection of L1  0 and L2  0
 x  x1 y  y1 
(B) Point  , 
 2 2 
 x  x1 y  y2 
(C) Point  , 
 2 2 
(D) Information provided is incomplete

58. The base of a triangle passes through a fixed point  f , g and its sides are bisected at right

angles by the lines y


2
 8 xy  9 x 2  0 . The locus of vertex of triangle is:
(A) Straight line
(B) Circle
(C) Parabola
(D) Ellipse

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a b c
59. If 2  where a, b, c  0 , then the family of lines a x  b y  c  0 always
bc c b
passes through the fixed point:
(A) 1, 1
(B) 1,  1
(C)  1, 2 
(D)  1, 1
60. A line of fixed length 2 units moves so that its one end is on the positive x-axis and other end on
that part of the line x  y  0 which lies in the second quadrant. The locus of the mid-point of the
line is given by:
(A) x 2  5 y 2  4 xy  1  0
(B) x 2  5 y 2  4 xy  1  0
(C) x 2  5 y 2  4 xy  1  0
(D) 4 x 2  5 y 2  4 xy  1  0

61. Variable ellipse are drawn with x  4 as a directrix and origin as corresponding fico. The locus
of extremities of minor axes of these ellipse is:
(A) y2  4x
(B) y2  2x
(C) y2  x
(D) y2  4 y

62. An endless inextensible string of length 15m passes around two pins, A & B which are 5m apart.
This string is always kept tight and a small ring, R, of negligible dimensions, inserted in this string
is made to move in a path keeping all segments RA, AB, RB tight (as mentioned earlier). The
ring traces a path, given by conic C, then:
(A) Conic C is an ellipse with eccentricity 1 / 2
(B) Conic C is an hyperbola with eccentricity 2
(C) Conic C is an ellipse with eccentricity 2 / 3
(D) Conic C is a hyperbola with eccentricity 3 / 2

63. Let PQ and RS be 2 perpendicular focal chords of a rectangular hyperbola, which are not
parallel to its axes, then:
(A) PQ  RS
PQ 2   RS    latus rectum 
2 2
(B)

(C) PQ  RS   latus rectum 


(D) None of these

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e1 e2
64. If a variable line has intercepts of e1 and e2 on the co-ordinate axes, where & are the
2 2
eccentricities of a hyperbola and its conjugate, then the line always touches a fixed circle
x 2  y 2  r 2 , then ' r ' is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

65. P is a point on the circle x 2  y 2  1 . Line OP, where O is origin, and x = 1 meet at Q. L1 is a
line parallel to x-axis drawn from Q. A line is drawn parallel to x axis from P meeting x = 1 at R.
OR meets L1 at S. Then locus of S is:
(A) Circle
(B) Parabola
(C) Ellipse
(D) Hyperbola

66. If real numbers a and b satisfy equation a  1  b  1  a  b  a  1  b  1 then minimum


value of a  b is:
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

The number of solutions of equation x  x  1  2 x  4  x


2 2
67. is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 0

68. The curve y 2  x3  1 touches a circle whose centre is  4, 0  . Then abscissa of point of contact
of these curves can be:
(A) –1
(B) –2
(C) 3/4
(D) 1/3

69. Tangents drawn from the point P 1,8  to the circle x 2  y 2  6 x  4 y  11  0 touch the circle
at the points A and B. The equation of the circumcircle of the triangle PAB is:
(A) x 2  y 2  4 x  6 y  19  0
(B) x 2  y 2  4 x  10 y  19  0
(C) x 2  y 2  2 x  6 y  29  0
(D) x 2  y 2  6 x  4 y  19  0

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Consider circles C1 : x  y  4 and C2 :  x  3   y  4   r , r  R , then the sum of


2 2 2 2 2
70.
squares of all possible value(s) of r for which C1 and C2 have exactly three common tangents, is
equal to:
(A) 4
(B) 9
(C) 16
(D) 18

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

71. Parabola, P1 has focus at S  2, 2  and y-axis is its directrix. Parabola, P2 is confocal with P1
and its directrix is x-axis. Let Q  x1 , y1  and R  x2 , y2  be real points of intersection of
RS
parabolas P1 and P2 . If the ratio  a  b b find  a  b  (given x2  x1 and a, b  N )
QS
 5 
72. From point P   , 2  variable straight lines are drawn to meet the curve y  2 x at A & B .
 4 
Q is a point on this line such that PA.PB   PQ  , then locus of point Q is the line ax  y  b ,
2

where a  b is equal to:

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

(x-4) 2 (y-3) 2
73. The equation of the curve obtained by reflecting the ellipse + =1 about the line
16 9
x-y-2=0 is 16x 2 +9y 2 +k1x-36y+k 2 =0 , then k1  k2 is _____.

A point M moves on the circle  x  4    y  8   20 . Then it breaks away from it and starts
2 2
74.

moving along a tangent to the circle, cutting the x- axis at the point  2, 0  . If  a, b  a, b  R 
a
be the point on the circle at which the moving point breaks away then equals :
b

75. The exhaustive values of ' a ' for which a unique circle passes through the points of intersection
 2 1 
of the rectangular hyperbola x 2  y 2  a 2 and the parabola y  x 2 is a   ,  then
 b c
b 2  c 2 equals:

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II

JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by
Wave 1: y  x,t    2cm  sin  3x  6t 
Wave 2 : y  x,t    3cm  sin  4x  12t 
Wave 3 : y  x,t    4cm  sin  5x  11t 
Where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves:
(A) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed
(B) wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse
string speed.
(C) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
(D) wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has greatest maximum transverse
string speed.

2. Shown in figure, a conical container of half-apex angle 37o filled with certain quantities of
kerosene and water. The force exerted by the water on the kerosene is approximately, (Take
atmospheric pressure = 105 Pa)
P0  10 5 P a

Kerosene
10 m sp.gr. = 0.8

Water
8m sp.gr. = 1.0

(A) 3  107 N
(B) 4  107 N
(C) 2  107 N
(D) 5  107 N

3. If specific heat capacity of a substance in solid and liquid state is proportional to temperature of
the substance, then if heat is supplied to the solid initially at –20oC (having melting point 0o C) at
constant rate. Then the temperature dependence of solid with time will be best represented by
(A) (B)
T T

t t

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(C) (D)
T T

t t

4. A resistor has initial resistance 'R0 ' at 0o C. Now, it is connected to an ideal battery of constant
emf = ‘v’. If the temperature co-efficient of resistance is , then after how much time, will its
temperature be ' T o C'. Mass of the wire is m, specific heat capacity of the wire is S. (Assume the
resistance varies linearly with temperature. Also neglect heat loss to the surrounding)
mSR0 T
(A)
v2
m0 SR0
(B)  T / 2
v2
mSR0  T 2 
(C)  T  
v2  2 
mSR0
(D) T 1  T 
v2

5. A copper calorimeter of mass m1 = 1 kg, contained with water of mass m1 = 1 kg, their common
temperature t = 10o C. Now a piece of ice of mass m3 = 2 kg and temperature is – 11oC dropped
into the calorimeter. Neglecting any heat loss, the final temperature of system is [specific heat of
copper = 0.1 Kcal/kgoC, specific heat of water = 1 Kcal/kgoC, specific heat of ice = 0.5 Kcal/kgoC,
latent heat of fusion of ice = 78.7 Kcal/kg]
(A) 0o C
(B) 4o C
(C) –4o C
(D) –2o C

6. A planet is at an average distance d from the sun, and its average surface temperature is
constant and equal to T. Assume that the planet receives energy only from the sun, and loses
energy only through radiation from its surface. Neglect atmospheric effects. If T  d n , the value
of n is (Power of sun assumed to be constant)
(A) 2
(B) 1
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
4

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

7. An air column in a pipe closed at one end is made to vibrate in its second overtone by a tuning
fork of frequency 440Hz. The speed of sound wave in air is 330 m/s. End corrections may be
neglected. Let P0 denote the mean pressure at any point in the pipe, and P0 the maximum
amplitude of pressure variation. Then:
15
(A) length of the pipe is m
16
9
(B) length of the pipe is m
16
(C) the maximum pressure at the open end is P0
(D) the minimum pressure at the open end is P0

8. A string is holding a solid block below the surface of the liquid as shown in figure. Now if the
system is given an upward constant acceleration a, then as compared to previous state.

 a
(A) Tension is string will be  1   times
 g
 a
(B) Tension is string will be  1   times
 g
 a
(C) Upthrust force on block become  1   times
 g
 a
(D) Upthrust force on block becomes  1   times
 g

9. Consider an insulate cylinder containing nitrogen gas and


sealed on top by a heavy metal piston, as shown in figure. Piston
The piston is free to slide up an down the cylinder, with
negligible friction.
Initially, the piston is 0.20 m above the bottom of the
0.2 m
cylinder, and the gas is at room temperature, 300 K. But
then a student ignites a small flame under the cylinder. As
a result the metal piston slowly rises until reaching a
height 0.30 m above the bottom of the cylinder, at which
point the student extinguish the flame. (atmospheric
pressure is 1 atm)
(A) Immediately before the flame gets ignited, the pressure of nitrogen inside the cylinder is
greater than 1 atm
(B) Immediately before the flame gets ignited, the pressure of nitrogen inside the cylinder is
equal to 1 atm
(C) When piston reaches a height of 0.30 m, the temperature of the nitrogen inside, the
cylinder is most nearly 450 k
(D) Work done by the nitrogen on the piston as it arises from 0.20 m to 0.30 m is W. During
that time interval the net heat absorbed by the nitrogen is equal to w

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10. A rod of mass m = 2 kg, length   1 m, has uniform cross –


8
section area A   10 3 m2 but its density is non-uniform. It
3
is hinged about one end and kept in water of density
 w  103 kg / m3 . At the equilibrium, the rod becomes
 
horizontal. Then g  10 m/s2 . Choose the correct option (s):

2
(A) Centre of mass of the rod is at a distance of m from the hinged end
3
3
(B) Centre of mass of the rod is at a distance of m from the hinged end
4
20
(C) Force exerted by the rod on the hinge support is N
3
(D) It the displace the rod slightly by rotating downwards, it will oscillate

11. A train is moving with constant speed along a circular track. If length of the train is one fourth of
length of circular track then which of the following is/are correct options (Assume that sound
source is at engine and speed of engine is very less then speed of sound):
(A) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will continuously increase.
(B) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will remain constant but more than actual frequency.
(C) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will remains constant and equal to actual frequency.
(D) Wavelength observed by the person who is on the rear end of train is more than the
actual wavelength of sound wave.

12. For a body executing S.H.M. with amplitudes A, time period T, maximum velocity vmax and phase
constant zero, which of the following statements are correct?
A v 
(A) At y    , v   max 
2  2 
v  A
(B) v   max  for y   
 2  2
T A
(C) For t    , y   
8 2
A T
(D) For y    , t   
2
  8

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

13. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 droplets of equal size. Calculate the energy
spent if surface tension of mercury is 35 x 10–3 N/m. Write in (mJ).

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6

14. Two satellites of earth move in a common plane along circular orbits, the radii being r and
r  r  r  r  . What is the time interval (in hr) between their periodic approaches to each other
over the minimum distance? Take Me = 6 x 1024 kg, r = 7000 km, r = 70 km.

15. By observing an alternating doppler shift of a spectral line, the astronomers can deduce the
existence of a binary star system, which otherwise cannot be resolved visually. Suppose that an
astronomical observation shows that the sources of light is eclipsed once every 18 h. The
wavelength of the spectral line observed changes for a maximum of 563 nm to a minimum of 539
nm. Assume that binary star consists of two identical stars. Determine the separation between
the objects. Answer in term of 108.
max

max

Observer

16. A source of sound emits wave isotropically in three dimensions. If the intensity at a distance r0
from source is I0 , at what distance from the source is the intensity of 0.100 I0 (in terms of r0 )?

17. In a pitcher when water is filled some water comes to outer surface slowly through its porous
walls and gets evaporated. Most of the latent heat needed for evaporation is taken from water
inside and hence this water is cooled down. If 10 kg water is taken in the pitcher and 12 gm
water comes out and evaporated per minute, find the time (in minute) in which the temperature of
water in pitcher decreases by 5oC. Neglect the transfer by convection and radiator to surrounding.

18. A lead ball is 25oC is dropped from a height of 2 km. It is heated due to air resistance and it is
assumed that all of its kinetic energy is used in increasing the temperature of ball. If specific heat
of lead is Z = 126 J/kg oC, find the increase in temperature of ball in oC.

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

19. C7H9N has how many isomeric forms that contain a benzene ring?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

20. The correct order of acidic strength of the following:


(I) FCH2COOH (II) CHCl2COOH
(III) NO2CH2COOH (IV) PhCOOH
(A) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)
(B) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV)
(C) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)
(D) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)

21. Total number of isomers of C4H10O will be


(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

22. Which of the following is not a anomalous property of lithium?


(A) Hydrated lithium ion is the largest among alkali metals
(B) The melting and boiling points lithium are comparatively high
(C) Lithium is softer than that of other alkali metals
(D) The ionization potential and electronegativity of lithium are higher than those of other
alkali metals

23. The incorrect statement is


(A) Mg cannot form complexes
(B) Be can form complexes due to a very small atomic size
(C) the first ionization potential of Be is higher than that of Mg
(D) Mg forms an alkaline hydroxide while Be forms amphoteric oxides

24. In this compound chiral carbon has configuration


CHO
H3C C CH 2CH 3
H
(A) R
(B) S
(C) both true
(D) None is true

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

25. Isopropylbenzene can be prepared by


(A) Benzene H3C
H2SO4
CH2
(B) CH3
Benzene H3C
H2SO4
Cl
(C) CH3
AlH3
Benzene H3C
Cl
(D) AlCl3
Benzene H3C
Cl

26. The reaction of biphenyl with HOCl in the presence of a strong acid gives
(A) Cl (B) Cl

(C) (D) Cl
Cl
Cl

27. Boric acid


(A) exists in polymeric form due to inter-molecular hydrogen bonding
(B) is used in manufacturing of optical glasses.
(C) is a tri-basic acid
(D) with borax, it is used in the preparation of a buffer solution.

28. The correct statement(s) related to allotropes of carbon is/are


(A) graphite is the most stable allotropes of carbon and having a two dimensional sheet like
structure of hexagonal rings of carbon(sp2)
(B) diamond is the hardest allotrope of carbon and having a three dimensional network
structure of C(sp3)
(C) fullerene (C60) is recently discovered non-crystalline allotrope of carbon having a football-
like structure.
(D) Vander Waal’s force of attraction acts between the layers of graphite 6.14 Å away from
each other.

29. Na2SO4 is water soluble but BaSO4 is insoluble because


(A) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy
(B) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is less than that of its lattice energy
(C) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is less than that of its lattice energy
(D) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy

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30. In which of the following cases, forward reaction is/are favoured?


O O
(A) C CH 3CH 2O C CH 3CH 2OH
F 3C OH F 3C O

(B) CH3  CH3  H  C  C  CH3  CH2  H  C  C  H
 
(C) CH  CH  NH2  CH  C NH3

H3C C OH HCO 3 H3C C O H2CO3


(D)
O O

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

31. How many of the following pairs, first intermediate is more stable than the second one?
(1) H3C CH CH; H2C CH CH 2 (2) CCl 3; CF 3

(4) CH CH3; CH NH 2
(3) ;

CH 2 CH 2

(5) ; (6) ;

OCH 3 Cl

(8) F3C CH 2 , F3C CH CF 3


(7) CCl2, CF2(both single)

(9) ,

CH 2

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10

32. How many optical isomers are possible for the following compound?
CHO

H OH

H OH

H OH

CH 2OH

33. How many isomers are possible with the formula C2ClBrFI?

34. How many of the following possess plane of symmetry?


CO 2H CO 2H CO 2H
H OH H OH H OH
HO OH , HO H , H OH
CH 2OH CO 2H CO 2H

CH3 H CH3 CH3

CH 2BrCl, , ,
H CH3 H H

NO 2 O 2N
H3C CH3 H CH3
C C C H Cl
, ,
H3C H CH3 H
I I Cl H

35. Consider the following elements:


Li, Cs, Mg, Pb, Al, N
o x = number of elements which can from MO type of oxides.
o y = the highest oxidation state shown by any one of them.
o z = the number of elements which can form amphoteric oxide(s).
Find the sum of x, y and z.

36. What is the oxidation state of oxygen of H 2O2 in the final product when it reacts with ClO3 ?

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

37. The maximum value of the expression sin2 x  2a2  2a 2  1  cos2 x , where a and x are real

number is :
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) none on these

tan   2 tan 2  4 tan 4.....  2n 1 tann1 


38. If  1, n  N then general solution of  is :
cot   2n
 
(A)   2  n  n  
 4
 
(B)   2n  n  
 4 
n  
(C)   2  n  
 4
(D) None of these


n
39.  4n
n 1
4
1
equals to :

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 
(D) 1/4

40. The greatest positive argument of complex no. satisfying | z  4 | Re  z  is :



(A)
3
2
(B)
3

(C)
2

(D)
4

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   
n r
If 4x 2  1   ar 1  x 2
n
41. x 2r , then the value of ar is :
r 0

(A) n
Cr 1  4r
(B) n
Cr  3r
(C) n
Cr  4 r
(D) n
Cr 1  3r

42. Number of rectangles in figure shown which are not squares is :

(A) 159
(B) 160
(C) 161
(D) none of these

(One or More than one correct type)


This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

43. Which of the following set of values of x satisfies the equation


2
 2 sin2 x 3 sin x 1  2 2 2 sin2 x  3 sin x   9 ?

(A) x  n  ,n  I
6

(B) x  n  ,n  I
3
(C) x  n,n  I

(D) x  2n  ,n  I
2
n
2n  1
44. If Sn   , then S10 is less than :
n 1 n  2n3  n2
4

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

45. If z1 = 5 + 12i and |z2| = 4, then:


(A) maximum  z1  iz 2   17
(B) Minimum (| z1  1  i z2 | 13  9 2
z1 13
(C) minimum 
z2  4 / z2 4
z1 13
(D) maximum = 
z2  4 / z2 3

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 
z
46. Consider E  8
x5y  I  f,0  f  1
(A) If x = 5, y = 2, z = 100, then number of irrational terms in expansion of E is 98.
(B) If x = 5, y = 2, z = 100, then number of rational terms in expansion of E is 4
(C) If x = 16, y = 1 and z = 6, then I = 197
 
6
(D) If x = 16, y = 1 and z = 6, then f = 2 1

47. The number of ways in which we can choose 2 distinct integers from 1 to 100 such that
difference between them is at most 10 is:
(A) 100
C2  90 C2
(B) 100
C98  90 C88
(C) C2  90 C88
100

(D) None of the above

n
2 sin2
48. Let fn      , then which of the following is/are correct?
n 1 cos 2  cos 4n


(A) f5    2
8
  
(B) f3    4
 12 

(C) f2009    0
4

(D) f51    2 3
6

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.

49. If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, then the minimum value of the expression
 
 a 4  3a 2  1 b 4  5b2  1 c 4  7a2  1 
  is
 
 a 2 b2 c 2 
 

50. In a ABC , A  30o , BC  2  5 , then distance of vertex A from orthocentre of  is

 
k  k  1 k  1 , then
225
k
equals:

51. Let a, b, c be sides of a triangle ABC and  denotes its area.


If a = 2;  = 3 and acos C + 3 a sin C  b  c  0 ; then find he value of (b + c).
(symbols used have usual meaning in ABC)

52. If circumradius of ABC is 3 units and its area is 6 units and DEF is formed by joining foot of
perpendiculars drawn from A, B, C on sides BC, CA, AB respectively. Find the perimeter of
 DEF.

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 14

1
53. Let  a  3 223  1 and for all n  3, let
f  n   n C0 .an 1  n C1.an  2  n C2 .an3  ......   1 n 1.nCn 1.a0 .
If the value of f  2007   f  2008   33  k , find k.

54. Let complex number ‘z’ satisfy the inequality 2  | z |  4. A point P is selected in this region at
   1
random. The probability that argument of P lies in the interval   ,  is , then K =
 4 4  K

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II

JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

1. Ideal liquid of density  is filled in a cylindrical container upto (3/4)th height. Now the liquid is
being rotated about vertical axis passing through its axis of symmetry with constant angular
velocity , such that liquid is on the verge of falling out of the container and free surface of liquid
forms a paraboloid. Whole situation is shown in the figure. Choose the correct options.
y

 h0

h x

h
(A) h0 
4
gh
(B) 
R2
dp
(C)  2 x
dx
dp
(D)  g
dy

2. A solid spherical planet of mass 2m and radius ‘R’ has a very thin tunnel along its diameter. A
small cosmic particle of mass m is at a distance 2 R from the centre of the planet as shown. Both
are initially at rest, and due to gravitational attraction, both start moving toward each other. After
some time, the cosmic particle passes through the centre of the planet. (Assume the planet and
the cosmic particle are isolated from other planets)
2m

2R

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3 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022

4R
(A) Displacement of the cosmic particle till that instant is
3
(B) Acceleration of the cosmic particle at that instant is zero
8Gm
(C) velocity of the cosmic particle at that instant is
3R
2Gm2
(D) total work done by the gravitational force on both the particle is 
R

3. When the temperature of a copper coin is raised by 80o C, its diameter increases by 0.2%. Then
choose the correct option(s):
(A) percentage rise in the area of a face is 0.4%
(B) percentage rise in the thickness is 0.4%
(C) percentage rise in the volume is 0.6%
(D) coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 0.25  10 4 / o C.

4. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The free liquid
surface inside the tube is hemispherical in shape. The tube is now pushed down so that the
height of the tube outside the liquid is less than h. Choose the correct option(s):
(A) The liquid will come out of the tube like in a small fountain.
(B) The liquid will come out of the tube slowly.
(C) The liquid will fill the tube but not come out of its upper end.
(D) The free liquid surface inside the tube will not be hemispherical.

5. An ideal gas is filled in a fixed adiabatic cylinder as shown in figure. The initial temperature,
pressure and volume of the gas are T0 ,P0 and V0 respectively where P0 is atmospheric pressure.
A light non conducting and smooth piston of area A is connected to a spring of spring constant K,
which is initially in natural length. Now the gas is heated slowly for some time, due to which the
piston moves out slowly by a distance ‘x’. Then

atmosphere

Heater

Moveble Piston

Kx
(A) Pressure of the gas is P0 
A
 Kx  Ax 
(B) Temperature of the gas is  1   1   T0
 P0 A  V0 
(C) The gas is undergoing constant pressure process
1
(D) Work done by the gas is Kx 2
2

6. For an equi-molar gaseous mixture of argon and oxygen (P = Gas sample pressure)
(A) Isothermal bulk modulus is P
(B) Isothermal bulk modulus is 1.5 P
(C) Adiabatic bulk modulus is P
(D) Adiabatic bulk modulus is 1.5 P

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

7. A container (water equivalent of container is negligible) contains 50 gm of water at 0 o C. If H


amount of heat is extracted per second from water and keeping the spray closed, then whole
water freezes in 10 sec. If spray is also working and sprays the water with 2 gm/sec at 0 o C, then
5x
time delay is seconds in complete freezing compared to previous case keeping the rate of
3
extraction of heat from water same. Then calculate ‘x’ (Latent heat capacity of ice = 80 cal/gm)

2 gm/sec,
Spray

water

0 o
C,50gm  H cal./sec,

8. A solid cube of side a, density d and specific heat ‘s’ is at temperature 400 K. It is placed in an
ambient temperature of 200 K. Take : a = 0.9 m, d  4.8  103 Kg/m3 ,s  2.0  103 J/kg/K,
Stefan’s constant   6  10 8 W/K 4  m2 . Consider the cube to be a black body. If the time for
the temperature of the cube to drop by 5 K is 1000(X) seconds, find X in nearest integer.

9. The degree of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. At constant pressure work done by gas is
25 J. The heat supplied to the gas for this purpose is 25x Joule then x is:

10. A solid sphere (radius = R) rolls without slipping in a


cylindrical trough (radius = 5 R). The time period of small 5R

of oscillations is 2
k 2

3 R
. Find the value of k (axis
R

kg
of cylinder is fixed and horizontal).

11. A rope, under tension of 200 N and fixed at both ends, oscillates in a second harmonic standing
wave pattern. The displacement of the rope is given by
 x 
y   0.10 m  sin   sin 12t  , where x = 0 at one end of the rope, x is in meters and t is in
 3 
seconds. Find the length of the rope in meters.

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12. The velocity of liquid (v) in steady flow at a location through cylindrical pipe is given by
 r2 
v  v0 1 2  . Where r is the radial distance of that location from the axis of the pipe and R is
 R 
the inner radius of pipe. If R = 10 cm, volume flow rate through the pipe is  / 2  10 2 m3 s 1 and
the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is 0.75 N sm-2, find the magnitude of the viscous force per
unit area, in Nm2 at r = 4 cm.

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

13. Figure shows a cylindrical container which in divided in two equal


parts by a clamped diathermic piston different ideal gases are filled in
the two parts. It’s found that the rms speed of molecules in the lower
part is equal to the mean speed of the molecules in the upper part.
Find the ratio of mass of molecule of gas in lower part to that of the
gas in upper part.

14. A black metal container of negligible heat capacity is filled with water. The container has sides of
length 10 cm. It is placed in an evacuated chamber at 27o C. How long will it take for the
temperature of water to change from 30o C to 29o C. (in minutes)

15. A mass M attached to a spring with a period of 2 sec. If the mass is increased by 2 kg. The
period increases by one second find the initial mass M in kg.

16. An open organ pipe filled with air has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz. The first harmonic of
another organ pipe closed at one end and filled with CO2 has the same frequency as that of the
first harmonic of the open organ pipe calculate the length of closed organ pipe. The velocity of
sound in air and CO2 are 300 m/s and 264 m/s respectively (in cm).

17. What force (N) must be applied to detach two wetted photographic plates  9  12 cm2 in size
from each other without shifting them? The thickness of the water layer between the plates is
0.05 mm and wetting is complete.

18. A satellite moves in an elliptical orbit around the earth. It was put in the orbit at a point with a
speed 1.2 V, where V is the speed for a circular orbit at that point. Find the distance of maximum
to minimum distance of satellite from the earth.

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

19. Benzyl chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) can be prepared by chlorination with toluene


(A) SO2Cl2
(B) Cl2
(C) SOCl2
(D) NaOCl

20. Among the following carbocations which is/are highly unstable?


(A)  C6H5  C
3

(B)

(C) 
H2C  CH
(D)

21. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c-2e as well as 2c-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas
at a certain temperature, gives a compound (Y) iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with
ammonia at a high temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6
(B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite
(D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)

22. Which of the following statements are false?


(A) BeCl2 is a linear molecule in the vapour state but it is polymeric form in the solid state
(B) Calcium hydride is called hydrolith.
(C) Carbides of both Be and Ca react with water to form acetylene
(D) Oxides of both Be and Ca are amphoteric.

23. Which of the following are ionic carbides?


(A) CaC2
(B) Al4C3
(C) SiC
(D) Be2C

24. Select the correct statement about product A.


Br

AgNO3
A

(A) product is aromatic

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(B) Product has high dipole moment


(C) Product has less resonance energy
(D) Product is soluble in polar solvent

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

25. Number of following nitrates gives the same gaseous products on thermal decomposition?
KNO3 ,Pb(NO3 )2 , NaNO3 , Cu(NO3 )2 ,LiNO3 ,Ca(NO3 )2 , Ba(NO3 )2

CH3
26. How many products are formed by the nitration of compound?

CH3

27. How many methods can be used for the preparation of the isopropyl benzene?
H2SO4 CH3
H2SO4
(i) Benzene H3C (ii) Benzene H3C
CH2 Cl

CH3 AlCl
3
(iii) Benzene H3C AlCl3
(iv) Benzene H3C
Cl Cl

CH3
H2SO4
(v) Benzene H3C C CH2

28. Out of the following how many groups are meta directing?
(i) – COOH (ii) – CN (iii) – COCH3 (iv) – NHCOCH3

29. How many methods can be used for the preparation of iodobenzene?
(i) C6H6  I2 (ii) C2H6  I2 
HNO3
 (iii) C6H5N2 Cl  KI (iv) C6H6  HI 

30. How many species would be expected to exhibit aromatic character?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

31. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate, and water insoluble hydroxide M(OH) 2. Its oxide
MO is amphoteric, hard and having high melting point. Atomic mass of the alkaline earth metal
M is

32. How many cyclopentane structures (including stereo) are possible for C7H14?

33. 0.205 g of an organic compound on complete combustion gave 0.66 g of CO2 and 0.225 g of
water. The mass of 68 ml of its vapour at 100 C and 750 mm of pressure was found to be 0.18 g.
Find the %age of Carbon in the given organic compound.

34. How many grams of calcium oxide required to neutralize 852 g of P4O10?

35. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 ml) reacts with a solution of KMnO 4(20 ml) acidified with dil.
H2SO4 The same volume of KMnO4 solution is just decolorised by 10 ml of MnSO4 in neutral
medium simultaneously forming a dark brown ppt. of hydrated MnO 2. The Brown ppt. dissolved
in 10 ml of 0.2 sodium oxalate in in the presence of dil. H2SO4. find the Molarity of H2O2.

36. Electrolysis of molten MgCl2 in the final production step in the isolation of magnesium from sea
water by Dow’s process assuming that 35.6 g of Mg forms. Find the number of moles of electrons
are required.

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.

sin4 x cos 4 x 1
37. If   , then which of the following holds good?
3 5 8
5
(A) tan2 x 
3
3
(B) tan2 x 
5
sin6 x cos6 x 1
(C)  
9 25 64
6 6
sin x cos x 1
(D)  
9 25 8

  
 
sec 2 
38. The value of  in the interval   ,  satisfying the equation 3  tan4   2 tan2  :
 2 2

(A)
4

(B) 
4
(C) 
(D) None of these

39. Let a1,a2 ,a3 ,............and b1,b 2 ,b3 ............ be arithmetic progressions such that a1  25, b1  75
and a100  b100  100. Then:
(A) the difference between successive terms in progression ‘a’ is opposite of the difference in
progression ‘b’
(B) an  bn  100 for any n.
(C)  a1  b1  ,  a2  b2  ,  a3  b3  ,.......... are in A.P.
100
(D)  a
r 1
r  br   10000

2
40. Let   cis ,    6 ,    7 ,    2 ,then :
11
1
(A) 
Re    2   3   4   5    2
(B)        
 2

  3

......  
 
9   10  0 
(C) i    i    i    ....... i     i
2 3 10

(D) None of the above

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10

n
r n
n2  3n  3
41. If 
r 0
n
 
Cr r  0 2.n Cr
then n can be:

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None of these

42. Internal bisector of A of a triangle ABC meets side BC at D.A line drawn through D
perpendicular to AD intersects the side AC at E and the side AB at F. If a, b, c represent sides of
ABC, then:
(A) AE is harmonic mean of b and c
2bc A
(B) AD  cos
bc 2
4bc A
(C) EF  sin
bc 2
(D) the triangle AEF is isosceles

SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.

43. 1  cot1 1  cot 2 1  cot 3 ... 1  cot 44   2 . If n  10k  k and k  N, then k =
0 0 0 0 n

44. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations:
cos(xy)  x
 is:
 tan(xy)  y

sin(nx) a  b b

1  abc
45. If
n0
 3 n

c
and sin x  where 0  x  , then the value of
3 2 8
, where a, b, c

are positive integers:

20
a7
    ar x r , then the value of
10
46. Let 2x 2  3x  4 is:
r 0 a13

47. No. of ways in which 38808 can be expressed as a product to two co-prime factors are:

 1  1  1
48. If 3  a    4  b    5  c   where a, b, c are positive numbers and ab + bc + ca = 1, then
 a  b  c
 1 a 2
1 b 2
1 c 
2
5     ..........
 1  a 2
1  b 2
1 c2 

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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).

49. If xi ,i  1,2,3,4 be four real numbers of same sign, then the minimum value of
4 4 a a
2 2


j 1 i 1
i

aia j
j
,i, j  1,2,3,4,i  j is:

360  1 
50.   k  is the ratio of two relative prime positive integers m and n. The value of
 k  1   k  1
k 1 k 
(m + n) is equal to:

In the expansion of 1  x  1  y  1  z  1  w  , the sum of the coefficient of the terms of


2 3 4 5
51.
degree 12 is:

52. In ABC, A  600 , B  450 , c  5 and CM  AB. A circle with CM as diameter cuts CA and CB at
c 
Q and S respectively so that SQ 
u u

, then 1  10 c 2   u3  

 A B  C
53. If in ABC,1  2cos A cosB cos C   cos A cosB, then 115   is________.
  

54. The number of ways in which 1111 can be written as the product of three factors.

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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II

JEE (Main)-2022

TEST DATE: 19-12-2020


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 75 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 25 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

 Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.

Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.

Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. A wire of radius r stretched without tension along a  


straight line is lightly fixed at A and B. What is the tension A B
in the wire when it is pulled into the shape ACB? Assume
Young’s modulus of the material of the wire to be Y and d
d < :
T T
Yd2
(A)
2r 2  2
Yr 2 d2 C
(B)
2 2
Yr 2
(C)
2 2 d2
Yr 2  2
(D)
2d2

2. Two rods of different materials having the same area of


cross-section A, are placed between two massive walls
1 2
as shown in figure. The first rod has a length  1 ,
coefficient of linear expansion 1 and Young’s modulus Y1, 1 Y2, 2
Y1. The corresponding quantities for the second road
are  2 ,  2 and Y2 . The temperature of both end is now
raised by T degrees. The force with which the rods act
on each other at higher temp. is given by:

(A) F

T  112   2  22 A 
 1  2 
  
 Y1 Y2 

(B) F

T  11   2  2 A 
 1  2 
  
 Y1 Y2 
 1  2 
  A
 Y1 Y2 
(C) F

 11   2  2 
  
T 1  2 A
 
(D) F  1 2 

 1Y1   2 Y2 

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3. Liquid reaches an equilibrium as shown, in a capillary tube of


internal radius r. If the surface tension of the liquid is T, the
angle of contact  and density of liquid , then the pressure
difference between P and Q is: P

 2T 
(A)   cos 
 r 
Q
T
(B)
r cos  

2T
(C)
r cos 
 4T 
(D)   cos 
 r 

4. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the
centre of the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is , then
the difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is:
r
(A)
2g
r 2 2
(B)
2g
(C) 2gr
2
(D)
2gr 2

5. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed o about a diameter. If its temperature
is now increased by 100oC, what will be its new angular speed? (Given B  2.0  10 5 / o C )
(A) 1.10
(B) 1.010
(C) 0.9960
(D) 0.820

6. An electric heater is placed inside a room of total wall area 137m 2 and maintained at a
temperature 20oC inside, outside temperature –10oC. the walls are made up of three composite
materials. Innermost layer is made up of wood of thickness 2.5 cm, middle layer is of cement of
thickness 1 cm and the exterior layer is 25 cm thick. Assuming there is no loss of heat through
any other way, the power of electric heater is [the thermal conductivity of wood = 0.125 W/m2oC,
cement = 1.5 W/m2oC and brick = 1 W/m2oC]:
(A) 9000 W
(B) 8500 W
(C) 8800 W
(D) 9400 W

7. If a particle is fired vertically upwards from the surface of earth and reaches a height of 6400 km,
the initial velocity of the particle is (Assume R = 6400 km and g = 10 m s –2):
(A) 4 km/sec
(B) 2 km/sec
(C) 8 km/sec
(D) 16 km/sec

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8. Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0oC when the atmospheric temperature is –10oC. If the
time taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes, the time taken for the thickness of the ice to
change from 1 cm to 2 cm will be
(A) 12 minutes
(B) Less than 12 minutes
(C) More than 12 minutes but less than 24 minutes
(D) More than 24 minutes

9. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic P


process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work
done by the system is C B
(A) P0 V0 3 P0

(B) 2P0 V0
2 P0 O
P0 V0
(C)
2 P0 D
(D) Zero A
V
V0 2V0

10. The temperature of an isolated black body falls from T1 to T2 in time t. Let C be a constant. Then
1 
(A) t  C   T1 
 T2 
 1 1
(B) t  C 2  2 
 T2 T1 
 1 1
(C) t  C 3  3 
T
 2 T1 

 1 1
(D) t  C 4  4 
 T2 T1 

11. An ideal heat engine working between temperatures T H and TL has efficiency  . If both the
temperatures are raised by 100 K each, the new efficiency of the heat engine will be
(A) Equal to 
(B) Greater than 
(C) Less than 
(D) Greater or less than  depending upon the nature of the working substance

12. A particle executing SHM while moving from one extremity is found at distances x 1, x2 and x3 from
the centre at the end of three successive seconds. The time period of oscillation is
2
(A)


(B)

(C) 

(D)
2
 x  x3 
where   cos1  1 
 2x 2 

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13. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to a vertical wall and the other to a body of mass
m resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x 0 from the body.
The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to strike the wall is

x0

A B

2x0 C

 k
(A)
6 m
k
(B)
m
2 m
(C)
3 k
 k
(D)
4 m

25
14. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic motion along x-axis with frequency of

Hz. At the position x = 0.04 m, the object has a kinetic energy of 0.5 J and potential energy of
0.4 J. The amplitude of oscillation (in m) is equal to
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.06
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.03

15. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a balance whose scale pans differ in vertical height by
h. The error in weighing in terms of density of the earth  is
(A) Gmh
1
(B) Gmh
3
8
(C) Gmh
3
4
(D) Gmh
3

16. A transverse wave is travelling in a string. Equation of the wave:


(A) Is not equal to the shape of the string at an instant t
(B) Is general equation for displacement of a particle of the string
(C) Must be sinusoidal equation
(D) Is an equation for displacement of the particle of one end only

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17. Equations of a stationary and a travelling waves are as follows:


y1  a sinkx cos t and y 2  a sin  t  kx 
 3
The phase difference between two points x1  and x 2  are 1 and 2 respectively for the
3k 2k
 
two waves. The ratio  1  is
 2 
(A) 1
5
(B)
6
3
(C)
4
6
(D)
7

18. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes
between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is
replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for
the same positions of the bridges. The value of M is
(A) 25 kg
(B) 5 kg
(C) 12.5 kg
1
(D) kg
25

19. Two sound sources are moving in opposite directions with velocities v1 and v2  v1  v 2  . Both
are moving away from a stationary observer. The frequency of both the sources is 900 Hz. What
is the value of v1  v 2 so that the beat frequency observed by the observer is 6 Hz? Speed of
sound v = 300 m/s. Given that v1 and v 2  v .
(A) 1 m/s
(B) 2 m/s
(C) 3 m/s
(D) 4 m/s

20. The speed of longitudinal waves in a thin brass rod is 3480 m per second. If the rod is clamped
at one end and gives a fundamental frequency of 435 Hz, the length of the rod is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 1.0 m
(C) 2.0 m
(D) 4.0 m

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

21. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The specific
gravities of concrete and sawdust are respectively 2.4 and 0.3 for this sphere to flow with its
entire volume submerged under water. Ratio of mass of concrete to mass of sawdust will be

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22. In an industrial process 10 kg of water per hour is to be heated from 20oC to 80oC. To do this
steam at 150oC is passed from a boiler into a copper coil immersed in water. The steam
condenses in the coil and is returned to the boiler as water at 90oC. How many kg of steam is
required per hour? Sp. heat of steam = 1 cal per gm per oC, Lsteam = 540 cal/gm.

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

23. A sample of ideal gas    1.4  is heated at constant pressure. If an amount of 100 J is supplied
to the gas, the work done by the gas is

24. The frequency of a sonometer wire is 100 Hz. When the weights producing the tension are
completely immersed in water the frequency becomes 80 Hz and on immersing the weights in a
certain liquid the frequency becomes 60 Hz. The specific gravity of the liquid is

25. A spherical bubble of air has a radius of 1 mm at the bottom of a tank full of water. As the bubble
rises it goes on becoming bigger and bigger. On reaching the surface the radius becomes 2 mm.
The depth of the tank (in m) is

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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

26. Tautomerism is not exhibited by


(A)
O O

(B)
CH NOH

(C) O

O
(D)
O

27. What are the type of isomers in following pairs?


H Me H
H CH3

H
H H H H
Me CH3

(I) (II)
(A) Conformers
(B) Position
(C) Optical
(D) Geometrical

28. Which will form geometrical isomers?


(A) Cl

Cl
(B) CH3 CH  NOH
(C)

(D) All

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29. Tautomerism is not shown by


(A) CH3 COCH2CN
(B) HCN
(C) CH3 CH  NOH
(D) HCHO

30. Which is the strongest base among the following?


(A) Ph  NH2
(B) Ph NH C CH3
O
(C) Ph  CH2  NH2
(D) Ph – NH – Ph

31. C6H12(A) has chirality but on hydrogenation A is converted into C 6H14(B) in which chirality
disappears. Hence A is
(A) 3-Methyl-1-pentene
(B) 2- Methyl-2-pentene
(C) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene

32. C8H18(A) on chlorination forms only one type of C8H17Cl. Hence A is


(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Cl2  H2 O
33. CCl3 CH  CH2   A, A is
(A) HO
Cl
Cl 3C
(B) Cl
OH
Cl 3C
(C) Cl3C
Cl Cl
(D) Cl3C CH2
OH OH

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34. Which of the following alkene has the slowest rate of hydrogenation?
(A) H3C
CH2
H3C
(B) CH3
H3C
(C)
H3C CH3
(D) CH3
H

H3PO4
35. CH3 CH CH2 'A'. A is

(A) CH3
H2C C CH3
H

(B) H3C
H3C C CH3

(C) H3C CH CH3

(D) None of these

36. Which is the most reacting towards electrophilic substitution reaction?


(A)

(B) NO 2

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(C) Cl

(D)

37. Orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid giving



(A) B  OH4 
(B) H2BO2

(C) B  OH4 
(D) H2BO2

38. In SiF62  and SiCl26  which one is known and why?


(A) SiF62  because of small size of F
(B) SiF62  because of large size of Cl
(C) SiCl26  because of small size of Cl
(D) SiCl26  because of large size of Cl

39. The compound (E) is:

Cl2/Fe HNO3 HNO3 NaOH HNO3


(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
H2SO4 H2SO4 Δ H2SO4

(A) Cl (B) Cl
O 2N NO 2 HO NO 2

NO 2 NO 2

(C) OH (D) OH
Cl NO 2 O 2N NO 2

NO 2
NO 2 NO 2

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40. The three tribomobenzenes can be identified by the korner method. The number of mononitro
products of I, II and III tribromobenzenes are respectively.
Br Br Br
Br Br

Br Br Br

Br

1, 3, 5-Tribromobenzene 1, 2, 3-tribromobenzene 1, 2, 4-tribromobenzene


(I) (II) (III)
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2

41. A metal ‘M’ readily forms water soluble sulphate and water insoluble hydroxide, M(OH)2. Its oxide,
MO, is amphoteric, hard and possesses high melting point. The hydroxide is also amphoteric in
nature. The alkaline earth metal ‘M’ must be
(A) Be
(B) Mg
(C) Ca
(D) Ba

42. Which one of the following compounds does not exist?


(A) B2H4 (CH3 )2
(B) B 2H3 (CH3 )3
(C) B2H2 (CH3 )4
(D) B2H(CH3 )5

43. Which of the following mixtures cannot be prepared?


(A) NaHCO3  Na2CO3
(B) Na2 CO3  NaOH
(C) NaHCO3  NaOH
(D) H2CO3  NaHCO3

44. PAN (Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate) is an important constituent of photochemical smog, is a


(A) Quantitative pollutant
(B) Natural pollutant
(C) Not a pollutant
(D) Secondary pollutant

45. The gas released in Bhopal tragedy was


(A) Phosgene
(B) MIC
(C) COCl2
(D) None of these

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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

46. Number of tetrahedral unit in Na2B 4 O7 .10H2O is/are:

47. Number of 3c – 2e bonds (B………H………B) present in B2H6 is/are:

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

48. What is the %age by mass of Ca in Plaster of Paris?

49. The oxidation state of metal in Wilkinson Catalyst?

50. An orange solid (X) on heating, gives a colourless gas (Y) and a only green residue (Z). Gas (Y)
on treatment with Mg, produces a white solid substance P. Find molar mass of final product (P).

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

51. If the equation x 4  4x 3  ax 2  bx  1  0 has four positive roots, then the value of (a + b) is :
(A) -4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) can not be determined

1.2 2.22 3.23


52. If Sn     ..... upto n terms, then the sum of the infinite terms is :
3! 4! 5!
(A) 1
2
(B)
3
(C) e

(D)
4

1 1 1 1 1
53. Find the sum of the infinite series      ......
9 18 30 45 63
1
(A)
3
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
5
2
(D)
3

54. The number of three digit number of the form xyz such that x < y and z  y is:
(A) 156
(B) 204
(C) 240
(D) 276

55. A dice is rolled 4 times, the number appearing listed. The number of different throws, such that
the largest number appearing in the list is not 4, is:
(A) 175
(B) 625
(C) 1040
(D) 1121

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56. A batsman can score 0, 2, 3 or 4 runs for each ball he receivers. If N is the number of ways of
scoring a total of 20 runs in one over of six balls, then N is divisible by:
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 14
(D) 16

If 1  x 
2010
57.  C0  C1x  C2 x 2  .......  C2010 x 2010 , then the sum of series
C2  C5  C8  ........  C2009 equals to :
1
(A)
2
2 2010

1

1
(B)
3
2 2010

1

1
(C)
2
2 2009

1

1
(D)
3
2 2009

1

58. 26
C0  26 C1  26 C2  .......  26 C13 is equal to :
1
(A) 225  . 26 C13
2
1
(B) 2  . 26 C13
25

2
(C) 213
1
(D) 226  . 26 C13
2

n
59. Let   represents the combination of ‘n’ things taken ‘k’ at a time, then the value of the sum
k 
 99   98   97  3 2
         .....       equals:
 97   96   95  1   0 
 99 
(A)  
 97 
 100 
(B)  
 96 
 99 
(C)  
 98 
 100 
(D)  
 97 

60. The last digit of 9! + 39966 is:


(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 9

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61. If | z  2i | 2, then the maximum value of |3 + i(z - 1)| is:


(A) 2
(B) 2 2
(C) 2 2
(D) 32 2

62. Let x 
1
x
  2  i where i  1 . Then the value of x 2187 
x
1
2187
is :

(A) i 2
(B) i 2
(C) –2
i
(D)
2

63. Let P and Q be two points on the circle |w| = r represented by w1 and w2 respectively, then the
complex number representing the point of intersection of the tangents at P and Q is
w 1w 2
(A)
2  w1  w 2 
2w 1w 2
(B)
w1  w 2
2w 1w 2
(C)
w1  w 2
2w 1w 2
(D)
w1  w 2

64. If z1,z2 ,z3 are complex number, such than |z1| =2, |z2| = 3, |z3| = 4, then maximum value of
| z1  z2 |2  | z 2  z 3 |2  | z3  z1 |2 is :
(A) 58
(B) 29
(C) 87
(D) None of these

 
65. If all values of x   a,b  satisfy the inequality tanx tan3x < - 1, x   0,  , then the maximum
 2
b  a  is:

(A)
12

(B)
3

(C)
6

(D)
4

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17 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022

sin A 3 cos A 5 
66. If  and  ,0  A,B  then tan A + tan B is equal to :
sinB 2 cosB 2 2
3
(A)
5
5
(B)
3
3 5
(C)
5
3 5
(D)
3

67. The number of solution of the equation 4 sin2 x  tan2 x  cot 2 x  cos esc 2 x  6 in 0,2 :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

A C 1
68. In a triangle ABC, if tan tan  and ac = 4, then the least value of b is :
2 2 3
(notation have their usual meaning)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6

 a  b  c  b  c  a  c  a  b  a  b  c 
69. The expression is equal to :
4b 2 c 2
(A) cos2 A
(B) sin2 A
(C) cos A cosBcosB
(D) sin A sin B sin C
(where symbols used have usual meanings)

70. Two ships leave a port at the same time. One goes 24 km/h in the direction North 45o East and
other travels 32 km/h in the direction South 75 o East. The distance between the ships at the end
of 3 h is approximately.
(A) 81.4 km
(B) 82 km
(C) 85 km
(D) 86.5 km

SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.

71. Number of ways in which the letter of the word DECISIONS be arranged so that letter N be
9
somewhere to the right of the letter “D” is . Find  .

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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18


72. Complex number z1 and z2 satisfy z  z  2 | z  1|and arg  z1  z 2   . Then the value of
4
lm  z1  z 2  is:

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).

3
73. In ABC, tan A = 2, tan B = and c  65 , then circumradius of the triangle is:
2

74. In a triangle ABC with altitude AD, BAC  45o ,DB  3 and CD = 2. The area of the triangle ABC
is

75. If cos 20o  2sin2 55o  1  2 sin K o , K   0,90  , then K =

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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183


BATCH – 022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 LOT PH–III

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(i) Part-A (08-13) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. Cv and Cp denote the molar specific heat capacities of a gas at constant volume and constant
pressure, respectively. Then
(A) Cp Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(B) Cp + Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(C) Cp/Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(D) Cp. Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.

2. The displacement of a particle of mass 100 gm from its mean position is given by
y = 0.05 sin 4 (5t + 0.4). Then
(A) the time period of motion is 0.1 s.
(B) the maximum acceleration of the particle is 10 2 m/s2.
2
(C) Total energy of oscillation of the particle is 0.05  joule.
(D) the force acting on the particle is zero when displacement is 0.05 m.

3. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 2  106 Nm–1 has a total mechanical energy of 160 J. Its:
(A) maximum potential energy is 100 J. (B) maximum kinetic energy may 160 J.
(C) maximum potential energy is 160 J. (D) minimum potential energy is zero.

4. A source of sound moves along a circle of radius 2 m with constant angular


velocity 40 rad/s. Frequency of the source is 300 Hz. A detector is kept at
some distance from the circle in the same plane of the circle (as shown in
figure). Which of the following is not the possible value of frequency registered
by the detector? (Speed of sound = 320 m/s)
(A) 250 Hz (B) 360 Hz
(C) 410 Hz (D) 220 Hz

5. Density (ρ) verses temperature (T) graph of a thermodynamic cycle of


an ideal gas is as shown. If BC and AD are the part of rectangular
hyperbola then which of the following graphs will represent the same
thermodynamic cycle.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-3

6. For a certain stretched string, three consecutive resonance frequencies are observed as 105, 175,
245 Hz respectively. Then select the correct alternative (s)
(A) the string is fixed at both ends
(B) the string is fixed at one end only
(C) the fundamental frequency is 35 Hz
(D) the fundamental frequency is 52.5 Hz

7. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth.
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero.
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. An ideal gas is taken through cycle A → B → C →A as shown in


figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas is 10 J, then the work
done by the gas in process B → C is

(A) –10 J (B) –30 J


(C) –15 J (D)–20 J

9. Young’s moduli of two wires A and B are in the ratio 7 : 4. Wire A is 2 m long and has radius R. Wire
B is 1.5 m long and has radius 2 mm. If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given load, then
the value of R is close to:
(A) 1.3 mm (B) 1.5 mm
(C) 1.7 mm (D) 1.9 mm

10. The bob of a pendulum, is attached to a horizontal spring of spring constant k.


Choose the correct option for the time period of the bob .
L m
(A) 2 (B) 2
g k
 1  1 L  2
(C) 2  (D) 2   
 (g / L)  (k / m)  2 g m/k
 

11. A block of mass m is connected by 3 spring of force constant K1, K2 and K3 as


shown in the figure. The block is given a small vertical displacement from its
equilibrium position, the time period of oscillation of the block is (Neglect the
mass of pulley)
m m k1 k3
(A) 2 (B) 2
K1 K2
1 k2 m
m 1 1 1
(C) 2 (D) 2 m    
K3  k1 k 2 k 3 

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-4

12. If the angular momentum of a planet of mass m, moving around the Sun in a circular orbit is L, about
the center of the Sun, its areal velocity is:
L 4L
(A) (B)
m m
L 2L
(C) (D)
2m m

13. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The
thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of the outer cylinder is K2.
Assuming no loss of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing along the
length of the cylinder is:
K1  K 2
(A) (B) K1  K 2
2
2K1  3K 2 K1  3K 2
(C) (D)
5 4

PART – B: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +3
marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

1. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 2m respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R, and B
10k
is in a circular orbit of radius 2R around the earth. The ratio of their kinetic energies, TA/TB, is .
20
Find the value of k.

2. A solid sphere of radius R has a mass m distributed in its volume with a mass density  = kra, where k
and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If gravitational field at r = R/2 is 1/8 times
that at r = R, find the value of a.

3. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied
5
which increases the internal energy of the gas is . Find the value of x.
10x

4. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm
from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is SI units is equal to that of its acceleration.
10k
Then, its periodic time in seconds is . Find the value of k.
3

5. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 1.5 kHz. The number of overtones that can be
distinctly heard by a person with this organ pipe will be k. Find the value of 10k. (Assume that the
highest frequency a person can hear is 20,000 Hz)

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-5

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. Choose correct option is/are for given reaction


Cl
H3C CH CH2 CH3  alc. KOH

 P Major   Q  Minor 
(A) P is 2-butene
(B) Reaction is elimination
(C) Reaction is dehydrohalogenation
(D) Q is 1-butene

2. Enol isomer of which of the following forms six membered stable ring through intramolecular
H-bonding?
O
||
(A) CH3  CH2  NO 2 (B) CH3  CH2  C H
O
O
O O C H
|| ||
(C) CH3  C CH2  C CH3 (D)

3. In a pair of diastereomers,
(A) Both can be laevo-rotatory or both can be dextro-rotatory
(B) Both can be optically inactive
(C) One can be optically active other can be optically inactive
(D) Presence of two chiral carbons is must in both of the isomer

4. In which of the following pair(s), the first one is more stable than the second ?
   
(A) C6H5 — CH2 , CH2  CH — CH 2
(B) CH3 — CH2 , CH2  CH
CH3 CH3
CH2 CH2 |  | 
(C) , (D) CH3  CH  C  CH3 , CH3  N  C  CH3
| |
CH3 CH3

O
5. Which of the following have larger C—O bond length than C═O bond length of CH3 C CH3 ?
O O

(A) (B)

O
O
(C) (D)

6. Which of the following reactions can bring about chlorination of cyclohexane ?


Heat AlCl3
(A) Cyclohexane  Cl2   (B) Cyclohexane  Cl2  
h
(C) Cyclohexane  Cl2  (D) Cyclohexane  HCl 

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-6

7. Which of the following compound(s) fail in Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction ?


OCH3 NO 2
(A) (B)

NH2 NHC6C5
(C) (D)
O

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of length of their C—N bond.
NH2 CH2 NH2 O
(I) (II) (III) CH3 CH NH (IV) CH3 C NH2

(A) IV < III < I < II (B) I < IV < III < II
(C) III < IV < I < II (D) IV < I < III < II

9. Arrange the following acids in increasing order of their acidic strength.


OH OH OH OH

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

NO 2 F Cl
(A) IV < III < I < II (B) II < III < IV < I
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) I < II < III < IV

10. The correct order of stability of the following carbocation is


O O
O C2H5
CH3 OC2H5
O
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I > II > III (B) III > I > II
(C) III > II > I (D) I > III > II

H3C H
CCl4
11. C C  Cl2   Product
H CH3

Number of product is

(A) 2 (B) 1

(C) 4 (D) 3

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-7

12. What is the major formed in the reaction?


NBS Base

CCl
  
4

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. What is major product of the reaction below?


Conc. H2 SO4
Br  Conc.HNO3 
(mononitration)

NO 2
Br
(A) (B)
Br
NO 2
O 2N
(C) (D) O 2N Br
Br

PART – C: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.

1. Number of atom lie in one plane in given molecule


CH2  C  CH2

2. How many stereoisomers are possible for 5-chloro-2-3-hexadiene?

3. Number of cyclic stereo isomers for C3H3  Cl Br I

4. How many different isomeric alkynes on catalytic hydrogenation can give 2,3,4-trimethyl heptane?

5. An aromatic compound has molecular formula C7H8O. How many isomers are possible for this
compound with a phenyl ring in each of them?

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-8

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

6
  m  1    m 
1. For 0 <  <
2
, the solution(s) of  cosec   
m1
4
 cosec   
 
  4 2 is(are)
4 
 
(A) (B)
4 6
 5
(C) (D)
12 12

2 2
2. The solution of the equation 3sin 2x  2cos x
 31sin 2x  2 sin x
 28
 
(A) (2n + 1) , n  I (B) n  , n  I
2 4
(C) 2n (D) none of these

 1 
3. Let a, b   and a2 + b2  0. Suppose S  z   : z  , t  , t  0  , where i  1 .
 a  ibt 
If z = x + iy and z  S, then (x, y) lies on
1  1 
(A) the circle with radius and centre  , 0  for a > 0, b  0
2a  2a 
1  1 
(B) the circle with radius  and centre   2a , 0  for a < 0, b  0
2a  
(C) the x-axis for a  0, b = 0
(D) the y-axis for a = 0, b  0

a b c
4. If a, b, c are the sides of a triangle then   can take value(s)
c ab abc bc a
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

5. Which of the following divides ((mn)!)2 ?


(A) (m!)n (n!)m (B) (m!)n + 1 (n!)m + 1
m n m+1 n+1
(C) (m!) (n!) (D) (m!) (n!)

6. If z1, z2 be two complex numbers (z1  z2) satisfying z12  z22  z12  z22  2z1z2 , then

(A) |arg z1 – arg z2| =  (B) |arg z1 – arg z2| =
2
z1 z1
(C) is purely imaginary (D) is purely real
z2 z2

7. The number of ways of choosing triplet (x, y, z) such that z  max{x, y} and x, y, z  {1, 2, …, n, n + 1}
is
n+1 n+2 1
(A) C3 + C3 (B) n(n + 1)(2n + 1)
6
(C) 12 + 22 + … + n2 (D) 2(n + 2C3) – n + 1C2

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-9

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2n 2n 1
8. Let the coefficients of xn in 1  x  and 1  x  be P and Q respectively then
(A) P = Q (B) 2P = Q
(C) P = 2Q (D) none of these

9. A seven digit number without repetition and divisible by 9 is to be formed by using 7 digits out of 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. The number of ways in which this can be done is;
(A) 9! (B) 2 (7!)
(C) 4 (7!) (D) none of these

10. In a triangle ABC, C = 120. If h be the harmonic mean of the lengths of the sides BC and CA, then
the length of the bisector of BCA is
h
(A) h (B)
2
h 3
(C) (D) h
2 2

 x  1  2y 
11. If x, y > 0, then the range of sin1    sin  2 
is
 1  x2   1 y 
(A) [0, ] (B) (– , ]
 2   2 
(C) 0, (D)  0,
 3   3 

12. If m, n, p, q are consecutive integers, then the value of im  in  ip  iq is equal to


(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

13. The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observation valued 16 is
deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data, then the mean of the
resultant data, is
(A) 16.0 (B) 15.8
(C) 14.0 (D) 16.8

PART – B: (Numerical Based Answer Type)

This section contains six (05) numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)

1. The number of ways in which 420 can be resolved into three positive factors other than unity and
having L.C.M. 420 is

2. The remainder of 5151, when divided by 25 is

3. If  is non-real and x 2  x    0 has a real root , then  is equal to

4. A triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 1 and centre at O. The lines AO, BO, CO meet the
1 1 1
opposite sides at D, E, F. Then   is equal to
AD BE CF

9 9
2
5. If   xi  5   9
i1
and   x  5
i 1
i  45 , then the standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2 , …… , x9 is

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-10

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CPT–1 PHASE-I CODE: 000000.1 PAPER–1

ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION –I)
1. B, D 2. A, C 3. B, C 4. C, D
5. A, C 6. B, C 7. A, D 8. A
9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C
13. D 1. 0.20 2. 2.00 3. 0.70
4. 0.80 5. 0.60

CHEMISTRY (SECTION –II)


1. A, B, C, D 2. C, D 3. A, B, C 4. A, B
5. A, C 6. A, C 7. B, C 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. D 1. 4 2. 4 3. 8
4. 8 5. 5

MATHEMATICS (SECTION –III)


1. C, D 2. A, B 3. A, C, D 4. C, D
5. A, B 6. B, C 7. B, C, D 8. C
9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A
13. C 1. 6 2. 1 3. 1
4. 2 5. 4

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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
BATCH – 022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 LOT PH–III

this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For Only One Part.


(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (08-14) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are Two multiple
choice questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer
and -1 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. The figure shows the P-V plot of an ideal gas taken through a cycle P
ABCDA. The part ABC is a semi-circle and CDA is half of an ellipse. Then, A
3
(A) the process during the path A  B is isothermal
(B) heat flows out of the gas during the path B  C  D 2 B
D
(C) work done during the path A  B  C is zero 1
C
(D) positive work is done by the gas in the cycle ABCDA
0
1 2 3 V

2. If force (F) versus displacement (x) and displacement (x) versus time graph of a particle performing
SHM is shown in figure. Then choose correct statement

160
(A) mass of the particle kg
2
(B) mass of the particle 160 π2 kg
(C) maximum kinetic energy of particle is 80 J
(D) maximum kinetic energy of particle is 40 J

3. Two satellites of same mass of a planet in circular orbits have periods of revolutions 32 days and 256
days. If the orbital radius of the first is R, then
(A) the kinetic energy of the second is less than that of the first
(B) the total mechanical energy of the second is greater than that of the first
(C) Radius of the orbit of second is 4R
(D) Radius of the orbit of second is 8R

4. Gravitational field due to a point mass is


(A) A central field (B) always pointed towards the mass
(C) an inverse square field (D) a conservative field

5. A particle of mass m is attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of


force constant k as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly
against the spring A and released, then the time period of oscillation
(A) extension in springs are same
m
(B) 2
2k
(C) extension in A is different from B and C
m
(D) 2
3k

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-3

6. Two spherical planets have the same mass but densities in the ratio 1 : 8. For these planets, the
(A) acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 4 : 1
(B) acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 1 : 4

(C) escape velocities from their surfaces will be in the ratio 2 :1


(D) escape velocities from their surfaces will be in the ratio 1 : 2

7. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, wavelength  and frequency f is travelling in a stretched


string. The maximum speed of any point of the string is (v/10), where v is the speed of propagation of
the wave. If a = 103 m and v = 10 m/s , then  and f are given by:
(A)  = 2  102m (B)  = 103 m
103 4
(C) f  Hz (D) f = 10 Hz
2

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm produces second harmonic sound waves.
A person runs towards the musician from another end of a hall at a speed of 10 km/h. If the wave
speed is 330 m/s, the frequency heard by the running person shall be close to:
(A) 666 Hz (B) 753 Hz
(C) 500 Hz (D) 333 Hz

9. The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. Where should the two bridges be placed from A to
divide the wire in three segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of
1:2:3?
(A) 30 cm, 90 cm (B) 60 cm, 90 cm
(C) 40 cm, 70 cm (D) None of these

10. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = + A. The time taken by it to go
A A
from 0 to is T1 and to go from to A is T2. Then
2 2
T  T2
(A) T1  T2 (B) 1
(C) T1  T2 (D) T1  2T2

11. A stationary source emits sound waves of frequency 500 Hz. Two observers moving along a line
passing through the source detect sound to be of frequencies 480 Hz and 530 Hz. Their respective
speeds are, in ms–1 (Given speed of sound = 300 m/s)
(A) 16, 14 (B) 12, 16
(C) 8, 18 (D) 12, 18

12. A block body is at a temperature 2880 K. The energy radiation emitted by this object with wavelength
between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 mm and 1000 nm is U2 and between 1499 nm and
1500 nm is U3 then (Wien’s constant b = 2.88  106 nm-K)
(A) U 1  U 2 (B) U 2  U 1
(C) U1  0 (D) U 3  0

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-4

13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken from temperature T0 to 2T0 by the process
PT–4 = C. Considering the following statements. Choose the correct alternative.
3R
I. Molar heat capacity of the gas is 
2
3R
II. Molar heat capacity of the gas is
2
III. Work done is  3RT0
IV. Work done is 3RT0
(A) Statements I and IV are correct. (B) Statements I and III are correct.
(C) Statements II and IV are correct. (D) Statements II and III are correct.

14. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of maximum to
minimum intensity is equal to
(A) 10 : 8 (B) 9 : 1
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

Four particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of a square of side A a B
length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational
forces. It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the a a
original mutual separation a.
Then answer the following questions.
D a C

15. Force acting on particle A, due to particle B, C and D


Gm2  1 Gm2  1
(A)  2  (B)  2 
a2  2 a2  2
2 3Gm2 Gm2  1
(C) 2
(D) 2 2 
2 
a a  2 

16. The velocity of particle A is


Gm  1  Gm  1 
(A) 1   (B) 1  
a  2 a  2 2
Gm Gm  1 
(C) 3 (D) 1  
a a  2 2

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-5

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

A fixed thermally conducting cylinder has a radius R and height L0. The cylinder is 2R
open at its bottom and has a small hole at its top. A piston of mass M is held at a
distance L from the top surface, as shown in the figure. The atmospheric pressure L
is P0.
L0
17. The piston is now pulled out slowly and held at a distance 2L from the top.
The pressure in the cylinder between its top and the piston will then be
P
(A) P0 (B) 0
2 Piston
P0 Mg P0 Mg
(C)  (D) 
2 R 2 2 R2

18. While the piston is at a distance 2L from the top, the hole at the top is sealed. The piston is then
released, to a position where it can stay in equilibrium. In this condition, the distance of the piston
from the top is
 2P R2   P R2  Mg 
(A)  2 0   2L  (B)  0   2L 
 R P  Mg   R2P
 0   0 
 P0 R2  Mg   P0 R2 
(C) 
 R2P   2L   R P  Mg   
(D)  2 2L
 0   0 

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-6

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. The correct statement(s) regarding following reaction is/are


CH2  CH — CH  CH2  HBr  CH2  CH — CH— CH3  CH2 — CH2  CH — CH3
| |
Br Br
(I) (II)
(A) At –80ºC, (I) is the major product
(B) At room temperature, (II) is the major product
(C) Both of the products (I) and (II) are always formed in comparable amounts
(D) Product (I) isomerizes into (II) on heating above 40ºC

2. Choose correct option is/are


CH3
Pt
 H2  
CH3
(A) Number of product is one (B) Reaction is syn addition
(C) Number of product is two (D) Reaction is anti addition

3. Which of the following sets of reagent when applied sequentially, on 2-butyne will produce a meso
product ?
(A) H2  Pt (B) Na/NH3(l) then Br2/CCl4
(C) Pd/BaSO4/H2 then Br2 - CCl4 (D) Pd/BaSO4/H2 then OsO4/NaHSO3

4. Which of the following will evolve hydrogen gas on heating with potassium metal?

(A) (B)

(C) (D

5. Which of the following is/are not capable of showing geometrical isomerism?


(A) CH3 — CH  C  CH — CH3 (B) CH3 — CH  C  C  CH — CH3

(C) (D) ClHC Cl

6. In which of the following reaction, the Kolbe’s electrolysis product is correctly mentioned?
COOK
Electrolysis
(A)
COOK
(B) Electrolysis
KOOC COOK
COOK Electrolysis
(C) COOK

Electrolysis
(D) CH3 CH2 CH COOK
CH3

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-7

7. Which of the following cannot be the product for the following reaction ?
CH3

Mg/Et2 O D2 O
    Product
Br
CH3
H3C
OH
(A) (B)

CH3
H3C MgBr
(C) (D)

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Best position for electrophilic approach in EAS


3

2
N
1
H
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 2 and 3 equally (D) 1

9. Keto enol toutomerism is observed in :


O
||
(A) CH3  CH2  OH (B) CH3  C CH3
(C) CH3  O  CH3 (D) CH3  O  CH2

10. A resonance from of the enolate ion given below is


O

OH O
(A) (B)

O O
(C) (D

11. Which compound below has maximum tendency to form a salt when treated with HBr ?
O O

(A) (B)

(C) O (D)

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-8

12. How many monochloroderivatives for


CH3
H3C CH CH2 CH3  including stereoisomer 
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8

13. Number of stereoisomers for


H3C CH CH CH CH CH3
Br Br
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 16

14. Which could be the major product o the following reaction ?


CF 3
Cl2

AlCl3
 Product

Cl CF3
(A) (B)
CF 3 Cl Cl
Cl
Cl CF 3
CF3
(C) (D)

Cl Cl

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)


This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

The addition of bromine to cyclopentene provides evidence for bromonium ion immediate in bromine addition.
It follows ionic mechanism. When cyclopentene reacts with bromine in presence of CCl4 anti addition occurs
and gives trans isomer so addition of halogen to an alkene is a stereospecific reaction. cis alkene on addition
with halogen gives racemic mixture and trans alkene on addition may give meso products.

H3 C H
HOCl
15.  A
H CH3
The first step in this reaction is
(A) attack of hydroxonium ion (B) attack of chloronium ion
(C) attack of proton (D) None

16. trans–2–butene on reaction with Br2 in CCl4 forms mainly


(A)  2,3  dibromobutane (B) +2, 3–dibromobutane
(C) –2, 3– dibromobutane (D) Meso 2, 3–dibromobutane

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-9

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

Amide is a conuugated system, exhibit resonance. Following are formamide and structures that bear some
relationship to the Lewis structure of formamide.
H
+
O O OH O O

C H C H C C C H
H N H N H N H N H N

H H H H H
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)

17. Which is a resonance contributor to formamide ?


(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Only III (D) Only V

18. Which is capable of showing stereoisomerism and is valid structure ?


(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Only III (D) Only IV

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-10

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. If in a triangle ABC, B = 60º, then


2 2 2 2
(A) (a – b) = c – ab (B) (b – c) = a – bc
2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) (c – a) = b – ac (D) a + b + c = 2b + ac

2. In a triangle, the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9, respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,
the length of the third side can be
(A) 5  6 (B) 3 3
(C) 5 (D) 5  6

3. The number of integral solutions of x + y + z = 0 with x, y, z  5 is


17 14
(A) C2 (B) C2
(C) 17C15 (D) 14C12

2 2 2
4. If z1 and z2 are two non-zero complex numbers such that z1  z 2  z1  z2 , then
z1 z1
(A) is purely real (B) is purely imaginary
z2 z2
z  z 
(C) z1z2  z1z2  0 (D) arg  1   arg  1   0
 z2   z2 

n
 5 
5. For a positive integer n, if the expansion of  2  x 4  has a term independent of x, then n can be
x 
(A) 18 (B) 21
(C) 27 (D) 99

1
6. If sin x + cos x = y , x  [ 0, ], then
y
(A) x = /4 (B) y = 0
(C) y = 1 (D) x = 3/4

7. If in a triangle A = 2B, then we must have


(A) a2 – b2 = bc (B) cos(A/2) = (b + c)/2a
(C) 2 sin A cos B = sin B + sin C (D) cos A = (c + b)/2b

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

10
 x 1 x 1 
8. In the expansion of  2/3 1/3
 1/2 
, the term which does not contain x, is equal to
 x  x 1 x  x 
10 10
(A) C0 (B) C7
10
(C) C4 (D) none of these

9. If (1 + i) (1 + 2i) (1 + 3i) …..(1 + ni) =  + i, then 2.5.10 …(1 + n2) is equal to
(A)   i (B) 2  2
2 2
(C)  +  (D) none of these

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-11

10. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3 of them
are ladies and 4 are men. Assume X and Y have no common friends. Then the total number of ways
in which X and Y together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X
and Y are in this party, is:
(A) 485 (B) 468
(C) 469 (D) 484

11. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8,
without repetition, is
(A) 192 (B) 120
(C) 72 (D) 216

12. Let Tn be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided regular polygon.
If Tn+1  Tn = 10, then the value of n is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 7
–1
13. If 1 < x < 0, then sin x equals
x
(A)   cos
–1 
1 x2  (B) tan
–1
1 x2
 1 x2 
–1  
(C) – cot  x  (D) cosec–1x
 

tan3x  tan2x
14. The set of values of x for which  1 is
1  tan3x tan2x
(A)  (B) {/4}
(C) {n + /4, n = 1, 2, 3, …} (D) {2n + /4, n = 1, 2, 3, …}

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 and 16

Read the following writeup carefully:

In argand plane |z| represent the distance of a point z from the origin. In general |z1 – z2| represent the
distance between two points z1 and z2. Also for a general moving point z in argand plane, if arg(z) = , then
z = |z|ei, where ei = cos  + i sin 

Now answer the following questions:

15. The equation |z – z1| + |z – z2| = 10 if z1 = 3 + 4i and z2 = – 3 – 4i represents


(A) point circle (B) ordered pair (0, 0)
(C) ellipse (D) none of these

16. z1 and z2 are the two fixed points in the argand plane. For a moving point z if |z – z1| = |z – z2|, then
locus of z will be
(A) a straight line (B) circle
(C) hyperbola (D) none of these

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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-12

Paragraph for Questions 17 and 18

Read the following write up carefully:

Let n be a positive integer, such that (1 + x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + … a2nx2n, then

Now answer the following questions :

17. The value of ar when (0  r  2n) is


(A) a2nr (B) anr
(C) a2n (D) n.a2n1

18. The value of a0 + a1 + a2 + … an1 is


1 1 n
(A) (3n ) (B) (3  an )
2 2
a
(C) n (D) 3  ann
2

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-13

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CPT–1 PHASE-I CODE: 000000.1 PAPER–2

ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION–I)
1. B, D 2. A, C 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
5. B, C 6. B, D 7. A, C 8. A
9. B 10. A 11. D 12. B
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B
17. A 18. A

CHEMISTRY (SECTION–II)
1. A, B, D 2. A, B 3. B, D 4. A
5. A, C, D 6. A, B, D 7. A, B, D 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D
17. D 18. C

MATHEMATICS (SECTION–III)
1. C, D 2. A, D 3. A, C 4. B, C, D
5. A, B, C, D 6. A, C 7. A, B, C 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A
17. A 18. B

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website: www.fiitjee.com.

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