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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. In AM modulation, a signal is modulated on a carrier wave such that maximum and minimum
amplitudes are found to be 6V and 2V respectively. The modulation index is :
(A) 100% (B) 80%
(C) 60% (D) 50%
Q2. The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a magnetic induction B1 at its centre. The
coil is unwound and is rewound into circular coil of 5 turns and at its centre. The coil is unwound
and is rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current produces a magnetic induction
B
B2 at its centre. The ratio of 2 is
B1
5 25
(A) (B)
2 4
5 25
(C) (D)
4 2
Q3. A drop of liquid of density is floating half immersed in a liquid of density and surface tension
7.5 104 Ncm1. The radius of drop in cm will be : g 10ms 2
15 15
(A) (B)
2
3 3
(C) (D)
2 20 2
Q4. Two billiard balls of mass 0.05 kg each moving in opposite directions with 10ms1 collide and
rebound with the same speed. If the time duration of contact is t 0.005 s. then what is the force
exerted on the ball due to each other ?
(A) 100 N (B) 200 N
(C) 300 N (D) 400 N
Q5. For a free body diagram shown in the figure, the four forces y
7N
are applied in the ‘x’ and ‘y’ directions. What additional force
must be applied and at what angle with positive x-axis so that
the net acceleration of body is zero ?
(A) 2 N,45 6N 5N
x
(B) 2 N,135
2
(C) N,30
3 8N
(D) 2N,45
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-3
Q6. Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R1 becomes n times when it is enclosed
R
by a concentric conducting sphere of radius R2 connected to earth. The ratio of their radii 2 is :
R1
n 2n
(A) (B)
n 1 2n 1
n1 2n 1
(C) (D)
n n
Q7. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and deuteron accelerated by potential Vp and Vd is
1: 2 .Then, the ratio of Vp to Vd will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
Q8. For an object placed at a distance 2.4m from a lens, a sharp focused image is observed on a
screen placed at a distance 12cm from the lens. A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and
thickness 1cm is introduced between lens and screen such that the glass plate plane faces
parallel to the screen. By what distance should the object be shifted so that a sharp focused
image is observed again on the screen ?
(A) 0.8 m (B) 3.2 m
(C) 1.2 m (D) 5.6 m
Q10. When you walk through a metal detector carrying a metal object in your pocket, it raises an alarm.
This phenomenon works on :
(A) Electromagnetic induction (B) Resonance in ac circuits
(C) Mutual induction in ac circuits (D) Interference of electromagnetic waves
Q11. An electron with energy 0.1 keV moves at right angle to the earth’s magnetic field of
1 104 Wbm2 . The frequency of revolution of the electron will be
(Take mass of electron 9.0 1031kg )
(A) 1.6 105 Hz (B) 5.6 105 Hz
6
(C) 2.8 10 Hz (D) 1.8 106 Hz
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-4
Q13. The length of a seconds pendulum at a height h 2R from earth surface will be :
(Given R = Radius of earth and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth, g 2 ms2 )
2 4
(A) m (B) m
9 9
8 1
(C) m (D) m
9 9
Q14. Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of helium and n moles of hydrogen. If rms speed of gas
molecules in the mixture is 2 times the speed of sound, then the value of n will be :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Q15. Let 1 is the efficiency of an engine at T1 447 C and T2 147 C while 2 is the efficiency at
1
T1 947 C and T2 47 C The ratio will be :
2
(A) 0.41 (B) 0.56
(C) 0.73 (D) 0.70
5
Q16. An object is taken to a height above the surface of earth at a distance
R from the centre of the
4
earth. Where radius of earth, R = 6400 km. The percentage decrease in the weight of the object
will be :
(A) 36% (B) 50%
(C) 64% (D) 25%
Q17. A bag of sand of mass 9.8 kg is suspended by a rope. A bullet of 200 g travelling with speed 10
ms-1 gets embedded in it, then loss of kinetic energy will be :
(A) 4.9 J (B) 9.8 J
(C) 14.7 J (D) 19.6 J
Q18. A ball is projected from the ground with a speed 15 ms-1 at an angle with horizontal so that its
range and maximum height are equal. Then ‘ tan ’ will be equal to :
1 1
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) 2 (D) 4
Q19. The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for which current flows in
an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the
detection of the dissipated heat will be :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
Q20. Hydrogen atom from exited state comes to the ground state by emitting a photon of
wavelength . The value of principal quantum number ‘n’ of the excited state will be :
(R : Rydberg constant )
R R
(A) (B)
1 R 1
R 2
(C) (D)
R 1 R 1
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-5
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity is increasing at 5 ms-1 per meter. The
acceleration of the particle is ________ms-2 at a point where its velocity is 20 ms-1.
Q2. Three identical spheres each of mass M are placed at the corners of a right angled triangle with
mutually perpendicular sides equal to 3 m each. Taking point of intersection of mutually
perpendicular sides as origin, the magnitude of position vector of centre of mass of the system will
be x m. The value of x is ________.
Q3. A block of ice of mass 120g at temperature 0 C is put in 300g of water at 25 C . The xg of ice
melts as the temperature of the water reaches 0 C. The value of x is _______.
[Use specific heat capacity of water 4200 Jkg1 K 1, Latent heat of ice 3.5 105 Jk g1 ]
x
Q4. is the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen
x4
atom from its
(i) third permitted energy level to the second level and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the second permitted level.
The value of x will be ______.
Q5. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.20 V gives a balance point at 36cm length of wire.
This cell is now replaced by another cell of emf 1.80 V. The difference in balancing length of
potentiometer wire in above conditions will be _______cm.
Q7. Two waves executing simple harmonic motions travelling in the same direction with same
amplitude and frequency are superimposed. The resultant amplitude is equal to the 3 times of
amplitude of individual motions. The phase difference between the two motions is
_______(degree).
Q8. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C and 3C are connected in parallel combination and
charged to a potential difference 18 V. The battery is then disconnected and the space between
the plates of the capacitor of capacity C is completely filled with a material of dielectric constant 9.
The final potential difference across the combination of capacitors will be ________V.
Q9. A convex lens of focal length 20cm is placed in front of a convex mirror with principal axis
coinciding each other. The distance between the lens and mirror is 10 cm. A point object is placed
on principal axis at a distance of 60cm from the convex lens. The image formed by combination
coincides the object itself. The focal length of the convex mirror is _______cm.
Q10. Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 20 varies with time
2
t s as 8t 9t 5. The magnitude of the induced current at t 0.25 s will be ______ mA.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-6
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q2. Two solutions A and B are prepared by dissolving 1 g of non- volatile solutes X and Y,
respectively in 1 kg of water. The ratio of depression in freezing points for A and B is found to be
1:4. The ratio of molar masses of X and Y is
(A) 1:4 (B) 1:0.25
(C) 1:0.20 (D) 1:5
Q3. K a1 ,K a2 and K a3 are the respective ionization constants for the following reaction (a), (b) and (c).
(a) H2 C2 O4 H HC2O 4
(b) HC2O 4 H C2 O24
(c) H2 C2O 4 2H C2O24
The relationship between K a1 ,K a2 and K a3 is given as
(A) K a3 K a1 K a2 (B) K a3 K a1 K a2
(C) K a3 K a1 / K a2 (D) K a3 K a1 K a2
Q4. The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell filled with 10 moles of 20 mL NaCl solution is
m1 and that of 20 moles another identical cell heaving 80mL NaCl solution is m2. The
conductivities exhibited by these two cells are same.
The relationship between m2 and m1 is
(A) m2 = 2m1 (B) m2 = m1 / 2
(C) m2 = m1 (D) m2 = 4m1
Q5. For micelle formation, which of the following statements are correct?
A. Micelle formation is an exothermic process.
B. Micelle formation is an endothermic process.
C. The entropy change is positive.
D. The entropy change is negative.
(A) A and D only (B) A and C only
(C) B and C only (D) B and D only
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-7
Q6. The first ionization entahalpies of Be, B, N and O follow the order
(A) O < N < B < Be (B) Be < B < N < O
(C) B < Be < N < O (D) B < Be < O < N
Q10. The total number of acidic oxides from the following list is
NO, N2O, B2O3, N2O5, CO, SO3, P4O10
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
Q11. The correct order of energy of absorption for the following metal complexes is
A : [Ni(en)3]2+, B: [Ni(NH3)6]2+, C:[Ni(H2O)6]2+
(A) C < B < A (B) B < C < A
(C) C < A < B (D) A < C < B
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-8
O
Br Br Br
(A) O Br (B) O
O O
Br O Br
Br O
(C) (D) Br
O
O
H
OH
H2O
O
O
O HO
(A) H (B)
H
O O O
(C) (D)
H H
NO 2 OCH3
NO 2 OCH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A > B > C > D (B) B > A > C > D
(C) D > C > A > B (D) D > C > B > A
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-9
Q16.
CH3MgBr H3O+ Zn Hg
CH3 CH2 CN A B C
Ether HCl
The correct structure of C is
O
Q19. Some drugs bind to a site other than the active site of an enzyme. This site is known as
(A) non-active site (B) allosteric site
(C) competitive site (D) therapeutic site
Q20. In base vs, acid titration, at the end point methyl orange is present as
(A) quinonoid form (B) heterocyclic form
(C) phenolic form (D) benzenoid form
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-10
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. 56.0 L of nitrogen gas is mixed with excess of hydrogen gas and it is found that 20 L of
ammonia gas is produced. The volume of unused nitrogen gas is found to be_____ L.
Q2. A sealed flask with a capacity of 2 dm 3 contains 11g of propane gas. The flask is so weak that it
will burst if the pressure becomes 2 MPa. The minimum temperature at which the flask will burst
is __________oC. [ Nearest integer]
(Given: R = 8.3 J K1 mol1. Atomic masses of C and H are 12u and 1u, respectively)
(Assume that propane behaves as an ideal gas.)
Q3. When the excited electron of a H atom from n = 5 drops to the ground state, the maximum
number of emission lines observed are________________.
Q4. While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made the following observation.
HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O H = 57.3 kJ mol1
CH3COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O H = 55.3 kJ mol1
The enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH as calculated by the student is __________kJ mol1.
(nearest integer)
Q5. For the decomposition of azomethane,
CH3N2CH3(g) CH3CH3(g) + N2(g), a first order reaction, the variation in partial pressure with
time at 600 K is given as.
p
ln 0
p
t/s
The half life of the reaction is ___________105s. [ Nearest integer]
Q6. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons present on the central atoms of XeO3, XeOF4 and
XeF6, is______________
Q7. The spin-only magnetic moment value of M3+ ion ( in gaseous state) from the pairs Cr3+ / Cr2+,
Mn3+ / Mn2+, Fe3+ / Fe2+ and Co3+ / Co2+ that has negative standard electrode potential, is______
B.M [ Nearest integer]
Q8. A sample of 4.5 mg of an unknown monohydric alcohol, R-OH was added to methylmagnesium
iodide. A gas is evolved and is collected and its volume measured to be 3.1 mL. The molecular
weigth of the unknown alcohol is_______________ g / mol
[Nearest integer]
Q9. The separation of two coloured substances was done by paper chromatography. The distance
travelled by solvent front, substance A and substance B from the base line are 3.25 cm, 2.08
cm and 1.05 cm, respectively. The ratio of Rf values of A to B is ________.
Q10. The total number of monobromo derivatives formed by the alkanes with molecular formula C5H12
is (excluding stereo isomers)_____________.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-11
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q2. The number of real values of , such that the system of linear equations
2x 3y 5z 9
x 3y z 18
3x y 2 z 16 has no solutions, is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
Q3. The number of bijective functions f : 1, 3, 5, 7,...,99 2, 4, 6, 8,...,100 , such that
f 3 f 9 f 15 f 21 .... f 99 , is………….
50 50
(A) P17 (B) P33
50!
(C) 33! 17! (D)
2
1011 11
Q4. The remainder when 11 1011 is divided by 9 is
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
21
3
Q5. The sum 4n 1 4n 3 is equal to
n 1
7 7
(A) (B)
87 29
14 21
(C) (D)
87 29
7
8 2 cos x sin x
Q6. lim is equal to
x
4
2 2 sin2x
(A) 14 (B) 7
(C) 14 2 (D) 7 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-12
1 1 1 1 1 is equal to
Q7. lim n ....
n 2
1 2 3 2 1
n
1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n
2 2 2 2
1
(A) (B) 1
2
(C) 2 (D) -2
1 1 1
Q8. If A and B are two events such that PA , P B and P A B , then
3 5 2
P A B ' P B A ' is equal to
3 5
(A) (B)
4 8
5 7
(C) (D)
4 8
Q9. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then the value of the integral
3
101
sin x e cos 2 x
dx is equal to
52 1 e 52
(A) (B)
e e
52 2 e 104
(C) (D)
e e
Q10. Let the point P , be at a unit distance from each of the two lines
L1 : 3x 4y 12 0 , and L 2 : 8x 6y 11 0 . If P lies below L1 and above L2, then 100 is
equal to
(A) -14 (B) 42
(C) -22 (D) 14
Q11. Let a smooth curve y = f(x) be such that the slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) on it is directly
y 1
proportional to . If the curve passes through the points (1, 2) and (8, 1), then y is equal
x 8
to
(A) 2loge 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 4loge 2
x2 y 2 x y x y
Q12. If the ellipse 1 meets the line 1 on the x-axis and the line 1 on
a2 b2 7 2 6 7 2 6
the y-axis, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is
5 2 6
(A) (B)
7 7
3 2 5
(C) (D)
7 7
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-13
Q13. The tangents at the points A(1, 3) and B(1, -1) on the parabola y 2 2x 2y 1 meet at the point
P. Then the area (in unit2) of the triangle PAB is :
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
x2 y2 x2 y2 1
Q14. Let the foci of the ellipse 1 and the hyperbola coincide. Then the length
16 7 144 25
of the latus rectum of the hyperbola is :
32 18
(A) (B)
9 5
27 27
(C) (D)
4 10
Q17. Let a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ and let b be a vector such that a b 2iˆ kˆ and a . b 3 . Then the projection
of b on the vector a b is :
2 3
(A) (B) 2
21 7
2 7 2
(C) (D)
3 3 3
Q18. If the mean deviation about median for the numbers 3, 5, 7, 2k, 12, 16, 21, 24, arranged in the
ascending order, is 6 then the median is
(A) 11.5 (B) 10.5
(C) 12 (D) 11
3 5 7 9
Q19. 2sin sin sin sin sin is equal to :
22 22 22 22 22
3 1
(A) (B)
16 16
1 9
(C) (D)
32 32
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-14
(C) P R Q ~ Q ~ P ~ R
(D) P ~ R Q ~ Q ~ P R
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-15
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q2. Let f(x) be a quadratic polynomial with leading coefficient 1 such that f 0 p, p 0 , and
1
f 1 . If the equations f x 0 and fo fo fo f x 0 have a common real root, then f 3 is
3
equal to………..
1 a a 1 48 2160
Let A 0 1 b , a, b R . If for some n N, A 0 1
n
Q3. 96 then n a b is equal to……..
0 0 1 0 0 1
Q4. The sum of the maximum and minimum values of the function f x 5x 7 x 2 2x in the
5
interval , 2 , where [t] is the greatest integer t is………..
4
dy 4y 3 2yx 2
Q5. Let y y x be the solution of the differential equation ,y 1 1 .
dx 3xy 2 x 3
If for some n N, y 2 n 1, n , then n is equal to……….
n x x2 xn 1
Q7. Let an 1 .... dx for every n N . Then the sum of all the elements of the set
1
2 3 n
n N : a 2, 30 is…….
n
x 2 y 2 2 3 3 x 2 4 6 y k 6 3 8 6, k 0 , touch internally at the point P , ,
2 2
then 3 6 is equal to……..
Q9. Let the area enclosed by the x-axis, and the tangent and normal drawn to the curve
4x 3 3xy 2 6x 2 5xy 8y 2 9x 14 0 at the point 2, 3 be A. Then 8A is equal to………..
1 4
Q10.
Let x sin 2 tan1 2 3
and y sin tan1 . If S R : y2 1 x , then 16
S
3
is equal
to……..
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-16
FIITJEE
KEYS to JEE (Main)-2022
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. B 15. B 16. A
17. B 18. D 19. D 20. B
SECTION - B
1. 100 2. 2 3. 90 4. 5
5. 18 6. 25 7. 60 8. 6
9. 10 10. 250
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C
9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. B 15. A 16. A
17. B 18 B 19. B 20. A
SECTION - B
1. 46 2. 1655 3. 4 4. 2
5. 2 6. 3 7. 4 8. 33
9. 2 10. 8
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-17
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. B 12. A
13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. D
SECTION – B
1. 107 2. 25 3. 24 4. 15
5. 3 6. 8 7. 5 8. 25
9. 170 10. 130
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-18
FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE (Main)-2022
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
A max A min 6 2
Sol1. Modulation index = 0.5 50%
A max A min 6 2
N10I
Sol2. B1 given N1 =2
2R
When new loop is made the length of wire remains same, so
NR
N2 2r N1 2R r 1
N2
2 2 2
N20I N2 0I N2 N10I N2
B2 B
2r 2N1 R N1 2R N1 1
2
B2 N2 25
B1 N1 4
Sol3.
Since liquid drop is in equilibrium , so FB
2RT
mg FB 2RT
4 3 2
R g R3 g 2RT
3 3
1
R 2 2 g T
3
3T 3 7.5 10 2 mg
R2
2 g 2 10
3T 15 15
R 102 m cm
2 g 2 2
Sol4.
p =Change in momentum of each ball 10m/s 10m/s 10m/s 10m/s
p 2mv 2 0.05 10 1 Ns
p 2 0.05 10
F 200 N
t 0.005 JBC JBA
Sol5. Let additional force is F , so
F 5 ˆi 6 ˆi 7 ˆj 8 ˆj 0
F ˆi ˆj 0 F ˆi ˆj F 2 N,45
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-19
Sol6.
C1 4R1 and
4R2R1 R2 C1
C2
R 2 R1 R2 R1 R1 R1
R2
C 4R 2R1 R2
2 n
C1 R2 R1 R 2 R1
nR2 nR1 R 2
Case-I
n 1 R2 nR1 Case-II
R n
2
R1 n 1
Sol8. When glass slab is not put in between lens and screen
1 1 1 Lens Screen
v u f
1 1 1
…….( 1)
12 240 f
O I
240cm 12cm
E0 E 540
Sol9. c B0 0 18 10 8 T
B0 c 3 108
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-20
10 5 10 55
Sol12. R AB 5 10 / / 5 10 15 15 k
10 5 3 3
55
VAB R ABI 103 15 103 275 V
3
gP T 2 9
2
1
T 2 2
2
m
gP 4 4 9
2
R R 16g
gP g g
R h 5 25
R
4
9g
g g gP
25
g
The percentage decrease in the weight of the object 100 36%
g
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-21
mv 0 1 mv 20
Sol17. v K f M m v 2
Mm 2 2 M m
mv 02
Ki
2
Loss in kinetic energy = K Ki K f
v0 v
1 m2 v 02 1 m
K mv 20 mv 20 1
2 2 M m 2 Mm m M M+m
1 M 1 9.8 JBC JAC
K mv 20 0.2 100 9.8 J
2 M m 2 10
u2 sin2 u2 sin 2
Sol18. H and R 15m/s
2g g H
According to question
u2 sin2 2u2 sn cos R
RH tan 4
2g g
Sol19. H I2Rt
H I R t
% error in H 100 2 100 100 100 2 2 1 3 8%
H I R t
SECTION - B
dv v
Sol1. tan 5 m / s / m
dx
dv dx
dv 5dx 5 x
dt dt
a 5v 5 20 100m / s 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-22
300 25 4200 3 25 42 90
x 5
kg 90 gm
1000 3.5 10 35 1000 1000
n =1
V2 2 1.80 3
Sol5. V K 2 2 54cm
V1 1 36 1.20 2
2 1 54 36 18cm
Sol6.
D1 D2 D1 D2
20 20
A B A B
15 15
20 20
Here diode-D1 is forced biased and diode-D2 is reversed biased , so
RAB = (20 // 20) +15 = 25
Sol7.
A 2 a12 a22 2a1a2 cos 2a2 2a2 cos 4a2 cos2 a
2
A 2a cos 3 a
2 a
3
cos 30o 60o
2 2 2
Sol8.
CV q 3CV q +CV -CV +CV+q
0 -CV-q
9C 3C k=9
CV q 9CV 3q 0 C
+3CV -3CV 9C
8CV
q 2CV +3CV-q -3CV+q
4 3C
CV q 3CV V 18
VAB 6 volt
9C 9C 3 3 3C
18V Final Condition
Initial Condition
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-23
d 1
Sol10. ein 16t 9 ein 16 9 5 volt
dt 4
ein 5 5
I A 1000mA 250mA
R 20 20
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
Sol1. XeO3 sp3 , Pyramidal
XeF2 sp3 d2 , Square pyramidal
XeF6 sp3 d3 , Distorted octahedral
XeOF4 sp3 d2 , Square pyramidal
Sol2. Tf i k f M
T f x
iK f Mx MX
T f y
iK f MY MY
1 1 MY M 4 1
X
4 MX 1 MY 1 0.25
K 1000 20
Sol4. M M2
M 80 / 1000
M1 M2 10
M1
M2 M1 1000
20 /
M1 1
M2 2 M1
M2 2
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-24
Sol8. High purity (> 99.95%) H2 gas is obtained by electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH)2 solution
using Ni electrode.
Sol13.
O HBr Br O
Br O
(1, 4)
O Additon HO
Br O
Br O HBr
Sol4.
H3C O CH3 OH CH3 O
OH
2 CH3 CH C H CH3 CH CH C C H
CH3
Sol15.
OH OH OH OH
NO 2 OCH3
NO 2 OCH3
(-I, -M) (-I) (-I) (-I,+M)
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-25
Sol16.
O
CH3MgBr H3O+
CH3 CH2 C N CH3 CH2 C N MgBr CH3 CH2 C CH3
CH3
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3 Zn - Hg
HCl
Sol20. For an acid- base titration, Methyl orange exist at end point as quinonoid form.
SO3 N CH3 H+ CH3
N N SO3 NH N N
CH3 CH3
Benzoid form Quinonoid form
(Yellow colour) (Pinkish red)
SECTION - B
Sol1. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
2NH3 (g)
t0 56 Excess 0
10 20
Final 46 20
Vol. of N2(g) remained unreacted = 46
Sol3. For single H- atom, maximum number of spectral lines = (n-1), n = orbit number of excited
electron.
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-26
Sol10.
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3 3 monobrominated product
CH3
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 4 monobrominated product
CH3
CH3 C CH3 1 monobrominated product
CH3
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
Sol1. z 3 2 z p 2i is minimum for z,3 2 & p 2i are collinear.
2 2 2
p 2i
3 2 p 2 5 2
2
18 2p 50
3 2
2p2 32
p 4
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-27
R1 2R 2 , R3 3R2
0 9 7 x 45
1 3 1 y 18
0 10 2 3 z 70
9R3
10
0 9 7 x 45
1 3 1 y 18
9 2 z 63
0 9 3
10
R3 R1
0 9 7 x 45
1 3 1 y 18
9 2 z 18
0 0 3 7
10
For no solution
9 2
10
3 7 0
92 9 43 0
9 81 4 9 43
18
9 81 36 43
0
18
only two possible value of are there.
Sol4. 11 2 mod 9
1011
11 21011 mod 9
Again 23 1mod 9
337 337
23 1 mod 9
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-28
21
3
Sol5. 4n 1 4n 3
n 1
3 21 4n 3 4n 1
4 n 1 4n 1 4n 3
3 21 1 1
4 n 1 4n 1 4n 3
3 1 1 1 1 1 1
.....
4 3 7 7 11 4n 1 4n 3
3 1 1
4 3 4n 3
3 4n 3 2 n
4 3 4n 3 4n 3
for n = 21
21 21 7
S21
84 3 87 29
7
8 2 cos x sin x 0
Sol6. lim 0 form
x
x
4
2 2 sin2x
6
7 cos x sin x sin x cos x
lim
x
x
4
2 2 cos 2x
5
Lt 7
5
cos x sin x cos2 x sin2 x
7 2 14
x
4
2 2 cos 2x 2 2
1 1 1 1 1
Sol7. I lim n ....
n 2
1 2 3 2n 1
1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n
2 2 2 2
n
Let 2 t and if n then t
1 t 1 1
I lim
n t
r 1 r
1
t
1 dx 1 dx 0 a
f x dx f a x dx
0 0 a 0
1 x x
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-29
1
1
2x 2 2
0
Sol8. P A B P A P B P A B A B
1 1 1
P A B A B' B A'
2 3 5
1
P A B
30
A B
P P
B' A'
P A B ' P B A '
P B ' P A '
P A P A B P B P A B 5
1 P B 1 P A 8
Sol9. I
103
1
3 /4
1/ 4
e 1 dx
7/ 4
5/ 4
e1 dx
0
1/ 4
e0 dx
3/ 4
5 /4 2
e0 dx e0 dx
7 /4
52
e
Sol10. L1 : 3x 4y 12 0 L1
L 2 : 8x 6y 11 0
, lies on that angle which contain
origin 1
Equation of angle bisector of that
angle which contain origin is ,
3x 4y 12 8x 6y 11
O
5 10 1
2x 14y 13 0
, lies on it L2
2 14 13 0 …………(i)
3 4 12
Again 1
5
3 4 7 0 ……….(ii)
Solving (i) & (ii)
23 53
&
25 50
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-30
7
50
100 14
dy y
Sol11. Slope of any point P x,y to y f x is k
dx x
dy dx
k 0
y x
Solving the equation the curve is xk y c
1
It passes 1,2 c 2 x k y 2 again it passes 8,1 8k 2 k
3
the equation of curve is x1/3 y 2 ………(i)
1 2
y 1/3
4
8 1
8
x2 y 2
Sol12. Ellipse
a2 b2
1 passes through the points 7,0 & 0, 2 6
a2 49 & b2 24
b2 24 5
e 1 1
a2 49 7
Sol13. y 2 2x 2y 1
2
y 1 2 x 1 ……….(i)
Equation of tangent at A is 2x y 5 0 ………(ii)
D is mid point of AB solving (ii) with y = 1 P 3, 1
PD 4, AD 2
A(1,3)
P(-3,1)
D(1,1)
y=1
B(1,-1)
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-31
1
Area of APD
2
PD AD 4
Area of APB 8 sq. units
x2 y2
Sol14. Ellipse : 1
16 7
7 3
Eccentricity 1
10 4
Foci ae, 0 3, 0
x2 y2
Hyperbola : 1
144
25 25
1
Eccentricity = 1 144
144 12
12 1
Foci ae, 0 144 ,0
5 12
If foci coincide then
1
3 144 81
5
Hence, hyperbola is
x2 y2
2
2
1
12 9
5 5
Length of latus rectum
81
25 27
2
12 10
5
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-32
Hence, Q 3, 3, 2
Distance PQ
2
21 PQ 21
Sol16. A 7iˆ 6ˆj
C 7iˆ 2jˆ 6kˆ
b 6iˆ 7ˆj kˆ d 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
ˆi ˆj kˆ
b d 6 7 1 3iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ
2 1 1
shortest distance between the lines
AC b d
14iˆ 4ˆj 6kˆ 3iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ
bd 9 4 16
42 8 24 58
2 29
29 29
Sol17. a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
a b 2iˆ kˆ
ab 3
2 2 2 2
ab a b a b
2
59 6 b
2 7
b
3
2 2 7
a b a b 2a b
3
b ab
Projection of b on a b
ab
2 7
ba b 3
3 2
ab 7 21
3
2k 12
Sol18. Median = k6
2
x M
Mean deviation i 6
n
k 3 k 1 k 1 6 k 6 k 10 k 15 k 18 k
8
58 2k
6
8
k5
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-33
2 5 12
Median = 11
2
3 5 7 9
Sol19. 2sin sin sin sin sin
22 22 22 22 22
11 10 11 8 11 6 11 4 11 2
2sin sin 22 sin 22 sin 22 sin 22
22
32
2 sin
11 1
16
25 sin
11
~ ~ P ~ R ~ Q Q P ~ R
P ~ R Q ~ Q ~ P R
SECTION - B
Sol1. B C ' B ' C'
B' is a set containing sub sets of A containing element 1 and not containing 2.
And C is a set containing subsets of A whose sum of elements is not prime.
So, we need to calculate number of subsets of
{3, 4, 5, 6, 7} whose sum of elements plus 1 is composite.
Number of such 5 elements subset = 1
Number of such 4 elements subset = 3(except selecting 3 or 7)
Number of such 3 elements subset = 6(except selecting {3, 4, 5}, {3, 6, 7}, {4, 5, 7} or {5, 6, 7})
Number of such 2 elements subset = 7(except selecting {3, 7}, {4, 6}, {5, 7})
Number of such 1 elements subset = 3(except selecting {4} or {6})
Number of such 0 elements subset = 1
n B C 21 n B C 27 21 107
Sol2. Let f x x x
It is given that f 0 p p
and
1 1
f 1 1 1
3 3
Now, let us assume that is the common root of f x 0 and fofofof x 0
fofofof x 0
fofof 0 0
fof p 0
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-34
So, f p is either or .
p p
1 1 1
So, 3 a 0
1
1 1 3 3
7
f x x x 3
6
7
f 3 3 3 3 25
6
1 0 0 0 a a
Sol3. A 0 1 0 0 0 b I B
0 0 1 0 0 0
0 a a 0 a a 0 0 ab
2
B 0 0 b 0 0 b 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
B3 0
n
A n 1 B n C0I n C1B n C2B 2 n C3B3 ...
n n 1 ab
0 0
1 0 0 0 na na 2
0 1 0 0 0 nb 0 1 0
0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
n n 1
1 na na ab
1 48 2160
2
0 1 nb 0 1 48
0 0 1 0 0 1
n n 1
On comparing we get na 48, nb 96 and na ab 2160
2
a 4, n 12 and b = 8
n a b 24
Sol4. f x 5x 7 x 2 2x
2
5x 7 x 1 1
7
Critical points of f x , 5 1, 6 1, 7 1, 8 1, 2
5
Maximum or minimum value of f(x) occur at critical points or boundary points
5 3 19
f 4
4 4 4
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-35
7
f 0 4 4
4
as both 5x 7 and x 2 2x are increasing in nature after x = 7/5
f 2 3 8 11
7
f 4 and f 2 max 11
5 min
Sum is 4 + 11 = 15
Sol5.
2
dy y 4y 2x
2
dx x 3y 2 x 2
Put y vx
dy dv
vx
dx dx
vx
2
dv v 4v 2
dx 3v 2 1
dx 4v 2 3v 2 1
2
x v
dx 3v 2 1
dv dx
3v 2 1 3
v v x
n v 3 v nx C
3
y y
n nx C
x x
y 1 1
C n2
For y 2
y2 y y3 y
n 2n2 4
8 2 8 2
y 2 2
n3
x 2x
Sol6.
0
f x x t f ' t dt e 2x e 2x cos 2x a
………(i)
Here f 0 2 ………..(ii)
On differentiating equation (i) w.r.t. x we get :
x
f ' x f f ' t dt xf ' x xf ' x
0
2
2 e2 x e 2x cos2x 2 e2 x e 2x sin2x a
f x f x f 0 2 e 2x
e2x cos 2x 2 e 2x
e 2x sin2x 2 / a
Replace x by 0 we get :
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-36
2 1
4 a
a 2
5 1
2a 1 a2 25 23 8
22
n x x2 xn1
Sol7. an 1
1 2 2
.... dx
n
n
x2 x3 xn
x 2 2 .... 2
2 3 n 1
n1
n 1 n 2 1 n3 1 n 4 1 nn 1
an .....
12 22 32 42 n2
2 1 22 1 3 9
Here a1 2, a2 3
1 2 2 2
28 100
a3 4 2
9 9
15 65 255
a4 5 31
4 9 16
The required set is 2,3 .
an 2,30
Sum of elements = 5.
3 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 3
1 2 1 2
4
3 3
2
2 2
3
9 and 6 16
2 2
3 6 25
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JEE-MAIN-2022 (25th July-Second Shift)-PCM-37
2
Sol10. x sin 2 tan1 1 2
………..(i)
and
1 4 1 1
y sin tan1 sin sin1
2 3 5 5
Now,
y2 1 x
1 2
1 1 2 5 5 2 10 2 2 5 2 0
5 1 2
1 1
2, 163 16 23 16 3 130
2 aS 2
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