(1016CMD303033230004) *1016CMD303033230004* Test Pattern

English

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 16-07-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE PHASE - MLC

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

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Topic : FRICTION, KINEMATICS, (DISTANCE, DISPLACEMENT, SPEED, VELOCITY, AVERAGE SPEED,
AVERAGE VELOCITY, INSTANTANEOUS VELOCITY, INSTANTANEOUS SPEED, INSTANTANEOUS
VELOCITY), ELECTRIC FLUX, POTENTIAL (COMPLETE) [BACK UNIT] BASIC MATHS & VECTOR.

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 9. Mass of block is 0.1 Kg. If the coefficient of

friction between block and wall is 0.5. Find
1. If y = 2x2 – 8x + 5 then minimum value of y is:- friction on block.
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) – 3 (4) – 5
2. Value of sin15°.cos15° is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
2 4 (1) 2 N (2) 3 N (3) 2.5 N (4) 1 N
3. 5 10.
Given sin θ = . Find tan θ , if θ lies in first
13
quadrant.
12 13 5 12 Force 10 N is applied on block of mass 2kg. Find
(1) (2) (3) (4)
13 5 12 5 spring force.
4. Angle θ = – 120° lies in : (1) 0 (2) 10 N
(1) 1st Quadrant (2) 2nd Quadrant (3) 6 N (4) 5 N
(3) 3rd Quadrant (4) 4th Quadrant 11. If the normal reactional force is doubled, the
5. coefficient of friction is :
(1) doubled (2) halved
(3) not changed (4) tripled
12. Two iron blocks of equal masses but with double
Equation of the line shown in figure is:
surface area slide down an inclined plane with
(1) y = x + √ 3 (2) y = x + 3 friction coefficient µ. If the first block with
(3) y = √ 3x+3 (4) √ 3y=x+3 surface area A experience a friction force F, then
the second block with surface area 2A will
6. ∫ ( 1 − 2x + 3x2 − 4x3 ) dx is :
experience a frictional force :-
(1) x − 2x2 + 3x3 − 4x4 + C
(1) F/2 (2) F (3) 2F (4) 4F
(2) 2 3 4
x−x +x −x +C
13. A body of mass m starts sliding down on the inclined
(3) 2 3 4
−2x + 3x − 4x + C plane where the critical angle is ∠ ACB = 30° as
(4) −x2 + x3 − x4 + C shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction
d ( e2 ) will be :-
7. is :
dx
(1) 0 (2) e2 (3) 2e2 (4) e2
2
d2y
8. If y = x3 then is (1) mg/√3 (2) √ 3 mg
dx2
(1) 6x2 (2) 6x (3) 3x2 (4) 3x (3) √ 3 (4) None of these
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14. A chain of M, L is placed on table as shown find 19. A solid sphere of radius R, is charged uniformly
the maximum value of hanging part so that chain with a total charge Q. Then the correct expression
remain at rest :- for electric field is (r = distance from centre) : –
KQr
(1) , where r < R
R3
KQ
(2) , where r ≥ R
r2

(1) L (3) it is zero, at all points

ymax =
1+μ
(4) (1) and (2) both
(2) 1+L
ymax =
μ 20.
μL
(3) ymax =
1+μ Find out electric field intensity between plates?
(4) None of the above σ σ 3σ
(1) (2) (3) zero (4)
15. In general for a straight line :- 2ε0 ε0 2ε0
(1) Distance > |Displacement| 21. Electric flux through surface s1 :-
(2) Distance < |Displacement|
(3) Distance ­≤ |Displacement|
(4) Distance ≥ |Displacement|
16. Find magnitude of displacement of point 'p'
when wheel makes half rotation :- (1) is minimum
(2) is maximum
(3) equal to s2 but less than s4
(4) equal to flux through all other surfaces
22. The figure shows the electric field lines in the vicinity
(1) R (2) π R of two point charges. Which one of the following
(3) R√ π 2 + 4 (4) 4R statements concerning this situation is true ?
17. If the distance time graph for two particles A &
VA
B is as shown in fig then find =?
VB

(1) q1 is negative and q2 is positive

1 1
(2) The magnitude of the ratio (q2/q1) is less
(1) (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) than one
3 2
18. If v = 3t2 + 2 m/sec. Find displacement of (3) Both q1 and q2 have the same sign of charge
particle between t = 1 to t = 2 sec. (4) The electric field is strongest midway
(1) 7m (2) 8m (3) 6 m (4) 9 m between the charges.
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23. The electric field in a region of space is given by 29. Work done to move charge – 2C from B to A is :-
→ = 3i^ + 4j^ Nc−1 . The electric flux due to this
E ( )

field through an area 2 m2 lying in x-y plane, in

SI unit, is :
(1) 14 (2) 10 (3) 6 (4) zero
(1) 10 J (2) – 10 J
24. R
The electric potential at a distance from the
2 (3) 15 J (4) 100 J
centre of a conducting sphere of charge Q &
radius R will be :- 30.
Q
(1) 0 (2)
8π∈0 R
Q Q
(3) (4)
4π∈0 R 2π∈0 R Which point is at higher potential ?
25. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
of uniform electric field E→ . The line AB is
31. Potential V = 6xy – y + 2yz then electric field at
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field
(1, 1, 0) ?
lines. Then which of the following holds good.
^ ^ ^
Where VA, VB and VC represent the electric (1) −(6i + 9j + k)
potential at points A, B and C respectively :- ^
(2) −(3i^ + 5j^ + 3k)
^ ^ ^
(3) −(6i + 5j + 2k)
^
(4) −(2i^ + 3j^ + k)

32. If A → = 2i^ + 3j^ + 4k^ then A.

→ = 2i^, B → B→
(1) VA = VB = VC (2) VA = VB > VC
(3) VA = VB < VC (4) VA > VB = VC (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 9
26. The electric potential V is given as a function of 33. A vector can be split into how many components :-
distance x (metre) by V = (5x2 – 10x – 9) volts. (1) 2 (2) 3
The value of electric field at x=1 m is : – (3) 5 (4) All possible
(1) 20 V/m (2) 6 V/m 34. If force is (2i^ + 3i^) and displacement is (5j^ + 3j^)
(3) 11 V/m (4) zero then work done ?
27. If a vector 2i^ + 3j^ + 8k^ is perpendicular to the (1) 19 J (2) – 19 J
vector 4j^ − 4i^ + ak^ , then the value of a is :- (3) 0 (4) √ 4+9

(1) 1
(2) −1 (3) 1 (4) – 1 35. The electric potential at a point due to an electric
2 2 dipole will be :-
28. Find angle between vectors → = ^i + 3j^ + k^
A and k→p. →r kpr cos θ
(1) (2)
→ = 3i^ + 9j^ + 3k^ :-
B r3 r3
π π kp cos θ
(1) π rad (2) rad (3) rad (4) Zero (3) (4) All are correct
2 4 r2
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SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) 41. A body takes time 't' to reach the bottom of an
smooth inclined plane of angle θ . with the
36. On a rough horizontal surface a body of mass horizontal. If the plane is made rough, time taken
2 kg is given velocity 10 m/s. If μ = 0.2 find now is 2t. The coefficient of the rough surface is :-
the distance travel by body before it stop :- (1) 3 (2) 2
tan θ tan θ
4 3
(1) 100 m (2) 25 m 1 1
(3) tan θ (4) tan θ
(3) 50 m (4) 125 m 4 2
42. A particle covers half distance with speed. v1 &
37. Find maximum value of m so that system do not
moves with speed v2 for half time of remaining
move distance and finally moves with speed v3 for rest.
Find vavg ?
2v1 (v2 + v3 ) 2v2 (v1 + v3 )
(1) (2)
2v1 + v2 + v3 2v2 + v1 + v3
v1 v2 v3 2v1 v2
(3) (4)
v2 + v1 + v3 v1 + v2 + v3
(1) 10 kg (2) 5 kg 43. A point charge +20 µC is at a distance 6 cm
(3) 15 kg (4) 6 kg directly above the centre of a square of side 12
cm as shown is figure. The magnitude of electric
38. A body of mass 10 kg lies on a rough horizontal flux through the square is :-
surface. When a horizontal force of F newton
acts on it, it gets an acceleration of 5 m/sec2 &
when the horizontal force is doubled, it gets
acceleration of 18 m/sec2. The coefficient of
friction between the body & the horizontal
surface (assume g = 10 m/sec2) is :- (1) 2.5 × 106 N m2 C – 1
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8 (2) 3.8 × 105 N m2 C – 1
39. A block is lying rest on the floor. The maximum (3) 4.2 × 105 N m2 C – 1
value of static frictional force on the block is 10 N.
If a horizontal force of 8 N is applied to the block, (4) 2.9 × 106 N m2 C – 1
what-will be the frictional force on the block ? 44. Three charges Q,(+q) and (+q) are placed at the
(1) 2N (2) 18 N vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to :-
40. If the coefficient of friction of a plane inclined at
45° is 0.5, then acceleration of a body sliding
down on it is :-
9.8
(1) 4.9 m/sec2 (2) m/sec2
√2 q
(1) ( − ) (2) ( – q)
9.8 2
(3) 9.8 m/sec2 (4) m/sec2
2 √2 (3) (+ q) (4) Zero
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45. Two vectors A → and B → are such that A
→ +B
→ =C→ 48.
and A2 + B2 = C2. If θ is the angle between
positive directions of A → and B→ then mark the
correct alternative :-
If flux through curved surface is ϕ 2 and flux
(1) θ =0 from C is ϕ 1 then flux through face A is ?
π
(2) θ = q
2 (1) ( − ϕ1 − ϕ2 )
∈0
2π
(3) θ = q
3 (2) ( − ϕ2 − ϕ1 )
∈0
(4) θ =π
(3) (1) and (2) both
46. For given concentric conducting shells potential
of A is :- 1 q
(4) ( − ϕ2 )
2 ∈0
49.

5σ 4σ
(1) (2)
∈0 ∈0
What min force should be applied at A so that
σ 6σ
(3) ∈0
(4) resultant force comes in x direction only ?
∈0
47. For equipotential surfaces (I) and (II) direction (1) 5 cos 30 downward
of electric field is :- (2) 5 cos 30 upward
(3) 5 sin 30 downward
(4) 5 sin 30 upward
50.

(1) (2) Potential of point A is ?

σR2
(1)
∈0 r
σR
(2)
∈0
(3) (4) σr
(3) ∈0
σ
(4) (r + R)
∈0
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Topic : CONFORMATIONAL ISOMERS, GOC, MOLE CONCEPT [BACK UNIT] CHEMICAL KINETICS.

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 57. The incorrect statement regarding nucleophile is –

(1) They are electron rich
51. Antiaromatic compound among the following
is/are :- (2) They accept pair of electrons
(3) They are Lewis bases
(4) They have lone pair electron
58. The compound which can act as both
electrophile as well as nucleophile is –
(1) All (2) None
(1) :CH2
(3) Only b & c (4) Only c
(2)
52. Arrange the following radicals in order of
(3) Na+
decreasing stability :-
(A) (4)
59. Which of the following is not group?
(B)
(1) (2)

(C) (3) (4) – CD3

60. Most stable carbocation among the following is –
(1) B > A > C (2) A > B > C
(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B (1)
53. Which can not show conformation :-
(2)
(1) NH3 (2) CH3 – CH3
(3) H2O2 (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (3)
54. Which of the following conformations of
n – butane is the least stable - (4)
(1) Gauche (2) Anti
61. The correct stability order of following carbanions is –
(3) Eclipsed (4) Fully eclipsed
55. The strongest base is :-
(1) F⊖ (2) (3) (4)
56. Which of the following is not an example of (1) a > b > c
electrophile? (2) a > c > b
(1) :CH2 (2) CO2 (3) b > c > a
(3) R – O – R (4) (4) c > b > a
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62. The correct order of basic strength of following 67. For the reaction :-
amines in H2O solvent is – 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g)
CH3NH2 (CH3)2NH (CH3)3N The rate law for the above reaction has been
1 2 3 determined to be : Rate = k[NO][Cl2].
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 3 > 2 > 1 What is the overall order of the reaction ?
(3) 2 > 1 > 3 (4) 2 > 3 > 1 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
63. The rate of certain hypothetical reaction 68. The rate constant of nth order has units :
A + B + C → products is given by (1) Litre1 – n mol1 – n sec – 1
−d [A]
r= = k [A]1/2 [B]1/3 [C]1/4. (2) Mol1 – n litre1 – n sec
dt
2 2
The order of the reaction is – (3) Mol1−n litren sec−1

(1) 1 (2) 17 (3) 2 (4) 13 (4) Mole1 – n litren – 1 sec – 1

12 12
64. For the reaction 4A + B 2C + 2D 69. Unit of rate constant of which order is equal to
Incorrect statement is :- the unit of rate of reaction :-

(1) Rate of disappearance of B is one fourth of (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

rate of disappearance of A 70. For first order reaction the plot of log[A] versus t
(2) Rate of appearance of C is half of rate of is linear with a slope of
disappearance of B (1) k (2) – k
(3) Rate of formation of D is half of rate of (3) k/2.303 (4) – k/2.303
consumption of A
71. 0.39 g of a liquid on vapourisation gave 112 mL
(4) Rate of formation of C and D is same of vapour at STP. Its molecular weight is
65. The rate constant of a first-order reaction (1) 39 (2) 18.5 (3) 78 (4) 112
is 4 × 10 – 3 sec – 1 . At a reactant
72. One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 g at STP.
concentration of 0.02 M, the rate of reaction
The gas may possibly be
would be:
(1) C2H2 (2) CO
(1) 8 × 10 – 5 M sec – 1
(3) O2 (4) NH3
(2) 4 × 10 – 3 M sec – 1
73. When the specific heat capacity of a metallic
(3) 2 × 10 – 1 M sec – 1
element is 0.214 cal g – 1 K – 1, the atomic mass
(4) 4 × 10 – 1 M sec – 1 will be closest to which one of the following ?
66. For a reaction A → B , the rate of reaction (1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 30 (4) 66
quadrupled when the concentration of A is 74. Specific heat capacity of an unknown metal is
doubled. The rate expression of the reaction is 0.08 cal g – 1 K – 1, then approx atomic mass will
r = k(A)n . The value of n is be
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 78 (2) 80
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 52 (4) 10.4
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75. 4 g of a base whose eq. wt. is 40 reacts with 6 g 81. What is the normality of 1M H3PO4 solution ?
of an acid. The eq. wt. of the acid is - (1) 0.5 N (2) 1.0 N
(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 2.0 N (4) 3.0 N
(3) 10 (4) 80 82. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100mL
76. Equivalent weight of carbon in CO2 will be : of its solution. The concentration of solution is :-
(1) 6 (2) 12 (1) 0.1 M
(3) 3 (4) 8 (2) 0.02 M
77. For a reaction A + 2B → C. The amount of C (3) 0.01 M
formed by the reaction with 5 mol of A and 8 mol (4) 0.001M
of B is :-
83. Which one of the following has maximum
(1) 5 mol number of atoms?
(2) 8 mol (1) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(3) 16 mol (2) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(4) 4 mol (3) 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
78. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres (4) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of HCl (g)
formed is equal to:- 84. In the reaction
BrO3–(aq) + 5Br–(aq) + 6H+ → 3Br2(ℓ) + 3H2O(ℓ).
(1) 1 mol of HCl (g)
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is related to
(2) 2 mol of HCl (g) rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following :-
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br ]
−
(1) =
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g) dt 5 dt
−
(2) d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br ]
79. A container of volume V, contains 0.28 g of N2 =−
dt 5 dt
gas. If same volume of an unknown gas under d [Br2 ] 5 d [Br− ]
(3) =−
similar condition of temperature and pressure dt 3 dt
d [Br −]
weighs, 0.44 g, the molecular mass of the gas is d [Br2 ] 5
(4) =
dt 3 dt
(1) 22 (2) 44
85. In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of
(3) 66 (4) 88 temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
80. CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C,
STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is - the rate of the reaction will become :-
(1) 2.016 litres (1) 64 times
(2) 1.008 litres (2) 128 times
(3) 10.08 litres (3) 256 times
(4) 20.16 litres (4) 512 times
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SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 90. Statement – I : Energy of resonance hybrid is
higher than that of any of the cannonical
86. Choose the most stable form of conformer :- structure.
Statement – II : The difference in energies
between energy of resonance hybrid and lowest
(1) (2) energy resonating structure is called as
resonance energy.
In the light of above two statements, select the
correct option.
(1) Both statements I & II are true.
(3) (4)
(2) Both statements I & II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but II is false.
87. The correct stability order of the following (4) Statement I is false but II is true.
carbocation is :- 91. Match the terms mentioned in column I with the
terms in column II.
Column - I Column - II
Conjugation of
(1) a > b > c (2) b > c > a electrons of C – H σ
(3) c > a > b (4) b > a > c bond with empty p-
(i) Carbocation (a)
orbital present at
88. Which has maximum pKa among following ?
adjacent positively
(1) CH3 – COOH charged carbon
sp2 hybridised 'C'
(2) (ii) Nucleophile (b)
with empty p-orbital
Species that can
(3) (iii) Hyperconjugation (c) receive a pair of
electrons

(4) CHCl2 – COOH Species that can

(iv) Electrophile (d) supply a pair of
89. The compound with minimum pKa would be –
electrons

(1) (2) Select the correct option –

(1) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – c
(2) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a, (iv) – d
(3) (4) (3) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – b, (iv) – c
(4) (i) – a, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – d
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92. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 The rate 97. How many moles of lead(II) chloride will be
of change of concentration for hydrogen is formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
0.3 × 10 – 4 Ms – 1. The rate of change of and 3.2 g of HCl ? (Atomic wt. of Pb=207)
concentration of ammonia is : (in M s – 1) PbO + 2HCl → PbCl2 + H2O
(1) – 0.2 × 10 – 4 (1) 0.011 (2) 0.029
(2) 0.2 × 10 – 4 (3) 0.044 (4) 0.333
(3) 0.1 × 10 – 4 98. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal
(4) 0.3 × 10 – 4 aqueous solution is :

93. What is the half life of a Ist order reaction, A → B, (1) 0.1770 (2) 0.0177
if 75% of A is converted into B in 60 minutes (3) 0.0344 (4) 1.7700
(1) 30 mins 99. During the kinetic study of the reaction,
(2) 45 mins 2A + B → C + D, following results were
obtained :–
(3) 60 mins
Initial rate of
(4) 80 mins Ex. [A] [B]
formation of
No. (mol L–1) (mol L–1)
94. In victor Mayer's method 0.2 g of a volatile D (mol L–1 min–1)
compound on volatilisation gave 56 ml of vapour I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10–3
at STP. Its molecular weight is : II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10–2
(1) 40 III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10–1
(2) 60 IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10–2
(3) 80
(4) 120 Based on the above data which one of the
95. 0.126g of an acid requires 20mL of 0.1 N NaOH following rate law is correct ?
for complete neutralisation. Eq. wt. of acid is- (1) rate = k[A][B]2
(1) 45 (2) 53 (2) rate = k[A]2[B]
(3) 40 (4) 63 (3) rate = k[A][B]
96. If 20 ml of H2 and 30 ml of O2 react to form (4) rate = k[A]2[B]2
water, then which reactant and its volume is left 100. A one molal solution contains one mole of a
at the end of the reaction ? solute in
(1) 10 ml of H2 (1) 1000 g of the solvent
(2) 5 ml of H2 (2) one litre of the solution
(3) 10 ml of O2 (3) one litre of the solvent
(4) 20 ml of O2 (4) 22.4 litres of the solution
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Topic : CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, HUMAN GENOME PROJECT, DNA FINGERPRINTING, PRINCIPLE OF
INHERITANCE, INTRODUCTION TO RECIPROCAL CROSS [BACK UNIT] ANIMAL TISSUE.

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 104. According to HGP the average gene consists

of...I...bases while the largest known human
101. DNA finger printing profile will be exactly same of :- gene consists of...II...bases. Choose the correct
(a) Sibling digit for I and II blanks.
(b) Monozygotic twins I II
(c) Off springs (1) 30,000 2.4 million
(d) Dizygotic twins
(2) 231 1.4 million
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only (3) 3000 1,40,000
(3) b only (4) b and d only (4) 3000 2.4 million

102. Arrange the following in correct order of 105. The figure given below in of experimental
sequence for DNA finger-printing- technique of Mendel. Select the option giving
(a) Blotting (b) Hybridization correct identification of A, B & C :-
(c) Gel Electrophorosis (d) Autoradiography
(1) c, a, d, b (2) a, c, d, b
(3) b, c, a, d (4) c, a, b, d
103. What does this diagram indicate?

(1) A-Artificial cross pollination;

B-Hybrid offsprings;
C-Emasculation.
(2) A-Emasculation;
(1) Law of dominance interpretated on basis of B-Bagging & tagging;
genes. C-Hybrid offsprings.
(2) Law of segregation interpreated on basis of (3) A-Emasculation;
genes. B-Artificial cross pollination;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
(3) Law of independent assortment interpretated
on basis of genes. (4) A-Bagging & tagging;
B-Emasculation;
(4) Simply gamete genes C-Hybrid offsprings.
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106. Find out correct match : – 109. What will be the probability of gametes which
(1) Pod colour-chromosome number 5 contain atleast one recessive allele from the
genotype of dihybrid plant.
(2) Seed colour-chromosome number 7
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
(3) Height-chromosome number 1
110. DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis
(4) Pod shape-chromosome number 1 are shown. Mark the correct statement :-
107. Observe the given diagram & select the correct
option :-

(1) Band 3 contains more positively charged

DNA molecule than 1
(2) Band '3' indicates more charge than 1 and 2
(3) Band 1 has longer DNA fragment than 2
(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a and 3
out cross.
(4) All the bands have equal length and
(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, charges but differ in base composition
used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
111. Identify the correct match from the column I, II
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal and III :-
cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test Column-I Column-II Column-III
cross to find out the genotype of organisms. (AaBb × (AaBbCc ×
108. When a cross is made between a tall plant with AaBb) AaBbCc)
yellow seeds (TtYy) and a tall plant with green (1)
Types of
(a) 9 (i) 8
seeds (Ttyy), what is true regarding the Gametes
proportions of phenotypes of the offsprings in F1 Types of
(2) (b) 4 (ii) 8
generation :- Phenotype
Types of
(3) (c) 4 (iii) 64
Proportion of Proportion of Genotype
Tall and Green Dwarf and Green Total
3 1 possible
(1) (4) (d) 16 (iv) 27
8 8 zygotic
2 1 combination
(2)
8 8
(3) 1 3 (1) 1 - c - ii, 2 - a - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - b - iii
8 8 (2) 1 - c - iii, 2 - d - ii, 3 - b - i, 4 - a - iv
(4) 2 2 (3) 1 - b - i, 2 - c - ii, 3 - a - iv, 4 - d - iii
8 8 (4) 1 - b - ii, 2 - c - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - a - iii
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112. Two sets of diagrams are given here :-
I II
Which of the following option is correct ?
(1) I – Explains law of segregation
II – Explains law of dominance
(2) Both I and II explain law of segregation
(3) I – Explains law of segregation
II – Explains law of independent assortment
(4) I – Explains law of segregation
II – Explains nondisjunction
113. Which of the following statement is true :-
(a) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant
varieties.
(b) The contrasting triat did not show any
blending at either F1 or F2 stage.
(c) The segregation of alleles is a random
process and so there is a 50% chance of a gamete
containing either alleles.
(d) If modified allele produce normal enzyme
then it is equivalent to the unmodified allele.
(e) Recessive trait is seen due to non functional
enzyme or because no enzyme is produced.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b, d
(3) a, b, e (4) All are correct
114. Assertion (A) : The segregation of alleles is a
random process and so there is a 50% chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
Reason (R) : By the process of mitosis, the alleles
of the parental pair separates from each other &
only one allele in transmitted to a gamete.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
115. Which one of the following statement incorrect
regarding salient features of human genome project ?
(1) Less than 2 percent of he genome codes for
proteins.
(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism pronounced
as 'Snips'.
(3) Repetitive sequences makes up very large
portion of the human genome.
(4) The total no. of genes is estimated 300000.
116. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant
varieties, was pairs which were ?
(1) Different except for one character with
contrasting traits
(2) Similar except for two character with
contrasting traits.
(3) Different except for one character with
similar traits.
(4) Similar except for one character with
contrasting traits.
117. During Mendel's investigation, it was first time
that __b__ and __a__ were applied in biology.
(1) a → statistical analysis.
b → Mathematical logic.
(2) a → Mathematical logic.
b → Chemistry analysis.
(3) a → Mathematical logic.
b → Statistical analysis.
(4) a → Physics logic.
b → Mathematical analysis.
118. Identify the correct statements :
(A) HGP was closely associated with the rapid
development of bioinformatics.
(B) The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only
in May 2006.
(C) The average gene consists of 3000 base pairs.
(D) The repetitive DNA are separated from bulk
genomic DNA as differ peak during centrifugation.
(E) Repetitive sequence are though to have direct coding
function but they shed light on chromosome structure,
dynamics and evolution.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B only
(3) B, D, E (4) C, D, E
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119. Choose the incorrect pair amongst the following 125. Assertion (A) : In monohybrid cross, the progeny
characters Mendel choose for his experiments. in F2-generation traits were identical to their
parental type.
(1) Seed colour – Yellow/green Reason (R) : The law of dominance is used to
(2) Fruit colour – Green/yellow explain the expression of only one of the parental
characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1.
(3) Flower colour – Red/white
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(4) Flower position – Axial/terminal is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
120. A graphical representation to calculate the probability (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
cross can be understood from a diagram called : (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) Mendel square (2) Punnet square Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Morgan square (4) Cross-pollination 126. Identify correct statement about simple
squamous epithelium ?
121. Which cross was used to study the independent (1) It contain single thin layer of flatted cell
assortment ? with irregular boundaries.
(1) Back cross (2) Trihybrid cross (2) It will not allow diffusion
(3) Dihybrid cross (4) Monohybrid cross (3) It is found in bones
122. The law of dominance is used to explain the (4) It contains single layer of cube like cell
expression of only one of the parental characters 127. Which of the following statement is incorrect
in a monohybrid cross in the : about gland ?
(I) Endocrine gland can only secrete variety of
(1) Parental generation (2) F1 generation
enzyme only.
(3) F2 generation (4) F3 generation (II) Glands provide protection against chemical
and mechanical stress.
123. What is the source of the taq polymerase enzyme ?
(III) Exocrine gland posses duct for secretion of
(1) Thermus thermophilus mucus, milk, saliva, earwax, digestive enzyme
oil and other cell product.
(2) Thermus aquaticus
(IV) Free surface has microvilli.
(3) Pyrococcus furiosus (1) I, III (2) II, III (3) I, II, IV (4) III
(4) Thermus flavus 128. Assertion : Cuboidal epithelium is found in
124. If a true breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tubular parts of nephron.
Reason : Main functions of cuboidal epithelium
true breeding short pea plant, what will be the are secretion and absorption.
phenotype of the F1 generation ? (1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
(1) All tall is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
(2) All dwarf is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Tall (3) : dwarf (1) (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Tall (1) : dwarf (3) (4) Both assertion & reason are false.
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129. Find out incorrect statement – 133. Structure, which connect one bone to another is –
(A) Matrix of bone is rich is calcium salts & (1) Tendon
elastin fibres.
(2) Ligament
(B) Matrix of bone is hard & non-pliable.
(C) 1-4 osteocytes are present in one lacuna. (3) Compound epithelium
(D) bone marrow of all bones produce blood cells. (4) Nucleus
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) A, C, D (4) B 134. Which of the following is example of
130. Identify the connective tissues labelled as (i) and Endocrine gland?
(ii) along with the parts labelled as A, B and C. (1) Salivary gland (2) Thyroid gland
(3) Mammary gland (4) Liver
135. Most of the ___A___ in vertebrate embryos are replaced
by ___B___ in adults. A & B are respectively –
(1) Bone & cartilage (2) Cartilage & bone
(3) Cartilage & blood (4) Muscles & bones
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I )
Options (i) (ii) A B C

(1) Cartilage
Collagen
Bone
Haversian
Chondrocyte
136. Which of the following vector used in the
fibres canal Human genome project?
Haversian Collagen (1) BAC and YAC (2) PBR 322
(2) Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
canal fibres
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Retrovirus
Haversian Collagen
(3) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres 137. HGP in closely associated with the rapid
Haversian Collagen
development of a new area in biology, called as :-
(4) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres (1) Biotechnology (2) Bioinformatics
131. Which of the following epithelium is composed (3) Bioscience (4) Biogeography
of a single layer of tall and slender cell ? 138. Organisms that have different genotype but show
(1) Simple squamous epithelium similar phenotype under different environmental
(2) Stratified columnar epithelium conditions are called :-
(1) Genocopy (2) Ecotype
(3) Transitional epithelium
(3) Phenocopy (4) Ecological equivalents
(4) Simple columnar epithelium
139. 99.9% of base sequences among the humans are
132. Glands, which secrete hormones are –
the same and the human genome has 3 × 109 bp.
(1) Endocrine glands, having ducts Find out, how many base sequences would be
(2) Exocrine glands, having ducts the different in two individuals.
(3) Endocrine glands, having tubes (1) 3 × 105 bps (2) 3 × 106 bps
(4) Endocrine glands, having no ducts (3) 3 × 107 bps (4) 3 × 108 bps
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140. Which was the last human chromosome to be 147. What is the major constituent of connective
completely sequenced ? tissue ?
(1) Chromosome Y (2) Chromosome 2 (1) Lipid
(3) Chromosome 21 (4) Chromosome 1
141. The separated bonds of DNA are cut out from (2) carbohydrate
the agarose gel and extracted from gel piece. this
(3) Cholestrol
step is known as :-
(1) PCR (2) Transformation (4) Collagen
(3) Elution (4) Sieving effect
148. If you are removing the epithelium of from
142. At which end of the gel the sample was loaded ?
buccal cavity & pharynx, then you are
(1) Anode
removing :-
(2) Cathode
(3) Any end (1) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Depends on the amount charge on sample (2) Simple columnar epithelium
143. The allele which express itself in both (3) Compound epithelium
homozygous and heterozyg condition is called :
(4) Connective tissue
(1) Dominant allele
(2) Recessive allele 149. What are three basic component of all type of
connective tissue except blood ?
(3) Only recessive allele
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Cell, fibres, ground substance
144. For the development of genetic character : (2) Arteries, vein, capillaries
(1) Gene must be present
(2) For expression suitable condition (3) Mast cell, lymphocyte, adipocyte
(3) Gene must be express (4) Fibroblast, reticular fibres, collagen
(4) All the above
150. Assertion : Connective tissue are the most
145. What is the maximum number of allele that
monohybrid cross can consider ? abundant and widely distributed in the body of
complex animals.
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
Reason : Connective tissues link and support
146. Assertion : The tissue which is present in the skin is
called dense irregular connective tissue. other tissue or organs of the body.
Reason : This tissue has fibroblasts and many fibres (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(mostly collagen) that are oriented differently.
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Topic : CIRCULATORY SYSTEM, HUMAN GENOME PROJECT, DNA FINGERPRINTING, PRINCIPLE OF
INHERITANCE, INTRODUCTION TO RECIPROCAL CROSS [BACK UNIT] ANIMAL TISSUE.

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) (1) (i)-(e), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b),(iv)-(c),(v)-(a)

151. Pick the incorrect one for the cartilage matrix ? (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(b),(iv)-(c),(v)-(a)
(1) Solid (3) (i)-(e), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c),(iv)-(b),(v)-(a)
(2) Pliable (4) (i)-(e), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d),(iv)-(c),(v)-(a)
(3) Do not resist compression 156. Pick the incorrect statement regarding E.C.G ?
(4) All of the above (1) P wave represent the excitation of Atria
152. How many organisms in the list given below (2) QRS complex represent the depolarisation
have complete double circulation of the ventricle.
Pigeon, Frog, Human, Shark, Flying Fish, Crow, (3) Contraction of ventricle start shortly after R
Salamander, Rabbit, Lizard wave
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (4) End of T-wave represent end of systole.
153. During the stage of joint diastole which of the 157. Stage of cardiac cycle during which complete
following thing not happen ? heart is in relaxed condition is -
(1) All the chamber are in relaxed state.
(1) Atrial systole
(2) Semilunar valves are open at this stage.
(2) Ventricular diastole
(3) A.V. Valve are open at this stage.
(3) Ventricular systole
(4) Blood from venacava & Pulmonary vein
(4) Joint diastole
flow into right & left ventricle respectively.
158. Anti – Rh antibody should be administered to -
154. Pick the incorrect statement regarding angina ?
(1) Baby just after first delivery
(1) A symtom of acute chest pain appear when
no enough O2 reach to heart muscle (2) Mother just after first delivery
(2) It is occurs due to blood flow affected (3) Mother during second delivery
(3) Also known as angina pectoris (4) Mother and baby both after first delivery
(4) It is more common in younger aged & new born. 159. A : Portal system consists of veins which start
155. Match the column :- from capillaries and end into capillaries.
Column-A Column-B R : Vertebrates have hepatic portal system.
(i) Neutrophils (a) 20-25% (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(ii) Eosinophils (b) 6-8%
(iii) Basophils (c) 1% (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(iv) Monocytes (d) 2-3%
(3) A is true but R is false.
(v) Lymphocytes (e) 60-65%
TG: @Chalnaayaaar (4) Both A and R are false.
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160. Select the correct statement – 165. Tendons connect which of the following ?
(a) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid (1) Bone to visceral muscle
constituting nearly 55% of the blood.
(2) Bone to bone
(b) Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells as
they are colourless due to lack of Haemoglobin. (3) Bone to skeleton muscle
(c) Blood exhibits coagulation or clotting in response (4) Bone to cartilage
to an injury or trauma to prevent excessive loss of
166. Statement I : Gap junction facilitates cell to cell
blood from body. communication with each other.
(d) Calcium ion do not play important role in Statement II : Tight junction help to leak substance.
clotting.
(e) All vertebrates posses a muscular chambered (1) Both statement I & II are correct.
Heart. (2) Both statement I & II are incorrect.
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, e, c (3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect.
(3) a, c, e (4) b, d (4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct.

161. Among the following which is not a protein of 167. Which of the following cell is odd one ?
blood plasma. (1) Fibroblast (2) Osteoblast
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Globulins (3) Chondroblast (4) Erythroblast
(3) Albumins (4) Myoglobin 168. Assertion : Matrix of bone is hard & non pliable.
Reason : Bone support & protect soft tissue of body.
162. What is stroke volume ?
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(1) Amount of blood pumped into Ventricles is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Amount of blood pumped-out during (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
cardiac cycle (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Amount of blood pumped into Aorta (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Heart beat per minute
169. The fibres of connective tissue that provide
163. Compound epithelium is found in which part of
strength to tissue is :
body except ?
(1) Elastic fibre (2) Collagen fibres
(1) Pharynx
(3) Reticular fibre (4) All of the above
(2) Dry surface of skin
170. Thrombokinase enzymes is requires for which of
(3) Duct of salivary gland
the following reaction :
(4) Blood vessels (1) Fibrinogen → Fibrin
164. Fallopian tube is lined by which tissue ? (2) Fibrin → Fibrinogen
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium (3) Prothrombin → Thrombin
(2) Non ciliated columnar epithelium (4) Thrombin → Fibrin
(3) Squamous epithelium 171. Open type of circulation is found in -
(1) Fishes (2) Lizards
(4) Glandular epithelium
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(3) Cockroach (4) Crocodile
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172. CAD is often reffered as - 178. Special coronary circulation is present in our body,
(1) Varicose vein (2) Heart failure that supply oxygenated blood & drain deoxygenated
blood found between in which part ?
(3) Heart arrest (4) Atherosclerosis
(1) Heart to liver
173. Assertion : Heart failure means heart is not (2) Heart to heart muscle
pumping enough blood.
(3) Heart to lungs
Reason : Angina is acute chest pain due to lack
of oxygen. (4) Liver to intestine

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
174. How many of the following examples belong to
incomplete double circulation ?
Snake, Lizard, Crocodile, Dog, Human, Crow,
Frog, Shark
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4
175. If a person has 8 liter of cardiac output & 75 ml
of stroke volume then what will be the heart rate
of human ?
179. Which of the following statement is true/correct ?
(1) Albumin help in blood clotting
(2) Globulin involve in defence of body
(3) Thrombin is stimulate by thromboplastin
(4) Fibrinogen is soluble in lymph
180. Statement I : Veins are the blood vessels that
transports blood from body to heart.
Statement II : In human intestinal blood is
transport to liver via special vein called renal
portal vein.
(1) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct

(1) 100 Beat/min (2) 106 Beat/min 181. Which of following is correct path for
conduction of Heart ?
(3) 95 Beat/min (4) 75 Beat/min
(1) AV node → SA node → Bundle of his →
176. Which of the following factor do not lead trachy Purkinje fibre
cardia ? (2) Purkinje fibre → Bundle of his → AV
node → SA node
(1) Temperature & Exercise
(3) SA node → AV node → Bundle of his →
(2) Exercise & Adrenaline Purkinje fibre
(3) Rest & Actyle colin (4) SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibre
→ Bundle of his
(4) Temperature & Sympathetic NS
182. Which of the following type of biological
177. Auto excitability is generated by which of the marriage should be avoided ?
following tissue ?
(1) A+ve boy & AB+ve girl
(1) Skeleton muscle
(2) Nervous tissue (2) O – ve boy & A+ve girl
(3) Nodal muscular tissue (3) AB+ve boy & A – ve girl
(4) Smooth muscle
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(4) B+ve boy & B+ve girl
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183. Match the column - SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )
Column A Column B
186. When two or more organ perform a common
(i) Monocyte (A) Humoral immunity function by their physical & chemical intraction
(ii) B-Lymphocyte (B) Minimum in number they form ?
(iii) Neutrophils (C) Macrophage cell (1) Tissue system (2) Body system
(iv) Basophils (D) Stain in any medium (3) Organ system (4) None of the above
Which of the following is correctly match ? 187. Mammalian bone differ from the bird's bone in
(1) (i) - (A), (ii) - (D), (iii) - (B), (iv) - (C) the presence of :-
(2) (i) - (C), (ii) - (A), (iii) - (D), (iv) - (B) (1) Lymph vessel (2) Blood vessel
(3) (i) - (C), (ii) - (D), (iii) - (A), (iv) - (B) (3) Collagen (4) Haversian canal
(4) (i) - (A), (ii) - (C), (iii) - (D), (iv) - (B) 188. Which of the following is not correct for BP.
184. Which of the following statement is/are not (i) It is not affected by atherosclerosis.
incorrect ? (ii) It is typically lower in veins than in arteries.
(A) O is universal donor because antigen is absent
on RBC. (iii) Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure.
(B) AB can recieve blood from AB due to presence (iv) It is usually refers to as venous pressure of the
of same antigen in plasma. systemic circulation.
(C) Antigen is present in the RBC & Antibody is
present in plasma for blood group. (1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(D) Rh – ve mother can deliver its first baby with (3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Rh+ve blood after receiving Rogam.
189. Assertion : Stroke volume multiplied by heart rate
(1) Only A & D (2) Only B, C & D gives cardiac output.
(3) Only A (4) Only B & C Reason : Cardiac output can be defined as volume
of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute.
185. Read the following statement :
(A) Calcium salts perform important role in (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
clotting. Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) All reptiles have 3 chambered heart with 2
Atria & 1 ventricle. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(C) Ist Heart round is "Lubb" produce by closing is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
of semilunar value
(D) Stroke volume is calculate by ESV – EDV. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(E) T-wave represent the repolarization of (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
ventricle.
Which of the following option is true for given 190. By observing the ECG graph, count the number
statement ? of Heart beats.
(1) A, D, E are correct & B, C are incorrect
(2) A, B, D are incorrect, C, E are correct
(3) only E is incorrect (1) four heart beat (2) two heart beat
(4) Only A, B, C, D incorrect & E is correct (3) three heart beat (4) nine heart beat
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 22 English
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191. Oxygenated blood enters the ______ from the 196. The formula of cardiac output can be express by -
______ and exits through the ______ . (1) Cardiac output = Heart rate / stroke volume
(1) Lt ventricle, pulmonary artery, mitral valve (2) Cardiac output = Heart rate × stroke volume
(2) Rt ventricle, pulmonary artery, mitral valve (3) Cardiac output = Heart rate + stroke volume
(3) Lt atrium, pulmonary veins, bicuspid valve (4) Cardiac output = Heart rate × respiratory rate
(4) Rt atrium, pulmonary veins, bicuspid valve 197. Which of the following valve permits only single
192. Match the following columns - directional flow of deoxygenated blood ?
Column-I Column-II (1) Bicuspid valve (2) Aortic valve
(A) RBC (i) Eosinophils
(3) Tricuspid valve (4) AV valve
(B) WBC (ii) Monocytes
198. Which of the following condition lead Rh
5.5 millions mm – 3 of
(C) Granulocytes (iii) incompatibility ?
blood
–3 (1) Rh + ve mother & Rh – ve father
(iv) 6000 – 8000 mm of
Agranulo
(D)
cytes blood (2) Rh – ve mother & Rh – ve father
(1) A → iv, B → iii, C → ii, D → i (3) Rh + ve mother & Rh + ve father
(2) A → iii, B → iv, C → i, D → ii (4) Rh – ve mother & Rh + ve father
(3) A → ii, B → iii, C → iv, D → i 199. Which of the following condition compare
(4) A → i, B → iv, C → iii, D → ii our blood with lymph respectively ?
193. Sino-Atrial-Node (SAN) is present in ? (1) More RBC & Less platelets
(1) Right Atrium (2) No plasma & No platelets
(2) Left Atrium (3) More WBC & no RBC
(3) Between atrial-Septa. (4) More plasma protein & less RBC
(4) Right upper corner of Right Atrium 200. Which of the following tissue not correctly
match with its location ?
194. Why cardiac output is higher in exercise condition ?
Tissue Location
(1) Respiratory Rate is higher
(1) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(2) Blood volume is higher
(2) Areolar tissue Beneath the skin
(3) Blood flow is fast
(3) Cartilage Buccal cavity
(4) Heart rate is higher
(4) Dense regular Tendon
195. Most abundant cell found in adipose tissue is ?
(1) Mast cell (2) Lymphocyte
(3) Adipocytes (4) Fibroblast

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English 23
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2023 - 2024)
LEADER COURSE PHASE : MLC
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE

P ELECTROSTATICS

SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
04
06-08-2023
17-07-2023 C NOMENCLATURE & ISOMERISM
TO
05-08-2023

B DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

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1016CMD303033230004 16-07-2023
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