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Test Pattern

(0999OJA111522013) )/888ΝΙ≅000411/02)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)
TEST # 12
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023) 08-01-2023
JEE(Main + Advanced) : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE (PHASE-II)
12th Undergoing/Pass Students

Test Type : Review (Unit Test # 06, 07, 08, 09 & 10)
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 Maximum Marks : 180
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

GENERAL

1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so.

2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.

5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 20 pages and that all the
18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for
replacement of the booklet.

6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.

9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS.
Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble
under each digit of your form number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS

10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.

14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or
"un-darken" a darkened bubble.

15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated. / g = 10 m/s2

QUESTION PAPER FORMAT

16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
ALLEN
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
        Full Marks            :    +4    If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +3     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +2     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and

                                                   both of which are correct.

       Partial Marks         :    +1     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a

                                                   correct option.

       Zero Marks            :     0      If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

       Negative Marks     :    –2     In all other cases.


For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

1. Three musicians experiment with the Doppler effect. Musician A rides in a car at a speed u directly away
from musician B who is stationary. Musician C rides in a car directly toward B and travels at the same
speed as A. Musician A plays a note at frequency fA on his trumpet. B hears the note, adjusts his trumpet,
and plays the same note he heard. 

(A) The note heard by C coming from B will be the same pitch as fA.
(B) The note heard by A coming from B will be higher in pitch than fA.
(C) The note heard by A coming from B will be lower in pitch than fA.
(D) The note heard by B coming from A will be lower in pitch than fA.

0999OJA111522013 LTS-1/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
2. Following are equations of four waves where x, y, z represent rectangular coordinate system  :

x x
(i) y1 = a sinω(t − )                (ii) y2 = a cosω (t + )

ν ν
x x
(iii) z1 = a sinω(t − )              (iv) z2 = a cosω(t +

)
ν ν
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) On superposition of waves (i) and (iii), a travelling wave having amplitude a√–2 will be formed.
(B) Superposition of waves (ii) and (iii) is not possible.
(C) On superposition of waves (i) and (ii), a transverse stationary wave having maximum

amplitude a√2 will be formed.
(D) On superposition of waves (iii) and (iv), a transverse stationary wave will be formed.
3. In a series LCR circuit, when an alternating voltage of peak value 500 V and angular frequency 100 rad/s
is applied, the peak voltage drops across L, C and R can be respectively
(A) 200 V, 300 V, 0
(B) 800 V, 500 V, 400 V
(C) 600 V, 200 V, 300 V
(D) 1200 V, 1600 V, 0 V
4. The temperature of earth is maintained by a dynamic equilibrium between Sun and Earth. Sun & Earth
can be assumed to be black bodies :
(A) If the power output of sun would double with changing the temperature, equilibrium
temperature of earth also doubles.
(B) If the radius of sun doubles without changing its' power, its surface temperature would decrease

by factor of √2.
(C) If the radius of earth doubles without any change in sun, it's equilibrium temperature would
increase by factor of √–2.
(D) If the distance between earth and sun would decrease by a factor of 2, the equilibrium

temperature of earth would increase by factor of √2.

LTS-2/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
5. The pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm and its circular scale is divided into 100 divisions. When nothing is put
between the studs the zero of main scale is not seen but when circular scale is rotated by 450° the zero of
main scale is just visible and the zero of main scale coincides with the zero of circular scale. When a glass
plate is placed between the studs, the circular scale lies between 18th and 19th division of main scale and
circular scale reads 34 divisions. Then,
(A) There is positive zero error and its magnitude is 1.25 mm.
(B) There is negative zero error and its magnitude is 1.25 mm.
(C) The thickness of the glass plate is 19.59 mm.
(D) The thickness of the glass plate is 17.09 mm.
6. An ideal gas can expand from state A to C (via state B) through two different process P and Q. In process
P, AB and BC are straight lines in P-V diagram. In process Q, states A, B, C are on a circle in P-V
diagram. heat supplied and work done by gas in process P and Q are respectively QP ; QQ and WP, WQ :-

 
(A) QQ > QP
(B) WQ < WP
WQ WP
(C) >
QQ QP
(D) QQ – WQ = QP – WP

0999OJA111522013 LTS-3/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
         Full Marks            :    +3   If ONLY the correct option is chosen.

        Zero Marks            :     0    If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

        Negative Marks     :    –1   In all other cases


7. List I contains four combinations of two lenses (1 and 2) whose focal lengths (in cm) are indicated in the
figures. In all cases, the object is placed 20 cm from the first lens on the left, and the distance between the
two lenses is 5 cm. List II contains the positions of the final images.
List-I List-II

Final image is formed at

(I) (P) 7.5 cm on the right side of

lens 2.

Final image is formed at

(II) (Q)
60.0 cm on the right side of lens 2.

Final image is formed at

(III) (R) 30.0 cm on the left side of

lens 2.

Final image is formed at

(IV) (S) 6.0 cm on the right side of

lens 2.

Final image is formed at

    (T)
30.0 cm on the right side of lens 2.

Which one of the following options is correct ?


(A) I → P;II → R;III → Q;IV → T (B) I → Q;II → P;III → T;IV → S
(C) I → P;II → T;III → R;IV → Q (D) I → T;II → S;III → Q;IV → R

LTS-4/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
8. An ideal gas is taken along the reversible processes as represented by the adjoining diagram.

List-I List-II
(P) For process B → C (1) ΔQ > 0 

(Q) For process A → B (2) ΔW > 0 

(R) For cycle A → B → C → A (3) ΔU > 0

(S) For process C → A (4) ΔW = 0 

    (5) ΔQ < 0

(A) P → 1,2,3;Q → 1,2,5;R → 1,2,3;S → 1,2


(B) P → 1,2;Q → 1,3,4;R → 1,4,5;S → 5
(C) P → 1,2,3;Q → 1,3,4;R → 1,2;S → 5
(D) P → 1,3;Q → 1,3,4;R → 5;S → 4,5
9. A Young's double slit appratus is shown in figure

 
  List-I   List-II
(P) Source S move upwards (1) Central fringe moves upwards
(Q) A thin glass slab is placed in front of slit S2 (2) Central fringe moves downward
(R) Whole apparatus is immersed in water (3) Fringe width remains constant
(S) Diameter of slit S2 is doubled (4) Fringe width decreases
    (5) Intensity of central maxima increases
(A) P → 1,2;Q → 3,4;R → 2,5;S → 4 (B) P → 2,3;Q → 2,3;R → 4;S → 3,5
(C) P → 2,3;Q → 3,4;R → 1,4;S → 1,2 (D) P → 1,2;Q → 2,3;R → 2,4;S → 1,3

0999OJA111522013 LTS-5/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
10. A solid sphere of radius R = 0.5m is placed on a rough surface. A force F = 7 N is applied at point A. Sphere
starts to perform pure rolling. Height of point A varies as h = h0 + kt where h0 = 0.1m,  k = 0.4 m/sec

List-I List-II
5
At t =
sec frictional force
(P) 4 (1) backward
acting on sphere will be
3
At  t = sec frictional force
(Q) 2 (2) forward
acting on sphere will be 
7
At
t = sec   frictional force
(R) 4 (3) 0
acting on sphere will be
Work done by friction force from
(S) (4) 1N
t = 0 to t = 7/4 sec
the magnitude of frictional force is
(5)
independent of applied force

(A) P → 1,4;Q → 3,5;R → 2,4;S → 3 (B) P → 1,3;Q → 3,5;R → 2,4;S → 4


(C) P → 1,5;Q → 3,5;R → 2,4;S → 3 (D) P → 1,2;Q → 3,5;R → 2,4;S → 3

LTS-6/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
         Full Marks      :     +3   If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

         Zero Marks    :      0     In all other cases.


1. In the figure shown electromagnetic radiations of wavelength 200 nm are incident on the metallic plate A.
The photo electrons are accelerated by a potential difference 10V. These electrons strike another metal
plate B from which electromagnetic radiations are emitted. The minimum wavelength of the emitted
photons is 100 nm. Find the work function of the metal ‘A’ (in eV). Use hc = 12400eVÅ 

2. Consider superposition of waves coming from three light sources (slits) A, B and C as shown in fig.
−−−−
λ 2λD
Given that  BP 0 − AP 0 =  and  d = √ . What is the ratio of intensity at P0 compared to intensity
3 3
due to individual slit.

3. A string of mass per unit length μ is clamped at both ends such that one end of the string is at x = 0 and the other
end at x = L. When string vibrates in fundamental mode, amplitude of the midpoint of string is a and tension in
1
string is F. Find the total oscillation energy (in J) stored in the string. (Use L = 1m, F = 10 N, a = m)
π

0999OJA111522013 LTS-7/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
4. A particle is projected from point 'A', that is at a distance 4R from the centre of the earth, with speed v0 as
−−−−
GM
shown. If the particle passes grazing the earth's surface, then it is found that v0 = √ . Find the value
NR
of N where mass and radius of earth is M and R respectively :

5. Two coherent radio-frequency point sources separated by 2.0 m are radiating in phase with  λ = 1.0m.
A detector move in a circular path of large radius around the two sources in a plane containing them.
The number of maximas detected by the detector is :-
6. A spring (spring constant k) having one end attached to rigid wall & other end attached to a block of
mass m kept on a smooth surface as shown in figure. Initially spring is in its natural length at x = 0,
now spring is compressed to x = –a and released. (Coefficient of restitution (e) =  1 ). 

2
−−−−

If velocity of block just after first collision is a√ nk . Find the value of n.


16m

7. A short-sighted person cannot see objects situated beyond 2m from him distinctly. If the power of lens
which he should use for seeing distant object clearly is P (in diopter) then the value of 10 |P | is :-
8. Find the distance (in cm) between two images of a point object formed by upper and lower part of the lens
when object is placed at 30 cm from given lens.

LTS-8/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
        Full Marks            :    +4    If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +3     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +2     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and

                                                   both of which are correct.

       Partial Marks         :    +1     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a

                                                   correct option.

       Zero Marks            :     0      If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

       Negative Marks     :    –2     In all other cases.


For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

1. Select the correct statement(s) - 


(A) Tyndall effect can be shown by suspensions
(B) Using dialysis sol may be coagulated     
(C) Extent of adsorption depends on concentration of solute in solution
(D) Powdered substances are more effective adsorbents than their crystalline forms
2. Which of the following order of C–C (underlined) bond length is CORRECT in given compounds.

(I) [PtCl3C2H4]–    (II) [PtCl3C2(CN)4]–    (III) C2H4


(A) III > I > II
(B) II > I > III
(C) I > II > III
(D) I < II > III 

0999OJA111522013 LTS-9/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
3. Reaction in which aldehyde is/are obtained as product :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
4. Correct option amongst the following is/are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5. Which of the following carbide(s) produce unsaturated hydrocarbon as a product on hydrolysis?


(A) BaC2 (B) Mg2C3
(C) Al4C3 (D) CaC2
6.  Which of the following statements are false about different forms of hydrogen :
(A) Ortho hydrogen has opposite spins of two nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise
(B) Para hydrogen has same spins of two nuclei
(C) At absolute zero, there is 100% para form and at high temperature there is 75% ortho form
(D) At absolute zero, there is 100% ortho form and at high temperature there is 75% para form

LTS-10/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
         Full Marks            :    +3   If ONLY the correct option is chosen.

        Zero Marks            :     0    If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

        Negative Marks     :    –1   In all other cases


7. List-I List-II
(P) 3 (1) When equal volumes of 0.2M NH4OH (Kb = 10–5)  & 0.2M HCl are mixed 
When equal volumes of 0.2M CH3COONa & 0.2M HCl are mixed

(Q) 5 (2) (K  = 10–5)


a CH COOH
(
3
)

(R) 8 (3) 0.1M Na2HPO4 (for H3PO4 ; Ka1 = 10–4  ;  Ka2 = 10–6 ; Ka3 = 10–10) 0.1M Na2HPO4
At 1st half equivalence point of H2CO3 when titrated against 0.1M NaOH ,  Ka1 = 10–5 ,
(S) 9 (4)
Ka2 = 10–9
    (5) Mg(OH)2 ; Ksp = 5 × 10–16
(A) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 5
(B) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 5
(C) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 5
(D) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3
8. List-I List-II
(P) CaSO4.2H2O (1) Soluble in water
(Q) Na2CO3.10H2O (2) Insoluble in water 
(R) NaCl (3) Used for preparing freezing mixture 
(S) CaSO4 (anhydride) (4) Dead burnt
    (5) Gypsum
(A) P → 2,5;Q → 4,5;R → 1,3;S → 2,4
(B) P → 2,5;Q → 1;R → 1;S → 2,4
(C) P → 1,2,3;Q → 3,4,5;R → 2,4,5;S → 1,2,3
(D) P → 2,3;Q → 1,4,5;R → 3,5;S → 1

0999OJA111522013 LTS-11/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
9. You are required to match all the metallurgical extractions given in list I with the processes given in list II.
List-I 
List-II 
   
(Metallurgical extraction) (Process involved in metallurgical extraction)
(P) Al 2 O 3 .2H 2 O → Al (1) Leaching
(Q) KCl. MgC l 2 .6H 2 O → Mg (2) Self reduction
(R) Ag2 S → Ag (3) Electrolytic reduction (molten state)
(S) P bS → P b (4) Roasting
    (5) Displacement method
(A) P → 2,3;Q → 2,4,5;R → 1,2,3;S → 1,4 (B) P → 2,3;Q → 1,3;R → 1,2;S → 3
(C) P → 1,3;Q → 3;R → 1,5;S → 2,4 (D) P → 5;Q → 1,2,3;R → 2;S → 2,3,4
10. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the list. 
  List-I   List-II 

Reaction involve Meisen Heimer Complex


(P) (1)
or anionic sigma complex

(Q) (2) Gives best rate of Ar SNAE amongst all

(R) (3) Benzyne intermediate is involved

(S) (4) Raschig’s Process

–F
instead of –Cl gives better rate of Ar
    (5)
SNAE
Correctly match among the following is :
(A) P → 4;Q → 2,5;R → 1,3,5;S → 1 (B) P → 3;Q → 1,5;R → 1,2,5;S → 3
(C) P → 1;Q → 1,4;R → 1,5;S → 4 (D) P → 2,3;Q → 1;R → 2,4,5;S → 1,3
LTS-12/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
         Full Marks      :     +3   If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

         Zero Marks    :      0     In all other cases.


1. The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of area 100 cm2 separated by
10 cm was found to be 0.0001 Ω–1. If volume enclosed between two electrode contain 0.5 mole of salt,
what is the molar conductivity(S cm2mol–1)  of salt at same conc. 
[Express your answer as molar conductivity in S cm2mol–1× 100]

2. Two 5 molal solutions are prepared by dissolving a non-electrolyte non-volatile solute separately in the solvents
3
X and Y. The molecular weights of the solvents are MX and MY, respectively where MX =   MY. The relative
4
lowering of vapour pressure of the solution in X is "m" times that of the solution in Y. Given that the number of
moles of solute is very small in comparison to that of solvent, the value of "m" is -
M A(g) M −8
3. Z → Z−4 B(g)  + (α. particles)
(α. particles are helium nuclei, so will form He gas by trapping electron). The radioactive disintergration
follows 1st order kinetics starting with  1 moles of A in a 16.4 litre closed flask at 127°C. Pressure (atm)
devoloped after two half life is (R = 0.082 litre atm/mol-K)
4. Find the number of complexes, which shows cis and trans isomerism as well as optical isomerism. 

[Pt(NH3)2Cl2], [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]Cl, [Co(NH3)3F3], [Ni(NH3)4Cl2], [Co(gly)3] [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl


5. Number of electrons present in 5f in Thorium(Th)

0999OJA111522013 LTS-13/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
6. How many of the following compounds will release CO2  gas on strong heating ?

    (i)        (ii)      (iii)      (iv) 

    (v) O2N–CH2–COOH    (vi)     (vii)   

     (viii) 
 

7. Identify total number of compounds which give both tollen's and fehling test ?

(i) HCHO    (ii) CH3–CHO    (iii)     (iv) CH3–C≡C–CH3

(v)     (vi)     (vii) HCOOH     (viii) 

(ix) CH3–COOH    (x) 

8. x is number of organic compounds soluble in aq. HCl

y is number of organic compounds which give foul smell with CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH.

z is number of organic compounds which reacts with NaNO2 + HCl (0 – 5ºC) followed by β-napthol

gives coloured dye.

Then value of (x + y – z) is :

(i)              (ii)           (iii) CH3–NH2      (iv)

(v)   (vi)    (vii) 

LTS-14/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
        Full Marks            :    +4    If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +3     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.

        Partial Marks        :    +2     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and

                                                   both of which are correct.

       Partial Marks         :    +1     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a

                                                   correct option.

       Zero Marks            :     0      If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

       Negative Marks     :    –2     In all other cases.


For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

1. Let a function y = 3ex – 2x + 5, then-


(A) ƒ(x) = 0 has no solution
(B) Range of ƒ(x) for x ∈ [0,3] is [8, 3e3 – 1]
(C) ƒ(–|x|) has two local extremum points
(D) Equation ƒ(|x|) = 100 has two solutions
t
2. Parametric equations of 2 curves are x = t2/3, y = –  and x = 8z
2, y = 16z, then angle of intersection can
√ 2
be -
π π
(A) 6
(B) 4
π π
(C) (D)
3 2

0999OJA111522013 LTS-15/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
3. If the first & the (2n + 1)th terms of an A.P., a G.P. & an H.P. of positive terms are same and their (n + 1)th
terms are a, b & c respectively, then:
(A) a = b = c 
(B) a⩾b⩾c

(C) a + c = 2b  
(D) ac = b2
4. Number of ways in which 4 apples, 3 bananas and 2 oranges can be distributed in 9 children if each child
gets only one fruit, is divisible by (Assume that fruits of the same species are not distinguishable)
(A) 7 (B) 12
(C) 18 (D) 53
5. If the third term of binomial expansion (x + x log10 x )5  is 106, then  x  is equal to :
−5
(A) 10 (B) 10
(
2
)

(C) 100 (D) 5


6. Which of the following expressions are meaningfull ?
(A) u ⃗ . (v.⃗  w⃗ ) (B) (u ⃗ . v)⃗  w⃗ 

(C) u ⃗ × (v.⃗  w⃗ ) (D) u ⃗ . (v ⃗ × w⃗ )

LTS-16/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
         Full Marks            :    +3   If ONLY the correct option is chosen.

        Zero Marks            :     0    If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)

        Negative Marks     :    –1   In all other cases


7. If z1, z2, z3, z4 are the roots of the equation z4 + z3 + z2 + z + 1 = 0 then match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
∣ 4 ∣
(P) ∣

∑ zi 4 ∣∣ is equal to   (1) 0
∣i = 1 ∣

4
(Q) ∑ zi 5  is equal to   (2) 4
i = 1

4
(R) ∏ ( zi + 2)  is equal to   (3) 1
i = 1

least value of [|z1 + z2|] 

(S) (4) 11
(Where [.] represents greatest integer function)
    (5) None of these
(A) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 1
(B) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2
(C) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3
(D) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 4

0999OJA111522013 LTS-17/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
  List-I   List-II
1
e x2 − 1
(I) lim (P) 8 
x→∞ π  − 2tan 1

( x 2)

maximum value of the 

(II) 64sin 3 x cos x (Q) 2


ƒ(x) =  ,x ∈ R
1 + tan 2 x
2

∫ x − 1) 2 tan(x − 1) − x 3 + 3x 2 − 3x + 2]dx

[( 1
(III) (R)
0 2
is equal to
The radius of director circle of curve

(IV) (S) 1
x2 – 2y2 = 2x + 1 is
    (T) 7
(A) I → P;II → R;III → S;IV → Q (B) I → R;II → Q;III → S;IV → T
(C) I → R;II → P;III → Q;IV → S (D) I → P;II → T;III → S;IV → R
x f (x)
9. Let 'ƒ' be a differentiable function satisfying the condition f ( ) =  (where x,y ∈ R and y ≠ 0, ƒ(y) ≠ 0)
y f (y)
and ƒ'(1) = 2, then-
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
1 sin 3f (x))
sin −
(
(P) lim  is equal to (1) 1
x→0 tan 2 x

−− −− 1
∞ ℓn (√f (x) + )

(Q) √ ( )f x π (2) 2
∫ dx = ℓnC , then 'C' is equal to
1 + f (x) 2
0

If area bounded by the curve ƒ(x) + ƒ(y) = ƒ'(2) (for x > 0, y > 0) and co-ordinate
(R) (3) 3
axes is 'kπ' then k =
If the length of subnormal at any point of the curve g(x) = 2a(ƒ(x))b is constant
(S) (4) 4
where a – 4b = 0, then '2a' is equal to
    (5) None of these
(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 4 (B) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3
(C) P → 3;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 2 (D) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3

LTS-18/20 0999OJA111522013
ALLEN Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/08-01-2023/Paper-1
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
2 1
√ +

x4 + x2 + 2
The value of the definite integral  ∫ dx
(P) x 2 + 1) 2
( (1) 0
2 1
√ −

 equals
1
(Q) If  f (x) = x ℓn x , then f ' (1) is  (2) 1

The cosine of the angle of intersection of curves f (x) = 2x


(R) (3) 2
lnx and  g (x) = x2x – 1, is

If H is the number of horizontal tangents and V is  the


(S) number of vertical tangents to the curve y3 – 3xy + 2 = 0, (4) 3
then the value of (H + V) equals
    (5)  e

(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 2


(B) P → 2;Q → 2;R → 2;S → 2
(C) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 2;S → 2
(D) P → 1;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 2

0999OJA111522013 LTS-19/20
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/08-01-2023/Paper-1
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
         Full Marks      :     +3   If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.

         Zero Marks    :      0     In all other cases.


x+1 y+3 z+5
1. If the lines = =  and r ⃗ = (2^i + 4^j + 5k^) + λ(^i + a^j + ak^)  are coplanar, then value
3 5 7
of 'a' is (where λ is real parameter)
2. Let the line y = 2x – c intersect parabola y2 = 8x at A & B. If the circle described on the line AB as
100
diameter, passes through origin, then value of   is equal to
c
x2 y2 1
3. If the eccentricity of the ellipse  2
+
2
= 1 (a > b > 0, a, b ≠ 1) is  – and 'e' be the
( log a) (log b) √ 2
x2
eccentricity of the hyperbola 2
− y2 = 1 , then e2 is (where logx = ℓnx)-
( logb a)
4. A point P moves such that sum of the slopes of the normals drawn from it to the hyperbola xy = 16 is
k
equal to the sum of ordinates of feet of normals. The locus of point P is x2 = ky. Then  is :
4
5. A class has 3 teachers and 6 students, they are seated in a line of 9 chairs if the probability that there are
exactly two students between any two adjacent teachers is P, then 14P is equal to 
6. Let R be a relation from A = {2,3,4,5} to B = {3,6,7,10} defined by R = {(a,b) | a divides b, a ∈ A, b ∈ B},
then number of elements in R–1 will be-
dy π π
7. Let y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation = ( tan x − y) sec2 x, x ∈ (− , ) , such that
dx 2 2
y (− π4 )
y(0) = 0, then  is
2 (e − 2)
8. If z1 satisfies the equation |z – 3| = 4 and z2 satisfies the equation |z – 1| + |z + 1| = 3. If m = |z1 – z2|min
and M = |z1 – z2|max, then (m + 2M) is equal to

LTS-20/20 0999OJA111522013

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