Test Pattern

English (1103CMD303001230004)
1103CMD303001230004
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR TEST - 5
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023) 04-12-2022
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - 1 & 2)
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :

1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. In this Test, each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology) will consist of two
sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section
B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Mumbai City Office : KK Solitaire, Plot No. 278, Opp. Vanita Vikas School, Near Railway Station, Ghatkopar
East Mumbai : 400077 | +022-62423699 mumbai@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2023

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. For the system shown in figure both the block
Attempt All 35 questions A and B are moving together. If coefficient of
friction between both the blocks is μ, the work
1. A body of mass m is displaced from point A
done by friction on block B is :-
(3,1,3) to point B(1,2,1) under the effect of a

force F ⃗ (5^i + 2^i − 4k^) N , calculate work

done by the force.

(1) Zero
(1) 57 J
(2) Negative
(2) 11 J (3) Positive
(4) None of these
(3) 0
4. The whole wedge and block system is moving
(4) 22 J as shown in the figure. Block of mass m is not
slipping on the wedge. Then which of the
2. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length ℓ following statement is correct (surface between
M and m is rough) :-
at one end and by holding second end it is
whirled into a horizontal circle, then work done
by the string on the stone will be :-

(1) 0
(1) Work done by normal force on block is
mv2 zero
(2) ( ) 2πℓ
ℓ (2) Work done by friction force on block is
zero
(3) ( mg) ⋅ 2πℓ
(3) Work done by normal force on block is not
mv2 zero
(4) ( ) ℓ
ℓ (4) None of these
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5. Calculate the work done for following F-d 7. A constant force F is applied to a body of mass
curves m moving with initial velocity u. If after the
body undergoes a displacement S, it velocity
becomes v, then the total work done is :-
m 2
(1) m [v2 + u 2] (2) 2
[u + v ]
2
m 2
(3) [v − u 2] (4) m [v2 − u 2]
2
8. Three particles A, B and C are projected from
the top of a tower with the same speed. A is
thrown straight upwards, B straight down and
C horizontally. The hit the ground with speeds
VA, VB and VC then :
(1) VA = VB > VC (2) VA = VB = VC

(3) VA > VB = VC (4) VB > VC > VA

9. A 10 kg satellite completes one revolution

around the earth at a height of 100 km in 108
minutes. The work done by the gravitational
force of earth will be -
(1) 108 × 100 × 10 J
(1) (A-R); (B-Q); (C-P); (D-R) 108 × 10
(2) J
(2) (A-R); (B-P); (C-R); (D-Q) 100
(3) 0 J
(3) (A-R); (B-P); (C-Q); (D-R)
100 × 10
(4) (A-P); (B-Q); (C-R); (D-P) (4) J
108
6. 2 particles of mass 3 kg and 5 kg have same 10. The mass of a bucket full of water is 13 kg. It is
momentum, calculate ratio of their K.E. being pulled up from a 10 m deep well. Due to
a hole in the bucket 4 kg water flows out of the
(1) 5 : 3 bucket. The work done in drawing the bucket
(2) 3 : 5 out of the well will be (g = 10m/s2 )–
(3) 25 : 9 (1) 900 J (2) 1300 J
(4) 9 : 25 (3) 1100 J (4) 1700 J
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11. 5 J of work is required to stretch a spring 15. Two men with weights in the ratio 2 : 3 run up
through 5 cm beyond it unstretched length. The a staircase in times in the ratio 5 : 9. The ratio
extra work required to stretch it through of power of first to that of second is -
additional 5 cm shall be
6 5
(1) (2)
(1) 10 J (2) 10 J 5 6
(3) 15 J (4) 25 J 10 18
(3) (4)
27 15
12. Track OABCD (as shown is figure) is smooth 16. Water is falling on the blades of a turbine at a
and fixed in vertical plane. What minimum
rate of 50 kg/s from a certain spring. If the
speed has to be given to a particle lying at point
height of the spring be 50 metres, the power
A, so that it can reach point C ?
transferred to the turbine will be :-
(1) 100 KW
(2) 25 KW
(3) 5 KW
(4) 250 KW
17. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies
3t 2
with time as P = watt. Here t is in second.
2
(1) 60 m/s (2) 100 m/s If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the
velocity of particle at time t = 2 s will be :-
(3) 70 m/s (4) 80 m/s
(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
13. A particle moves in a potential region given by
U 2x 2 2x 100 J . Its state of equilibrium
= − + (3) 2 m/s (4) 2√–2 m/s
will be - 18. An engine pumps water continuously through a
(1) x = 25 m (2) x = 0·25 m hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v
(3) x = 0·05 m (4) x = 0·5 m and m is the mass per unit length of the water
jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is
14. An electric motor produces a tension of 5000 N
imparted to water :-
in a load lifting cable and rolls it at the rate of 2
m/s. The power of the motor is - 1 2 2 1 3
(1) m v (2) mv
2 2
(1) 10 kW (2) 15 kW 1 2
(3) mv3 (4) mv
(3) 25 kW (4) 9 × 103 hp 2

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19. The potential energy of a system increases if 22. An object of mass 500g, initially at rest is acted
work is done :- upon by a variable force, whose X component
varies with x in the manner shown. The
(1) Upon the system by a nonconservative velocities of the object at point X = 8 m and X =
force 12 m, would be the respective values of (nearly)
(2) By the system against a conservative force
(3) By the system against a nonconservative
force
(4) Upon the system by a conservative force
20. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so
that the instantaneous power delivered to the car (1) 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s

has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous (2) 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s

velocity of this car is proportional to :- (3) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s

(4) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s
1/2
(1) t −

23. A particle of mass 'm' describes a circle of radius

(2) t/√−
m
− r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is
2
. The momentum of the particle is :-
(3) t2 P 0 r3
– 2m
(1) √ 2m (2)
1/2
(4) t r √r

21. A particle moves from a point ( 2^i + 5^j ) to 4m 4m

−
(3) (4)
r √r

4j
( ^ + 3k^) when a force of 4i
( ^ + 3^j ) N is
24. A particle of mass m revolving in horizontal
applied. circle of radius R with uniform speed v. When
How much work has been done by the force ? particle goes from one end to other end of
diameter, then :-
(1) 5 J
1 2
(1) K.E. changes by mv
(2) 2 J 2
(2) K.E. change by mv2
(3) 8 J
(3) no change in momentum
(4) 11 J (4) change in momentum is 2 mv
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25. A point on the periphery of rotating disc has its 29. A pendulum has a length l. Its bob is pulled
acceleration vector at an angle 30° with velocity aside from its equilibrium position through an
vector, then the ratio of magnitude of centripetal angle α and then released. The speed of the bob
acceleration to tangential acceleration is - when it passes through the equilibrium position
(1) sin 30° is given by
−−
−
(2) cos 30° (1) √2gl

(3) tan 30° (2) √

−−−−−−−
2gl cos α
(4) None of these (3) √
−−−−−−−−−−−
2gl (1 − cos α)
26. A particle is moving along a circular path with −−−−−−−−−−−

uniform speed. What is the angle between (4) √ 2gl (1 − sin α)

instantaneous velocity and acceleration. 30. A small ball is pushed from a height h along a
(1) 0° (2) 45° smooth hemispherical bowl. With what speed
(3) 90° (4) 180° should the ball be pushed so that it just reaches
the top of the opposite end of the bowl ? The
27. A particle is moving in a circular path . The
height of the top of the bowl is R.
acceleration and momentum of the particle at a
−−− −−−−
certain moment are a (4 i 3 j ) m s 2 and
⃗ = ^
+
^
/
(1) √2gh (2) √ 2gR
−−−−−−−− −−−−−−−−
p ⃗ = (8^i − 6^j ) kg − m/s . The motion of the (3) √2g (R + h) (4) √ 2g (R − h)
particle is 31. Two particles of masses m and 4m have kinetic
(1) Uniform circular motion energies in the ratio of 2 : 1. What is the ratio
of their linear momenta ?
(2) accelerated circular motion
1 1 1 1
(3) decelerated circular motion (1) – (2) (3) (4)
√ 2 4 2 16
(4) We cannot say anything with a ⃗ and p ⃗ only 32. A bullet is fired from a rifle which recoils after
28. The force required to keep a body in uniform firing. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the
circular motion is :- rifle to that of the bullet is
(1) Centripetal force (1) zero
(2) Centrifugal force (2) one
(3) Resistance (3) less than one
(4) None of the above (4) more than one
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33. Two identical cylindrical vessels, with their 35. The bob A of a pendulum released from a
bases at the same level, each contains a liquid
height h hits head – on another bob B of the
of density ρ. The height of the liquid in one
vessel is h1 and that in the other is h2. The area same mass of an identical pendulum initially at
of either base is A. What is the work done by rest. What is the result of this collision ?
gravity in equalizing the levels when the
Assume the collision to be elastic (see) .
vessels are interconnected ?
(1) Aρ g (h 1 − h 2 ) 2

(2) Aρ g (h 1 + h 2 ) 2
2
h1 − h2
(3) Aρ g ( )
2
2
h1 + h2
(4) Aρ g ( )
2
34. The bob of a pendulum is released from a
horizontal position A as shown in Figure. The
length of the pendulum is 2 m. If 10% of the
initial energy of the bob is dissipated as heat
due to the friction of air, what would be the
speed of the bob when it reaches the lowermost
point B ? Take g = 10 ms–2. (1) Bob A comes to rest at B and bob B moves
to the left attaining a maximum height h.

(2) Bobs A and B both move to the left, each

h
attaining a maximum height .
2

(3) Bob B moves to the left and bob A moves

to the right, each attaining a maximum
h
height .
2
(1) 3 ms–1 (2) 4 ms–1
(4) Both bobs come to rest.
(3) 5 ms–1 (4) 6 ms–1
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SECTION-B 39. A box is moved along a straight line by a
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate machine delivering constant power. The
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of distance moved by the body in time t is
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts proportional to
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (1) t1/2
questions will be considered for marking.
(2) t3/4
36. A car moving with speed 20 m/s on a circular
(3) t3/2
path of radius 400 m. Its speed is increasing at
the rate of 2 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is :- (4) t2
(1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) 1.8 m/s2 40. A body of mass m = 1 kg is dropped from a
height h = 40 cm on a horizontal platform fixed
(3) 1.2 m/s2 (4) 2.2 m/s2
to one end of an elastic spring, the other being
37. A body of mass m is thrown vertically upwards fixed to a base, as shown in Figure. As a result
with a velocity υ. The height h at which the the spring is compressed by an amount x = 10
kinetic energy of the body is half its initial cm. What is the force constant of the spring.
value is given by Take g = 10 ms–2.
υ2
(1) h=
g
υ2
(2) h=
2g
υ2
(3) h=
3g
υ2
(4) h=
4g
38. A string of length 0.2 m cannot bear a tension
more than 360N. It is tied to a body of mass 5g
and rotated in a horizontal circle. The
maximum angular velocity can be -
(1) 600 rad/s (1) 600 Nm–1
(2) 6000 rad/s (2) 800 Nm–1
(3) 60000 rad/s (3) 1000 Nm–1
(4) 0.6 rad/s (4) 1200 Nm–1
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41. Two masses M and m (with M > m) are connected 43. A uniform rope of length L is lying in a lump on a
by means of a pulley as shown in Figure. The system frictionless table. A small part of the rope is held
hanging through a hole in the table just below the
is released. At the instant when mass M has fallen
lump. The system is then released. The speed of
through a distance h, the velocity of mass m will be the end of the rope as it leaves the hole is
−−−
−−− gL
(1) √2gL (2) 2√
3
−−−−
2 gL
(3) √ (4) zero
3
44. A particle, which is constrained to move along
the x-axis, is subjected to a force in the same
direction which varies with the distance x of the
particle from the origin as F x ( kx ax 3 .
) = − +

Here k and a are positive constants. For x 0, ⩾

the functional form of the potential energy U(x)

−−−
−−−−−−
2gh M of the particle is (see Fig.)
(1) √ 2gh (2) √
m
−−−−−−−−−−− −−−−−−−−−−−
2gh M m
( − ) 2gh M m
( + )
(3) √ (4) √ (1)
( M + m) ( M − m)

42. A mass m, lying on a horizontal frictionless surface

is connected to mass M as shown in Figure. The
system is now released. The velocity of mass m
when mass M as descended a distance h is (2)

(3)

−−−−−− −−−−−
2Mgh 2mgh
(1) √ (2) √
m M
−−−−−−−
2 Mgh
−
−−−
(4)
(3) √ (4) √ 2gh
( M + m)

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45. A body is moving up an inclined plane of 48. A pump of power P is used to pump water in a
angle θ with an initial kinetic energy E. The certain pipe at a certain rate. To pump twice as
coefficient of friction between the plane and much water through the same pipe in the same
the body is μ . The work done against friction time, the power of the pump must be increased to
before the body comes to rest is : (1) 2 P
μ cos θ (2) 4 P
(1) (2) μE cos θ
E cos θ + sin θ (3) 8 P
μE cos θ μE cos θ
(3) (4) (4) 16 P
μ cos θ − sin θ μ cos θ + sin θ
46. A force F = (3x + 4) newton displaces an object 49. When a force acts on a body of mass m, its
of mass 10 kg from x = 0 to x = 4m. If the position x varies with time t as
x = at4 + bt + c
speed of the object at x = 0 is 2ms–1, its speed
where a, b, and c are constants. The work done
at x = 4m will be
by the force during the first second of the
–
(1) 3ms–1 (2) √ 3 ms − 1
motion is
(3) 2√–3 ms − 1 (4) 4 ms − 1 (1) ma (2a + c)
47. The potential energy U of a particle of mass m (2) 2ma (a + 2b)
= 3kg moving in the x-direction is given by (3) 3ma (2a + 3b)
3
U = 3 (x − 1) − (x − 3) (4) 4ma (2a + b)
when U is in joule and x is in metre. Which of 50. A block begins to move on a rough horizontal
the graphs shown in figure best represents the 1
surface with an initial velocity u. If it loses of
variation of the acceleration A of the plarticle 4
with position x ? its initial kinetic energy in time t, the coefficient
of kinetic friction between the block and the
surface is
(1) (2) u
(1) gt
–
√3u
(2)
2gt
u − −−−
(3) (√ 3 − 1)
(3) (4) 2gt
u –
(4) (2 − √ 3)
2gt
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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Calculate work done during isothermal reversible
Attempt All 35 questions process when 5 mol ideal gas is expanded so that
its volume becomes four times at 400 K
51. For A → B, ΔH = 4 kcal/mol,
–1 –1 (1) –23 kJ (2) –11.5 kJ
ΔS = 10 cal mol K , Reaction is spontaneous
when temperature can be :- (3) +23 kJ (4) zero
(1) 400 K (2) 300 K 57. ΔH and ΔE for the reaction :
(3) 500 K (4) None
52. The unit of entropy is :
(1) ΔH = ΔE – 0.5RT
(1) JK–1 mol–1 (2) kJ–1 mol–1
(2) ΔH = ΔE – 1.5RT
(3) kJ mol–1 (4) J–1 K–1 mol–1
(3) ΔH = ΔE + RT
53. When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically
and reversibly, the final temperature is :- (4) ΔH = ΔE + 1.5RT

(1) higher than the initial temperature 58. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
when -
(2) lower than the initial temperature
(1) surroundings and system change into each
(3) the same as initial temperature
other
(4) dependent upon the rate of compression
(2) there is no boundary between system and
54. Which of the following is an extensive property :- surroundings
(1) Gibbs energy (G) (3) the surroundings are always in equilibrium
(2) Number of moles (n) with the system
(3) Entropy (4) the system changes into the surroundings
spontaneously
(4) All of these
59. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is
55. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some changed isochorically from Pi to Pf the
ice cubes. This in an example of a :- entrophy change is given by :
(1) closed system T2 V2
(1) ΔS = nC v ln (2) ΔS = nC v ln
(2) open system T1 V1
T2
(3) isolated system (3) ΔS = nR ln (4) None of these
T1
(4) non-thermodynamic system
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60. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under 63. When the egg is hard boiled, there is-
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as (1) Increase in disorder
shown in the figure.
(2) Decrease in disorder
(3) No change in disorder
(4) DG is negative
64. When 1 mole gas is heated at constant volume,
temp. is raised from 400 K to 410 K. Heat
supplied to the gas is 900 J. Then which
AB → Isothermal expansion
AC → Adiabatic expansion statements is correct :-
Which of the following options is not correct ? (1) q = w = 900 J, ΔU = 0
(1) ΔSisothermal > ΔSadiabatic (2) q = ΔU = 900 J, w = 0
(2) TA = TB (3) q = w = 900 J, ΔU = 0
(3) Wisothermal > Wadiabatic (4) ΔU = 0, q = w = – 900 J

(4) Tc > TA 65. The equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction may

61. Which of the following provide exceptions to be written as :-
third law of thermodynamics
(1) K = e–ΔG/RT
(1) CO
(2) K = e–ΔG°/RT
(2) ice
(3) K = e–ΔH/RT
(3) CO2
(4) K = e–ΔH°/RT
(4) All the above
66. Change in entropy is negative for :-
62. 5 mol of ideal gas is allowed to expand
isothermally into vacuum. Then which is (1) 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) +
correct ? H2O(l)
(1) q = 0, w = 0, ΔE ≠ 0 (2) CH4(g) + 3 O2(g) → CO(g) + 2H2O(g)
2
(2) q = 0, w = 0, ΔE = 0 (3) F e( s ) → F e( s )
300 K 250 K
(3) q ≠ 0, w = 0, ΔE ≠ 0
(4) q ≠ 0, w ≠ 0, ΔE ≠ 0 (4) H2O(g) → H2(g) + 1 O2(g)
2
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67. Molar heat capacity of ethanol (C2H5OH) is 72. If value of ΔG° = 0, then :
110.4 JK–1. Its specific heat capacity in JK–1g–1 (1) Kp > 1 (2) Kp < 1
is :
(3) Kp= 1 (4) All
(1) 2.4 (2) 55.2
73. If ΔH is the change in enthalpy and ΔU the
(3) 5.078 (4) 110.4
change in internal energy accompanying a
68. Which one of the following is true for isochoric gaseous reaction:
process?
(1) ΔH is always greater than ΔU
(1) T remains constant
(2) ΔH < ΔU only if the number of moles of
(2) Volume is zero
the products is greater than the number of
(3) Work done is zero the reactants
(4) ΔE is zero (3) ΔH is always less than ΔU
69. Which one of the following reaction has (4) ΔH < ΔU only if the number of moles of
positive entropy change ?
the products is less than the number of
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) —→ 2NH3(g) moles of the reactants
(2) 2H2(g) + O2(g) —→ 2H2O(g) 74. Out of the following which is not zero for
(3) PCl5(g) —→ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) cyclic process ?
(4) None of these (1) ΔE (2) ΔH

70. In a chemical reaction ΔH = 150 kJ and (3) Δω (4) None of these

ΔS=100JK–1 at 300 K. The ΔG for the reaction 75. A gas occupies 2L at STP. It is provided 300J
is : heat so that its volume becomes 2.5L at 1 atm.
(1) zero Calculate change in its internal energy.
(2) 300 kJ (1) 285.35 J (2) 249.35 J
(3) 330 kJ (3) 349.35 J (4) 239.35 J
(4) 120 kJ 76. One mole of a perfect gas at 300 K expand
71. 2 moles of ideal gas is expanded isothermally reversibly isothermally to ten time of its
& reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre. Find the original volume. The work done is :
enthalpy change in kJ mol–1. (1) 0.1 × 300 R (2) 10 × 300 R
(1) 0 (2) 11.7 (3) -11.7 (4) 25 (3) 2 × 300 R (4) 2.303 × 300 R
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77. The total entropy change (ΔStotal) for the 81. At equilibrium which is correct?
system and surrounding of a spontaneous (1) ΔG = 0 (2) ΔS = 0
process is given by
(3) ΔH = 0 (4) ΔG° = 0
(1) ΔStotal = ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr > 0
82. A system is provided 50 J of heat and work
(2) ΔStotal = ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr < 0
done on the system is 10 J. The change in
(3) ΔSsystem = ΔStotal + ΔSsurr > 0 internal energy during the process is :-
(4) ΔSsurr = ΔStotal + ΔSsystem < 0 (1) 40 J (2) 60 J
78. In which reaction ΔS is negative :- (3) 80 J (4) 50 J
(1) H2O(ℓ) → H2O(g) 83. The pair of isochoric among the transformation
(2) H2O(s) → H2O(ℓ) of state is :

(3) H2O(g) → H2O(s)

(4) H2O(s) → H2O(g)
79. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA is
shown in P-V diagram. The net work done
during the cycle is equal to :- (1) K to L and L to M
(2) L to M and N to K
(3) L to M and M to N
(4) M to N and N to K
84. ΔS will be highest for the reaction

(1) pP1V1 (2) 6P1V1 (1) Ca(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CaO(s)

(3) 5P1V1 (4) P1V1 (2) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s)+CO2(g)
80. A system has internal energy equal to E1, 450 J of (3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
heat is taken out of it and 600 J of work is done
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
on it. The final energy of the system will be -
85. If the internal energy of an ideal gas decreases
(1) (E1 + 150) by the same amount as the work done by the
(2) (E1 + 1050) system, the process is :-
(3) (E1 – 150) (1) cyclic (2) isothermal
(4) None of these (3) adiabatic (4) Both (1) & (2)
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SECTION-B 89. Statement-1 : There is no change in internal
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate energy for an ideal gas at constant temperature.
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of Statement-2 : Internal energy of an ideal gas is
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
a function of temperature only.
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (1) If both statements are correct and
statement-2 is correct explanation of
86. For the reaction :-
statement-1
A(g) + 2B(g) —→ 2C(g) + 3D(g)
The value of ΔH at 27°C is 19 kcal. The value (2) If both statements are correct
of ΔE for the reaction would be :- but statement-2 is not correct explanation
of statement-1
(1) 20.8 kcal (2) 19.8 kcal
(3) If statement -1 is correct but statement -2
(3) 18.8 kcal (4) 17.8 kcal
is wrong
87. Which of the following expressions is true for
(4) If statement-1 is wrong but statement -2 is
an ideal gas?
correct.
∂V ∂P
(1) ( ) = 0 (2) ( ) = 0 90. Which law of thermodynamics introduces the
∂T P ∂T V
concept of entropy ?
∂U ∂U
(3) ( ) = 0 (4) ( ) = 0 (1) First law (2) Zeroth law
∂V T ∂T V

88. Statement -1 : heat and work are state functions. (3) Third law (4) Second law
Statement- 2: Heat and work are not properties 91. The work done by a system is 8 J, when 40 J
of a system their values depend on the path of heat is supplied to it. The change in internal
the porcess and vary according. energy of the system in the process is :-
(1) If both statements are correct and (1) 32 J (2) 40 J
statement-2 is correct explanation of
statement-1 (3) 36 J (4) 44 J
(2) If both statements are correct 92. The entropy change when two moles of ideal
but statement-2 is not correct explanation monoatomic gas is heated from 200ºC to 300
of statement-1 ºC reversibly and isochorically ?
(3) If statement -1 is correct but statement -2 3 300 5 573
(1) R ln ( ) (2) R ln ( )
2 200 2 273
is wrong.
573 3 573
(4) If statement-1 is wrong but statement -2 is (3) 3R ln ( ) (4) R ln ( )
473 2 473
correct.
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93. An ideal gas is expanded against 42 Pascal 97. The internal energy change when a system goes
external pressure by 10 m3. If 350 J heat is from state A to B is 40 kJ/mol. If the system
given to the system then ΔE of system (in J) goes from A to B by a reversible path and
will be :- returns to state A by an irreversible path what
(1) –50 J (2) –70 J would be the net change in internal energy?

(3) +50 J (4) +70 J (1) 40 kJ (2) > 0 kJ

94. An isolated system is that system in which (3) < 40 kJ (4) Zero

(1) there is no exchange of energy with the 98. Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases A and
surroundings B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed.
The ratio of specific heats (C p C v ) of the
/
(2) there is exchange of mass and energy with
mixture will be :
the surrounding
(1) 0.83 (2) 1.50
(3) There is no exchange of mass and energy
with the surrounding (3) 3.3 (4) 1.67
(4) There is exchange of mass with 99. If entropies of H2(g), O2(g) and H2O(l) are 126.6,
surroundings 201.20 and 68.0 JK–1 mol–1 respectively at 300
K. The entropy change for this reaction
95. An ideal gas expands from 2 L to 10 L
is 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) :
adiabatically against a constant external
pressure of 10 atm. Then find the change in (1) 22.4
internal energy. (2) –22.4
(1) –80 L-atm (3) –318.4
(2) Zero (4) 318.4
(3) 80 L-atm 100. Calculate ΔS for following process:
(4) 40 L-atm X(s, 1 atm, 100 K) → X(ℓ, 1 atm, 100 K)
96. The work done by 100 Cal of heat in isothermal Given : Melting point of X(s) = 100 K ;
expansion of ideal gas is :- ΔHFusion = 20 kJ/mol :-

(1) 418.4 J (1) 26.93 J/K

(2) 4.184 J (2) 200 J/K
(3) 41.84 J (3) 203 J/K
(4) None (4) 206.93 kJ/K
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SUBJECT : BOTANY

SECTION-A 106. Branch is modified into cladode in :

Attempt All 35 questions (1) Radish (2) Australian acacia
101. If primary root continues to grow , the type of (3) Asparagus (4) Opuntia
root system will be known as :
107. In Opuntia function of photosynthesis is carried
(1) Secondary Root out by :
(2) Fibrous Root (1) Cladode (2) Phylloclade
(3) Tap Root (3) Phyllode (4) Bulb
(4) Stilt Root 108. Stem tendril occurs in :
102. Napiform roots are recorded from (1) Smilax (2) Gloriosa
(1) Radish (2) Carrot (3) Vitis (4) Lthyrus
(3) Beet (4) Sweet potato 109. Corm is
103. Fusiform roots are found in : (1) Underground shoot
(1) Solanum tubersum (2) Underground root
(2) Colocasia (3) Horizontal stem
(3) Daucus carota (4) Underground vertical stem
(4) Raphanus sativus 110. Ginger plant has an underground stem which is :
104. Stilt roots are reported from : (1) Rhizome (2) Bulb
(1) Radish (3) Tuber (4) Corm
(2) Carrot 111. In sweet pea, tendrils are modified :
(3) Sugarcane (1) Stem branches (2) Leaflets
(4) Sweet potato (3) Leaves (4) Stipules
105. Prop root of Banyan tree are meant of : 112. Phyllotaxis is :
(1) Respiration (1) Mode of leaf arrangement on stem
(2) Retention of water in soil (2) Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower
(3) Absorption of water from soil (3) Types of roots
(4) Providing support to big tree (4) Types of ovary
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113. Onion stored food in 119. Sometimes sepals are modified into hairy
(1) Fleshy scale leaves structure which are useful in dispersal of seeds.
These are called :
(2) Underground stem
(1) Tepal (2) Thorn
(3) Root
(3) Pappus (4) Trichome
(4) Shoot
120. Part of pistil which receives pollen is
114. Potato stored food in
(1) Stigma (2) Style
(1) Fleshy scale leaves
(3) Carpel (4) Ovule
(2) Underground stem
121. Gamopetalous plant shows aestivation
(3) Root
(1) Valvate (2) Contorted
(4) Shoot
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
115. In pea flower, the largest petal is
122. Pappus is modification of :
(1) Standard (2) wings
(1) Stamen (2) Sepals
(3) Keel (4) bract
(3) Petals (4) Carpels
116. Leaves are change in spine in xerophytic
123. Which of these insertions of floral leaves
structure called :
shows Inferior ovary ?
(1) Phyllode (2) Phylloclade
(1) Epigyny (2) Perigyny
(3) Thorn (4) Stolon
(3) Hypogyny (4) Mesogyny
117. The flower in the raceme/racemose are 124. One petal having two overlapping margin is
arranged in : found in ___ aestivation.
(1) Acropetally (1) Imbricate (2) Vexillary
(2) Basipetally (3) Controted (4) Both 1 & 2
(3) Phyllotaxy 125. Which of these plants has roots modified for
(4) Monochasial storage of food ?
(1) Asparagus
118. In calotrips the phyllotaxy is :
(2) Rhizophora
(1) Alternate (2) Verticillate
(3) Tinospora
(3) Oposite (4) Whorled
(4) Orchid
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126. Root shows negative geotropism in : 132. Match the following with respect to aestivation
(1) Pothos (2) Ficus in petals and select correct option :-
(a) Valvate (i) Chinarose
(3) Corrot (4) Beetroot
(b) Twisted (ii) Calotropis
127. Pulvinous is found in the leguminous
(c) Imbricate (iii) Pea
(1) Endopodium
(d) Vexillary (iv) Cassia
(2) Hypopodium
(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(3) Mesopodium
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(4) Epipodium
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
128. Runners of aquatic plants are called as : (4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(1) Tuber (2) Offset 133. Stamens attached to petals are :
(3) Sucker (4) Stolon (1) Epipetalous
129. Out of the following which is a total parasite ? (2) Epiphyllous
(1) Coscuta (2) Loranthus (3) Episepalous
(3) Orchid (4) Passiflora (4) All
130. Diadelphous stamens are found in : 134. A typical flower with superior ovary and other
(1) China rose floral parts inferior is called :
(2) Citrus (1) Polygamous
(3) Pea (2) Hypogynous
(4) Both 1 & 2 (3) Perigynous
131. Calyx is the outermost accessory whorl of (4) Epigynous
flower. What is the function of calyx ? 135. If the leaf lets are attached at the tip of petiole,
(1) Help in pollination leaf is called :
(2) Help in protection of flower during bud (1) Pinnate compound leaf
condition (2) Palmate compound leaf
(3) Help in fertilization (3) Simple leaf
(4) Help in seed germination (4) Unipinnate leaf
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SECTION-B 139. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of :
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) Peach (2) Cucumber
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (3) Cotton (4) Guava
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted 140. Pulses yielding main family of plants is :
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Poaceae (Graminae)
136. Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is (2) Cucurbitaceae
termed as inflorescence. Regarding to
(3) Liliaceae
inflorescence which of the following statement
is not correct. (4) Papilionaceae (Fabaceae)
(1) In racemose – main axis is continues to 141. Nodulated roots occurs in
grow
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
(2) In cymose – main axis terminates into
(3) Malvaceae (4) Fabaceae
flower
(3) In racemose – flowers are in basipetal 142. In turmeric, stem is a :
succession (1) Tuber (2) Bulb
(4) In cymose – growth of main axis is limited (3) Rhizome (4) Corm
137. A biparous cyme ending in uniparous cyme 143. The first whorl of flower is of
constitutes : (1) Petals (2) Stamens
(1) Verticillaster (3) Carpels (4) Sepals
(2) Panicle 144. If the filaments are fused in a single group the
(3) Hypanthodium condition is
(4) Cyathium (1) Monoadelphous (2) Polyadelphous
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Diadelphous
138. Which of the following is not a stem
modification ? 145. Adhesion in a flower is :
(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes (1) Union of dissimilar parts
(2) Thorns of citrus (2) Union of similar parts
(3) Tendrils of cucumber (3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Flattened structures of Opuntia (4) Fusion of carpels
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146. Thorns and spines are :
(1) Defensive organs
(2) Respiratory organs
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Storage organs
147. Verticillaster inflorescence occurs in :
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Cruciferae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Labiatae

148. The most advanced type of Inflorescence is :

(1) Corymb
(2) Capitulum
(3) Spadix
(4) Catkin

149. In cymose, flowers are arranged in:

(1) Acropetal order
(2) Basipetal order
(3) Both 1&2
(4) non of the above

150. Didynamous condition is related to :

(1) Androecium
(2) Inflorescence
(3) Gynoecium
(4) All
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SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Read the following symptoms of a respiratory
Attempt All 35 questions disorder :-
151. (i) It is chronic disorder.
(ii) Smoking is a major cause of it.
(iii) Damage of alveolar membrane.
iv) Inflammation in bronchi.
(v) Fibrosis occurs in alveoli.
(vi) respiratory surface area decreases.
(vii) Mostly stone mines workers are suffered
by it.
How many symptoms are correct for
emphysema?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Five (4) Six
Study the above diagram and select the correct
153. Mountain sickness occur due to :
option regarding. Identification and statement :- (1) Low % of O2 (2) Low P CO2
(1) A – Systemic vein, Chloride content are (3) High P CO2 (4) Low P O2
more in RBC than plasma 154. "Long exposure of certains substances can give
rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis". This
(2) B – Pulmonary Artery, PO2 = 95-104 condition is present in :
(1) Emphysema
mmHg, PCO2 = 40 mmHg
(2) Pneumonia
(3) C – Pulmonary vein, carry oxygenated (3) Occupational respiratory disorder
blood upto systemic organs (4) Asthma
155. The urge to inhale in humans results from :-
(4) A – Systemic artery, deliver 20 ml of O2 to
(1) rising pCO2 (2) rising pO2
tissue fluid (3) falling pCO2 (4) falling pO2
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 ALLEN
partial
156. Find the statements which are true and false. 159. Which of the following is primary factor pressure
in
(a) CO2 is carried by Hb as carboxy binding of oxygen with haemoglobin ? bol raha
hai
Haemoglobin (1) Partial pressure of O2
(b) Carbonic anhydrase plays an important role
in CO2 transport (2) Partial pressure of CO2
(c) Blood is the medium of transport for O2 (3) Temperature of body
only.
(4) pH of blood in veins
(d) 70% of CO2 is transported in the form of
bicarbonate. 160. The conducting part of respiratory tract does
not help in :-
a b c d
(1) T T T T (1) Transport the atmospheric air to the
alveoli.
(2) T F F T
(2) Clear air from foreign particles
(3) F T F T
(3) Humidify and bring the air to body
(4) T T F F temperature
157. Arrange the following in an ascending order of (4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood
their volumes and air
(a) Expiratory capacity
161. Which of the following has no specialised
(b) Inspiratory capacity
respiratory structures?
(c) Tidal volume c is smallest and b has largest
(d) Residual volume (1) Crab (2) Earthworm
(1) c < d < a < b (3) Salmon (4) Ant
(2) d < a < c < b 162. Among vertebrates, …A… use gills whereas
reptiles, birds and mammals respire through the
(3) d < b < a < c
…B... Amphibians like frogs can respire
(4) c < d < b < a through …C… also. Mammals have a well
158. Which structure of man is similar to spiracle of adapted respiratory system. Select appropriate
choice for the blanks A, B and C to complete
cockroach ?
the given statement.
(1) Nostril
(1) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-gills
(2) Bronchiole
(2) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-dry skin
(3) Lungs
(3) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-moist skin
(4) Alveoli
(4) A-mammals, B-gills, C-moist skin
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163. In humans, which of the following is not a step
in respiration?
(1) Alveolar diffusion of O2 and CO2
(2) Transport of gases by blood
(3) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood
and tissues
(4) Utilization of CO2 by cells for catabolic
reactions
164. Respiration can be defined as:
(1) A catabolic process by which animal cells
utilize carbon dioxide, produce oxygen
and convert the released energy as ATP
(2) A catabolic process by which animals cells
utilize oxygen, produce carbon dioxide
and convert the released energy as ATP
(3) An anabolic process by which animal cells
utilize oxygen and carbon dioxide to form
ATP
(4) An anabolic process by which animal cells
utilize oxygen, produce carbon dioxide
and convert the released energy as ATP
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165. Assertion : Diffusion of CO2 is 20 times faster
than O2
Reason : It is due to difference in partial
pressure as well as solubility of diffusing gases.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is
false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
166. CO is more toxic than CO2 because it
(1) Damages lungs
(2) Forms acid with water
(3) Reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of
haemoglobin
(4) Affects the nervous system
167. Which is a common passage for food and air ?
(1) Trachea
(2) Oesophagus
(3) Pharynx
(4) Glottis
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 ALLEN
168. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of 170. The nasal chambers of humans
human respiratory system with labels A, B. C
(1) Has PS.CCGE with goblet cells
and D. Select the option, which gives correct
identification and main function and/or (2) Lack glands
characteristic.
(3) is poorly supplied with blood vessels

(4) lack goblet cells

171. Which of the following statements regarding
(1) A-trachea-long tube supported by
complete cartilaginous rings for
conducting inspired air
(2) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both
sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(3) C-alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like
structures for exchange of gases
(4) D-lower end of lungs pulls it down during
inspiration
172. The structure which does not contribute to the
169. Cartilagenous flap called epiglottis prevents the
entry of food into–
human respiratory system is not incorrect:
(1) Larynx is the partially bony and
cartilaginous box helps in sound
production
(2) Trachea divides at the level of 5th cervical
vertebra into left and right primary
bronchi.
(3) The trachea, primary, secondary and
tertiary bronchi are supported by complete
cartilaginous rings.
(4) The branching network of bronchi,
bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs
breathing movements in mammals is

(1) Oesophagus (1) rib

(2) Trachea (2) larynx
(3) Gullet (3) diaphragm
(4) Pharynx (4) intercostal muscles
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173. Correct sequence of the air passage in human is 178. How many characteretic feature given below
(1) Nose → Larynx → Pharynx →
are related to pleura.
Bronchioles → Alveoli (I) Double layered
(II) Fluid contained in it reduces the friction the
(2) Nose → Pharynx → Larynx →
lung surface
Bronchioles → Bronchi (III) Its outer layer is in contact with thoracic
(3) Nose → Pharynx → Larynx → wall
Bronchioles → Trachea (IV) Its inner layer is in contact with lungs
(4) External nostril → Nasal passage Choose correct option:
→
Internal nostril → Pharynx → Larynx → (1) I and II (2) I and III
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → (3) III and IV (4) All of these
Alveoli 179. How many layers are present in the diffusion
174. Breathing rate in human is :- membrane of alveolus capillary?
(1) 12/min (2) 36-38/min (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
(3) 100/min (4) 300/min 180. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and
choose the correct Option accordingly.
175. Cartilagenous rings in trachea are incomplete at
which surface :
(1) Dorsal (2) Ventral
(3) Lateral (4) Ventrolateral
176. Which of the following is responsible for
maximum gaseous exchange?
(1) Alveoli
(2) Intercostal muscles (1) A-Alveolar cavity, B-WBC, C-Capillary
(3) Trachea wall

(4) Diaphragm (2) A-Alveolar cavity, B-RBC, C-Systemic

wall
177. Fluid that decreases friction between pleural
membrane is : (3) A-Alveolar cavity, B-RBC, C-Basement
substance
(1) Pericardial fluid (2) Pleural fluid
(4) A-Alveolar cavity, B-WBC, C-Systemic
(3) Peritoneal fluid (4) All of the above wall
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181. The favourable factors for oxygenation of Hb
in the alveoli are
(1) ↑ pO 2 , ↓ pC O 2 , ↓ T emp, ↓ pH
(2) ↑ pO 2 , ↓ pC O 2 , ↓ T emp, ↓ H
(3) ↓ pO 2 , ↑ pC O 2 , ↓ T emp, ↓ H
(4) ↓ pO 2 , ↓ pC O 2 , ↑ T emp, ↑ pH
182. Arrange the following points of respiration in
correct sequence :-
(a) Breathing
(b) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(d) Utilisation of O2 by the cell
(e) Transport of gases by the blood
(1) abcde
(2) acbde
(3) acebd
(4) adceb
183. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
Statement A : Thoracic chamber is an
anatomically air tight chamber.
Statement B : We can alter pulmonary volume
directly, without any change in the thoracic
volume.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
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184. Identify which respiratory structure possesses
the following features and choose the correct
option accordingly.
(i) Found in mammals
+
(ii) Highly muscular and fibrous partition,
+ elevated towards the thorax like a dome
(iii) Separates thoracic and abdominal cavity.
(1) Pleural membrane (2) Phrenic muscle
(3) Diaphragm (4) Mediastinum
185. During inspiration
(1) The diaphragm gets raised and ribs get
lowered
(2) Both diaphragm and ribs get raised
(3) Both diaphragm and ribs get lowered
(4) The diaphragm get flattened and ribs get
raised
SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
186. Mark the correct set of muscles involved in
forceful expiration in humans
(1) External intercostal and internal intercostal
muscles
(2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(3) Diaphragm and external intercostal
muscles
(4) Abdominal muscles and internal intercostal
muscles
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187. Vital capacity of the lung signifies the volume 191. Read the given physiological conditions
of air:
(1) Breathed in during normal inspiration carefully and find out which of them cause
(2) Breathed out with forcible expiration shifting oxygen dissociation curve towards left ?
(3) Breathed in with forcible inspiration
(a) P CO2 decreases (b) pH decreases
(4) With deep inspiration and forcible expiration
188. Air filled in dead space is (c) P 50 decreases (d) High temperature
(1) 150 CC (2) 350 CC (1) a and c
(3) 500 CC (4) 1500 CC
(2) a and d
189. If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml residual
volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml, (3) a, c and d
what shall be the functional residual capacity
(1) 1600 ml (2) 2800 ml (4) c and d

(3) 2300 ml (4) 1200 ml 192. Oxygen dissociation curve is:

190. Which one of the following are the correct
matching of respiratory capacities and (1) J-shaped
respiratory volumes?
Respiratory (2) S-shaped
Respiratory capacity
volume
(3) L-shaped
I. Residual volume 1. 3000 mL
II. Vital capacity 2. 3500 mL (4) Zig-zag
Inspiratory reserve
III. 3. 1200 mL
volume 193. Haldane effect is due to
IV. Inspiratory capacity 4. 4600 mL
(1) CO2
Choose the correct option
(1) II–3000 mL, III–4600 mL (2) Lactic acid
(2) III–1200 mL, IV–3000 mL
(3) pH
(3) IV–3500 mL, I–1200 mL
(4) I–4600 mL, II–3500 mL (4) Oxy Hb
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194. Which of the following is incorrect about the
given graph?
(1) The curve is called oxygen dissociation
curve
(2) The part A represents percentage
saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
(3) The part B represents partial pressure of
carbon dioxide
(4) This curve is highly useful in studying the
effect of factors like pCO2, H+
concentration, etc.
195. How many atoms of oxygen are carried by one
molecule of haemoglobin.
197. During CO2 transport, HCO3– diffuses from
erythrocytes to plasma and in turn upsets the
ionic balance momentarily. In order to keep the
ionic balance, an equal number of Cl– pass into
the erythrocytes from plasma. The process is
known as:
(1) Hamburger phenomenon
(2) Bicarbonate shift
(3) Carbonation
(4) Bohr's effect
198. A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to :
(1) CO2
(2) Hydrogen ion
(3) O2
(4) Both (1) and (2)
199. Respiratory process is regulated by certain
specialized centres in the brain. One of the
following listed centres can reduce the
inspiratory duration upon stimulation :
(1) Medullary inspiratory centre
(2) Pneumotaxic centre

(1) Four (2) Six (3) Apneustic centre

(3) One (4) Eight (4) Chemosensitive centre

196. Total percentage of O2 transported by 200. Controlling centre of normal breathing
haemoglobin or RBC is : (respiratory centre) in mammals lies in
(1) 3% (2) 97% (1) cerebrum (2) cerebellum
(3) 49% (4) 25% (3) midbrain (4) medulla oblongata
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