(CJA101021230085) CJA101021230085 Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE (Main)

MOCK TEST
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) .

JEE(MAIN) : Leader & Enthusiast

Time : 3.00 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

A
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR.
For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet and OMR sheet (Side-1 & Side-

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2) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on

ROTALIGIVNI EHT YB OS OD OT DETCURTSNI GNIEB TUOHTIW SLAES EHT KAERB TON OD

the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(a) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(b) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions. First 5 attempted
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questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone
any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
9. Take g = 10 m/s 2 unless otherwise stated.
A

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

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 PART-1 : PHYSICS

3. −→
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) A charge Q is moving dI distance in the
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 magnetic field B→ . Find the value of work done by
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions →.
B
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (A) 1 (B) Infinite
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (C) Zero (D) – 1
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 4. What will be the nature of flow of water from a
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. circular tap, when its flow rate increased from
1. The following logic gate is equivalent to : 0.18 L/min to 0.48 L/min ? The radius of the tap
and viscosity of water are 0.5 cm and 10 – 3 Pa s,

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respectively. (Density of water : 103 kg/m3)
(A) Unsteady to steady flow
(B) Remains steady flow
(A) NOR Gate (B) OR Gate (C) Remains turbulent flow
(D) Steady flow to unsteady flow
(C) AND Gate (D) NAND Gate
5. A mosquito is moving with a velocity
2. A large block of wood of mass M = 5.99 kg is →v = 0.5t2 ^i + 3t j^ + 9k^ m/s and accelerating in
hanging from two long massless cords. A bullet uniform conditions. What will be the direction of
of mass m = 10g is fired into the block and gets mosquito after 2s ?
embedded in it. The (block + bullet) then swing
upwards, their centre of mass rising a vertical 2
(A) tan−1 ( ) from x-axis

distance h = 9.8 cm before the (block + bullet) 3

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pendulum comes momentarily to rest at the end 2
(B) tan−1 ( ) from y-axis
of its arc. The speed of the bullet just before 3
collision is : (Take g = 9.8 ms – 2) 5
(C) tan−1 ( ) from y-axis
2
5
(D) tan−1 ( ) from x-axis
2
6. Find out the surface charge density at the
intersection of point x = 3 m plane and x-axis, in
the region of uniform line charge of 8 nC/m
lying along the z-axis in free space.
(A) 0.424 nC m – 2
A

(A) 841.4 m/s (B) 811.4 m/s (B) 47.88 C/m

–
(C) 0.07 nC m 2 (D) 4.0 nC m – 2
(C) 831.4 m/s (D) 821.4 m/s

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 7. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an 11. The refractive index of a converging lens is 1.4.
electron and a proton were calculated by What will be the focal length of this lens if it is
accelerating them through same potential of 100 placed in a medium of same refractive index ?
V. What should nearly be the ratio of their (Assume the radii of curvature of the faces of
wavelengths ? (mP = 1.00727 u, me = 0.00055u) lens are R1 and R2 respectively)
(A) 1860 : 1 (B) (1860)2 : 1 (A) 1 (B) Infinite
(C) 41.4 : 1 (D) 43 : 1 R1 R2 (D) Zero
(C)
R1 − R2
8. For the given circuit, comment on the type of
12. In order to determine the Young's Modulus of a
transformer used :
wire of radius 0.2 cm (measured using a scale of
least count = 0.001 cm) and length 1m

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(measured using a scale of least count = 1 mm),
a weight of mass 1kg (measured using a scale of
least count = 1g) was hanged to get the
elongation of 0.5 cm (measured using a scale of
(A) Auxilliary transformer least count 0.001 cm). What will be the
(B) Auto transformer fractional error in the value of Young's Modulus
determined by this experiment ?
(C) Step-up transformer
(A) 0.14% (B) 0.9% (C) 9% (D) 1.4%
(D) Step down transformer
13. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It
9. The half-life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The activity of
is mounted rigidly as shown. The metal A has
1.50 mg of Au198 if its atomic weight is 198 g
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higher coefficient of expansion compared to that
mol – 1 is, (NA = 6 × 1023/mol)
of metal B. When the bimetallic strip is placed in
(A) 240 Ci (B) 357 Ci a cold both, it will:
(C) 535 Ci (D) 252 Ci
10. Calculate the value of mean free path ( λ ) for
oxygen molecules at temperature 27°C and
pressure 1.01 × 105 Pa. Assume the molecular
(A) Bend towards the right
diameter 0.3 nm and the gas is ideal. (k = 1.38 ×
10 – 23 JK – 1) (B) Not bend but shrink
A

(A) 58 nm (B) 32 nm (C) Neither bend nor shrink

(C) 86 nm (D) 102 nm (D) Bend towards the left
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 14. A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in 17. The magnetic field in a region is given by
20s when a current of 1.5 A is passed through it. → = B0 x k^ . A square loop of side d is placed
B ( )
a
If the current is increased from 1.5 A to 3A, with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop is
what will be the energy developed in 20 s. moved with a constant velocity →v = v0 ^i . The emf
induced in the loop is :
(A) 1500 J (B) 1000 J
(C) 500 J (D) 2000 J
15. Statement I : A cyclist is moving on an unbanked
road with a speed of 7 kmh – 1 and takes a sharp
circular turn along a path of radius of 2m without
reducing the speed. The static friction coefficient
is 0.2. The cyclist will not slip and pass the curve

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(g = 9.8 m/s2) (A) B0 v20 d
(B) B0 v 0 d
Statement II : If the road is banked at an angle of 2a 2a
45°, cyclist can cross the curve of 2m radius with (C) B0 v 0 d 2 (D) B0 v 0 d 2
the speed of 18.5 kmh – 1 without slipping. a 2a
In the light of the above statements, choose the 18. Amplitude of a mass-spring system, which is
correct answer from the options given below. executing simple harmonic motion decreases
with time. If mass = 500g, Decay constant = 20
(A) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is g/s then how much time is required for the
correct amplitude of the system to drop to half of its
initial value ? ( ℓ n2 = 0.693)
(B) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect (A) 34.65 s (B) 17.32 s
(C) 0.034 s (D) 15.01 s
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(C) Both statement I and statement II are false
19. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay
(D) Both statement I and statement II are true and 67% decay if half-life of a substance is 20
16. Find the value of currents i4 and i5 minutes.
(A) 60 minutes (B) 20 minutes
(C) 40 minutes (D) 13 minutes
20. 1 gm liquid is converted into vapour under 3 ×
105 Pa. 10% of heat is used to expand volume
2 8 8 2 by 1600 cm3. What is the increase in internal
(A) , (B) , energy:-
5 5 5 5
A

3 6 1 4 (A) 4800 (B) 4320

(C) , (D) ,
5 5 5 5
(C) 4300 (D) 400
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value
Type questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (in
decimal notation, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
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the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. The energy dissipated by a resistor is 10 mJ in 1s
when an electric current of 2 mA flows through
it. The resistance is _______ Ω . (Round off to
the Nearest Integer)
2. In a parallel plate capacitor set up, the plate area
of capacitor is 2 m2 and the plates are separated
by 1m. If the space between the plates are filled
with a dielectric material of thickness 0.5 m and
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area 2m2 (see fig.) the capacitance of the set-up
will be ______ ε 0. (Dielectric constant of the
material = 3.2) (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)
A
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3. A force F→ = 4i^ + 3j^ + 4k^ is applied on an
intersection point of x = 2 plane and x-axis. The
magnitude of torque of this force about a point
(2, 3, 4) is ________. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)
4. If one wants to remove all the mass of the earth
to infinity in order to break it up completely. The
amount of energy that needs to be supplied will
GM 2
be x where x is ____ (Round off to the
5 R
Nearest Integer)
(M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth,
G is the gravitational constant)
5. A deviation of 2° is produced in the yellow ray
when prism of crown and flint glass are
achromatically combined. Taking dispersive
powers of crown and flint glass are 0.02 and
0.03 respectively and refractive index for yellow
light for these glasses are 1.5 and 1.6
respectively. The refracting angles for crown
glass prism will be ________° (in
degree) (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
6. A body of mass 2kg moves under a force of
^ ^ ^
(2i + 3j + 5k) N . It starts from rest and was at the
origin initially. After 4s, its new coordinates are
(8, b, 20). The value of b is __________. (Round
off to the Nearest Integer)
7. A swimmer can swim with velocity of 12 km/h
in still water. Water flowing in a river has
velocity 6 km/h. The direction with respect to the
direction of flow of river water he should swim
in order to reach the point on the other bank just
opposite to his starting point is _________°.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer) (find the angle
in degree)
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 8. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open 10. For an ideal heat engine, the temperature of the
organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ 1 and ρ 2 source is 127°C. In order to have 60% efficiency
respectively. The compressibility of gases are the temperature of the sink should be T°C, then
equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are modulus (|T|) value of T is. (Round off to the
vibrating in their first overtone with same Nearest Integer)
frequency. The length of the open pipe is
x ρ1
L√ where x is ________. (Round off to
3 ρ2
the Nearest Integer)
9. A solid disc of radius 'a' and mass 'm' rolls down
without slipping on an inclined plane making an
angle θ with the horizontal. The acceleration of

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the disc will be 2 g sin θ where b is ______.
b
(Round off to the Nearest Integer) (g =
acceleration due to gravity) ( θ = angle as shown
in figure)
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A

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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Coordination compounds have great importance

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. The green house gas/es is (are) :
(A) Carbon dioxide
in biological systems. In this context, which of
the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) chlorophylls are green pigments in plants
and contain calcium
(B) haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood
and contains iron
(C) cyanocobalamin is vitamin B12 and
contains cobalt
(D) carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and
contains zinc

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(B) Oxygen 4. Identify the elements X and Y using the
(C) Water vapour ionisation energy values given below :
(D) Methane Ionization energy (kJ/mol)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 1st 2nd
options given below : X 495 4563
(A) (A) and (C) only Y 731 1450
(B) (A) only
(A) X = Na ; Y = Mg (B) X = Mg ; Y = F
(C) (A), (C) and (D) only
(C) X = Mg ; Y = Na (D) X = F ; Y = Mg
(D) (A) and (B) only
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2. 5.

In the above reaction, the reagent "A" is :

Identify the reagent(s) 'A' and condition(s) for
(A) NaBH4, H3O+ the reaction :
(B) LiAlH4 (A) A = HCl; Anhydrous AlCl3
(C) Alkaline KMnO4, H+ (B) A = HCl, ZnCl2
(C) A = Cl2; UV light
A

(D) HCl, Zn-Hg

(D) A = Cl2; dark, Anhydrous AlCl3

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 6. The secondary structure of protein is stabilised 10. The INCORRECT statement regarding the
by: structure of C60 is :
(A) Peptide bond (A) The six-membered rings are fused to both
six and five-membered rings.
(B) glycosidic bond
(B) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
(C) Hydrogen bonding (C) The five-membered rings are fused only to
(D) van der Waals forces six-membered rings.
7. FeX2 and FeY3 are known when x and y are : (D) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24
five-membered rings.
(A) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br
11. Which of the following is incorrect?
(B) x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl, Br, I (A) Transition metal compounds are coloured

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(C) x = Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I due to only d-d transition of e –
(D) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I (B) Spectra of lanthanides are sharp due to f-f
transition
8. Which one of the following compound is (C) Most characteristic oxidation state of
nonbenzenoid? lanthanides is +3.
(D) Ce4+ is strong oxidising agent.
(A) (B) Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the
12.
treatment with NaOH solution can be used to
prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
The purpose of NaOH in the reaction is :
(C) (D) (A) to remove basic impurities
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(B) to activate NH3 used in the reaction
9. Statement I : Sodium hydride can be used as an (C) to remove acidic impurities
oxidising agent. (D) to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide
Statement II : The lone pair of electrons on 13. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis
nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic. gives A. Compound A when warmed with
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options ammonical silver nitrate forms a bright silver
given below : mirror along the sides of the test tube. The
unsaturated hydrocarbon X is :
(A) Both statement I and statement II are false
(B) Statement I is true but statement II is false (A) (B)
A

(C) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(D) Both statement I and statement II are true (C) HC ≡ C – CH2 – CH3 (D) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3

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 14. Which of the following is least basic ? 17. Ratio of Δ Tb/Kb of 6% AB2 and 9% A2B (AB2
∙ ∙

(A) (CH3CO)N H C 2 H5 and A2B both are non-electrolyte) is 1 mol/Kg in

∙ ∙ both cases. Hence, atomic masses of A and B are
(B) (C2H5)3N
respectively:
∙ ∙

(C) (CH3CO)2N H (A) 10, 40

∙ ∙

(D) (C2H5)2N H (B) 40, 10

15. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with (C) 10, 10
atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83 are :
(D) 40, 40
(A) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal.
(B) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is 18. Arrange the following metal complex/compounds

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a metal. in the increasing order of spin only magnetic
(C) X, Y and Z are metals. moment. Presume all the three, high spin system.
(D) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid
(Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63.)
16. Match List-I with List-II
(a) (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd(NO3)3
List-I List-II
Test/ Species and (c) Eu(NO3)3
Reagents/ detected
Observation(s) (A) (b) < (a) < (c)
(a) Lassaigne's Test (i) Carbon (B) (c) < (a) < (b)
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur (C) (a) < (b) < (c)
N, S, P, and
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(c) Silver nitrate (iii) (D) (a) < (c) < (b)
halogen
19. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution
Halogen
(d) The sodium fusion (iv)
Specifically required to neutralise 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3
extract gives black
precipitate with acetic solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution,
acid and lead acetate respectively, are :
(A) 100 mL and 100 mL
The correct match is :
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (B) 100 mL and 50 mL
A

(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (C) 100 mL and 200 mL

(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(D) 50 mL and 50 mL
(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
20. This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The structure of X is : The answer to each question is a Numerical Value
Type questions.
(A) For each question, enter the correct integer value (in
decimal notation, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to

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the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
(B) Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. On the basis of the information available from
4 2
the reaction, Al + O2 → Al2 O3 ,
3 3
Δ G = −827 kJ mol−1 of O2. The minimum emf,
(C) required to carry out an electrolysis of Al2O3 is
(F = 96500 C mol – 1)
2. A 5.0 m mol dm – 3 aqueous solution of KCl has
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a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in a
cell constant 1.3 cm – 1. The molar conductivity
of this solution is _______ mSm2 mol – 1.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(D)
3. A and B decompose via first order kinetics with
half-lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min respectively.
Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture
of A and B, the time taken for the concentration
of A to become 16 times that of B is ______
A

min. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

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 4. In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen,
0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL of
nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of Hg
pressure. The percentage composition of
nitrogen in the compound is ______. (Round off
to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of
Hg]
5. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = + 2 is
______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
6. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and
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that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and 2 moles
of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is
ideal, the vapour pressure of the mixture is
________ kPa. (Round of to the Nearest
Integer).
7. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10 – 2
and Ka2 = 6.4 × 10 – 8. The pH of 0.588 M
H2SO3 is _________. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)
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A
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8. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is
mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate
solution, ________ × 10 – 5 moles of lead
sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the
Nearest Integer).
9. At 25°C, 50 g of iron reacts with HCl to form
FeCl2. The evolved hydrogen gas expands
against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work
done by the gas during this expansion is
_______ J.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
[Given : R = 8.314 J mol – 1 K – 1. Assume,
hydrogen is an ideal gas]
[Atomic mass off Fe is 55.85 u]
10. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 498
nm during a d – d transition. The octahedral
splitting energy for the above complex is _____
× 10 – 19 J. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). h
= 6.626 × 10 – 34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms – 1.
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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. If (x, y, z) be an arbitrary point lying on a plane

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 P which passes through the point (42, 0, 0), (0,
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions 42, 0) and (0, 0, 42), then the value of
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, expression
x − 11 y − 19
marks will be awarded as follows: 3+ 2 2
+ 2 2
(y − 19) (z − 12) (x − 11) (z − 12)
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. z − 12 x+y+z
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. + −
2
(x − 11) (y − 19) 2 14(x − 11)(y − 19)(z − 12)
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 39 (D) – 45
1. The maximum value of 10
sin2 x 1 + cos2 x cos 2x ∣ [x] e[x]

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∣
∣ ∣
5. Consider the integral I = ∫ dx, where [x]
∣ ∣ ex−1
f(x) = 1 + sin2 x
∣ cos2 x cos 2x , x ∈ R
∣
0
∣ ∣ denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to
∣ ∣
2
∣ sin x cos2 x sin 2x ∣ x. Then the value of I is equal to :
is:
(A) 9(e – 1) (B) 45(e + 1)
(A) √ 7 (B) 3
4 (C) 45(e – 1) (D) 9(e + 1)
(C) √ 5 (D) 5 6. Let C be the locus of the mirror image of a point
2. Let A denote the event that a 6-digit integer on the parabola y2 = 4x with respect to the line
formed by 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetitions, y = x. Then the equation of tangent to C at
be divisible by 3. Then probability of event A is
equal to : P(2,1) is :
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(A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 11 (A) x – y = 1 (B) 2x + y = 5
56 9 7 27
(C) x + 3y = 5 (D) x + 2y = 4
3. Let α ∈ R be such that the function
⎧ cos−1 (1−{x}2 )sin−1 (1−{x}) 7. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential
⎪
⎪
3
, x≠0
{x}−{x}
f(x) = ⎨ dy π
⎪ equation + (tanx ) y = sinx , 0 ⩽ x ⩽ ,
⎩
⎪
α, x=0 dx 3
π
is continuous at x = 0, where {x} = x – [x], [x] is with y(0) = 0, then y ( ) equal to :
4
the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then :
π 1 1
(A) log 2 (B) loge 2
(A) α =
( )
(B) α = 0 4 e 2 √2
A

√ 2
(D) α = π (C) loge2 1
(C) no such α exists (D) log 2
4 2 e

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 8. Let A = {2, 3, 4, 5, .... , 30} and ' ≃ ' be an 12. If the point of intersections of the ellipse
equivalence relation on A × A, defined by (a, b) x2 y2
+ =1 and the circle x2 + y2 = 4b, b > 4
≃ (c, d), if and only if ad = bc. Then the number 16 b2
of ordered pairs which satisfy this equivalence lie on the curve y2 = 3x2, then b is equal to :
relation with ordered pair (4, 3) is equal to : (A) 12 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 10
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 7 13. Given that the inverse trigonometric functions
9. Let the lengths of intercepts on x-axis and y-axis take principal values only. Then, the number of
made by the circle x2 + y2 + ax + 2ay + c = 0, (a < real values of x which satisfy
3x 4x
0) be 2 2 and 2 5, respectively. Then the
√ √ sin−1 ( ) + sin
−1
( ) = sin
−1
x is equal to:
5 5
shortest distance from origin to a tangent to this
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 0
circle which is perpendicular to the line x + 2y = 0,

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is euqal to : 14. Let A( – 1, 1), B(3, 4) and C(2, 0) be given three
points. A line y = mx, m > 0, intersects lines AC
(A) √ 11 (B) √ 7
and BC at point P and Q respectively. Let A1 and
(C) √ 6 (D) √ 10 A2 be the areas of Δ ABC and Δ PQC
10. The least value of |z| where z is complex number respectively, such that A1 = 3A2, then the value
which satisfies the inequality of m is equal to :
(|z| + 3) (|z| − 1) ∣ ∣ 4
exp( loge 2) ⩾ log 2 ∣5√7 + 9i∣, (A) (B) 1
||z| + 1| 15
√

i = √−1, is equal to : (C) 2 (D) 3

(A) 3 (B) √ 5 15. Let f be a real valued function, defined on R –
LL
(C) 2 (D) 8 { – 1, 1} and given by
∣ x−1 ∣ 2
11. Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5, 7, 6, 9 f(x) = 3loge ∣ ∣ − .
∣ x+1 ∣ x−1
points in the interior of the line segments AB, Then in which of the following intervals,
CD, BC, DA respectively. Let α be the number function f(x) is increasing?
of triangles having these points from different 1
(A) (− ∞ , −1) ∪ ([ , ∞ ) − {1})
2
sides as vertices and β be the number of
quadrilaterals having these points from different (B) ( – ∞ , ∞ ) – { – 1, 1}
sides as vertices. Then ( β – α ) is equal to : 1
(C) ( −1, ]
2
A

(A) 795 (B) 1173

1
(D) ( −∞, ] − {−1}
(C) 1890 (D) 717 2

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 16. Let f : S → S where S = (0, ∞ ) be a twice 20. Let →a = i^ + 2j^ − 3k^ and →b = 2i^ − 3j^ + 5k^ . If
differentiable function such that f(x + 1) = xf(x). →r × →a = →b × →r , →r . ( α i^ + 2j^ + k^ ) = 3 and
If g : S → R be defined as g(x) = logef(x), then
the value of |g"(5) – g"(1)| is equal to : →r . (2i^ + 5j^ − α k^ ) = −1 , α ∈ R, then the value
(A) 205 (B) 197 of α + |→r |2 is equal to :
144 144 (A) 9 (B) 15
(C) 187 (D) 1
144 (C) 13 (D) 11
17. Let P(x) = x2 + bx + c be a quadratic polynomial with SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
1

real coefficients such that ∫ P (x)dx = 1 and P(x) This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
0
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted

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leaves remainder 5 when it is divided by (x – 2). questions will be evaluated.
Then the value of 9(b + c) is equal to: The answer to each question is a Numerical Value
(A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 7 (D) 11 Type questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (in
18. If the foot of the perpendicular from point (4, 3, 8) decimal notation, the answer should be rounded off to
x−a y−2 z−b the nearest Integer).
on the line L1 : = = ,ℓ ≠0
ℓ 3 4 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
is (3, 5, 7), then the shortest distance between the the following marking scheme:
x−2 y−4 z−5 Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
line L1 and line L2 : = = is
3 4 5 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
equal to : Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1 1
(A) (B) 1. If the distance of the point (1, – 2, 3) from the
2
LL
√ 6 plane x + 2y – 3z + 10 = 0 measured parallel to
2 1 2−y
(C) √

3
(D) the line, x − 1 = =
z+3
is 7 , then
√
√ 3 3 m 1 2
19. Let C1 be the curve obtained by the solution of the value of |m| is equal to ______.
dy 2. Consider the statistics of two sets of observations
differential equation 2xy = y 2 − x2 , x > 0. Let
dx as follows :
2xy dy Size Mean Variance
the curve C2 be the solution of 2 2 = . If
x −y dx Observation I 10 2 2
both the curves pass through (1,1), then the area Observation II n 3 1
enclosed by the curves C1 and C2 is equal to : If the variance of the combined set of these two
(B) π observations is 17 , then the value of n is equal
A

(A) π – 1 −1
2 9
to __________.
(C) π + 1 (D) π +1
4

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 3. Let A=[
a1
and B=[
b1
be two 2 × 1 6. Let 1 , a and b be in G.P. and 1 , 1 , 6 be in
] ] 16 a b
a2 b2 A.P., where a, b > 0. Then 72(a + b) is equal to
matrices with real entries such that A = XB, ________.
1 1 −1
where X= [ ] , and k ∈ R. If 7. In Δ ABC, the lengths of sides AC and AB are
1
√ 3 k 12 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the area of
2 2
a21 + a22 2
and (k2 + 1)b22 ≠ −2b1 b2 ,
= (b1 + b2 ) Δ ABC is 30 cm2 and R and r are respectively
3
then the value of k is _______. the radii of circumcircle and incircle of Δ ABC,
4. For real numbers α , β , γ and δ , if then the value of 2R + r (in cm) is equal to
x2 +1 _______.
(x2 − 1) + tan−1 ( x )

∫
x2 +1
dx = 8. Let n be a positive integer. Let
(x4 + 3x2 + 1)tan−1 (

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n k k k k k
)
x A= 1 3 7 15 31
∑ (−1)k nCk [( ) + ( ) + ( ) + ( ) + ( ) ]
2 4 8 16 32
x2 + 1
−1 k=0
α loge (tan ( ))
1
x . If 63A = 1 − , then n is equal to _______.
γ (x2 − 1) x2 + 1 230
−1 −1
+ β tan ( ) + δ tan ( ) +C 9. Let →cbe a vector perpendicular to the vectors
x x
where C is an arbitrary constant, then the value →a = i + j^ − k^
^
and →b = i^ + 2j^ + k^ . If
^
of 10( α + β γ + δ ) is equal to __________. →c . i^ + j^ + 3k = 8 then the value of →c . →a × →b is
( ) ( )

5. Let f : R → R and g : R → R be defined as equal to _________.

⎧ x + a, x<0 10. Let Sn (x) = loga1/2 x + loga1/3 x + loga1/6 x
f(x) = ⎨
⎩
and +loga1/11 x + loga1/18 x + loga1/27 x+. . . . . up to n-
|x − 1|, x ⩾ 0
⎧ x + 1, x<0 terms, where a > 1. If S24(x) = 1093 and S12(2x)
LL
g(x) = ⎨ = 265, then value of a is equal to _______.
⎩
(x − 1)2 + b, x⩾0
where a, b are non-negative real numbers. If
(gof)(x) is continuous for all x ∈ R, then a + b is
equal to ___________.
A

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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

EN
LL
A

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