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Code-B2
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Topics covered:
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurement, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane,
Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Structure of Atom, Some Basic concepts in Chemistry, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter:
Gases and Liquids
Mathematics : Basics of Mathematics, Relations and Functions (Including Transformation of Graphs),
Trigonometric Functions Part-I, Principle of Mathematical Induction, Quadratic
Equations, Complex Numbers - I, Linear Inequalities
General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages
and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No., Centre
Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to the
invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4
sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 6 multiple choice questions which have one or more correct
answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer.
Partial +1 mark is given for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
no incorrect option is darkened.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 3 questions stems. There are TWO (02) questions
corresponding to each question stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places. Each question carries +2 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking.
(iv) Section-3 : This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are
TWO (02) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of
these four options is the correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(v) Section-4: This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a
NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and there is
no negative marking.
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [1]
Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25
PART-I: PHYSICS
SECTION-1
1. The intensity of polarised light through a polaroid is given by I = I0cos2 , where I0 is intensity of incident
polarised light and is angle made by pass axis with line of incident polarised light. If I0 and are
measured as I0 = (10.0 ± 0.1) W/m2 and = 45° ± 1°. Then
2. The force acting on a particle depends on its position (x) and time (t) as F =
A2
B
( )
sin Bx − c t . Select
5
(D) If F = 100 N, acceleration of each block, is m/s2
3
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [2]
Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2
5. A particle of mass m is projected horizontally with velocity v0 from a tower of very large height. Drag force
acting on the particle is opposite to particle's instantaneous velocity and its magnitude is equal to mg.
During the motion
v0
(D) Final velocity of the particle becomes
2
1
−
(C) M G (D) M G 2
SECTION - 2
This section contains 3 questions stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
A projectile is thrown from a point O on the ground at an angle 45° from the vertical and with a speed
5 2 m/s . The projectile at the highest point of its trajectory splits into two equal parts. One part falls
vertically down to the ground, 0.5 s after the splitting. The other part, t seconds after the splitting, falls to
the ground at a distance x meters from the point O. The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
A drunkard moves 5 steps forward and 2 steps backward along a straight road. Each step is of 30 cm
and he takes 2 s for each step. There is a manhole at a distance of 6 m in the line of motion of drunkard,
from the initial position of drunkard. The drunkard falls in the manhole finally. Then
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [3]
Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25
A particle moves in a straight line under an acceleration varying linearly with time. Its velocity-time graph
is shown in figure. Then
SECTION-3
Paragraph Type
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
If a swimmer crosses a river (width = 80 m) from point A and swims perpendicular to the banks w.r.t. river
400
then he will reach point C lying at distance of m from point B in 2 minutes. Based on the given
3
information answer the following questions.
14. If the man crosses the river travelling minimum drift d, then
400
(A) d = m
3
500
(B) d = m
3
(C) d = 200 m
(D) Velocity of swimmer relative to river is perpendicular to his velocity w.r.t. the banks of the river
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [4]
Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2
Two block A and B of masses m and 4m connected by string of length l = 1 m are pulled along a rough
horizontal surface with constant velocity by applying force F as shown. Coefficient of friction between
both the blocks and surface is = 0.2. String breaks at t = 0 and external force F is withdrawn at t = t0
when block B has travelled 80 m after the breaking of string. Answer the question based on this
paragraph [g = 10 m/s2]
SECTION-4
This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
SECTION-1
20. A and B are two elements which form A2B3 and AB2. If 0.30 mole of A2B3 weighs 31.8 g and
0.30 mole of AB2 weighs 18.6 g. Choose correct statement(s).
21. Some of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct for a 4d electron. Which of the following
is/are the correct set(s)?
1
(A) 4, 3, 2, + (B) 4, 2, 1, 0
2
1 1
(C) 4, 2, –2, + (D) 4, 2, 1, −
2 2
22. Principal quantum number (n) gives
(A) Energy of shell (B) Size of shell
23. Hydrogen atom absorbs radiation of wavelength 0 and consequently emit radiations of 6 different
wavelengths of which some wavelengths are shorter than 0 while returning to ground state. Choose the
correct alternative(s).
(A) The final excited state of the atom is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atom may be n = 3
25. The volume of oxygen required to produce enough CO which can reduce 4 gm of Fe 2O3 completely at
NTP as per given equation:
Covalent bonds between unlike atoms are polar and possess some ionic character. Polarity in bond is
expressed in term of dipole moment () which is product of the charge and the distance between the
centre of the bonded atoms. Unit of dipole moment is debye (D).
1D = 3.33 × 10–30 Cm
The overall dipole moment of a molecule is obtained by vectorial addition of the different bond moment
present together with the orbital moments of unshared electrons. A molecule may be non-polar even
though it has polar bonds.
26. The dipole moment of H2O is 1.85 D. The O–H bond moment would be t × 10–1, Find out t (Nearest
integer) (given that H–O–H bond angle is 104.5º) (Neglect moment due to loan pairs) [cos(104.5º) = –1/4,
(1.85)2 = 3.4225]
27. If the observed dipole moment of HCl is 1.03 D and the distance between atoms is 1.27×10–8 cm. What
will be the % ionic character of HCl?(Nearest integer)
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [6]
Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2
Eudiometery is technique to determine the molecular formula and gases composition by studying volume
of gases at same condition in eudiometer tube and electric spark is passed or explosion in made to
oxidise combustible material the volume of different gases absorbed is determined by different reagent.
O3 → turpentile oil
O2 → pyrogallol
N2 → heated Mg
CO2, SO2 → NaOH/KOH
28. A gas mixture of 3 L of propane and butane on complete combustion at 25°C produce 10 L of CO2, the
gas mixture contains "x" litre of propane and "y" litre of butane, find out value of (2x – y).
29. 10 ml of a mixture of CH4, C2H4 and CO2 was exploded with excess of air. After explosion there was a
contraction of 17 ml and after treatment with KOH there was a further reduction of 14 ml. What was the
volume of CO2 in original mixture? (in ml)
Spin angular momentum has no analog in classical mechanics. However it turns out that treatment of
spin angular momentum is closely analogous to the treatment of orbital angular momentum.
h
Orbital angular momentum = l (l + 1)
2
h = Planck's constant
1
Total spin of an atom or ion is a multiple of . Spin multiplicity is a factor to confirm the electronic
2
configuration of an atom or ion.
30. Total spin of Mn2+(Z = 25) ion will be
31. In any subshell, maximum number of electrons having same value of spin quantum number is given by
(a + b), where a and b are integers, find out (a + b).
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each question has
FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
In molecular orbital theory (MOT), the atoms in a molecule are supposed to loose their individual control
over the electrons. The nuclei of the bonded atoms are considered to be present at equilibrium in inter-
nuclear positions. The orbitals where the probability of finding electrons is maximum are multicentred
orbitals called molecular orbitals, extending over 2 or more nuclei. When a pair of atomic orbitals combine
it give rise to a pair of molecular orbitals – bonding and antibonding molecular orbital. Electron density is
increased for bonding MO's in internuclear region but decreased for antibonding MO's. Shielding of the
nuclei by increased electron density in bonding MO's reduces inter nuclear repulsion & thus stabilizes the
molecule whereas lower electron density in antibonding MO's increases the repulsion and destabilises
the system.
Antibonding MO
Energy
O
Bonding MO
32. Which of the following is the correct order of bond strength of given species?
Gases tend to behave non-ideally at low temperature and high pressure and to explain deviation from
ideal behaviour two type of correction volume correction and pressure correction are introduced. An ideal
gas obey gas laws (PV = nRT) at all temperature and pressures. However there is no ideal gas in nature
under normal conditions. Gases H2, N2, CO2, etc. are non-ideal or real. Extent of deviation from ideal
behaviour of a real gas is expressed by a parameter called compressibility factor (Z)
PV
Z= for ideal gas Z = 1, Z 1 for real gas.
RT
CO
PV B
ideal
A
b a
(A) 1+ (B) 1–
V V
a a
(C) 1+ (D) 1–
RTV RTV
ab
35. If is negligible then second virial coefficient B in virial equation is
V2
a a
(A) b – (B) b +
RT RT
a a
(C) b + (D) b −
RTV RTV
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [8]
Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2
SECTION - 4
This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
36. The RMS speed of CH4 at 127°C is equal to the most probable speed of O 2 at temperature T K, then the
T (K)
value of is
100
37. The first ionisation potential of lithium is 5.41 eV and electron affinity of chlorine is –3.61 eV. If H in
kJ/mol for the reaction Li(g) + Cl(g) → Li+(g) + Cl–(g) is t, find out (t/10) (Nearest integer)
1 eV
Given : atom = 96.4 kJ / mole
38. As the speed of a particle of mass m increases its de Broglie wavelength decreases. The rate change
Å –1
of with kinetic energy E for an electron with = 1 Å in is given by . Find out t (closest
eV 100 t
integer)
SECTION-1
39. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B = {2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} then the value of n(P(A – B)) – n(P(B – A)) is greater than
(where P(x) represents power set of x and n(y) represents number of elements in y)
(A) 6 (B) –4
(C) –6 (D) –8
1 1
40. The solution set of the inequality contains the interval(s)
x –3 2
41. The solution of 2[x] = 4{x} + x, where [·] represents greatest integer function and {·} represents fractional
part function is/are
6
(A) 0 (B)
5
5 24
(C) (D)
3 5
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [9]
Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25
43. Consider two sets A = {a, b, c}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Which of the following options is/are correct? (Where n(C)
and P(C) denote the number of elements in set C and power set of set C respectively)
44. Consider three sets A, B, C in a universal set S such that n(S) = 20, n(A) = 7, n(B) = 10, n(C) = 10,
n(AB) = 4, n(B C) = 5, n(C A) = 3 and n(A B C) = 1. Which of the following options is/are
CORRECT?
SECTION - 2
Numerical Value Type
This section contains 3 questions stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
If X and Y are two sets such that X Y has 30 elements, X has 20 elements and Y has 25 elements,
then
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [10]
Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-2 (Code-B2)_G2
SECTION – 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
2ab a2 − b2
(A) (B)
a2 + b2 a2 + b2
2ab a2 + b2
(C) (D)
a2 − b2 a2 − b2
SECTION - 4
55. If |z1| = 1, |z2| = 2, |z3| = 3 and |9z1z2 + 4z1z3 + z2z3| = 12 then |z1 + z2 + z3| equals
56. If , be the roots of x2 + px – q = 0 and , are the roots of x2 + px + r = 0, q + r 0, then
( − )( − ) is equal to
( − )( − )
x 2 − 5x + 6
57. If f(x) = then, number of natural numbers which are not in domain of f(x) is
x2 + x + 1
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 [11]