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General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part has
two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
Roll Number :
Syllabus:
Physics: Introduction to Vectors and Forces, Kinematics of a Particle
Chemistry: Stoichiometry - 1, Atomic Structure
Mathematics: Quadratic Equations, Trigonometry
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
1. A body covers one-third of the distance with a velocity v1 , the second one-third of the distance with a
velocity v2 and the remaining distance with a velocity v3 in the same direction. The average velocity is:
v1 v2 v3 3v1v2v3
(A) (B)
3 v1v2 v2v3 v3v1
v1v2 v2 v3 v3v1 v1v2 v3
(C) (D)
3 3
2. In figure, the pulley P1 is fixed and the pulley P2 is movable. If W1 W2 100 N what is the angle
A P2 P1 ? The pulleys are frictionless (the system is in equilibrium).
3. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as x at 2 bt 3 . The acceleration at time t of the particle
will be equal to zero, where t is equal to:
2a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
3b b 3b
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The ratio of average acceleration during the intervals
OA and AB is:
9. A parachutist drops first freely from an aeroplane for 10s and then parachute opens out. Now he descends
with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s 2 . If he bails out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 m/s 2 , his
velocity on reaching the ground will be :
(A) 5 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. The acceleration of a particle which moves along the positive x-axis varies with its position as shown. If
the velocity of the particle is 0.8 m/s at x = 0, the velocity of the particle at x = 1.4 is (in m/s)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is given by v (3 x 2 x )m/s (x is in meter).
Find acceleration at x = 2m.
(A) 182 m / s 2 (B) 172 m / s 2 (C) 192 m / s 2 (D) 162 m / s 2
3
16. Magnitude of vector product of two vectors is equal to th of their scalar product. What would be value
4
of resultant if both vectors are of equal magnitude 5.
(A) 90 (B) 50 (C) 15 (D) 80
(C) 20 ms 1 (D) 10 ms 1
19. Find the maximum weight W so that the block does not
slip on the surface.
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
20. A particle is projected vertically upwards with velocity 40 m/s. The displacement and distance traveled by
the particle in 6 sec is :
(A) 50 m, 100 m (B) 50 m, 110 m (C) 60 m, 110 m (D) 60 m, 100 m
SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. What is the angle (in degree) between A and B , if A and B are the adjacent sides of a parallelogram
drawn from a common point and the area of the parallelogram is AB/2?
2. The velocity-time relation of an electron starting from rest is given by v kt where k 2 m/s 2 . The
distance traversed in first 3s is _________ (in m).
3. A particle moves half the time of its journey with velocity 20 km/h. The rest of the half time it moves with
two velocities such that half the distance it covers with 30 km/h and the other half with 60 km/h. Find the
net average velocity assume straight line motion (in km/h).
4. A person standing on a tower simultaneously launches two apples, one straight up with a speed of 7 m/s
and the other straight down at the same speed. How far apart (in m) are the two apples 2 seconds after they
were thrown, assuming that neither has hit the ground ?
5. Two identical balls are shot upward one after another at an interval of 2 s along the same vertical line with
same initial velocity of 40 m/s. The balls collide n seconds after the first ball is shot. What is the value of
n?
8. A particle moves with a deceleration proportional to v . Initial velocity is v0. Find the time after which it
n
will stop is V0 then find n. [Given ‘k’ is constant of proportionality]
k
9. A ball is thrown upwards from the ground with an initial speed of u m/s. The ball is at a height of 80 m at
two times. The time interval being 6s between these two points. Find 'u'. Take g 10 m/s 2 .
10. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the function x (2t 3) 2 , where X is in
metre and 't' in seconds. The velocity of particle at t = 2 sec is_________ (in m/s).
SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Bohr’s model can explain:
(A) The solar spectrum
(B) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(C) The spectrum of any atom or ion containing one electron only
(D) The spectrum of hydrogen atom only
2. Three energy levels P, Q, R of a certain atom are such that E P E Q E R . If 1, 2 and 3 , are the
wavelength of radiation corresponding to transition R Q, Q P and R P respectively. The
correct relationship between 1, 2 and 3 is:
1 1 1 2 1 1
(A) 1 2 3 (B) (C) 3 1 2 (D)
3 1 2 3 1 2
(C) (D)
4. If 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO2 , then the number of moles of CO2 left are:
(A) 2.88 103 (B) 28.8 103 (C) 0.288 103 (D) 1.66 102
5. If the speed of an electron in the Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen is X ms 1 , then the speed of electron in 4th
orbit is:
X X X X
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 6 4 2
6. For hydrogen atom, which energy level order of orbitals is not correct?
(A) 1s < 2p (B) 2p = 2s (C) 2p > 2s (D) 2p < 3s
7. The magnetic moment of an atom is 15 B.M. The number of unpaired electrons in this atom is/are:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
8. The atomic weights of two elements X and Y are 20 and 40 respectively. If ‘a’ gm of X contains ‘b’ atoms,
how many atoms are present in ‘2a’ gm of Y?
(A) b (B) a (C) 2b (D) (a/b)
9. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons?
(A) de-Broglie hypothesis (B) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(C) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity (D) Aufbau principle
12. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope:
(A) Depends on the nature of the metal used
(B) Depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) Depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(D) Is same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
3
16. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.28g / cm . The molality of the solution is:
1
[Given that, molar mass of NaOH 40 g mol ]
(A) 1.25 m (B) 1.50 m (C) 1.67 m (D) 1.35 m
17. What transition in He ion shell have the same wave number as the first line in Balmer series of hydrogen
atom?
(A) 3 2 (B) 64 (C) 53 (D) 75
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
19. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The molality of a solution does not change with change in temperature.
Reason R : Molality depends on the mass of the solvent, not on its volume.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is incorrect
(D) A is incorrect but R is correct
SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. Calculate the mass of iron which will be converted into its oxide by the action of 36 g of steam.
(Molar mass of Fe = 56 gm/mole) [Given : Fe H 2O
Fe3O 4 H 2 ]
2. P and Q are two elements which forms P2Q3 and PQ2 . If 0.15 moles of P2Q3 weighs 15.9 g and 0.15
moles of PQ 2 weighs 9.3 g. Then, find the sum of atomic weights of P and Q.
3. 10.30 mg of O 2 is dissolved in to 1 litre of sea water of density 1.03 g/mL. The concentration of O 2 in
ppm is ________.
4. A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms 1. Its de-Broglie wavelength is 6.62 1035 m.
7. You are given a sample of hydrogen atoms in which electron in present in 6th excited state. The maximum
number of distinct spectral lines obtained in visible region when the electron comes to ground state
is________.
8. Number of waves formed by electron in third Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is ________.
9. What volume (litres) of water must be added to a 1 litre of 10 N acid solution to make it exactly 0.5 N
solution?
N
10. 0.4 g mixture of NaOH, Na 2CO3 and some inert impurities was first titrated with HCl using
10
phenolphthalein as an indicator, 17.5 mL of HCl was required at the end point. After this methyl orange
was added and titrated, 1.5 mL of same HCl required for the next end point. The weight percentage of
Na 2CO3 in the mixture is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
2
1. If log 1 (2 x 7 x 7) 0 , then find interval for x:
5
3 3 3 3
(A) 2, 2 (B) 2, 2 (C) 2 , 2
(D) 2 , 2
4 4
2. Let p and q be two positive number such that p q 2 and p q 272 then p and q are roots of the
equation:
(A) x2 2x 2 0 (B) x2 2x 8 0
(C) x 2 2 x 16 0 (D) x 2 2 x 136 0
2
3. The product of the roots of the equation 9x 18 | x | 5 0 is:
5 25 5 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 81 27 9
S15 S13
4. If and are roots of equation x 2 3 x 1 0 and S n n n ; n 1 then the value of
S14
is:
(A) +3 (B) 1 (C) –3 (D) 2
2
6. If 2 is greater than both roots of the equation x ( p 1) x p 0 then value of P is:
(A) (, 3) (B) (2, ) (C) (2, ) (D) (, 2)
2 2
7. If and are roots of the equation x 2 3x 5 0 , then the equation x 3x( x 1) 5( x 1) 0
has roots:
1 1 1
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
1 1 1 1 1
2
8. If p( x) 49x 84 x 27 then exactly one root of p( x) 0 lies between.
(A) (–1, 0) (B) (–2, 0) (C) (0, 2) (D) (1, 2)
3
9. If A B then the value of tan A tan B tan A tan B is:
4
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4
2
10. If y 12sin x 3cos x 5 then sum of max. value of y and min. value of y is:
(A) 13 (B) –11 (C) 24 (D) 2
11. If sin 1 sin 2 sin 3 .... sin 2023 2023 then find the value of
cos 1 cos 2 cos 3 ........ cos 2023 ; .
(A) 2023 (B) 2024 (C) 0 (D) None of these
1 3
13. sin( ) , and cos( ) then find the value of a b c d .
3 5
a b 2
If tan 2 .
cd 2
(A) 13 (B) 21 (C) 11 (D) 9
2
14. If y 4sin x cos x 6cos x 2 then find sum of maximum and minimum value of y.
15. The value of cos cos cos .....cos sin
2 3 4 10
2 2 2 2 210
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1024 250 2 512
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1 3
16. Find the value of .
sin10 cos10
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
17. The number of solution of the equation x 2 tan x in [0, 2] is:
2
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
1
18. The most general solution of tan 1 and cos is:
2
7 7
(A) n ; n I (B) n (1) n ; n I
4 4
7
(C) 2 n ; n I (D) None of these
4
19. Number of solution of the equation 4sin cos 2 cos 2 3 sin 3 0 in the interval
(0, 2) is:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
20. If 0 x , then the number of values of x for which sin x sin 2 x sin 3 x 0 is:
2
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2
SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
15 p
1. If p is the smallest value of x satisfying the equation 2 x x 8 , then the value of 4 is equal to:
2
2
2. If the roots of the equation x px q 0 are tan30° and tan15° then the value 2 q p is:
3. The number of values of x in the interval [0, 3] satisfying the equation 2sin 2 x 5sin x 3 0 is:
4. If p is smallest +ve value of x satisfying the equation: logcos x (sin x ) logsin x (cos x) 2 then value of
4p
is:
5. The number of distinct solution of sin 5 cos 3 sin 9 cos 7 in 0, .
2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. The number of distinct solutions of the equation, log |sin x | 2 log 1 |cos x | , in the interval [0, 2] .
2
7. If maximum value of 3cos 5sin for any real value of is M, then M 2 6 is:
6
1
8. The number of solutions of the equation |cot x | cot x in the interval [0, 2] is:
sin x
1 b
9. The value of 4 is, a 30 , then find a + b + c :
1 c
5
1
4
1
5
4 .............. to
10. If one real root of the equation 81x 2 kx 256 0 is cube of the root, then a value of | k | is: