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( EE - 01 )

QUESTION PAPER
LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION - 2008
FOR THE POST OF CHARGEMAN-GR.II (T) & (NT)

SUBJECT: GENERAL ENGG & ELECTRICAL ENGG CODE: 2.02 / 222

Sr. No. … … … … … … … … … … … … … ROLL NO.

Signature of the Invigilator … … … … … … … … … … … … … … …

Date: 19.10.2008 Duration : 3 Hours.

Time: 14:00 Hrs to 17:00 Hrs. Max. Marks : 100

Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers:
1) All Questions in Part – A & B are compulsory.
2) Each Questions in Part - A carries 1 mark and that in Part - B carries 5 marks.
3) There are four options - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question in Part - A out of which
only one is the most appropriate answer.
If (A) is correct, round on the correct option like (A) .
4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the
candidate.
5) In Part – A, for each wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted. If more than one
options are marked, it will also be considered as wrong answer.
6) Use only blue or black ball pen. Use of Pencil is not allowed.
7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached.
8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets.
9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper /
Answer sheet. If name or any other symbolic notation are found marked on the
Question paper / Answer sheet, this will render the candidate disqualified.

For Examiners only


Part - A
Correct Wrong No Total
Answers Answers Answers (80)

Part - B
Q.81 Q.82 Q.83 Q.84 Total
(5) (5) (5) (5) (20)

SUMMARY OF MARKS OBTAINED


Part - A Part - B Total
Marks (100)
(80) (20)
Obtained
( EE - 02 )

PART - A
(Each question carries 1 mark)

Q.1. Distance between points (3, –4) and (–3, 4) is:


(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12

Q.2. If x 128 ? 2, then x is:


(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

3 5 3
Q.3. The value of ? ? is:
7 6 4
17 23 43 53
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42 42 84 84

Q.4. Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 30, 36, 48 & 60 will be:
(A) 480 (B) 640 (C) 720 (D) 960

Q.5. If LCM & HCF of two numbers are 672 & 6 respectively. If one number is 42 then the
other number is:
(A) 96 (B) 126 (C) 216 (D) 316

Q.6. The length of a room is 4 m, breadth is 3 m and height is 5 m. What is the volume of
the room:
(A) 60 m3 (B) 80 m3 (C) 60 m2 (D) 80 m2

Q.7. In a school, the ratio of boys and girls is 3:2. If the number of girls in the school is 80,
what is the total strength of school ?
(A) 200 (B) 300 (C) 400 (D) 100

Q.8. (a + b) (a - b) is equal to:


(A) a2 + b2 (B) a2 + b2 + 2ab (C) a2 – b2 (D) a2 + b2 – 2ab

Q.9. The distance BC in the figure is:


A

o o
) 30 ) 45
B C D
? 1 ? ? 3?
(A) AD ?1 ? ? (B) AD ( 3 – 1) (C) AD (1 – 3 ) (D) AD ?1 ? ?
? 3? ? 2 ?

Q.10. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both
doubled, then:
(A) The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(B) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
(C) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be unchanged
(D) The resistance and the specific resistance will both remain unchanged
( EE - 03 )

Q.11. A 10 kg object collides with a stationary 5 kg object and after collision they stick together
and move forward with velocity 4 m/s. What is the velocity with which the 10 kg object
hit the second one:
(A) 4 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 6 m/s (D) 12 m/s

Q.12. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater Kinetic Energy
(K.E) ?
(A) The light body (B) Both have equal K.E
(C) The heavy body (D) Data given is incomplete

Q.13. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called:


(A) Unit stress (B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus (D) Modulus of elasticity

Q.14. The value of cos(A + B) is:


(A) cos A . cos B + sin A . sin B (B) cos A . cos B – sin A . sin B
(C) sin A . cos B + cos A . sin B (D) sin A . cos B – cos A . sin B

Q.15. A reamer is used to correct the:


(A) Size and position of drilled hole
(B) Size and roundness of drilled hole
(C) Finish and position of drilled hole
(D) Finish and size of drilled hole

Q.16. ‘Water in an overhead tank’ is an example of:


(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Mechanical energy (D) None of the above

Q.17. The unit of density in MKS system is:


(A) l b / cu. ft. (B) gms / cu. metre
(C) gram / cc (D) Kg / cu. metre

Q.18. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to
slide over the surface of the other body is known as:
(A) Static friction (B) Dynamic friction
(C) Limiting friction (D) Coefficient of friction

Q.19. The unit of permitivity of free space (Eo) is:


(A) Coulomb2 / Newton ? metre2 (B) Coulomb / Newton ? metre
(C) Newton ? metre / Coulomb2 (D) Coulomb2 / (Newton ? metre)2

Q.20. A couple produces:


(A) Translatory motion (B) Rotational motion
(C) Both translatory & rotational motion (D) None of these
( EE - 04 )

Q.21. Severity of Electric shock depends on primary variable:


(A) Voltage (B) Current (C) Power (D) Phase angle

Q.22. Which symbol indicates the danger of electric shock risk ?


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.23. The voltage stress is maximum in the cable:


(A) At the surface of the sheath (B) At the surface of the conductor
(C) At the surface of the insulator (D) At the surface of the armour

Q.24. Non-conductors whose polarization is caused by an electric field are known as:
(A) Di-electric (B) Super-conductors
(C) Semi-conductors (D) Insulators

Q.25. Heat produced in a conductor depends:


(A) Inversely on time (B) Directly on square of time
(C) Directly on time (D) Both ‘A’& ‘B’

Q.26. If potential difference across a conductor of a material of resistivity ? remains constant,


then heat produced in the conductor is proportional to:
1 1
(A) ? (B) ?2 (C) (D)
? ?

Q.27. The magnetic flux density in a air cooled coil is 10-2 wb/m2. With a cast iron core of
relative permeability 100 inserted, the flux density will become:
?
(A) 10 4 wb/m2 (B) 104 wb/m2 (C) 102 wb/m2 (D) 1 wb/m2

Q.28. A 6-pole lap-wound generator has 300 conductors; the e.m.f. induced per conductor
being 5V. The generated voltage of the generator is:
(A) 60 V (B) 150 V (C) 360 V (D) 250 V

Q.29. The potential drop across the plates of capacitor C1 in figure below is:
3V

+ -
C1 4µF C2 1µF
+ -

8V

(A) 1V (B) 2.5 V (C) 3V (D) 3.5 V


( EE - 05 )

Q.30. In the figure below, what will be the voltmeter reading ?


A
5?
80 V ~ V 5?

40?

(A) 80 V (B) 20 V (C) 40 V (D) 0V

Q.31. The following safety equipment is required for attending a breakdown on high voltage
overhead line:
(A) Discharge Rod (B) Safety belt
(C) Chain (D) All of these

Q.32. A 100 W bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a day for one week. The weekly
consumption of energy will be:
(A) 7 units (B) 0.7 units (C) 10 units (D) 70 units

Q.33. A fuse wire is made of:


(A) Copper (B) Tungsten (C) Lead-tin alloy (D) Nichrome

Q.34. Two wires A and B have same cross-section and are made of same material.
Resistance of wire A (RA) = 800 ohms and resistance of wire B (RB) = 200 ohms. The
number of times A is longer than B is:
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 8

Q.35. The armature of a D.C. machine is laminated in order to reduce:


(A) Eddy current loss (B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss (D) Frictional loss

Q.36. A DC series motor:


(A) Always runs at constant speed (B) Should always be started on load
(C) Is not suitable for high starting torque (D) Should always be started without load

Q.37. If the no load voltage of a certain generator is 220 V and the rated voltage is 200 V,
then the voltage regulation is:
(A) 1% (B) 10 % (C) 20 % (D) 9%

Q.38. Carbon brushes are preferable to copper brushes because:


(A) They have longer life (B) They reduce armature reaction
(C) They have lower resistance (D) They reduce sparking

Q.39. The deciding factor in the selection of a D.C. motor for a particular application is its
__________ characteristics:
(A) Speed-torque (B) Speed-armature current
(C) Torque-armature current (D) None of these
( EE - 06 )

Q.40. The most common method of cooling power transformer is:


(A) Air cooling (B) Oil cooling
(C) Natural cooling (D) Air blast cooling

Q.41. The induction motor has lagging power factor during:


(A) Starting only (B) Running only
(C) Both starting and running (D) None of these

Q.42. The rating of an alternator is expressed in:


(A) kW (B) HP (C) kVA (D) kVAR

Q.43. The earth wire should not be thinner than a:


(A) 18 SWG wire (B) 16 SWG wire (C) 10 SWG wire (D) 8 SWG wire

Q.44. The resistance of earth wire should be:


(A) Infinite (B) High (C) Medium (D) Very low

Q.45. The instrument which measure only A.C is:


(A) Moving iron (B) Moving coil (C) Hot wire (D) Induction type

Q.46. In electric discharge lamp, the filament is made of:


(A) Tungsten electrode (B) Carbon electrode
(C) Copper electrode (D) Zinc electrode

Q.47. The meter constant of an energy meter is 1500 rev / kWH. The disc makes 3000
revolutions in a given time, the energy consumed is:
(A) 4 kWH (B) 1 kWH (C) 3 kWH (D) 2 kWH

Q.48. Which of the following has more luminous efficiency i.e. lumen / watt is greater ?
(A) Neon bulb (B) Sodium vapour lamp
(C) Carbon arc lamp (D) Mercury vapour lamp

Q.49. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of:


(A) Switch yard (B) Transformers
(C) Alternators (D) Transmission lines

Q.50. For remote operation, circuit breaker must be equipped with:


(A) Shunt trip (B) Inverse shunt trip
(C) Time delay trip (D) Both (B) & (C)

Q.51. The full load copper loss of transformer is 1600 watt. At half the full load, its copper loss
is:
(A) 200 watt (B) 800 watt (C) 400 watt (D) 600 watt

Q.52. The top most wire in a distribution line is:


(A) Neutral wire (B) Earth wire
(C) Phase wire (D) Any of these

Q.53. Reactive power can be injected into a transmission line by using:


(A) Series capacitors (B) Shunt capacitors and reactors
(C) Synchronous capacitors (D) Any of these
( EE - 07 )

Q.54. From the resistance test carried on a transformer it was found that the resistance
of primary and secondary windings are 8 ohms and 16 ohms respectively. The
primary will be:
(A) H.V. side (B) L.V. side
(C) Cannot be determined from the test (D) Either of two may be L.V. side

Q.55. Transformers are rated in kVA instead of kW because:


(A) Load Power factor is often not known
(B) kVA is fixed where as kW depends on Load Power factor
(C) Total transformer loss depends on Volt - Ampere
(D) It has become customery

Q.56. Permanent magnets are generally made of:


(A) Aluminimum (B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron (D) Alnico alloys

Q.57. A capacitor that stores a charge of 0.5 coulombs at 10 Volts has a capacitance of:
(A) 5 farads (B) 20 farads (C) 10 farads (D) 0.05 farads

Q.58. Three capacitors of 10, 25, 50 micro farads are connected in series. What is the
total capacitance ?
(A) 6.25 ? F (B) 85 ? F (C) 8.5 ? F (D) 62.5 ? F

Q.59. The capacitance of a capacitor is not influenced by:


(A) Plate thickness (B) Plate area
(C) Plate separation (D) Nature of dielectric

Q.60. The direction of rotation of shunt motor can be reversed by interchanging:


(A) Supply terminals
(B) The polarity of field winding
(C) The polarity of armature and field winding
(D) Any of these

Q.61. Which D.C motor has approximately constant speed:


(A) Series motor (B) Cumulatively compound motor
(C) Shunt motor (D) All of these

Q.62. For which application a D.C motor is prefered over an AC motor ?


(A) Low speed operation (B) High speed operation
(C) Fixed speed operation (D) Variable speed operation
( EE - 08 )

Q.63. If e1 = A sin ? t and e2 = A sin (? t - ? ) then:


(A) e1 lags e2 by ? (B) e1 leads e2 by ?
?
(C) e2 leads e1 by ? (D) e2 lags e1 by
2

Q.64. The power taken by a 3 phase load is given by the expression:


(A) ? 3 VL IL Cos ? (B) 3 VL IL Cos ?
(C) 3 VL IL Sin ? (D) ? 3 VL IL Sin ?

Q.65. When the speed of an alternator is changed from 3600 rpm to 1800 rpm the
generated e.m.f. / phase will become:
(A) One-half (B) Twice (C) Four times (D) One-fourth

Q.66. Various methods for starting a 3-phase induction motor are available. Which
method will require six stator terminals:
(A) DOL (B) Auto transformer (C) Star-Delta (D) Rheostat

Q.67. A wave winding must go at least ___ round the armature before it closes back
where it started:
(A) Once (B) Twice (C) Thrice (D) Four times

Q.68. The internal resistance of the voltmeter must be very high in order to have:
(A) High voltage range
(B) Minimum current through the meter
(C) Maximum loading effect
(D) More current supplied by the voltage source

Q.69. Creeping is the phenomenon which occurs in:


(A) Volt meter (B) Watt meter (C) Energy meter (D) Ammeter

Q.70. A zener diode is always used in:


(A) Forward bias (B) Reverse bias
(C) Zero bias (D) None of these

Q.71. The device given in the figure is a:


E C

B
(A) NPN transister (B) PNP transistor
(C) Zener diode (D) Field effect transistor
( EE - 09 )

Q.72. What is the equivalent resistance between A & B of the given circuit:
4 ? 4 ?
vvvvvvv vvvvvvv
vvvvvvv vvvvvvv
4 ? 4 ? 4 ? 4 ?
A vvvvvvv vvvvvvv B
4 ? 4 ?
vvvvvvv vvvvvvv
vvvvvvv vvvvvvv
4 ? 4 ?

(A) 10 ? (B) 4 ? (C) 8 ? (D) 16 ?

Q.73. The expression for a NAND gate is:


(A) y = A+B (B) y = A+B (C) y = AB (D) y = AB

Q.74. The resonant frequency of R? L? C circuit can be changed:


(A) By changing the inductance only
(B) By changing inductance or capacitance
(C) By changing the resistance only
(D) None of these

Q.75. The output from a thermo couple is:


(A) mA (B) mV (C) m? (D) None of these

Q.76. The following device is used in a relaxation oscillator:


(A) UJT (B) Varistor (C) Triode (D) NAND gate

Q.77. The input impedance of the following is very high:


(A) FET (B) Junction transistor
(C) Diode (D) None of these

Q.78. In the following circuit, what is the voltage drop across R1:

4? 8?

+ R1 R2
12 V

(A) 8 Volts (B) 12 Volts (C) 4 Volts (D) None of these


( EE - 010 )

Q.79. For ACSR conductors, ACSR stands for:


(A) All Copper Standard Reinforced
(B) Aluminium Copper Steel Reinforced
(C) Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced
(D) All Copper Steel Reinforced

Q.80. In the given diagram which is the correct equation ?


(A) ?1 + ?2 + ?3 + ?4 + ?5 = 0 ?2 ?3
(B) ?1 + ?5 = ?2 + ?3 + ?4
(C) Both (A) & (B) ?1
(D) None of these
?5 ?4

PART - B
(Each question carries 5 marks)

Q.81. i) If tan A = 1, Prove that 2 sin A cos A = 1 ( Marks: 2 ½ )

ii) What is pressure? Give names of units in ( Marks: 2 ½ )


(a) FPS system
(b) CGS system
(c) MKS system

Q.82. A single phase transformer with a ratio of 6600 / 600 V has a load impedance of
(4 + j 3) ? connected across the terminals of low voltage winding. Find the power
delivered to the load ?

Q.83. In the following network, what is the value of R, ?1, ?2 & ?. Also find power consumed (P)
in the circuit when current through 4 ? resistance ?3 = 0.

?1 C
2? ?3 2?

P ?2 4? Q
A B
2? R
D
?

E = 30 V

Q.84. There is a permanent magnet moving coil instrument which gives full scale deflection at
50mV potential difference and at 10mA current.
Explain how you will use it as Ammeter 0-10A range.

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