You are on page 1of 26

JEE Main – 4 (GEN 2) | JEE - 2025

Date: 21/11/2023 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.

6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature

Syllabus:
Physics: Motion in Two Dimensions, Dynamics of a Particle
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding, States of Matter
Mathematics: Sequence and Series, Straight Line
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100


SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. A block rests on a rough plane whose inclination  to the horizontal can be varied. Which of the following
graphs indicates how the frictional force F between the block and the plane varies as  is increased?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. A dynamometer D is attached to two bodies of masses M  6kg and m  4 kg . Forces F  20 N and


f  10 N are applied to the masses as shown. The dynamometer reads:

(A) 10N (B) 20 N (C) 6N (D) 14 N

3. Two blocks of mass M1  20kg and M 2  12kg are connected by a metal rod of
mass 8 kg, the system is pulled vertically up by applying a force of 480 N as
shown. The tension at the mid-point of the rod is :
(A) 144 N (B) 96 N
(C) 240 N (D) 192 N

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 2 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
4. A horizontal rope of length y, lies on a smooth horizontal surface, is pulled by a constant horizontal force
F. What is the tension at a distance x from the end where the force applied?
F  y  x F .y F .y F .y
(A) (B) (C) (D)
y yx x y

5. Find the friction force between the blocks in the figure:

(A) 6N (B) 18N (C) 5N (D) 12N

6. In the shown mass pulley system, pulleys and string are


massless. The one end of the string is pulled by the force
F = 2mg. The acceleration of the block will be:
g
(A) (B) 0
2
(C) g (D) 3g

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 3 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
7. A cylinder of mass M and radius R is resting on two
corner edges A and B as shown in figure. The normal
reaction at the edges A and B are N A and N B . Choose
the incorrect option.
3Mg
(A) NA 
2
(B) N B  3N A
Mg
(C) NA 
2
3Mg
(D) NB 
2
8. Calculate the tension in the string shown in the figure. All the surfaces are frictionless.
(Take g  10m/s 2 )

(A) 2.5 N (B) 5N (C) 7.5 N (D) 10 N

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 4 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
9. One end of massless rope, which passes over a massless and fricitionless pulley P is tied to a hook C while
the other end is free. Maximum tension that the rope can bear is 360N. With what value of minimum safe
acceleration (in ms–2 ) can a man of 60 kg climb down the rope?

(A) 16 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8

10. A turn has a radius of 10 m. If a vehicle goes round it at an average speed of 18 km/h, what should be the
proper angle of banking? (Take g  10 ms 2 )
1 1
(A) 45° (B) tan 1 (C) 30° (D) tan 1
4 2

11. All the surfaces are smooth as shown in figure.


The acceleration of mass m relative to wedge is :
(A) g sin 
(B) g sin   a cos 
(C) g sin   a cos 
(D) a cos 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 5 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
12. In the figure shown a river of width 4km is flowing with the speed of 5km/h. A swimmer whose swimming
speed relative to the water is 4km/h, starts swimming from a point A on a bank. On the other bank B is a
point which is directly opposite to A. What minimum distance (in km) the swimmer will have to walk on
the other bank to reach the point B.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

13. Find range of projectile which is projected perpendicular to the incline plane with velocity 20 m/s as shown
in figure:

(A) 75m (B) 40m (C) 45m (D) 50m

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 6 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
14. Mass of all persons in figure, is 100 kg then find correct statement:

(A) pseudo force on A as seen by B will be 500 N


(B) pseudo force on C as seen by B will be 500 2N
(C) pseudo force on D as seen by B will be 1000 N
(D) pseudo force on B as seen by E will be 1000 N

15. The dumbbell is placed on a frictionless horizontal table. Sphere A is attached to a frictionless pivot so
that B can be made to rotate about A with constant angular velocity. If B makes one revolution in period
P, the tension in the rod is:
4 2 Md 8 2 Md
(A) (B)
p2 p2
42 Md 2Md
(C) (D)
p p

16. A particle is thrown at time t = 0 with a velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 60°


with the horizontal on an inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the
horizontal. The time when velocity of projectile becomes parallel to the incline
is (in second):
2 1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
3 3 2 3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 7 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
17. A particle is thrown with a speed u at an angle  with the horizontal. When the particle makes an angle 
with the horizontal. Its speed changes to v:
(A) v  u cos  (B) v  u cos .cos 
(C) v  u cos .sec  (D) v  u sec .cos 

18. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 ms 1 and a bomb released from it, strikes the
ground in 10 s. Angle with horizontal at which it strikes the ground will be : ( g  10 ms 2 )
1
(A) tan 1   (B) 90° (C) tan 1 (1) (D) tan 1 (5)
5

19. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose other end is


attached to the wall. An unknown force F is applied on block so
that the string makes an angle of 30° with the wall as shown in
figure. The value of F is: (Given g  10 ms 2 )
(A) 20N (B) 25N
(C) 10N (D) 15N

3
20. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times its initial speed. If the range of projectile is P
2
times the maximum height attained by it, P is equal to:
4 3
(A) (B) 2 3 (C) 4 3 (D)
3 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 8 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
1. A simple Atwood machine composed of a single pulley and two masses m1 and m2 is on an elevator.
When m1  44.7 kg and m2  45.3kg , it takes 5.0 sec for mass m2 to descend exactly one meter from

rest relative to the elevator. The acceleration of elevator is k m / sec2 . Find the value of k.

2. A box is placed in the middle of the bed of a flatbed truck and is not strapped down. The coefficient 
between the bed and the box is 0.75. If the truck is travelling at a speed of 22 m/s along a horizontal street.
22  22
The minimum stopping distance such that the box will not slide is meter. Find the value of n.
n  7.5

3. Find the acceleration of block A just after string is cut. ( g  10m/s 2 )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 9 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
T1
4. On a smooth surface two block moving with angular speed  . The ratio of tension force in string is
T2
3
. The length of both string are same. Find the value of n.
n

5. In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the acceleration of


the 1 kg mass is m/s 2 . (Take g  10 m/s 2 )

6. The maximum range of a particle with a certain speed on a horizontal plane is 6 km. Find its maximum
range in km when projected on an inclined plane with inclination 30°.

7. A student is standing on the open platform of a moving train at a speed of 10m/s. The student throws a
ball into the air along a path that, he judges to make an initial angle of 60° with the horizontal and to be in
lien with the track. The professor, who is standing on the ground nearby, observes the ball to rise
vertically. Find the height reached by the ball.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 10 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
8. The speed of a motor increases uniformly from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 second. How many revolutions
does it make in this period ?

9. The horizontal range of a projectile is R and the maximum height attained by it is H. A strong wind now
begins to blow in the direction of the motion of the projectile, giving it a constant horizontal acceleration =
g
. Under the same conditions of projection, the horizontal range is given by are R  kH . Find the value
2
of k.

10. A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point ‘C’ starting from ‘A’. He
swims with a speed of 5km/hr, at an angle  w.r.t. the river. If AB = BC = 400m. Find the value of  (in
degree):

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 11 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I : All molecules with polar bonds have non-zero dipole moment.
Statement-II : Dipole moment is a vector quantity.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

2. Match the items of columns I and II.


Column-I Column-II
3
(A) Z for ideal gas behaviour (p)
8
 Pb 
(B) Z for real gas at low pressure (q) 1  
 RT 
(C) Z for real gas at high pressure (r) 1
 a 
(D) Z for critical state (s) 1  
 RTVm 
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(A) p q s r (B) r s q p
(C) r p s q (D) p q r s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 12 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Liquefaction of an ideal gas is not possible.
Reason R: There are no intermolecular attractive forces in an ideal gas.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is not correct but R is correct
(B) A is correct but R is not correct
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

4. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: 1/4th of the initial mole of the air is expelled, if air present in an open vessel is heated from
27°C to 127°C.
Statement II: The value of the van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ is larger for ammonia than for nitrogen.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(A) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(B) Both statement I and statement II are true
(C) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(D) Both statement I and statement II are false

5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure with positive slope at 0°C.
Reason R: Even at low pressures, repulsive forces dominate in hydrogen gas at 0°C.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is not correct but R is correct
(B) A is correct but R is not correct
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 13 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
6. What are the hybridization of the carbon atoms labelled C1 and C 2 , respectively in glycine?

C1 C2 C1 C2
(A) sp 2 sp 2 (B) sp 2 sp3
(C) sp3 sp 2 (D) sp3 sp3

7. Which of the following shape is not possible for the possible values of ‘n’ in XeFn molecule?
(A) Linear (B) Square planar
(C) Trigonal planar (D) Capped octahedral

8. Which of the following xenon compound has the same number of lone pairs as in I3 ?

(A) XeO 4 (B) XeF4 (C) XeF2 (D) XeO3

9. Which of the following compound is planar and non-polar?


(A) XeO 4 (B) SF4 (C) XeF4 (D) CF4

10. Which of the following is the correct order for increasing bond angle?
(A) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3 (B) H 2 O  OF2  Cl 2O
(C) H 3Te   H 3Se   H 3S  H 3O  (D) BF3  BCl3  BBr3  BI3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 14 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
11. In which of the following sets, all the species are paramagnetic in nature?
(A) O 2 , O 22  , N 22  (B) B2 , C2 , H2 (C) O 2 , O 2 , O 2 (D) N 2 , O 2 , F2

12. The correct order of ‘S––O’ bond length is:


(A) SO 32  SO 42  SO 3 (B) SO 32  SO 3  SO 42 
(C) SO 24  SO 32  SO 3 (D) SO 24  SO 3  SO 32

13. In which of the following molecule, back bonding is present?


(A) BF3 (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) HF

14. Which of the following is not an assumption of kinetic molecular theory of gases?
(A) Gas molecules move at random with no attractive forces between them
(B) The kinetic energy of gas molecules is dependent on absolute temperature
(C) The empty space between the molecules is negligible in comparison to actual volume of molecules

(D) In collision with the walls of the container or with other molecules, energy is conserved

15. Density of gas A is twice that of B and molar mass of gas B is twice that of A under isothermal conditions.
Thus, ratio of pressure of gas A to B is:
(A) 1:6 (B) 1:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4

16. Five grams each of the following gases at 87°C and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have
the least volume?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 15 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
17. At what temperature in Celsius scale, will the volume of a fixed amount of gas at 0°C double itself,
pressure remaining constant?
(A) 300 (B) 350 (C) 273 (D) 250

18. The compressibility factor for N 2 (g) at 330K and 800 atm is 1.90 and at 570 K and 200 atm is 1.10. A

certain mass of N 2 (g) occupies a volume of 1dm3 at 330 K and 800 atm. Calculate volume occupied by
same quantity of N 2 (g ) at 570 K and 200 atm:
(A) 1L (B) 2L (C) 3L (D) 4L

19. PV vs P graph for He gas is given by which isotherm?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

20. If V is the volume of one molecule, then van der Waals’ constant ‘b’ is: [Given:
N0  Avogadro number ]
4V
(A) 4V (B) V (C) 4VN0 (D)
N0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 16 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. The dipole moment of HCl is 1.03D, if HCl bond distance is 1.26 Å, what is the percentage of ionic
character in the HCl bond? (Nearest integer)

2. A gas is found to have the formula (CO) x , the vapour density of the gas is 70. The value of x is ____.

3. A 38.62 L cylinder of Ar(g) is connected to an evacuated 1875 L tank. If the temperature is held constant
and the final pressure is 721 mmHg, what must have been the original gas pressure in the cylinder?
(Nearest integer)

4. From the given, find the number of molecules/ions in which the central atom has sp3d hybridization with
one lone pair of electrons on central atom.
XeO3 , XeO2 F2 , IF4 , SnCl5 , ClF3 , BF4

5. Calculate the number of p  d bond(s) present in SO 24 .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 17 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
6. There are some species given below.
(i) O 2 (ii) CO (iii) B2 (iv) O 2 (v) NO
(vi) He 2 (vii) C 22  (viii) CN  (ix) N 2
Total number of species which have fractional bond order:

7. A 0.50 L container is occupied by N2 (g) at 800 torr and 0°C. The container can only withstand a
pressure of 3.0 atm. What is the highest temperature (°C) to which the container may be heated? (Nearest
Integer)

8. If Boyle’s temperature for a hypothetical gas is 270K then value of its critical temperature (in Kelvin) will
be _______.

9. Temperature (in kelvin) at which average translational kinetic energy of H 2 molecule is equal to average
translational kinetic energy of N 2 molecule at 280 K is _______.

10. Pressure exerted by 10 moles of gaseous mixture of A, B and C is 10 bar. Partial pressure exerted by A
 1
and B are 3 bar and 1 bar respectively. Mass of C in the mixture is _______. (M C  2 g mol )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 18 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
1.

PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. The sum of the first and fifth term of an AP is 26 and the product of the second and fourth is 160. Then
the sum of the first six terms of the progression is:
(A) 59 or 69 (B) 69 or 87 (C) 87 or 109 (D) – 69 or 87

2. a, b, c, d are in GP are in ascending order such that a  d  112 and b  c  48. If the GP is continued
with ‘a’ as the first term, then the sum of the first six term is:
(A) 1156 (B) 1256 (C) 1356 (D) 1456
20
1
3. The sum  k 2k is equal to:
k 1
11 11 21 3
(A) 2 19
(B) 1 20
(C) 2 20
(D) 2
2 2 2 217
4. Three distinct numbers a, b, c from a GP in that order and the numbers a  b, b  c, c  a form an AP in
that order. Then the common ratio of the GP is:
1 1
(A) (B)  (C) 2 (D) 2
2 2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 19 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
2 4 1
5. If the sum of the series 25  24  23  23  …. is maximum then.
5 5 5
1
(A) last term of the series is 0 (B) last term of the series is
5
(C) number of terms of the series are 42 (D) number of terms of the series are 40

6. Let p r denote the sum of first r terms of A.P. whose first terms is r  1 and common difference is
2r  2, then p1  p2  p3 .... pn is:
2
n  n  1 n  2  n  n  1 n  3 3n  1
(A) (B)
6 12
n  n  1 n  2  3n  1 n  n  1 n  2  n  4 
(C) (D)
12 12

7. If a vertex of a triangle is (1, 1) and the middle points of two sides through it are  2, 3  and  5, 2  then
the centroid of the triangle is:
5   5  5   5 
(A)  ,3  (B)   ,3  (C)  , 3  (D)   , 3 
3   3  3   3 

8. Given the family of lines, a  3 x  4 y  6   b  x  y  2   0 where a and b are parameters. The line of
the family situated at the greatest distance from the point P(2, 3) has the equation.
(A) 4x  3 y  8  0 (B) 5 x  3 y  10  0
(C) 15 x  8 y  30  0 (D) 5x  3 y  5  0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 20 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
9. The point (–4, 5) is the vertex of a square and one of its diagonals is 7 x  y  8  0. Then the equation of
another diagonal is:
(A) 7 x  y  23 (B) x  7 y  13 (C) 7 x  y  31 (D) x  7 y  31

x y
10. If 2p is length of perpendicular from the origin to line   1, then:
a b
(A) a 2 ,8 p 2 , b 2 are in A.P. (B) a 2 ,8 p 2 , b 2 are in G.P.
(C) a 2 ,8 p 2 , b 2 are in H.P. (D) a 2 , 4 p 2 , b 2 are in G.P.

 11 2 
11. The co-ordinate of vertices A, B and C of ABC are 1,  2  ,  7, 6  and  ,  respectively. The
 5 5
measure of the interior angle A of the ABC , is:
(A) acute and lies in  75, 90   (B) acute and lies in  60, 75 

(C) acute and lies in  45, 60  (D) obtuse and lies in 120, 150 

 1 2  11 4 
12. If in triangle ABC, A  1, 10  , circumcenter    ,  and orthocenter   ,  then the ordinate
 3 3  3 3
of mid-point of side opposite to vertex A is:
11
(A)  (B) 5 (C) –3 (D) 6
3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 21 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
13. Two vertices of a triangle are  4,  3 and  2, 5  . If the orthocenter of the triangle is at (1, 2) then the
third vertex is:
(A)  33,  26  (B)  33, 26  (C)  26, 33  (D) (10, 20)

14. If the area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by the intersection of a line parallel to the x-axis and
passing through the point P(h, k) with the line y  x and x  y  2 is 4h2 , then the locus of the point P
is:
(A) 2 x    y  1 (B) 3 x    y  1
(C) 5 x    y  1 (D) 7 x    y  1

15. Point P  1, 7  lies on the line 4 x  3 y  17. Then the coordinates of the points farthest from the line
which are at 10 units from the point P are:
(A) (7, 13) and (–9, 1) (B) (5, 15) and (–1, –7)
(C) (–1, 5) and (15, –7) (D) (15, 5) and (–7, –1)

16.  
Let ( x1 , y1 ),  x2 , y 2  , x3 , y 3 and  x4 , y4  are four points which are at unit distance from the lines
4
 xi
3x  4 y  1  0 and 8 x  6 y  1  0, then the value of i 1 is equal to:
4
 yi
i 1
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 1 (D) –1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 22 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
17. The midpoint of A(0, 0) and B(1024, 2048) is A1 , midpoint of A1 and B is A2 and B is A3 and so on.
The coordinates of A10 are:
(A) (1025, 2050) (B) (1022, 2044) (C) (1023, 2046) (D) (1022, 2046)

18. A straight line is drawn through P  4, 5  to meet the axis of x and y at A and B respectively. If the
rectangle OACB is completed, then locus of C, is:
x y 5 4 4 5 x y
(A)  1 (B)  1 (C)  1 (D)  1
4 5 x y x y 5 4

19. The vertices of a triangle are  


3,1 ,  2 cos , 2 sin   and  2 sin , 2 cos   , where  R. The locus
of orthocenter of the triangle is:
2 2
(A)  x  3    y  12  4 (B)  x  3    y  2 2  4
2 2
(C)  x  3    y  12  8 (D)  x  3    y  2 2  8
20. If the points of intersection of lines L1 : y  m1 x  k  0 and L2 : y  m2 x  k  0  m1  m2  lies inside a
triangle formed by the lines 2 x  3 y  1, x  2 y  3 and 5 x  6 y  1  0, then true set of values of k are:
1 3  3 1  3  3 
(A)  3, 2  (B)  2 , 3 (C)  0, 2  (D)  2 ,0
       
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 23 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. Given that ,  are roots of the equation Ax 2  4 x  1  0 and ,  the roots or the equation of

Bx 2  6 x  1  0, such that , ,  and  are in H.P., then A  B is __________ .

2. In a triangle ABC, if A  2, 1 and 7 x  10 y  1  0 and 3x  2 y  5  0 are equations of an altitude


and an angle bisector respectively draw from B, then equation of BC is ax  by  17  0 then a  b
is_______.

3. If a, b, c are non-zero real number then the minimum value of the expression

  
 a8  4a 4  1 b 4  3b 2  1 c 2  2c  2
   equals _________ .
 a 4b 2 
 

4. The sets S1, S2 , S3 ,..... are given by

2 3 5   4 7 10   5 9 13 17 
S1    , S2   ,  , S3   , ,  , S4   , , ,  .... Then, the sum of the numbers in the
1  2 2 3 3 3  4 4 4 4 
set S25 is _____________ .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 24 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
1 1 33
5. Consider g1, g2 , g3....g n are in increasing G.P. such that   , g 2 g n 1  128 and
g1 g n 64
n
 g i  126 , then value of n is _______.
i 1

13  23 13  23  33 13  23  33  ....  153 1
6. The 1    ...   1  2  3  ...  15 is ________ .
1 2 1 2  3 1  2  3  ...  15 2

7. The sum of all natural numbers ‘n’ such that 100  n  200 and H .C .F  91, n   1 is ______ .

8. If P, Q and R are three points with co-ordinates (1, 4), (4, 5) and (m, m) respectively, then the value of ‘m’
for which PR + RQ is minimum is ___________.:

1 a b
9. If   k  2  , where a, b, c  N and a, b, c  1, 15 , then a  b  c is
k 1 k k k2 c
equal to________ .

10. Straight line y  x  2 is rotated about a point where it cuts x-axis and becomes parallel to the line
5 x  3 y  2  0, then area bounded by the new line with co-ordinates axes, is k units then 3k is equal
to____________.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 25 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

  End of 2025 | JEE Main – 4 | GEN 2   

Code A | Page 26 JEE Main - 4 GEN-2 | JEE 2025

You might also like