Phase 3

(PANINI-eSANKALP022)
IIT – JEE, 2022

PAPER II (PHASE – 1)
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 225
INSTRUCTIONS
A. Question Paper Format

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of two sections.
4. Section 1 contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is correct.
5. Section 2: contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which One
Or More Than One are correct.
6. Section 3 contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each questions has two Column (Column -I: A, B, C and D; Column
-II, : P, Q, R, S and T). Each row of first column may have one or more than one match in Column – II.
7. Section 4 contains 6 Integer Answer Type Questions ranging from 0 – 9.
B. Marking Scheme
8. For each questions in Section 1: you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and (–1) mark if no bubbles are darkened.
9. For each question Section 2: marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : + 4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : + 1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : – 2 In all other cases.
For example, if [A], [C] and [D] are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4 marks;
darkening only [A] and [D] will get +2 marks; and darkening [A] and [B] will get -2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
10. For each question in Section 3: (+2) mark for each row and no negative marking.
11. For each questions in Section 4: you will be awarded +4 marks for correct answer and no negative marking.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Session :. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
IT-2022-SANKALP022 –PH-I-PCM-P2-2
PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – 1 : (Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100
F A
N respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by force B
2000 N as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks
is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force
applied by the wall on block B is
(A) 80 N (B) 120 N
(C) 150 N (D) 100 N
2. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which one of the following graphs correctly represent the
velocity vs time?
(A)  (B) 
v v
t→
t→
(C)  (D) 
v v
t→ t→
3. The velocity of a particle is v = v 0 + gt + ft2. If its position is x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement after
unit time (t = 1) is
(A) v0 + 2g + 3f (B) v0 + g/2 + f/3 (C) v0 + g + f (D) v0 + g/2 + f
4. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t 1 and t2 be the times of
flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is proportional to
(A) R2 (B) 1/R2 (C) 1/R (D) R
5. A particle is projected horizontally in air at a height of 25 m from the ground with a speed of 10 m/s.
The speed of the particle after 2 seconds will be
(A) 10 m/s (B) 22.4 m/s (C) 25 m/s (D) 28.4 m/s
SECTION – 2: (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
6. The coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are given by x (t) = a cos (pt) and y(t) = a sin (pt)
where a, b (>a) and p are positive constants of appropriate dimensions. Then
(A) the path of the particle is a circle
(B) the velocity and acceleration of the particle are normal to each other at all time
(C) the acceleration of the particle is always directed towards a fixed point.
(D) the distance travelled by the particle in time interval t = 0 to t = /(2p) is a
7. The velocity of a particle is zero at t = 0.
(A) The acceleration at t = 0 must be zero.
(B) The acceleration at t = 0 may be zero.
(C) If the acceleration is zero from t = 0 to t = 10 s, the speed is also zero in this interval.
(D) If the speed is zero from t = 0 to t = 10 s the acceleration is also zero in this interval.
IT-2022-SANKALP022 –PH-I-PCM-P2--3
8. The position vector of a particle in a circular motion about the origin sweeps out equal area in equal
time. Its
(A) velocity remains constant
(B) speed remains constant
(C) acceleration remains constant
(D) tangential acceleration remains constant.
9. In the figure shows the displacement of a particle going along

the X-axis as a function of time. The force acting on the particle
is zero in the region
(A) AB (B) BC
(C) CD (D) DE
10. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m are connected through a

massless string and arranged as shown in the figure. Friction is
absent everywhere. When the system is released from rest
mg A B
(A) tension in the string is Fixed
2 30
mg
(B) tension in the string is
4
g
(C) acceleration of A is (D) acceleration of A is 3g/4
2
SECTION – 3: Matching Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in p q r s t
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in column I A p q r s t
have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s, t) in column II. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following B p q r s t
example. One or more entries in Column I may match with one or more entries C p q r s t
in Column II. The ORS contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to
the one shown: D p q r s t
1. Match the dimensions expressed in terms of mass M, length L, Force F, Time T and change Q
given in column I with the physical quantities given in column II.
Column – I Column - II
2 -2
(A) [ML T ] (p) Heat energy
2 -1
(B) [ML T ] (q) Surface energy
(C) [FL] (r) Angular momentum = distance  momentum
(D) [ML2Q-2] (s) Planck’s constant = energy/frequency
(t) Inductance = energy/2(current)2
2. Co-efficient of friction between the block and the surface in each of the given figure being 0.4,
match Columns-I and II: (take g = 10 m/s2)
(i) (ii) F = 2.5 N
2 kg 2 kg
(iii) F = 5N (iv) F=5N

60
2 kg 2 kg
Column-I Column-II
(A) Force of friction is zero in (p) Figure (i)
(B) Force of friction is 2.5 N in (q) Figure (ii)
(C) Acceleration of the block is zero in (r) Figure (iii)
(D) Normal reaction is 20 N in (s) Figure (iv)
SECTION – 4: (Only Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an angle 450 with the horizontal and the coefficient
of friction is . The force required to just push it up the inclined plane is 3 times the force required
to just prevent it from sliding down. If we define N = 10, then N is
2. Block A of mass 35 kg is resting on a frictionless floor. Another block B 7 kg 100 N

of mass 7 kg is resting on it as shown in the figure. The coefficient of B
static friction between the blocks is 0.5 while kinetic friction is 0.4. If a 35 kg
force of 100 N is applied to block B, the acceleration of the block A is A
n
m/s2. Find n. (g = 10 m/s2)
10
3. Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 3 kg respectively

are in contact with each other and are kept on a smooth B
A
horizontal surface as shown in the diagram. When the F1 = 15 N F2 = 10 N
2 kg 3 kg
horizontal force, F1 and F2 are applied on blocks A and B
as shown, the contact force on B by A is 13 newton. Find
.
4. Particle A starts from rest at t = 0 from x = 0 with constant acceleration to reach x=1m at t=1 s.
Particle B starts with uniform velocity at t = 0 from x = 1 m to reach x = 2m at t = 1 s. The distance
covered by particle B in the frame of reference attached to particle A from t = 0 to t = 1 sec is 1/K
meter. Then find the value of K.
5. A man can swim at a speed of 5 km/h w.r.t. water. He wants to cross a 1.5 km wide river flowing at
3 km/h. He keeps himself always at an angle of 60o with the flow direction while swimming. The
n
time taken by him to cross the river is hour. Find n.
5
6. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 m/s in 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 m/s
n
northwards. The average acceleration in this time is m / s2 . Find n.
2
Space for rough work
PART II: CHEMISTRY

1. H2O2 is reduced rapidly by Sn 2+, the products being Sn4+ and water. H2O2 decomposes
slowly at room temperature to yield O2 and water. Calculate the volume of O2 produced at
0oC and 1 atm. when 200 gm. of 10% by mass H 2O2 in water is treated with 100 ml. of 2
M Sn2+ and then the mixture is allowed to stand until no further reaction occurs.
(A) 466 L (B) 46.6 L (C) 3.66 L (D) 4.34 L
2. 0.5 g fuming sulphuric acid (oleum) is diluted with water. This solution is completely neutralised by
26.7 ml of 0.4 N NaOH. Find the percentage of free SO 3 in the sample solution.
(A) 23.72 (B) 40.72 (C) 50.72 (D) 20.72
3. By what factor the velocity of an electron in Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom will change, if principal
quantum number is doubled.
(A) Velocity is doubled (B) Velocity is halved
1
(C) Velocity reduced to (D) Velocity remains same
2
4. The correct increasing order of I.E1 values of Si, P, S and Cl is
(A) Si < P < S < Cl (B) Si < S < P < Cl
(C) Cl < S < P < Si (D) Si < Cl < S < P
5. Which of the following has highest electron affinity
(A) O (B) F−
(C) Cl− (D) O−

6. The probability of finding the electron in Px orbital is :
(A) maximum on two opposite sides of the nucleus along x-axis.
(B) zero at the nucleus.
(C) same on all the sides around the nucleus
(D) zero on the z-axis.
7. Which of the following statement are correct for the transition elements
(A) Placed from 3rd to 6th period (B) Last electron enters into (n-1) orbital
(C) exhibits variable valency
(D) General electronic configuration is (n−1)d1−10 ns0-2
8. Correct statement(s) for the reaction 2[Fe(CN)6]3− + 20H− + H2O2 → 2[Fe(CN)6]4− + 2H2O + O2
(A) H2O2 is an oxidant
(B) CN− undergoes neither oxidation nor reduction
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3− liberates electrons
(D) Fe in [Fe(CN)6]3− is reduced
9. V1 mL of KOH of normality ‘X’ and V2 mL of NaOH of normality ‘Y’ are together sufficient to
neutralize completely 100 mL of 0.1 N−HCL if V1 : V2 = 1:2 and X : Y = 2 : 1, then what fraction of
acid is neutralized by NaOH.
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.33
(C) 0.50 (D) 1/4
10. Select the correct statements

(A) No. of mole of KMnO 4 needed to react with 1 mole of SO3− − ion in acidic medium is 2/5.
+
(B) NO3− → NH 4 . The equivalent mass of NO3− ion is 7.75 g eq−1
(C) 2N − H2O2 solution is same as that of 1M − H2O2 solution in its reactions with acidified KMnO 4
(D) Amount of NaOH required to neutralize completely 100 mL of 0.15 N − N2O5 is 0.6 g.

1. Match the following:

Column – I Column – II
Velocity of an electron in a certain orbit of

(A) (1) n=4
H-atom = 0.53  106 ms−1
Kinetic energy of an electron in a certain orbit de-Broglie wavelength of the

(B) (2)
of H-atom = 1.278  10−19 J electron is of the order 10−9 m
(C) Total no. of nods in a certain orbit of He + = 3 (3) n=8
Velocity of electron in a certain orbit of Velocity of electron

(D) (4)
He+ = 0.53  106 ms −1
= 1.09  106 ms−1
Binding energy of the state is

(5)
0.85eV
2. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
(A) Cu2 S → Cu ++ + SCl2 (1) Disproportionate reaction
(B) KClO3 → KClO4 + KCl (2) n-factor = 6
molar mass
(C) K2Cr2O7 → Cr2(SO4)3 + Cr2O3 (3) Equivalent mass =
11
Two elements of the same
(D) FeS2 → Fe3+ + SO2 (4) compound shows change in
oxidation state
(5) n factor = 1.5

(both inclusive).
1. An element undergoes a reaction as shown X + 2e − → X2 − + 31.35 eV/atom. If the energy released

is used to dissociate 4 gms of H2 molecule equally into H+& H*, where H* is excited state of H atoms
where the e– travels in an orbit whose circumference is equal to 4 times its de-Broglie’s wavelength.
Determine the least no. of moles of X that would be required. [Bond energy of H 2 = 5.0
eV/molecule].
2. Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the sodium metal surface. The
kinetic energy of the fastest moving photoelectron emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. If these photons
are emitted in hydrogen atom due to the transition from energy level (n 2) to (n1), and the work
function of sodium metal is 1.82 eV, then the minimum value of (n1 + n2) is….
3. Who many of the following ions are larger in size than F−

H−, O−2, N −3, Cl−1, Na+, Mg+2, Al+3, C−4
4. The concentration of H2O2 solution expressed in % by. Volume of a “10-V solution” is.
5. 0.04658+4.342+2.32+5.6, the number of significant figures in the given sum is _________
O O
[(NH3)4 M ++
6. M (NH3)4] , the oxidation
O O
State of of M is ______________.
(assume M is transition metal and ammonia is bonded with metal through coordinate bond)
PART III: MATHEMATICS

1. If log b a. log c a + log a b. log c b + log a c. log b c = 3 (where a, b, c are different positive real numbers
 1 ), then find the value of abc.
(A) abc=2 (B) abc=3 (C) abc=4 (D) abc=1
2. The equation of curve through point (1, 0) which satisfies the differential equation
( )
1 + y 2 dx − xydy = 0 is:
(A) x 2 + y2 = 4 (B) x 2 − y 2 = 1 (C) 2x 2 + y 2 = 2 (D) none of these
x tan 2 x − 2 x tan x
3. lim is
x →0 (1 − cos 2x )2
1 1
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) (D) −
2 2
d2y dy
4. If y = e ax sin bx then − 2a + a 2 y is
dx 2 dx
(A) − a2y (B) − b 2 y
(C) −ay (D) − by
5 If tan  − tan  = x and cot  − cot  = y then value of tan ( − ) is equal to
xy(x + y )
1 1 xy
(A) + (B) x+y (C) (D)
x y x+y
6. If (x 1 , y1 ) and (x 2 , y 2 ) are the solution of the system of equation log 225 (x ) + log 64 (y ) = 4 ,
log x (225) − log y (64) = 1 , then log 30 (x 1 y1 x 2 y 2 ) . Is divisible by
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
, (a  c ) ; y = a cos 2 x + 2b sin x cos x + c sin 2 x and z = a sin 2 x − 2b sin x cos x + c cos 2 x ,

2b
7. If tan x =
a −c
then
(A) y = z (B) y+z = a+c (C) y−z = a −c (D) y − z = (a − c )2 + 4b 2
log x log y log z

8. If = = , then which of the following is true
b−c c−a a −b
(A) xyz = 1 (B) x a y b z c = 1
(C) x b +c y c+a z a + b = 1 (D) xyz = x a y b z c
9. If cos 20 o = k and cos x = 2k 2 − 1 , then the possible values of x between 0 o and 360 o are
(A) 120 o (B) 140 o
(C) 40 o (D) 320 o
10. If A, B, C are angles of triangle, then which of the followings is/are correct:
 B A−C
(A) sin  A +  = cos  (B) sin (A + 2B + 3C ) = sin (C − A )
 2  2 
 A + B C sin B + sin C A
(C) tan  = cot (D) = cot
 2  2 cos B + cos C 2
1. COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
sin x
(A) lim (1) 1
+
x →0 sin x
log e cos x
(B) lim (2) 120
x →0 x2
tan 3 x − 3 tan x
(C) lim (3) −24
  
x→ cos x + 
3  6
lim  x − x 2 + x 
1
(4) −
(D) x →   2
(5) 0
2. In Column I some expressions are given and in Column II another expressions are given. Match
the expressions of column I with appropriate expressions given in column II. Each statement of
Column I may match with more than one expression in Column II.
Column I Column II
 3 
cos ec 2  − x  + tan (7  + x ) tan (9 − x )
 3   2 
(A) cos − x (1)
 2   3 
− sin  − x
 2 
 7     5 
tan (3 − x ) cos(5 + x ) tan − x cos + x  cos ec + x
(B)  2  (2)  2   2 
 3  − sec( + x )
tan + x
 2 
 7   5   5 x 
− cos + x  cos ec(15 − x ) tan  + cot 2  − 
(C)  2  (3)  4   2 2
cos(3 + x )   x
tan  − tan 2   + 
4  2
 
cos ec 2 x − tan 2  + x 
2   5 
(D) (4) cot + x  cos(2 − x )
 x  x  2 
2 sin  −  cos − 
4 2 4 2
(5) 0

(both inclusive).
and log c d = . If (a − c ) = 9, find the value

3 5
1. Let a, b, c, d are positive integers such that log a b =
2 4
of (b − d ) / 31
2. The number of solutions of 2 log6 (−4 x ) = log 7 2401 is
3
 4
( ) (
5
 log 2 x 2 + log 2 x − 
4 =
)
3. Number of non integral solution of x 2 is
 3    3  
4. Find value of cos + x  cos(2 + x )cot − x  + cot (2 + x )
 2    2  
5. If 2 sin 2  + 3 cos  sin 2 + 4 cos 2  sin 3 = a + b sin  + c sin 2  + d sin 3  + e sin 4  + f sin 5  is an
f
identity, then the value of ‘ ’ is
4
6. The area of the region bounded by y = x − 1 and y = 1 is
(PANINI-eSANKALP022)
IIT – JEE, 2022

PAPER II (PHASE – 1)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS (PART-I)
SECTION – 1
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. B
SECTION – 2
6. A, B, C
7. B, C, D
8. B, D
9. A, C
10. B, D
SECTION – 3
1. (A) - (p, q), (B) - (r, s), (C) → (p, q), (D) → (t)
2. (A) → (p, r), (B) → (q, s), (C) → (p, q, r, s), (D) → (p, q)
SECTION – 4
1. 5
2. 8
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3
6. 1
CHEMISTRY (PART-II)
SECTION – 1
1. D
200  10 1
1. Equivalents of H2O2 intially =   2 = 1.176
100 34
2  2  100
Equivalents of Sn2+ = = 0 .4
1000
Equivalents of H2O2 left = 1.176 − 0.4 = 0.776
0.776
Moles of H2O2 left = = 0.388
2
0.388  1 
Moles of O2 produced = H 2 O 2 → H 2 O + O 2  = 0.194
2  2 
0.194  0.082  293
Volume of O2 = = 4.66 L
1
2. D
2. Oleum consists of SO3 and H2SO4
Let the mass of SO3 in the given sample be x gm and mass of H2SO4 in the given sample = (0.5 –
x) gm
80
Eq. mass of SO3 = = 40
2
x
No. of g equivalents of SO3 =
40
2NaOH + SO3 ⎯→ Na2SO4 + H2O
2NaOH + H2SO4 ⎯→ Na2SO4 + 2H2O
98
Eq. mass of H 2SO4 = = 49
2
( 0 .5 − x )
No. of gm equivalents of H 2SO4 =
49
x ( 0 .5 − x )
Total no. of gm equivalents = +
40 49
0 .4
26.7 ml of 0.4 N NaOH contain no. of eq. NaOH = × 26.7
1000
0.4  26.7 49 x + ( 40  0.5 − 40 x )
Thus, =
1000 40  49
0.9328
x= = 0.1036
9
0.1036
% of free SO3 =  100 = 20.72
0 .5
3. B
4. B
5. A
SECTION – 2
6. A, B
7. A, B, C, D
8. B, D
9. C
10. A, B, C, D
SECTION – 3
1. (A)→(1, 2, 5); (B)→(1, 2, 5) ; (C)→(1, 4) ; (D)→(2, 3, 5)
2. (A)→(2, 4); (B)→(1, 5) ; (C)→(2) ; (D)→(3, 4)
SECTION – 4
1. 2
2. 6
3. 5
4. 3
5. 3
6. 3
MATHEMATICS (PART-III)
SECTION – 1
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. C
SECTION – 2
6. A,C
7. B, C
8. A, B, C, D
9. C, D
10. A,B,C,D
SECTION – 3
1. (A) → 1; (B) → 4, (C) → 3, (D) → 4
2. (A) → 2, 4; (B) → 2, 4; (C) → 1,3; (D) → 1, 3
SECTION – 4
1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 1
5. 4
6. 1

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(PANINI-eSANKALP022)

IIT – JEE, 2022

A. Question Paper Format

Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Session :. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

9. In the figure shows the displacement of a particle going along

10. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m are connected through a

(iii) F = 5N (iv) F=5N

2. Block A of mass 35 kg is resting on a frictionless floor. Another block B 7 kg 100 N

3. Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 3 kg respectively

PART II: CHEMISTRY

(A) 466 L (B) 46.6 L (C) 3.66 L (D) 4.34 L

(A) 23.72 (B) 40.72 (C) 50.72 (D) 20.72

(A) Velocity is doubled (B) Velocity is halved

(A) Si < P < S < Cl (B) Si < S < P < Cl

(C) Cl < S < P < Si (D) Si < Cl < S < P

5. Which of the following has highest electron affinity

(C) Cl− (D) O−

SECTION – 2: (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

(C) exhibits variable valency

(D) General electronic configuration is (n−1)d1−10 ns0-2

(A) H2O2 is an oxidant

(B) CN− undergoes neither oxidation nor reduction

(C) [Fe(CN)6]3− liberates electrons

(D) Fe in [Fe(CN)6]3− is reduced

10. Select the correct statements

SECTION – 3: Matching Type

1. Match the following:

Velocity of an electron in a certain orbit of

Kinetic energy of an electron in a certain orbit de-Broglie wavelength of the

(C) Total no. of nods in a certain orbit of He + = 3 (3) n=8

Velocity of electron in a certain orbit of Velocity of electron

Binding energy of the state is

2. Match the following:

(A) Cu2 S → Cu ++ + SCl2 (1) Disproportionate reaction

(B) KClO3 → KClO4 + KCl (2) n-factor = 6

(5) n factor = 1.5

SECTION – 4: (Only Integer Value Correct Type)

1. An element undergoes a reaction as shown X + 2e − → X2 − + 31.35 eV/atom. If the energy released

3. Who many of the following ions are larger in size than F−

5. 0.04658+4.342+2.32+5.6, the number of significant figures in the given sum is _________

PART III: MATHEMATICS

log x (225) − log y (64) = 1 , then log 30 (x 1 y1 x 2 y 2 ) . Is divisible by

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

, (a  c ) ; y = a cos 2 x + 2b sin x cos x + c sin 2 x and z = a sin 2 x − 2b sin x cos x + c cos 2 x ,

log x log y log z

SECTION – 4: (Only Integer Value Correct Type)

and log c d = . If (a − c ) = 9, find the value

2. The number of solutions of 2 log6 (−4 x ) = log 7 2401 is

6. The area of the region bounded by y = x − 1 and y = 1 is

IIT – JEE, 2022

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