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JEE
Weekly Test - 02 Advanced
DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATED: 13/08/2023 M. MARKS: 180
Topics covered
Physics : Newton’s Laws of Motion, Friction
Chemistry : Gaseous state (Ideal & Non Ideal) & Thermodynamics till First Law of Thermodynamics.
Mathematics : Complex number-I, Linear Inequalities, Fundamental Principle of Counting.
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 51 questions. The maximum marks are 180.
SECTION-1
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.
SECTION-2
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SECTION-3
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen
• virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
SECTION-4
• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
Ve kg/sec
(ve + gt) ve
(A) The magnitude of acceleration of the system (A) (B)
(2M − t) (2M − t)
is 2 m/s2 and there is no slipping between
block A and block B gt μ(ve - gt)
(C) (D)
(B) The magnitude of friction force between (2M − t) (2M - μt)
block A and block B is 36 N
(C) Acceleration of block C is 3 m/s2 5. In the arrangement shown in the figure, mass of
(D) Tension in the string connecting block B and the block B and A is 2m and m respectively.
block D is 12 N Surface between B and floor is smooth. The block
B is connected to the block C by means of a string-
2. Refer the system shown in the figure. Block is pulley system. If the whole system is released,
sliding down the wedge. All surfaces are then find the minimum value of mass of block C
frictionless. Find correct statement(s) so that A remains stationary w.r.t. B. Coefficient of
friction between A and B is μ.
2
1 l
[4]
SECTION-4 16. At t = 0, a force F = at2 is applied to a small body
Matrix Match Type Questions: (14-17) of mass m at an angle resting on a smooth
14. A block of mass m is put on a rough inclined plane of horizontal plane.
inclination , and is tied with a light thread shown.
Inclination is increased gradually from = 00 to =
90°. Match the columns according curve. (The
quantity plotted is taken on Y-axis) List-I List-II
P Velocity of the 1 mg 2
body at the moment 12a sin tan
it breaks off the
plane is
List-I List-II Q The distance travelled 2 mg
P Tension in the thread 1 by the body before a sin
versus breaking off the plane
is
Q Normal reaction 2
R Its acceleration at 3
between the block and mg 3
the time of breaking
the incline versus 9a tan 2 sin
off the plane is
R Friction force between 3
the block and the S Time at which it 4 g tan
incline versus breaks off the plane
S Net interaction force 4 is
between the block and 5 g cot
the incline versus P Q R S
P Q R S (A) 2 3 1 4
(A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 3 1 5 2
(C) 1 4 3 2 (D) 1 5 2 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
17. Configuration of L shaped block and two other
15. Velocity of three particles A, B and C varies with blocks are shown. System is set free to move. At
( ) (
time t as, vA = 2tiˆ + 6jˆ m/s; vB = 3iˆ + 4jˆ m/s; ) any moment, match the following parameters. (g =
10 m/s2)
(
and vC = 6iˆ + 4tjˆ ) m/s. Regarding the pseudo
[5]
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-1 (A) 45 J heat flows into the system along ADB,
One or More than One Correct type Question (18-20): if work done by system is 15J.
18. Few gases are filled in a container as shown in (B) 65 J heat flows out of the system if system
diagram and allowed to attain equilibrium. returned from B to A along curved path and
work done on the system is 35 J.
(C) 45 J heat flows out of the system along
ADB, if work done by system is 15J.
(D) UB – UA = 30 J (where U refers to internal
energy)
SECTION-2
Select the correct option(s). Only one option correct Type Questions (21-24)
(A) The distance of movable spm from right end 21. HCl reacts with NH3 to form NH4Cl (s) when
is 40 cm after equilibrium is attained. partition "X" is removed (100 % yield). The
(B) The length of compartment containing Ne difference in mercury level in two columns of A
300 and B manometer after the removal of partition
will be cm after equilibrium is are (in cm).
13
Given : Patm = 76 cm Hg ; Assuming no change in
attained.
temperature.
(C) The moles of H2 in compartment II will be
14
3
(D) The moles of O2 in compartment II will be
7.
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23. Berthelot proposed the following empirical
relation to explain the real behaviour of the real
gases:
a
P (Vm b) RT
TVm2
If the Berthelot equation of state be one of the
forms of virial equation for 1 mole real gas is as
under:
A B 27. A container is divided into two parts in the ratio 1 :
PV RT 1 ...
V V2 3 by a fixed semi permeable membrane (SPM)
where A, B are constants which are known as (which permits movement of NO2 only) as shown.
second & third virial coefficients respectively. At temperature 'T' Kelvin, chamber I consists of
Then what will be the correct value of Boyle’s
undissociated N2O4 at a pressure of 20 mm and
temperature (TB), the temperature at which real
gas behave as an ideal gas? chamber II contains small amount of liquid H2O.
a b The chambers are now heated to the temperature
(A) (B) '1.2 T' Kelvin at which N2O4 dissociates by 50%.
Rb aR
aR a
(C) (D)
b Rb
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30. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a very 33. Match the list:
small tube having a stop cock. Bulb A has a List-I List-II
volume of 100 cm3 and contained the gas, while
(P) At constant volume if (1) Increase
bulb B was empty. On opening the stop cock, the
pressure of a given sample
pressure fell down to 40% at constant of ideal gas is increased
temperature. The volume of the bulb B must be then its kinetic energy will
(in cm3)
(Q) If in a rigid closed vessel (2) Decrease
pressure is increased then
SECTION-4
mean free path will.
Matrix Match Type Question (31-34):
(R) On changing pressure of (3) Remain
31. 6 litre H2O is placed in a closed room of volume
gas at moderate same
827 L at the temperature of 300 K. If vapour
temperature, its
pressure of liquid water is 22.8 mm of Hg at 300 K
compressibility factor
and its density is 1 g/cm3. may
[Given : R = 0.0821 atm L mol–1 K–1, Assuming
(S) On increasing (4) Increase
volume of liquid water to be constant ]
temperature, fraction of or
List-I List-II
molecules having most Decrease
(P) Mass of H2O in gaseous form (1) 6 probable speed will
(in gm)
(A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
(Q) Moles of H2O in gaseous state (2) 18
(in moles) (B) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(R) Approximate amount of water (3) 3 (C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1
left in liquid state (in kg) (D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(S) Total number of moles of all (4) 1
atoms in vapour form 34. Match the entries in list-I with entries in list-II and
(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3 then pick out correct options.
(B) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 List-I List-II
(C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
(P) 1 (1)
(D) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4 vs P for ideal gas
V2
at constant T and n.
32. Match the list :
List-I List-II
(Q) 1 (2)
(P) For CH4 gas at 500 (1) Compressibility V vs for ideal gas
T
atm and 27°C factor(z) 1 at constant P and n.
(Q) For CO2 gas at (2) Repulsive forces
0.01 atm and at are dominating (R) log P vs log V for ideal (3)
Boyle's gas at constant T and
temperature n.
(R) For NH3 gas at (3) PVm = RT
critical point (1 (S) (4)
1
mole) V vs for ideal gas
P2
(S) 1 mol of He(g) in (4) RT a at constant T and n.
P
1 L vessel at room 2b 9b2
temperature
(A) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4 (A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
(B) P → 1, 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 1, 4 (B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
(C) P → 1, 2; Q → 3; R → 1, 4; S → 1, 2 (C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4 (D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
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PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-1 SECTION-3
One or More than One Correct Type Questions (35–37) Non Negative Integer Type Questions (42-47)
35. If all the three roots of az3 + bz2 + cz + d = 0 42. If complex number 𝑧(𝑧 ≠ 2) satisfies the
have negative real parts (a, b, c, d R), then 16
equation 𝑧 2 = 4𝑧 + |𝑧|2 + |𝑧|3 then the value of
(A) ab > 0 (B) bc > 0
(C) ad > 0 (D) bc > ad |𝑧|4 is
36. Solution set of inequality x − 2 3− x 43. Number of four digit positive integers, if the
product of their digit is divisible by 3, is k then
consists of :
sum of digits in k is
(A) Exactly four integers
(B) Exactly five integers
44. If the complex numbers 𝑥 and 𝑦 satisfy 𝑥 3 −
(C) Two prime natural number
𝑦 3 = 98𝑖 and 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 7𝑖 then 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏
(D) One prime natural number
where 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅. The value of (𝑎 + 𝑏)/3 equals
37. If a 0, then the inequation x − a + x + a b
45. Let 𝑍1 = (8 + 𝑖) sin 𝜃 + (7 + 4𝑖) cos 𝜃 and
(A) Has no solutions if b 2 a 𝑍2 = (1 + 8𝑖) sin 𝜃 + (4 + 7𝑖) cos 𝜃 are two
complex numbers. If 𝑍1 . 𝑍2 = 𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏 where
(B) Has a solution set − , if b 2 a
b b
2 2 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅 . Then the greatest value of (𝑎 +
b b 𝑏)∀𝜃 ∈ 𝑅, is
(C) Has a solution set − , if b 2 a
2 2
(D) All above 46. Number of integers satisfying
2 x − 3 + x + 5 x − 8 is
SECTION-2
Single Correct Type Questions (38-41) 47. If 𝑥 = 𝜔 − 𝜔2 − 2 , then the value of 𝑥 4 +
38. The roots of the cubic equation(𝑧 + 𝑎𝑏)3 = 𝑎3 , 3𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 11𝑥 − 6 is (where 𝜔 is cube root
such that 𝑎 ≠ 0, represent the vertices of a of unity)
triangle of sides of length
1
(A) |𝑎𝑏| (B) √3 |𝑎| SECTION-4
√3
(C) √3 |𝑏| (D) |𝑎| Matrix Match Type Questions (48–51)
48. If z = cos + i sin ,0 , then argument of
39. The number of ordered pairs (m, n) where m, n 6
{1, 2, 3,…, 50}, such that 6m + 9n is a multiple of List I List II
5 is (P) 1 + z3 (1)
(A) 1250 (B) 2500 2 −
2
(C) 625 (D) 500 (Q) 1 – z4 (2)
−
2 2
40. If |𝑧| < √2 − 1, then |𝑧 2 + 2𝑧 cos 𝛼 | is (R) z3 + 1 (3) 3
(A) Less than 1
1 − z4 2
(B) √2 + 1
(S) z4 −1 (4)
(C) √2 − 1 +
(D) None of these z3 + 1 2 2
(5)
−
41. Number of integers satisfying 2 2
x − 2 − 3 4 5 − x is (A) (P)→(4); (Q)→(1); (R)→(2); (S)→(5)
(A) 3 (B) (P)→(1); (Q)→(2); (R)→(4); (S)→(5)
(B) 4 (C) (P)→(3); (Q)→(1); (R)→(4); (S)→(4)
(C) 5 (D) (P)→(3); (Q)→(1); (R)→(2); (S)→(4)
(D) 6
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49. Let λ be the sum of digits of the number of ways 51. Let |z1| = 1 and on |z2| = 2
all the letters of the word REDUCTION can be List - I List- II
arranged under given conditions. (P) Maximum value of |z1 + z2| (1) 8
List I List II
(P) If consonants and vowel occupy (1) 3 (Q) Minimum value of |z1 – z2| (2) 1
the same relative positions as in (R) Minimum value of |2z1 + 3z2| (3) 4
the original word then λ is
(S) Maximum value of |z1 – 2z2| (4) 5
(Q) If first, middle and last positions (2) 6
are occupied by consonants then,
(5) 3
then λ is
(R) If words neither start with vowel (3) 9 (A) (P)→(5); (Q)→(1); (R)→(2); (S)→(4)
nor end with consonants, then λ is (B) (P)→(5); (Q)→(2); (R)→(3); (S)→(4)
(S) If consonant and vowel occur (4) 18 (C) (P)→(1); (Q)→(2); (R)→(3); (S)→(5)
alternatively but vowel appear in (D) (P)→(5); (Q)→(2); (R)→(1); (S)→(2)
alphabetical order, then
λ is
(5) 15
(A) (P) – (2), (Q) – (3), (R) – (1), (S) – (4)
(B) (P) – (2), (Q) – (4), (R) – (5), (S) – (1)
(C) (P) – (4), (Q) – (4), (R) – (2), (S) – (5)
(D) (P) – (4), (Q) – (3), (R) – (3), (S) – (1)
(1 + i )5 (1 + )
(P) 2 (1) π
3i
Z=
−2i ( − 3 + i )
(Q) 6 6 (2) 7
Z = sin + i 1 + cos −
5 5 18
is
(R) 11 (3) 9
Z = 1 + cos
9 10
11
+i sin
9
(S) Z = sin x sin(x – 60°) sin(x + (4) 5
−
12
60°) where x 0,
3
(5) 0
(A) (P)→(4); (Q)→(3); (R)→(2); (S)→(1)
(B) (P)→(3); (Q)→(2); (R)→(4); (S)→(5)
(C) (P)→(5); (Q)→(2); (R)→(4); (S)→(1)
(D) (P)→(2); (Q)→(4); (R)→(1); (S)→(3)
PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4
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