2025 - JEE Advanced - 1 - Paper - 1

JEE Advanced - 1 | Paper - 1 | JEE 2025 (Gen -1 & 2)
Date: 28/1/2024 Maximum Marks: 180
Timing: 10:00 AM to 1:00 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours
General Instructions
1. The question paper consists of 3 Subjects (Subject I: Physics, Subject II: Chemistry, Subject III: Mathematics).
Each Part has four sections (Section 1, Section 2, Section 3 and Section 4).
2. Section 1 contains 3 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
Section 2 contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
Section 3 contains 4 Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II. FOUR options are given in each
Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Section 4 contains 6 Non-Negative Integer Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE
INTEGER.
3. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code, Roll
No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
MARKING SCHEME
SECTION – 1 | (Maximum Marks: 12)
 This section consists of Three (03) Questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen, and it is a
correct option
Zero Mark: 0 if none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks: –2 In all other cases.

 This section contains Four (04) Multiple Choice Questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

 This section contains Four (04) Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II.
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of
these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

 This section contains SIX (06) Questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
VMC | JEE Advanced-1 | JEE 2025 2 Paper – 1 | Gen – 1 & 2

SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 60 MARKS
SECTION-1
This section consists of 3 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
  
1. The resultant R of two vectors A and B makes an angle 30° with vector A , and an angle 45° with

vector B . Which of the following option(s) is (are) correct?
   1 
(A) | A | 2 | B | (B) | A | |B|
3
 1  1   3  1 
(C) | R | | A |  | B| (D) | R | | A|  |B|
2 2 2 2
2. A long spring is kept vertical with its lower end attached to the ground and
the upper end free. A block is released above the spring so that it strikes the
top of spring after falling through a distance of 40 cm as shown. As the block
compresses the spring, assume that the spring remains always vertical. Mass
of the block is 1 kg and spring constant is 100 N/m. Which of the following
option(s) is (are) correct? (Take g  10 m/s 2 ) .
(A) Maximum compression of the spring is 10 cm
(B) Maximum compression of the spring is 40 cm
(C) Maximum velocity of the block is 2 2 m/s
(D) Maximum velocity of the block is 3 m/s
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3. In the figure shown, a block A of mass m lies on a block B of mass 2m which is kept on a rough horizontal
surface. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 2 and that between B and surface is  . If a time
varying horizontal force F = at starts acting on B at t = 0. [Where a is a positive constant and t is time].
Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
3mg
(A) Time after which sliding starts between B and surface is
a
5mg
(B) Time after which sliding starts between B and surface is
a
6mg
(C) At t  , acceleration of A and B are equal
a
9mg
(D) Time after which sliding starts between A and B is
a

SECTION-2
This section consists of 4 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
4. Two identical strings with fixed ends separated by height h have their other ends tied to a body P of mass
m as shown in figure. When the body rotates with uniform angular speed 2 2 g / h in a horizontal plane
about the vertical axis the ratio of tensions (T1 / T2 ) in the strings is:
3 5 2 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 5 2
5. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial velocity V0 . Assume pressure is constant
throughout the stream of water and the flow is steady, find the distance from the tap at which cross-
sectional area of stream is half of the cross-sectional area of stream at the tap :
(A) V02 / 2 g (B) 3V02 / 2 g (C) 2V02 / g (D) 5V02 / 2 g

6. A particle P is moving at 2 2 m/s towards north-east and a particle Q is moving at 1 m/s towards east. At
a particular instant, Q is at a distance D due east of P. If velocity of both particles remain constant, then the
minimum distance between them in their motion is :
D 2 2D 2D
(A) D (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5
7. A cylinder of mass M = 2 kg is placed on two parallel rough rails inclined at an angle   37o to the
horizontal (side view shown in the figure). A load of mass m is suspended from a light inextensible cord
wound on the cylinder. If the system is in equilibrium, then m is equal to:
(A) 2 kg (B) 3 kg (C) 8 kg (D) 1.2 kg

SECTION-3
Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
8. In the given system, when the ball of mass m is released, it will swing down the dotted arc. A nail is
located at a distance d vertically below the point of suspension. Match List-I with List-II. (Take
g  10 m/s 2 )
List-I List-II
Ball will swing completely around the circle
(I)   60, d  0.6 l (P)
centered along the nail
Ball will not be able to swing the complete
(II)   53, d  0.6 l (Q)
circle centered along the nail.
41 Tension in string just after it touches the nail is
(III)   60, d  l (R)
50 3.5mg
41 Tension in string just after it touches the nail is
(IV)   53, d  l (S)
50 3mg
(A) I-P, R; II-Q, S; III-P; IV-Q (B) I-Q; II-Q; III-P; IV-P
(C) I-Q, R; II-Q, S; III-P; IV-Q (D) I-Q, R; II-Q, S; III-Q; IV-Q

9. Two blocks A and B of mass m1  2 kg and m2  1 kg are arranged with a fixed inclined plane and ideal,
massless pulley and string as shown. The angle   sin 1 (0.6) . The coefficient of friction between the
plane and block A is  . The system is released from rest. Match each possible value of  in List-I to the
correct outcome from List-II. (Take g  10 m/s 2 )
LIST-I LIST-II
(I)   0.05 (P) The blocks are in equilibrium
(II)   0.1 (Q) The blocks move with acceleration 0.4 m/s 2 such that block B moves up
(III)   0.2 (R) The blocks move with acceleration 0.53 m/s 2 such that block B moves down
(IV)   0.25 (S) The blocks move with acceleration 0.13 m/s 2 such that block B moves up
(A) I-Q, II-S, III-R, IV-P (B) I-Q, II-S, III-P, IV-P
(C) I-R, II-R, III-Q, IV-P (D) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-Q

10. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius a around a spherical planet of uniform density  and
radius R. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(I) The time period of the satellite is proportional to (P)  1/2 3/2 3/2
R a m0
(II) The force on the satellite is proportional to (Q) 1R 3a 2 m1
(III) The kinetic energy of the satellite is proportional to (R) 1/2 R 3/2 a3/2 m0
(IV) The total energy of the satellite is proportional to (S) 1R 3a 1m1
(A) I-R; II-S; III-Q; IV-S (B) I-R; II-Q; III-S; IV-S
(C) I-P; II-S; III-Q; IV-Q (D) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-S
11. Match List-I with List-II for correct values of moment of inertia.
List-I List-II
5
(I) Moment of inertia of solid sphere of radius R about any tangent. (P) MR 2
3
7
(II) Moment of inertia of hollow sphere of radius (R) about any tangent. (Q) MR 2
5
1
(III) Moment of inertia of circular ring of radius (R) about it diameter (R) MR 2
4
1
(IV) Moment of inertia of circular disc of radius (R) about any diameter (S) MR 2
2
(A) I-Q; II-P; III-S; IV-R (B) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-R
(C) I-Q; II-P; III-R; IV-S (D) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S

SECTION-4
This section consists of 6 NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER Type Questions. The answer to each questions is a Non-
Negative Integer.
1. Acceleration due to gravity is one-fourth of that on the surface of the earth at a height h above the surface
x
and also at depth d below the surface. The ratio d/h is , where x is __________.
4
2. A ball of mass 2kg is thrown vertically upwards from ground with a speed of 24 m / s. Assume that the air
resistance produces a constant retarding force of 4N throughout the motion. Find the kinetic energy
(in J ) with which the ball returns to ground. ( g  10m / s 2 ) .
3. A particle is projected from ground at an angle of 60 with horizontal with speed 20 m/s. Find the radius of
curvature of the path of the particle when its velocity makes an angle of 45° with horizontal. Round off
2
your answer to nearest integer. ( g  10m / s ) .

4. A circular hole of radius 10 cm is made in the base of a cylindrical container of
radius 20 cm and height 10cm. A cylindrical pipe of radius 10 cm is inserted in
the hole and the apparatus thus formed has a total mass of  kg. It is then kept
inverted on a plain horizontal surface and water is poured into it. Assume that
there is no leakage of water from bottom or the joint. The height h (as shown) of
100
the water level when the apparatus gets lifted off the surface is cm. Find h.
h
(Density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 )
5. A ball moving with a speed of 9 m/s collides with another identical ball at rest. After the collision, the
direction of each ball makes an angle of 30° with the original direction. The coefficient of restitution for
1
this collision is , where n is____.
n
6. A rod of mass M and length L is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. A particle of mass ‘m’ travelling
along the surface hits at one end of the rod with a velocity ‘u’ in a direction perpendicular to the rod. The
m  1
collision is completely elastic. After collision, particle comes to rest. The ratio of masses   is . The
M  x
value of ‘x’ will be_____.

SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 60 MARKS
SECTION-1
1. Which of the following properties may have positive value of H ?

(A) Lattice enthalpy (B) Hydration enthalpy
(C) Electron gain enthalpy for noble gases (D) Ionization enthalpy
 
2. Which of the following is correct about the Li and H ?
(A) H  is larger in size than Li 
(B) Li  is a better reducing agent than H 

(C) It requires more energy to remove an electron from Li than from H 
(D) Both are isoelectronic species
3. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:

2
(A) The probability density ( ) for a hydrogen atom is zero at r = 0
(B) In the hydrogen atom, orbitals with the same quantum number have same energies
(C) The energy of a given orbital with same principal quantum number decreases as the atomic number
‘Z’, increases
(D) For a given atomic number, the configuration having the maximum number of parallel spins is of
the lowest energy than any other arrangement arising from the same configuration

SECTION-2
4. Hydrogen and oxygen gas are combined in a reaction vessel and reacted completely to form water. What
volumes of gases (at STP) will give the greatest mass of water?
(A) 1.0 L H 2 and 4.0 L O 2 (B) 2.0 L H 2 and 3.0 L O 2
(C) 3.0 L H 2 and 2.0 L O 2 (D) 4.0 L H 2 and 1.0 L O 2
5. A gas-phase hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of visible light and then emits a photon of ultraviolet light.
What may be concluded about its initial and its final values of the principal quantum number n?
(A) Initially n = 1 and finally n = 2
(B) Initially n = 2 and finally n = 1
(C) Initially n = 2 and finally n = 4
(D) This scenario is impossible because ultraviolet light is more energetic than visible light
6. Carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst to give methanol:
CO(g)  2H 2 (g)  CH 3OH(g)
A metal container at 400 K is charged with 2.00 bar of an equimolar mixture of CO and H 2 . A catalyst for
the reaction is introduced and the pressure falls to 1.29 bar once equilibrium is achieved. What is K p for
this reaction at 400 K?
(A) 1.32 (B) 6.54 (C) 8.44 (D) 29.1
7. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until three fifth of the air measured at final temperature has been expelled.
Assuming that the volume of the vessel remains constant, find the temperature to which the vessel has been
heated.
(A) 750 K (B) 480 K (C) 753 K (D) 489 K

SECTION-3
8. Identify the correct matching of the following oxides in Column M with property in Column N.
M N
(I) Aluminium trioxide (P) Acidic oxide
(II) Calcium oxide (Q) Basic oxide
(III) Arsenic pentoxide (R) Amphoteric oxide
(IV) Nitrous oxide (S) Neutral oxide
(A) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S (B) I-Q; II-Q; III-R; IV-S
(C) I-R; II-Q; III-P; IV-S (D) I-R; II-Q; III-Q; IV-P
9. Match the Lists.

List (Water as reactant) List (Role of water)
(I) H2O  HCl  H3O  Cl (P) Oxidant
(II) H2O  NH3  NH4OH (Q) Reductant

(III) 2H 2 O  2F2  4HF  O 2 (R) Acid
(IV) 2H 2 O  2Na  2NaOH  H 2 (S) Base
(V) Cl2  H 2 O  HCl  HOCl (T) Spectator
(A) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S; V-T (B) I-R; II-P; III-Q; IV-S; V-T
(C) I-S; II-R; III-Q; IV-P; V-T (D) I-S; II-T; III-Q; IV-P; V-R

10. Match the Lists.
List-I List-II
(I) BF3 (P) Expanded octet
(II) NF3 (Q) Ionic bond
(III) ClF3 (R) Lewis acid
(IV) AlF3 (S) Pyramidal
(A) I-P; II-S; III-R; IV-Q (B) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S
(C) I-S; II-Q; III-P; IV-R (D) I-R; II-S; III-P; IV-Q
11. Match the Lists. (Consider ideal gas)

List-I List-II
(I) Free expansion (P) q0
(II) Isothermal expansion (Q) U  0
(III) Adiabatic expansion (R) Cooling
(IV) Isobaric expansion (S) Heating
(A) I-P, R; II-Q; III-P, R; IV-Q, S (B) I-P, Q; II-Q; III-P, R; IV-S
(C) I-P, R; II-Q; III-P, R; IV-S (D) I-P, Q; II-P; III-P, S; IV-Q, S

SECTION-4
Negative Integer.
22
1. The mass of a single molecule of an allotrope of sulphur is 3.20 10 g. How many sulphur atoms are
present in a molecule of this allotrope?
2. Magnetite, Fe3 O 4 , can be reduced to iron by heating with carbon monoxide.

What mass (in kg) of Fe3O 4 is required in order to obtain 5.0 kg of iron if the process is 69% efficient?
[Given : Atomic mass O = 16; Fe = 56]
3. The plots of radial distribution function for ns orbital of principal energy level n of hydrogen atom against
‘r’ is given below. Find the degeneracy of principal energy level n for H-atom.
4. According to long form of the periodic table, period number of element ununquadium is p and group
number is g. Find the sum of value of p and g.
5. Find the sum of number of two-center-two electron and three-center two electron bonds in [Al(BH 4 )3 ].
6. Two flasks I and II of equal volume are evacuated and connected by a tube of negligible volume fitted with
a stopcock. They are then placed in two different constant temperature baths of 250 K and 750 K
respectively. 20 moles of an ideal gas are introduced into the system of these flasks through the stopcock.
When the system reaches equilibrium, the ratio of the moles of the gas in flasks I and II is x : 1. Find the
value of x.

SUBJECT III: MATHEMATICS 60 MARKS
SECTION-1
1. The circles x 2  y 2  2 x  4 y  20  0 and x 2  y 2  6 x  8 y  10  0 :

(A) Are such that the number of common tangents on them is 2
(B) Are orthogonal
1/4
 12 
(C) Are such that the length of their common tangent is 5  
5
3
(D) Are such that the length of their common chord is 5
2
1
2. cosec2 , sec(2  2 ) are in H.P., then:
If sec(2  2 ),
2
   3 3 5 5 7
(A)   (B)  (C)  (D) 
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
3. Let p and q be non-zero real numbers. Then the equation ( px 2  qy 2  r ) (4 x 2  4 y 2  8 x  4)  0
represents:
(A) Two straight lines and a circle, when r = 0 and p, q are of the opposite sign.
(B) Two circles, when p = q and r is of sign opposite to that of p.
(C) A hyperbola and a circle, when p and q are of opposite sign and r  0
(D) A circle and an ellipse, when p and q are unequal but of same sign and r is of sign opposite to that
of p.

SECTION-2
1 1
4. If , ,  are the roots of the cubic equation x3  2 x  3  0 , then the value of 
3  3  6 3   3  6
1
 equals:
  3  6
3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 2
5. A triangle ABC is formed by the lines 2 x  3 y  6  0 ; 3 x  y  3  0 and 3 x  4 y  12  0 . If the points
P(, 0) and Q(0, ) always lie on or inside the ABC , then complete values of ,  are given by:
(A)   [1, 2]and   [2, 3] (B)   [1, 3]and   [2, 4]
(C)   [2, 4]and   [3, 4] (D)   [1, 3]and   [2, 3]
6. The minimum value of the function f ( x)  (3sin x  4cos x  10) (3sin x  4cos x  10) , is:
195  60 2
(A) 49 (B) (C) 84 (D) 48
2
7. Tangents are drawn from the point (–1, 2) to the parabola y 2  4 x . The length, these tangents will
intercept on the line x = 2 is:
(A) 6 (B) 6 2 (C) 2 6 (D) 6 3

SECTION-3
8. Match the following columns:
List-I List-II
(I) If the chord of contact of tangents from a point (P) Straight line
P to the parabola y 2  4ax touches the
parabola x 2  4by , the locus of P is
(II) A variable circle C has the equation (Q) Circle
x 2  y 2  2(t 2  3t  1) x  2(t 2  2t ) y  t  0 ,
where t is a parameter. The locus of the centre
of the circle is
(III) The locus of point of intersection of tangents to (R) Parabola
x2 y2
an ellipse   1 at two points, the sum
a2 b2
of whose eccentric angles is constant is
(IV) An ellipse slides between two perpendicular (S) Hyperbola
straight lines. Then the locus of its centre is
(A) I-S; II-R; III-P; IV-Q (B) I-P;II-Q; III-R; IV-S
(C) I-S; II-Q; III-P; IV-R (D) I-R; II-S; III-P; IV-Q

x 2  11x  18
9. Let f ( x )  .
x 2  7 x  12
Column-I Column-II
(I) Complete solution of 0  f ( x)  1 (P) (3, 4)
(II) Complete solution of f ( x)  1 (Q) 3 
 , 2   (9, )
2 
(III) Complete solution of f ( x)  0 (R) (2,3)  (4,9)
(IV) Complete solution of f ( x )  2 (S) (, 2)  (3, 4)  (9, )
(T) 3 
 , 3   (4, )
2 
(A) I-P; II-S; III-Q; IV-T (B) I-Q; II-T; III-R; IV-P
(C) I-T; II-R; III-P; IV-S (D) I-S; II-Q; III-T; IV-R

10. Let R1, R2 , R3 ,....; S1 , S2 , S3 ,.... and T1, T2 , T3 ..., be 3 sequences of numbers such that R1  2 ,
1 1 n R  Rn1
  2 4
; Sn  2 Rn 2  3Rn and Tn  n where n  N .
Rn Rn 1 1  3n  n 4
Match the following columns:
Column-I Column-II
(I) Value(s) of n for which Rn  0 is/are (P) 2
(II) Value(s) of n for which S n attains the (Q) 3
maximum value is/are
(III) Value(s) of n for which ||Tn |  3|  1 is/are (R) 4
(IV) Value(s) of n for which Tn  Rn  2 is/are (S) 5
(A) I-P,Q,R; II-Q,R,S; III-Q,R,S; IV-P,Q,R

(B) I-P,Q; II-P,Q,R,S; III-P,Q; IV-R,S
(C) I-P,Q,R,S; II-R,S; III-Q,S; IV-P,Q,R,S
(D) I-R,S; II-P,Q,R,S; III-R,S; IV-P,Q

11. Match the following columns:
Column-I Column-II
(P) The lines y  0; y  1 , x  6 y  4  0 and (I) A cyclic quadrilateral
x  6 y  9  0 constitute a figure which is
(Q) The points A(a, 0), B (0, b), C (c, 0) and D (0, d ) (II) A rhombus
are such that ac  bd and a, b, c, d are all non-
zero. The points A, B, C and D always constitute
(R) The figure formed by the four lines (III) A square
ax  by  c  0 (a  b) is
(S) The lines pairs x 2  8 x  12  0 and (IV) A trapezium
y 2  14 y  45  0 constitute a figure which is

(A) I-P,Q,R,S; II-Q,S; III-P; IV-Q,S (B) I-P,S; II-Q,S; III-P,Q,R,S; IV-Q,S
(C) I-Q,S; II-P,Q,R,S; III-P; IV-Q,S (D) I-P,S; II-P; III-Q,S; IV-P,Q,R,S

SECTION-4
Negative Integer.
1. If 5 x 2  2kx  1  0 has exactly one integral solution, then the sum of all positive integral values of k
is _____.
3 4 5 6
2. Let S denote sum of the series 2
 3
 4
 5
 ... , then the value of S 1
2 1  2 2 23 2 3 4 2  45
is _______.
3. If the sum of all values of x satisfying the system of equations
tan x  tan y  tan x  tan y  5
sin( x  y )  4 cos x  cos y
k  
is , where x   0,  , then the value of k is ______.
2  2

4. The interior angle bisector of angle A for the triangle ABC whose coordinate of the vertices are
A(8,5); B(15, 19) and C (1,  7) has the equation ax  2 y  c  0 , then the value of (a  c ) is _____.
5. Locus of mid-points of the chords of contact of the circle x 2  y 2  2 from the points on the line
 1 2 
3 x  4 y  10 is a circle with centre P. then the distance of point M  ,  from P is _____.
 10 10 
6. PQ, a variable chord of the parabola y 2  8 x subtends a right angle at the vertex. The tangents at P and Q
meet at T and the normal at those points meet at N. If the locus of the mid-point of TN is a parabola, then
the length of its latus rectum is _______.

2025 - JEE Advanced - 1 - Paper - 1

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JEE Advanced - 1 | Paper - 1 | JEE 2025 (Gen -1 & 2)

Date: 28/1/2024 Maximum Marks: 180

Timing: 10:00 AM to 1:00 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

SECTION – 2 | (Maximum Marks: 12)

SECTION – 3 | (Maximum Marks: 12)

SECTION – 4 | (Maximum Marks: 24)

VMC | JEE Advanced-1 | JEE 2025 2 Paper – 1 | Gen – 1 & 2

SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 60 MARKS

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(A) 2 kg (B) 3 kg (C) 8 kg (D) 1.2 kg

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correct outcome from List-II. (Take g  10 m/s 2 )

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SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 60 MARKS

1. Which of the following properties may have positive value of H ?

3. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:

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VMC | JEE Advanced-1 | JEE 2025 12 Paper – 1 | Gen – 1 & 2

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VMC | JEE Advanced-1 | JEE 2025 13 Paper – 1 | Gen – 1 & 2

9. Match the Lists.

(II) H2O  NH3  NH4OH (Q) Reductant

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11. Match the Lists. (Consider ideal gas)

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2. Magnetite, Fe3 O 4 , can be reduced to iron by heating with carbon monoxide.

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SUBJECT III: MATHEMATICS 60 MARKS

1. The circles x 2  y 2  2 x  4 y  20  0 and x 2  y 2  6 x  8 y  10  0 :

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(A) I-P,Q,R; II-Q,R,S; III-Q,R,S; IV-P,Q,R

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y 2  14 y  45  0 constitute a figure which is

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