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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
BATCHES –2022 (B-LOT) PT-1

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(i) Part-A (08-13) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., Gahlot Bhawan, Near Vidya Mandir Public School, Sector-15A Market, Ajrounda Chowk, Faridabad, Haryana-121007.
Ph-0129-4174571-72-73. Website: www.fiitjeefaridabad.com. www.fiitjeefaridabad.weebly.com
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 2

SECTION – I : PHYSICS
PART-A (One or More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line AB. Its speed at A and B are 2 m/s
and 14m/sec respectively then
(A) Its speed at mid point at AB is 10 m/sec
(B) Its speed at point P such that AP : BP = 1:5 is 6 m/sec
(C) the time to go from A to the mid point of AB is double at that to go from mid point to B.
(D) None of these

2. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a


light string. The other end of the string is pulled by a constant force F = 40
N. The kinetic energy of the particle increases 40 J in a given interval of
time. Then (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) tension in the string is 40 N
(B) displacement of the block in the given interval of time is 2m
(C) work done by gravity is – 20 J F
(D) work done by tension is 80 J
2kg
3. The potential energy U of a particle of mass 1kg moving in x-y plane obeys the law U = 3x + 4y,
where (x, y) are the co-ordinates of the particle in metre. If the particle is at rest at (6, 4) at time t =
0 then
(A) the particle has constant acceleration
(B) the particle has zero acceleration
(C) the speed of particle when it crosses the y-axis 5 m/s
(D) co-ordinate of particle at t = 1s are (4.5, 2)

4. In the arrangement shown in the figure. If system is in equilibrium


 g  10 m / s  :
2 T1 
T2
(A) Tension T1  50 N (B) Tension T1  500 N T3 
0 0
(C) Angle   37 (D) Angle  53

30 Kg
40 Kg
5. Two particles A and B located as shown, start moving simultaneously with X
velocities v A  4iˆ and v B  4ˆj :
B(4, 4)

(A) the shortest distance between them is 4 2 m. 
(B) the distance between them first decreases and then increases.
(C) the distance between them increases from the beginning.
(D) the magnitude of relative velocity of A w.r.t. B is 4 m/s.
Y
A(0, 0)
6. m
Block A of mass   is placed on the block B of mass (m), which is placed A
2
on smooth surface. Block B is subjected to a horizontal force F. Block A B F
remains on the top of the block B. Block A moves with acceleration a 1 and B
moves with acceleration a 2 .
(A) For some value of F, a1 and a 2 may be in opposite directions
(B) For some value of F, it is possible that a1  a 2
(C) For some value of F, it is possible that a 2  a1
(D) For some specific situation  F  0  , friction between the blocks is zero.
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 3

7. A conservative potential energy versus position graph is as U(x)


shown in the figure. The particle is moving is one dimension
at x = x1 the KE of the particle is 10J then. 10J
(A) The particle is oscillating
(B) it comes to rest at either x = x0 and x = x2
(C) it moves to the right of x3 and never returns back 0J x0 x1 x2 x3 x
(D) it cannot reach either x = x0 or x = x2
-10J

-20J

Part–A : (Single Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. A particle is projected at an angle  with horizontal. Its velocity of projection is u:


(A) the radius of curvature at the highest point of the trajectory is u 2  2gH where H is the maximum
height.
u 2  2gH
(B) the radius of curvature at the highest point of the trajectory is .
g
g 2T
(C) the component of acceleration at the point of projection along direction of projection is
4u
where T is the time of flight.
(D) the component of acceleration at the point of projection along direction of projection is g 2 T.

9. A ball is attached to a string and moves in a vertical circle. The string is always taut and
there are absolutely no resistive forces. Which of the following statements is most correct:
(A) the net force on the ball is always vertical.
(B) the net force on the ball is always perpendicular to the velocity vector of the ball.
(C) the net force on the ball is always towards centre.
(D) the tension in the string is greatest when the ball is at its lowest point.

10. A cannon ball of mass in m is fired with an initial velocity u  ux ˆi  uy ˆj , which makes an
angle  = tan–1(uy/ux) with respect to the horizontal. What is the work done by gravity on
the cannon ball till it reaches the peak (i.e., highest elevation) of its trajectory?
1 1
(A) mu2y (B) mu2x
2 2
1 1
(C)  mu2y (D)  mu2x
2 2

11. A stone is projected with a velocity 202 m/s at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. The
magnitude of average velocity of stone during its motion from starting point to its
maximum height is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 20 m/s (B) 205 m/s
(C) 55 m/s (D) 105 m/s

12. Three blocks (m1, m2 & m3) are slide at constant velocity across a
rough surface as shown. The coefficient of kinetic friction between v
each block and the surface is . What would be the force due to m1 F
m1
on m2? m3 m2
(A) F – (m2 – m3)g (B) (m2 + m3)g

(C) m1g – (m2 + m3)g (D) (m1 + m2 + m3)


IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 4

13. Two different masses are connected to two strings as


R2
shown in the figure. Both masses rotate about a central R1
fixed point with angular velocity 10 rad/s on a smooth T 2 M2

horizontal plane. The ratio of tension T1/T2 in the string is T1 M1 M1 = 0.25 kg


M2 = 1.0 kg
(A) 11/9 (B) 9/8 R1 = 5 cm
(C) 8/9 (D) 9/11 R2 = 10 cm

Part – B
Numerical based questions
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question may be positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, 30.27, -127.30)..

1. A body of mass ‘m’ is slowly hauled up a hill by an external


force which is always acting along the surface as shown. The F
coefficient of friction between the body and the surface is
  0.5 . If work done by friction and gravity on the body are m
h
W fr and Wg respectively during the process. Find the
W fr
ratio
Wg
l  4h

2. A body of mass m is launched up on a rough inclined plane making an angle 45° with horizontal.
The time of ascent is half of the time of descent, if the frictional coefficient between plane and body
n
is , then find the value of n .
5

3. A system consists of two identical cubes, each of 3 kg


mass 3 kg, linked together by a compressed
weightless spring of force constant 1000 Nm–1.
The cubes are also connected by a thread which
is burnt at a certain moment. At what minimum k = 1000 N/m
value of initial compression x0 (in cm) of the
spring will the lower cube bounce up after the
thread is burnt? 3 kg

4. The displacement x (in m), of a particle of mass m = 1 kg is related to the time t (in second) by
t  x  3. Find the work done in first six second. (in mJ)

5. Sand drops vertically at the rate of 5 kg/sec onto a conveyor belt moving horizontally with a velocity
of 0.6 m/sec. Find the extra force required to keep the belt moving (in N).
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 5

SECTION-II : CHEMISTRY
PART-A (One or More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. The pair(s) of reagents that yield paramagnetic species is/are


(A) Na and excess of NH3
(B) K and excess of O2
(C) Reaction of Cu and dilute HNO3 i.e. 3Cu  8HNO3   3Cu NO3 2  2NO  4H2 O
 diluted 
(D) O2 and 2-ethylanthraquinol

2. Choose the incorrect statements:


(A) All S–F bond lengths are identical in SF4
(B) All Cl–F bond lengths are identical in ClF3
(C) All < FClF angles are identical in ClF3
(D) All possible angles in BF2Cl are 120°
3. Two compounds PX2 Y3 and PX3 Y2 (where P = Phosphorus atom and X, Y = monovalent atoms). If
all X atoms are replaced by Z atoms and electronegativity order is X > Y > Z. Then correct
statement(s) is/are:
(A) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX3Y2 is non-zero
(B) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX2Y3 is zero
(C) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX3Y2 is zero
(D) The dipole moment of product obtained from PX2Z3 is zero
4. Which of the following is/are correct order of mobility?

(A) Li  Na  K
 
(B) Na   Mg 2  Al 3
(C) Al 3  Mg 2   Na  (D) Li  Na  K
  

5. Li has following abnormal behavior in its group:


(A) Lithium carbonate decomposes into its oxide on heating, unlike other elements
(B) LiI is covalent in nature
(C) Li3 N is stable compound
(D) LiHCO3 is only bicarbonate not known in solid state

6. SO2 gas is slowly passed through an aqueous suspension containing 12g CaSO3 till milkiness just
disappears, what amount of SO2 would be required?
(A) 12.8 g (B) 6.4 g (C) 0.2 mole (D) 0.1 mole

7. According to Charles’ Law


1  dV   dT  1 V 
(A) V  (B)   K (C)   K (D)   2  0
T  dT  P  dV  P  T T P

Part–A : (Single Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
8. For one mole of a vander Waals gas when b = 0 and T = 300 K, the PV vs 1/V plot is shown below.
The value of the van der Waals constant a (atm. litre2 mol–2) is
PV (litre-atm mol–1)

24.6
23.1
21.6

20.1

0 1.0 2.0 3.0


1/V (mol/L)
(A) 1 (B) 4.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 3.0
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 6

9. In which of the following species, d-orbitals having xz and yz two nodal planes involve in
hybridization of central atom
(A) IO2F2– (B) ClF4– (C) IF7 (D) None of these
10. At which temperature will the translational kinetic energy of H-atom equal to that for H atom of first
line Lyman transition? (given NA = 6 ×1023)
(A) 780 K (B) 1.32 ×105 K (C) 7.84 × 104 K (D) 1000 K
11. The quantum numbers listed below are for four different electrons in the same atom. Arrange them
in order of increasing energy.
1 1
(i) n  4, l  0, m  0 and s =+ (ii) n  3, l  2, m  1 and s =+
2 2
1 1
(iii) n  3, l  2, m  2 and s = - (iv) n  3, l  1, m  1 and s =–
2 2
(A) (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii) (B) (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (iii)
(C) (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii) (D) (iv) < (i) < (ii) = (iii)
12. The structure of IF5 can be best demonstrated as:

(A) F F (B) F

720 F
I 900
F 0 I F
120
F
F F
F
(C) F
F F

I 900 (D) None of these

F F

13. Which species does not exist?


 SnCl6   GeCl6   CCl6   SiCl6 
2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Part – B
Numerical based questions
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question may be positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, 30.27, -127.30)..

Cl Cl
Cl
1. The dipole moment of is 1.5 D and that of is x/2. Find the value of x.

Cl Cl
2. A flask has 10 gas particles out of which four particles are moving at 7 m/s and the remaining are
moving at the same speed of ‘X’ m/s. If the rms of the gas is 5m/s, what is the value of X?

3. Find the total number of non-linear species out of given species:


I 3 , BeCl2 , NH 2 , OH 2 , XeF2 , N 2O, SO2 , SF2

4. Out of given hydroxides find number of hydroxide(s) which can form salt with CO 2
NaOH, KOH, RbOH, CsOH, Ca(OH)2, Sr(OH)2, Ba(OH)2
5. A certain transition in H spectrum from an excited state to the ground state in one or more steps
gives rise to a total of 10 lines. How many of these belong to the UV spectrum.
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 7

SECTION-III : MATHEMATICS
PART-A (One or More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. A diagonal of rhombus ABCD is member of both the families of lines  x  y  1    2x  3y  2   0


and  x  y  2     2x  3y  5   0 and one of the vertices of the rhombus is  3,2 . If the area of
rhombus is 12 5 sq. units. Then
9 2
(A) diagonals intersect at  ,  
5 5
 9 2
(B) diagonals intersect at   , 
 5 5
(C) equation of one of the diagonal is 2y  x  1  0
(D) Equation of one of the diagonal is 2y  x  1  0

2. If the equation ax 2  6xy  y 2  bx  cy  d  0 represents pair of straight lines whose slopes are m
and m2 then value of a is/are
(A) a  8 (B) a  8 (C) a  27 (D) a  27

3. If the lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of the line 3y  mx  3 and the curve
x 2  y 2  1 are at right angle then value of m  3 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 1 (D) Zero

4. Circlex 2  y 2  2 gx  2 fy  c  0 passes through only any three quadrant then


(A) g  c (B) f  c (C) c  0 (D) c  0
2 2

5. A circle of radius unity and other circle of radius r lies in the first quadrant and touches both
coordinate axis, cut orthogonally each other than radius r is equal to
(A) 3 1 (B) 2 3 (C) 2 3 (D) 3 1

6. The values of x so that 16


x 2
  8 x
 3 x 1 2
3 x  2  is/are
(A) sum of roots = 3 (B) sum of roots = - 3
(C) product of roots = 10 (D) product of roots = - 10

7. Locus of foot of the perpendicular drawn from the origin upon any chord of circle
x 2  y 2  2 gx  2 fy  c  0 which subtends a right angle at the origin
c
 2 2

(A) 2 x  y  gx  fy  c  0 (B) x  y  gx  fy 
2 2

2
0
gx fy c
(C) 2 x 2  2 y 2  gx  fy  c  0 (D) x  y 
2 2
  0
2 2 2

Part–A : (Single Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. If log12 27  a then log6 16


 3 a   3 a  3 a 3a
(A) 4   (B) 2   (C) (D)
 3  a   3  a  3  a 3 a
9. Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are 7 x  y  3  0 and x  y  3  0 and its third side
passes through the point (1, -10). Then third sides is
(A) x  3 y  31  0 (B) x  3 y  31  0 (C) 3 x  y  7  0 (D) 3 x  y  7  0
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 8

10. Tangents are drawn from each point on the line 2 x  y  4 to the circle x 2  y 2  1 then chord of
contact passes through a fixed point is
(A) Sum of x and y coordinate is 2 (B)  2, 4 
1 1 1
(C)  ,  (D) Sum of x and y coordinate is
2 4 4

cos  sin  p q
11. If  then  =
p q sec 2 cos ec 2
(A) p (B) q (C) p + q (D) pq

2x 1
12. If S is the set of all real number x such that  0, then S contain
2 x  3x2  x
3

 1   3 1 1 
(A)  8,  (B)   ,  (C) (0, 1) (D)  ,3 
 2   2 4 2 

13. Two circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 3 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 8 = 0 are such that


(A) they touch each other (B) they intersect each other
(C) one lies inside the other (D) each lies outside the other

Part – B
Numerical based questions
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question may be positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, 30.27, -127.30)..

PB
1. Slope of chord AB of circle x 2  y 2  2 passing through P  2,2 such that  3 is given by
PA
2. Sum of values of x and y satisfying the equation 9 x  4 y  77 ; 3x  2y  7 is
 /4
cos 8 x  sin8 x
3. 2 
0 1  2sin2 x cos2 x
dx is equal to

4. If y is a function of x and ln  x  y   2 xy then y '  0  


5. If log 3 5  p and log 3 2  q , then log 3 300 is equal to   p  q  1 then  is
IT2022 (P-1) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 9

FIITJEE ALL INDIA INTERNAL TEST SERIES


ANSWER KEY – QP-
SET – A CLASS – XI
Physics(Section-I) Chemistry (Section -II) Mathematics (Section -III)
PART – A PART – A PART – A
1 ABC P110301 1 ABC C110805 1 AD M110723
2 ABD P110507 2 ABCD C110302 2 BD M110730
3 AD P110512 3 ABD C110304 3 BD M110733
4 BD P110403 4 AC C110301 4 ABC M110804
5 AC P110320 5 ABCD C110808 5 BC M110821
6 BC P110412 6 BD C111109 6 BD M112402
7 AD P110513 7 BCD C111201 7 AB M110832
8 B P110313 8 C C111204 8 A M112403
9 D P110319 9 C C110305 9 B M110720
10 C P110502 10 C C110104 10 C M110806
11 D P110327 11 D C110107 11 A M111301
12 B P110411 12 C C110305 12 D M111421
13 B P110414 13 C C110305 13 B M110820
PART – C PART – C PART – C
1 2.00 P110508 1 3.00 C110304 1 1.00 M110823
2 3.00 P110413 2 3.00 C111206 2 3.00 M112402
3 9.00 P110503 3 4.00 C110305 3 1.00 M112409
4 0.00 P110508 4 7.00 C110908 4 1.00 M112407
5 3.00 P110509 5 4.00 C110104 5 2.00 M112403

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