FIITJEE - Phase Test (JEE-Advanced) Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics

FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours SET- Maximum Marks: 204
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examina tion Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
BATCH – 224_Panini
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-06) – Contains seven (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(i) Part-A (07-10) – Contains six (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(ii) Part-B (01-08) contains 8 Integer based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0
to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________
Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd. Property No.80, Behind Sales Tax Office, Mangal Pandey Nagar, University Road, Meerut. Tel: 0121-4054378, 7351004567
Web: www.fiitjee.com
Panini_224-PT-I_JEE-Adv (Paper-1) -PCM 2
Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
(Multiple Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Two concentric spherical shells have masses m1 and m2 and radii r1 and r2. Then–
m2 m3
m1
r P
r1 O
r2
(A) Outer shell will have no contribution in gravitational field at point P

(B) Force on P is directed towards O
Gm1m3
(C) Force on P is
r2
Gm1m3
(D) Force on P is
r12
2. Water flows through two identical tubes A and B. A volume V0 of water passes through the tube A and 2Vo
through the tube B in a given time. Which of the following may be correct.
(A) Flow in both the tubes is steady. (B) Flow in both the tubes is turbulent.
(C) Flow is steady in A but turbulent in B (D) Flow is steady in B but turbulent in A.
3. The spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block m suspended from it. A balance
B reads 5 kg when a beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The A
two balances are now so arranged that the hanging mass is inside the liquid
in the beaker as shown in the figure. In this situation: m
B
(A) The balance A will read more than 2 kg
(B) The balance B will read more than 5 kg
(C) The balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read more than 5 kg.
(D) The balance A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively.
4. In circular orbit of a satellite of mass m , revolving around a planet of mass M in an orbit of

radius r and having the period of revolution T, we have
(A) orbital speed equals GM / r (B) T 2  r 3
(C) Kinetic energy equals GMm / 2 r (D) potential energy equals −GMm / 2r
5. A cylinder is floating in two liquids as shown in figure. Choose the correct

options(atmosphere exits above liquid) 1
(A) net force on cylinder by liquid 1 is zero

2
(B) net force on cylinder by liquid 1 is non-zero
(C) net force on cylinder by liquid 2 is equal to the upthrust
(D) net force on cylinder by liquid 2 is more than the upthrust
6. The spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block m suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg
when a beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The two balances are now so
arranged that the hanging mass is inside the liquid in the beaker as shown in the figure in
this situation:
(A) the balance A will read more than 2 kg

(B) the balance B will read more than 5 kg
(C) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read more than 5 kg
(D) the balances A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively.
out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.
7. A particle of mass m is transferred from infinity to the centre of the base of a uniform solid
hemisphere of mass M and radius R. Work done by gravitational force is
3 GMm 3GmM
(A) (B)
8 R R
3 GMm 3 GMm
(C) (D)
4 R 2 R
8. Two identical cylindrical vessels with their bases at the same level each contain a liquid of
density . The area of either base is A but in one vessel the liquid height is h1 and in the
other liquid height is h2 (h2< h1). If the two vessels are connected, the work done by gravity
in equalizing the levels is
1 1
(A) ( h − h2 )2 Ag (B) ( h + h2 ) Ag
2 1 2 1
(C) ( h − h22 ) Ag

1 2
2 1
(D)
1
( h − h2 )2 Ag
4 1
9. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided into eight equal droplets. If surface tension is
T, then the work done in this process will
(A) 2  R2T (B) 3  R2T
(C) 4  R2T (D) 2  RT2
10. A thick hollow sphere with inner radius R and outer radius 3 R
has a uniform volume mass density . It has a spherical cavity of R
O O’
radius R as shown. If gravitational field at the centre O of the
3R
a
cavity is GR , then a =
3
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive)
1 Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces. It
is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
 GM 
separation a. Find the initial velocity that should be given to each particle.  take a =
 16 
2. A soap film is created in a small wire frame as shown in the figure. The sliding wire of mass
m is given a velocity v0 to the right. Assuming the plane of the film to be horizontal, surface
tension T, length of the wire L and v0 is small enough so that the film does not break, the
mv 02
maximum displacement of the wire will be . Find the value of K.
KLT
v0
Soap film
3. A uniform ring mass m and radius r is placed directly above a uniform sphere of mass M and
of equal radius. The centre of ring is directly above the centre of sphere at a distance 3 r
3GMm
as shown in figure. The gravitational force exerted by the sphere on the ring is ,
Kr 2
then value of K is_____.
r
3r
4. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R
with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and
the star is inversely proportional to R5/2, then the time period of revolution is proportional to
Rk/4. Find the value of k.
5. In the figure shown if the cart is frictionless and free to move in horizontal direction, cross-
section area of jet tube = 2 × 10-4 m2, velocity of jet v0 = 10 m/sec, density of liquid = 1000
kg/m3, mass of cart is 10 kg. If initially the cart is at rest then find the velocity of cart at t = 10
sec in m/s. (cart is driven by the jet tube continuously rightward)
v0
10 kg
v0
6. The elastic limit of brass is 509 MPa. What should be the minimum diameter of a brass rod if it is to support a
400 N load without exceeding its elastic limit?
7. Young’s moduli of two wires A and B are in the ratio 7 : 4. Wire A is 7 m long and has radius R. Wire B is 1 m
long and has radius 2 mm. If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given load, then the value of R is
close to (in mm) :
8. A wire elongates by 9l mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W
each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
space for rough work
Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
1. N2O4 ( g) 2NO2 ( g)
D = Initial vapour density
d = Vapour density at equilibrium
 = Degree of dissociation of N2O4
In the above reaction if only N2O4 is taken initially in the reaction container, then which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct?
D−d D−d
(A) D = 46 (B) d = 46 (C)  = (D)  =
d 2d
2. Which of the following is/are the property(ies) of NaOH?

(A) It dissolves Al and Zn metals (B) It produces heat when mixed with HCl
(C) It absorbs moisture from atmosphere (D) It is converted to a solid when kept
under air
3. Which of the following will function as buffer?

(A) NaCl + NaOH (B) Borax + Boric acid
(C) NaH2PO4 + Na3PO4 (D) NH4Cl + NH4OH
4. CaCO3 ( s) CaO ( s) + CO2 ( g), H  0

Which of the following factor(s) can increase the yield of CO2 gas?
(A) Increasing temperature (B) Decreasing pressure
(C) Addition of Ne at constant volume (D) Addition of Ne at constant pressure
5. NH+4 (aq) + 2H2O NH4OH(aq) + H3O+ (aq)

Which of the following factor(s) can increase the degree of hydrolysis of NH+4 ?
(A) Decreasing concentration (B) Adding KCN
(C) Adding NaCl (D) Adding KNO3
6. Which of the following substance(s) can remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ion from hard water?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) Soap (RCOONa) (C) KCl (D) NaOH

out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
7. The successive ionization constants of H3PO4 areK a1 ,K a2 ,K a3 respectively. Then, the pH
of 0.1M Na2HPO4 solution is expressed as:
Ka1 K Ka1 K
p + p a2 p + p a3
(A) (B)
2 2
Ka2 K Ka1 K K
p + p a3 p + p a2 + p a3
(C) (D)
2 2
8. For which of the following reaction KP < KC?

(A) CO2 ( g) + C ( s) 2CO ( g) (B) C ( s) + O2 ( g) CO2 ( g)
(C) 2CO ( g) + O2 ( g) 2CO2 ( g) (D) 2C ( s) + O2 ( g) 2CO ( g)
9. The concentration of a monoprotic acid is C moles L–1 and ionisation constant Ka. The pH
of the solution is –
1
1 1
(A) pK a − logC (B) (K a  C ) 2
2 2
1 1
(C) pK a + logC (D) .C
2 2
10. Which element of group-14 forms the most stable compound in +2 oxidation state?
(A) Si (B) Sn (C) Ge (D) Pb
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
1. NH4HS ( s) NH3 ( g) + H2S ( g)

Above reaction attains equilibrium at 4 atm and 25oC. What will be the equilibrium
constant KP in atm2 unit?
2. How many sigma bond(s) is/are formed by each carbon atom in graphite?
3. What is the pH of 10–6 M NaCN solution?

[Ka of HCN = 10–10]
4. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble base MOH is 10–12. What is the pH of its
saturated solution?
5. 2SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 2SO3 ( g)
The equilibrium constant (KP) of the above reaction is 0.5 atm–1 at a certain temperature.
What will be the partial pressure of O2 gas in atm unit at equilibrium if the equilibrium
partial pressure of SO2 and SO3 are same?
6. H2A is a dibasic acid with K a1 = 10−4 and K a2 = 10 −6 . What will be the pH of 10–1 M NaHA
solution?
7. How many boron atom(s) can form back bonding in borax?
8. NH+4 ,S2− ,HS−1,Cl− ,CH3COO− ,Na+

How many of the above ion(s) undergo(es) hydrolysis in water?
Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
Q.1 If two distinct chords of a parabola y2 = 4ax passing through (a, 2a) are bisected on the line x + y =
1, then the length of the latus rectum can be
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3
Q.2 Circle(s) touching x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and having an intercept of length 2 7 on y-
axis is (are):
(A) x + y − 6x + 8y + 9 = 0 (B) x + y + 6x + 8y + 9 = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y − 6x − 8y + 9 = 0 (D) x + y + 6x − 8y + 9 = 0
2 2 2 2
Let P(1,2 2) is a point on circle x + y = 9 . Locate the points on the given circle, which are at 2
2 2
Q.3
units distance from point P.
(
(A) −1,2 2 ) (
(B) 2 2,1 )
 23 10 2 
(C)  ,  (D) (3, 0)
 9 
 9
Q.4 If the chord through the points whose eccentric angles are  and  on the ellipse,
x2 y2  
2
+ 2 = 1 passes through the focus, then the value of tan   tan   is
a b 2  2
e +1 e −1 e +1 1− e
(A) (B) (C) (D)
e −1 e +1 1− e 1+ e
Q.5 Tangents to y2=8x are inclined at 45° to the line y=3x+5. The coordinates of the point of contact are
1  1  1 
(A)  ,0  (B)  , −2  (C)  2 , −3  (D) (8, 8)
2  2   
Q.6 Three distinct real normals to the parabola y2 = x are drawn through a point (c, 0), then c can be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.7 The radius of the circle touching the straight lines x − 2 y − 1 = 0 and 3x − 6 y + 7 = 0 is
3 5
(A) (B)
5 3
1
(C) 5 (D)
2
The intercept on the line y = x by the circle x + y − 2 x = 0 is AB. Equation of the circle on AB
2 2
Q.8
as a diameter is
(A) x + y + x − y = 0 (B) x + y − x + y = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x + y + x + y = 0 (D) x + y − x − y = 0
2 2 2 2
x2 y2
Q.9 The number of points on the ellipse + = 1 from which a pair of perpendicular tangents is
50 20
x2 y2
drawn to the ellipse + = 1 is
16 9
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
Q.10 Let P(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2), y1<0, y2<0, be the end points of the latus rectum of the ellipse x 2+4y2=4.
The equations of parabolas with latus recta PQ are
(A) x 2 + 2 3y = 3 + 3 (B) x 2 − 2 3y = −3 + 3
(C) x 2 + 2 3y = 3 − 3 (D) x 2 − 2 3y = −3 − 3
PART – C
(Numerical Based)
Q.3 Normals of parabola y2 = 4x at P and Q meets at R(x2, 0) and tangents at P and Q meets at T(x1, 0).
If x2 = 3, then find the area of quadrilateral PTQR.
Q.4 Line y = 2x−b cuts the parabola y = x2−4x at points A and B and O be origin. then the value of b for
which AOB is a right angle is _______
A circle S0 : x + y + 4x − 2 2 y + c = 0 is the director circle of the circle S1, and S1 is the

2 2
Q.5
director circle of circle S2, and so on. If the sum of radii of all these circles (S0, S1, S2 and so on) is
2, then the value of c is k 2 , where the value of k is __________
x2
Q.6 Maximum length of chord of ellipse + y 2 = 1 , such that eccentric angles of its extremities differ
2

by is
2
Q.7 If y = 2x + ( > 0) touches the ellipse whose major axis is y-axis and its length is 4 3 , minor axis
is x-axis and its length is 2, then  is
x2 y2
Q.8 A vertical line passing through the point (h, 0) intersects the ellipse + = 1 at the points P and
4 3
Q. Let the tangents to the ellipse at P and Q meet at the point R. If  ( h ) = area of the triangle PQR,
1 8 
1 = max  (h) and 2 = 1/min  (h) , then  1 − 8  2  =
1/ 2  h 1 2  h 1
3 5 
FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

Batch: Panini_224 -A Lot-XI
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE ADV– PAPER-1
PHASE –3
QP Code:
ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
C.Code C.Code C.Code
(PART-A) (PART-A) (PART-A)
1 ABC 1 AC 1 ABD
2 ABC 2 ABCD 2 ABCD
3 BC 3 BD 3 AC
4 ABC 4 ABD 4 AB
5 AD 5 AB 5 BD
6 BC 6 AB 6 ABCD
7 D 7 C 7 B
8 D 8 C 8 D
9 C 9 A 9 D
10 B 10 D 10 C
PART-C PART-C
1 4 1 4 1 8
2 4 2 3 2 6
3 8 3 9 3 8
4 7 4 8 4 7
5 8 5 2 5 4
6 1 6 5 6 2
7 4 7 2 7 4
8 9 8 4 8 3
HINT OR SOLUTION
PHYSICS
1. ABC
2. (A, B, C) [P111002]
3. B, C P111005
4. ABC
5. A,D
6 BC P110901 Q-506967
7. D
8. D
Ah12 g Ah22 g SA ( h1 + h2 )
2
w g = ui − uf = + − g
2 2 4
9. C
10. 7
PART – C
1. 4
2. 4 P111026
3. 8 P110901 Q-507002
4 7 P110901 Q-507018"
5 8 P110901 Q-507020
6. 1
F 400  4
Stress = = = 509  106 N/ m2
A d2
400  4

509  106 
7. 4
1 = 2
Fl1 Fl 7 1
OR = 2 2 or 2 = 2
r1 y1 r2 y 2 R  7 2  4
2
R = 4 mm
8. 9

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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours SET- Maximum Marks: 204

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

(A) Outer shell will have no contribution in gravitational field at point P

4. In circular orbit of a satellite of mass m , revolving around a planet of mass M in an orbit of

5. A cylinder is floating in two liquids as shown in figure. Choose the correct

(A) net force on cylinder by liquid 1 is zero

(A) the balance A will read more than 2 kg

(C) ( h − h22 ) Ag

2. Which of the following is/are the property(ies) of NaOH?

3. Which of the following will function as buffer?

4. CaCO3 ( s) CaO ( s) + CO2 ( g), H  0

5. NH+4 (aq) + 2H2O NH4OH(aq) + H3O+ (aq)

(Multiple Choice Type)

8. For which of the following reaction KP < KC?

1. NH4HS ( s) NH3 ( g) + H2S ( g)

3. What is the pH of 10–6 M NaCN solution?

7. How many boron atom(s) can form back bonding in borax?

8. NH+4 ,S2− ,HS−1,Cl− ,CH3COO− ,Na+

space for rough work

Section – III (Mathematics)

(Multiple Choice Type)

A circle S0 : x + y + 4x − 2 2 y + c = 0 is the director circle of the circle S1, and S1 is the

space for rough work

FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

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