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1. The question paper consists of 3 Subject (Subject I: Physics, Subject II: Chemistry, Subject III: Mathematics).
Each Part has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
Type A contains SIX (06) Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),(C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
Type B contains THREE (03) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
3. Section 2 contains 6 Numerical Value Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical
value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero
in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive values. However, for negative values,
Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
4. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code,
Roll No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
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MARKING SCHEME
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is
(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers,
then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.
SECTION-1 | Type B
This section contains THREE (03) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme;
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
SECTION - 2
This section contains 6 Integer Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical
value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is an Integer value, then do not
add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive values. However, for
negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct Integer value is entered. There is NO negative marking.
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases.
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section consists of 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
k
1. The displacement x of a particle varies with time according to the relation x
l
1 e lt , then :
1 2 k
(A) At t , the displacement of the particle is nearly
l 3 l
(B) The velocity and acceleration of the particle at t = 0 are k and –kl respectively
k
(C) The particle cannot reach a point at a distance x' from its starting position if x'
l
(D) The particle will come back to its starting point at t
2. A uniform rod of mass m and length 4R is joined with a uniform ring of mass 2 m and radius R to form a
rigid body as shown. The body is in x-y plane with the origin at one end of rod as shown. Choose correct
options.
3. Three identical balls are kept in a line on a frictionless surface. Now, the balls are suddenly given velocities
as shown. All collisions between the balls are elastic. Choose correct options.
(A) Total number of collisions will be 3
(B) Total number of collisions will be 2
(C) After all collisions have taken place, ball A moves
at 2v
(D) After all collisions have taken place, ball C moves
at 3v
4. There is no friction anywhere and the system is released from rest. Choose correct options
mg
(A) Acceleration of the hemisphere towards left is a
M tan m cot
mg
(B) Acceleration of the hemisphere towards left is a
M cot mtan
(C) Acceleration of the rod is atan
(D) Acceleration of the rod is a cot
5. A uniform disc m, R is kept on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction 0.1 . The disc is
hit with a stick horizontally providing it an impulse J. In the subsequent motion :
R
(A) If h , the disc starts rolling immediately after it is hit.
2
R J2
(B) If h , work done by friction over a long period of time is .
2 3m
2J
(C) If h R, velocity of center of disc long time after it is hit is
3m
(D) If h R, work done by friction in the frame attached to center of disc over a long time is positive
6. A bucket in the shape of the frustum of a cone of radii a and b and height h
is filled completely with water of density . Neglect the effects of
(A) The pressure force on the flat circular base of the bucket is gha 2
(B) The pressure force on the flat circular base of the bucket is equal to the weight of the water in the
bucket
(C) The pressure force on the curved surface of the bucket is gh(b 2 a 2 )
(D) The net force on the bucket due to the water is equal to the weight of the water in the bucket
SECTION-1 | Type B
VMC | JEE-2023 | Paper-2 4 JEE Advanced-3 | Gen 1 & 2
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
This section consists of THREE (03) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
A uniform disc of radius R is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle and made to rotate about
it at angular velocity . Now another uniform disc of the same material with half the radius
and half the thickness is placed coaxially on top of the first disc. The two discs are uniformly
rough over their surface (coefficient of friction = ), so friction acts between them for a time
duration t until both discs are rotating with common angular velocity .
Two uniform solid spherical balls of radius r and 2r and of same density are
welded together and released in a very long viscous liquid column of lesser
density and viscosity .
11. Find the gravitational potential energy of the chain with reference level at the centre of the
hemisphere.
mgR mgR 2 mgR 2 mgR 2
(A) (B) sin (C) cos (D)
2 R R
12. Suppose the chain is released and it slides down the hemisphere. Find the tangential acceleration of the chain
(rate of change of speed of any part), when the chain starts sliding down.
Rg Rg Rg
(A) g sin (B) sin (C) 1 sin (D) 1 cos
R R R R
SECTION-2
VMC | JEE-2023 | Paper-2 5 JEE Advanced-3 | Gen 1 & 2
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
This section consists of 6 Numerical Value Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-
off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the
OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example:
6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
1. A large tank is filled with water to a height H. A small hole is made at the base of the tank. It takes T1 time to
H T
decrease the height of water to and it takes T2 time to take out the rest of water. Then the ratio 1 is
9 T2
____.
2. A block tied between two springs is in equilibrium. If upper spring is cut then the
acceleration of block just after cut is 6 m/s2 downwards. Now, if instead of the
upper spring, lower spring is cut then the acceleration of block just after cut will be
__________ m/s2. (g = 10 m/s2)
4. A satellite is moving with constant speed v in a circular orbit around earth. An object of mass m is ejected
from the satellite such that it just escapes the gravitational pull of earth. At the time of its ejection, the kinetic
n
energy of the object is mv 2 . The value of n is __________.
2
5. A long, thin glass capillary is dipped just below the surface of water filled in a beaker to a height h1 12cm .
Now, oil is poured gently into the beaker to a height h2 10cm . It is now observed that the surface of water
in the capillary is at the same level as the surface of oil in the beaker. If the radius of the capillary is
104 m , find .
[Given: water 103 kg m 3 oil 7.14 102 kgm 3 , g = 9.8 m/s2,
Surface Tension of water = 0.07 N/m
Angle of contact of water with glass = 0°,
the oil and water are immiscible]
6. A particle is projected from ground with initial speed v 30m / s and projection angle 60 from
horizontal. If R is the radius of curvature of the trajectory of the particle when during flight particle’s velocity
make an angle with horizontal, then find the value of R 3 (Take g = 10).
2
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section consists of 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
3
1. A sample of NaOH has some M 2 (CO3 )3 as impurity. Also the metal ion M is inert to HCl. 2.0 g of the
above sample was dissolved to make 100 mL of solution which required 350 mL of a 0.10 M HCl solution to
reach the phenolphthalein end point. At the phenolphthalein end point, some methyl orange indicator were
added and a further 150 mL of same HCl was required to reach second end point. Which of the following
is(are) correct as per given information?
(A) M 2 (CO3 )3 is 60% by weight
(B) Atomic weight of metal M is 40
(C) Molecular weight of
M 2 (CO3 )3 240 (D) Percentage weight of NaOH is 40%
2. Consider the reaction 2CO 2 (g) heat. Under what conditions shift is
2CO(g) O2 (g)
undeterminable or no change.
(A) Addition of O 2 and decrease in volume
(D) Cl and Ca 2 are isoelectronic species but first one is bigger in size than the second
5. If intermolecular force of attraction between the particles of a real gas is zero, which of the following graphs
is/are correct regarding that gas (Z = compressibility factor, V = Potential energy, r = intermolecular
distance between gas particle)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SECTION-1 | Type B
This section consists of THREE (03) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
10. The pair of isochoric and isobaric processes among the transformation of states is:
(A) A to C and C to B (B) C to B and A to B
(C) A to C and A to B (D) C to B and A to B
Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 and 12
A quantity of 1.9145 g of brass containing Cu and Zn reacts with 3 M HNO3 solution, the following reactions
(unbalanced) take place.
Cu(s) HNO3 (aq) Cu 2 (aq) NO 2 (g) H 2O(l)
Zn(s) H (aq) NO3 (aq) NH 4 (aq) Zn 2 (aq) H 2O(l)
The liberated NO 2 (g) was found to be 1.23 L at 27°C and 1 atm. (At. wt Zn = 65.4, Cu = 63.5)
11. What is the percentage of copper in brass?
1. A gas present in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant pressure of 1 atm from
a volume of 3 lit. to a volume of 7 lit. In doing so, it absorbs 750 J heat from surroundings. Determine
increase in internal energy of the gas (in J). [Take 1 L atm = 101.3 J]
2. Total energy of electron in the 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV/atom. Kinetic energy of electron (in eV)
2
in the 1st excited state of Li ion is:
3. The equilibrium constant (K P ) for a homogeneous gaseous reaction at 27°C is 102 . The standard free
4. At what temperature (in K) is the average velocity of O 2 molecules equal to the root mean square velocity at
27°C? (Use 3.14 )
6. Total number of compounds in which central atom have only two lone pairs is x, then x is:
ClF4 , SeF2 , XeOF2 , XeO3 , ClF2 , SNF3 , I3 , SOCl2 , SO32
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section consists of 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
x2
The equation 2 2 1 x 2
2 x 2 x 1 2 for real number x has
x 2
1.
(A) Number of real solutions 4 (B) Number of real solutions 3
(C) Sum of real solutions 0 (D) Sum of real solutions 2
n
2. The coefficient of
x n in the expansion of 1 – 2 x 3 x 2 – 4 x 3 .. is p then
(A) p 20 if n 3 (B) p 10 if n 3
(C) p 70 if n 4 (D) p 35 if n 4
10
1
3. The value of the constant term in the binomial x 2 2 2 is also equal to
x
10
(A) number of different dissimilar terms in x1 x 2 .... x10
2 2 2
(B) 10
C0 10
C1 .... 10
C10
20
(C) Coefficient of x 10 in 1 x
(D) number of linear arrangements of 20 things of which 10 alike to one kind and rest all are different, taken all
at a times.
4. The number of ways in which five different books to be distributed among 3 persons, so that each person gets at
least one book, is equal to the number of ways in which
(A) 5 persons are allotted 3 different residential flats, so that each person is allotted at most one flat and no two
persons are allotted the same flat.
(B) Number of parallelograms formed by one set of 6 parallel lines and other set of 5 parallel lines that goes
in other direction.
(C) 5 different toys are to be distributed among 3 children , so that each child get at least one toy.
(D) 3 mathematics professors are assigned five different lectures to be delivered , so that each professor gets at
least one lecture
5. Let Pn denotes the number of ways of selecting 3 people out of ' n ' sitting in a row, if no two of them are
consecutive and Qn is the corresponding figure when they are in a circle, then
(A) Pn n 1C (B) Pn n 2 C
3 3
6. If S
12 1 1 1! 22 2 1 2!
2 .....
n 2 n 1 n !
. Then
n
12 3 1 2 2 32 2 n2 3n 2
1433 1259 1437 39
(A) S5 (B) S6 (C) S5 (D) S4
14 2 2 2
VMC | JEE-2023 | Paper-2 11 JEE Advanced-3 | Gen 1 & 2
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
SECTION-1 | Type B
This section consists of THREE (03) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
(A) ab ab bc bc ca ca 2 0
(B) ab ab bc bc ca ca 2 0
(C) ab ab bc bc ca ca 2 0
(D) ab ab bc bc ca ca 2 0
8. The condition that the equation has two purely imaginary roots, is
a b c a b c
(A) (B)
a b c a b c
a b c a b c
(C) (D)
a b c a b c
S1 : x at 2 bt c1, y at and
S 2 : x at 2 bt c2 , y at , a 0
9. S1 and S2 intersect if
(A) b 2 4a c1 c2 (B) b 2 2a c1 c2
(C) b 2 a c1 c2 (D) b 2 2a c1 c2 0
10. If the curves S1 and S2 intersect orthogonally then in addition to the condition obtained in previous question ,
coefficients must satisfy the condition
(A) a 2 b 2 2a c1 c2 0
(B) a 2 b2 2a c1 c2 0
(C) a 2 b 2 2a c1 c2 0
(D) a 2 b2 2a c1 c2 0
a0ei a1e
i
a2 e
i 2
...........
ei f ei , then we can equate real & imaginary part.
Similarly C iS e
i
f ei
1
C ei f ei e i f e i
2
1 i
S
2i
e f ei e i f e i
11. If then
2 2
1 1 1.3
1 cos 2 cos 4 cos 6 ........ to inf is equal to
2 2.4 2.4.6
(A) cos 1 cos (B) cos cos
2
(C) 2cos cos (D) 2 cos sin
2 2
a n n 1 a 2
12. If a c in a ABC, then the sum to infinity terms of the series n. sin B sin 2 B ....... is
c 2! c 2
cn an
(A) sin nA (B) sin nA
bn bn
bn
(C) sin nA (D) sin nA
cn
SECTION-2
This section consists of 6 Numerical Value Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-
off the value to TWO decimal places. If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the
OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example:
6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
200
1. The value of C0 200 C1 200 C2 200 C3 ....... 200 C148 is equal to xC y then least value of x + y is….
2. The number of rational numbers lying in the interval 2021, 2022 all whose digits after the decimal points are non-
zero and are in decreasing order, is ______.
3.
2
If the equation x nx n 0, n I , has integral roots, then the number integral values n2 4n can assume
4. The absolute value of sec 610 cos ec160 cot 380 tan 470 is
1
1k 1 s
5. If S 2
and t 2
, then the value of
t
is equal to
k 1 k k 1 k
p
6. If k k z
2
z
2
k R then principal argument of z is
q
(H.C.F. p, q 1). The value of
p q is ….