Phase-I

Test Date: 30/07/2021

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 MM : 264

Test – 86 (Paper - 1)_Actual Pattern-2015

Topics covered :
Physics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer
sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all
pages and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No.,
Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned
to the invigilator.
1. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
has 3 sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which one or more than one is/are
correct. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted
and –2 marks for wrong answer.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns
(Column I and Column II). Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has
five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in Column I with the entries in
Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
Each entry in Column I carries +2 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1. Two smooth spheres A and B of mass 2 kg and 1 kg respectively and same radius are moving with 8 m/sec and
4 m/sec on a smooth horizontal surface. During collision, they exert impulse of magnitude J on each other.
If minimum magnitude of ‘J’ (in N-s) for which sphere ‘A’ will change its direction of velocity, is Jmin, then
J
find min .
2

2. A light string ABCDE whose mid point is C passes through smooth rings B and D, which are fixed in a
vertical plane distance 2a apart. To each of the points A, C and E is attached a mass m. Initially C is held
at rest at O (mid point BD) and is then set free. What is the distance OC (in m) when C comes to
instantaneous rest?

3. The line of action of the resultant of two like parallel forces shifts by one-fourth of the distance between the
x
forces when the two forces are interchanged. The ratio of the two forces is . Find x.
2+ x
x2
4. The density of a thin rod of length ‘L’ veries with the distance ‘x’ from one end as ( x ) = 0 . If the
L2
3L
position of centre of mass of the rod xcm = then find the value of ‘Z’ (0 ⎯⎯→ constant)
Z
5. A capacitor in an LC oscillator has a maximum potential difference of 15 V and a maximum energy of
360 J. At a certain instant the energy in the capacitor is 40 J. At that instant what is the emf induced (In
V) in the inductor?
6. A ray incident at a point B at an angle of incidence  enter into a glass sphere and is reflected and refracted
at the farther surface of the sphere, as shown in figure. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays

at this surface is 90°. If refractive index of material of sphere is 3 , then value of in degree is
12

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 FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A)
7. Ram see his friend Shyam through a thick glass slab (n = 1.5). Shyam is at a distance of 100 cm from him,
but he seems to be at a distance of 98 cm from himself. What is the thickness (in cm) of the slab?
8. A spring of spring constant 2000 N/m is suspended vertically in earth’s gravitational field and a mass of
0.8 kg is hung from it. It is hanging in equilibrium. At t = 0, a force of 72 N starts acting in vertically downward

direction. The force ceases to act at t = sec. If the amplitude of resulting SHM (in mm) after that is A,
2
A
then find value of .
12

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

9. Gravitational force with which a body attracts the other is always equal to the force with which the other
attracts the first. Assuming no other force acting on the bodies, choose the correct statement.
(A) Both the bodies always have equal acceleration
(B) Both the bodies may have equal acceleration
(C) Both the bodies may not have equal acceleration
(D) The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two bodies is zero
10. Two light wires A and B shown in the figure are made of the same material and have radii rA and rB
respectively. The block between them has a mass m. When the force F is mg/3, one of the wires break?

(A) A will break before B if rA = rB

(B) A will break before B if rA< 2rB
(C) Either A or B may break if rA = 2rB
(D) The lengths of A and B must be known to predict which wire will break
11. The (x, y) coordinates of the corners of a square plate are (0, 0), (L, 0), (L, L) and (0, L). The edges of the
plate are clamped and transverse standing waves are set up in it. If u(x, y) denotes the displacement of a
particle of the plate at the point (x, y) at some instant of time, the possible expression(s) for u is(are) (a =
positive constant)

x y x y
(A) a cos cos (B) a sin sin
2L 2L 2L 2L
x 2y 2x y
(C) a sin sin (D) a cos cos
L L L L
12. If a liquid rises to the same height in two cylindrical capillaries of the same material at the same
temperature
(A) The weight of liquid in both capillaries must be equal
(B) The radius of meniscus must be equal
(C) The capillaries radius may be different
(D) The hydrostatic pressure at the base of capillaries must be the same

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Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

13. The electric potential at point ‘P’ at a certain distance from a point charge (Q 0) is 600 V and the electric
field is 200 NC1. Which of the following statements will be true?

(A) The magnitude of the charge (Q0) is 20 × 103 C

(B) The distance of the given point (r0) from the charge is 3 m
(C) The potential at a distance of 9 m will be 200 volt
(D) The magnitude of work done in slowly moving a point charge of 1 C from the given point P to a
distance of 9 m will be 4 × 104J
14. Which of the following statement are incorrect regarding the AC circuit shown in the adjacent figure?

(A) The rms value of current through the circuit is irms = 5 2 A

 1
(B) The phase difference between source emf and current is  = cos−1  
 3
(C) Average power dissipated in the circuit is 500 W
(D) Power factor of the circuit is 1
15. When an electron jumps from n = 6 to n = 2 in hydrogen like atom
(A) Total ten emission lines will be obtained
(B) Angular momentum will increase by three times
(C) Kinetic energy will increase six times
(D) Potential energy will increase three times

16. Let E = 2xy iˆ + x ˆj be the electric field distribution in the space. (All are in SI units)
2

Then which of the following options is/are correct? [k → constant]

(A) Electric field is zero on y-axis
(B) Electric field will make an angle of 60° with +ve x-axis at point (2,1)
(C) Volume charge density, v = 20y
(D) Volume charge density, v = 0y
17. Two parallel plate capacitors are constructed one by a pair of iron plates and the second by a pair of
copper plates of same area and same spacings. Then
(A) The copper plate capacitor has a greater capacitance than the iron one
(B) Both capacitors have equal, non-zero capacitances in the uncharged state
(C) Both capacitors will have equal capacitances only if they are charged equally
(D) The capacitances of the two capacitors are equal even if they are unequally charged
18. Which statement(s) is/are true? (Consider varied different refractive index of surrounding medium)
(A) Convex lens is always converging (B) Concave lens is always diverging
(C) Convex lens may be diverging (D) Concave lens may be converging
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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A)
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :

For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

19. An artificial satellite is in circular orbit around the earth. One of the rockets of the satellite is momentarily fired,
the direction of rocket is mentioned in Column - I and corresponding changes are given in Column - II. Consider
that magnitude of change in momentum due to firing of rockets is only a fraction of momentum of the satellite.

Match the Column - I with Column – II

Column-I Column II

(A) Towards the earth’s centre (P) Orbit changes and becomes elliptical

(B) Away from the earth’s centre (Q) Plane of the orbit changes

(C) At right angle to the plane of orbit (R) Semi-major axis of orbit increases

(D) In forward direction (S) Energy of earth-satellite system increases

(T) Energy of earth-satellite system decreases

20. Match the Column - I with Column – II

Column-I Column-II

(A) In transverse plane travelling harmonic (P) At a given instant, phase difference between the

wave in a string two particles can exist between 0 to 2

(B) In longitudinal pressure harmonic plane (Q) At given instant, two different particles with

travelling wave different energy may be travelling in the same

direction

(C) In longitudinal density harmonic plane (R) Total energy of a particle may be zero at one

travelling wave instant

(D) In longitudinal harmonic stationary wave (S) Pressure variation with time takes place at all
positions in the medium

(T) Amplitude of oscillation of two particles of the

medium may be different

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Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

PART – II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

21. A radioactive element undergoes first order decomposition. The time taken for its decomposition to 1/4 and
1/10 of its initial concentration are t1/4 and t1/10 respectively. What is the value of  t1/ 4  × 10? (log 2 = 0.3)
 
 t1/10 

22. Consider the following purification techniques which can be used for the metals/elements:
(1) Cupellation – Copper
(2) Zone refining – Germanium
(3) Mond’s process – Zinc
(4) Poling – Tin
(5) Van Arkel process – Titanium
(6) Liquation – Tin
(7) Electrolytic refining – Copper
(8) Leaching process – Gold
If number of correctly matched techniques = x
If number of incorrectly matched techniques = y
Find the value of x – y
23. If for the reaction at 27°C, 2A(g) + B(g) 2C(g), U = 25.6 kcal and entropy of A, B, C are 200, 100, 500
x
cal/K mol respectively, then the magnitude of G (in kcal) of reaction is x. The value of is
25

24. Number of possible alkene isomers [excluding stereoisomers] will be:

25. Consider the two first order reaction with rate constants k 1 and k2
M → N, k1 = 2.0 × 103 s–1
N → M, k2 = 6.0 × 103 s–1
If 1 mole of M and 3 mole of N are allowed to mix in one litre vessel to attain equilibrium. Equilibrium
concentration of M in mol L–1 is ______
26. Most stable oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3. If radius of Er 3+ is 88 pm. Some of ions are given below
and out of which ‘x’ number of ion have larger radii than 88 pm
La3+, Ce3+, Pr3+, Nd3+, Tb3+, Eu3+, Yb3+, Tm3+, Gd3+, Sm3+
The value of x is
27. Na2S2O3 is used in the bleaching industry to destroy any excess Cl 2 on fabric after they have been passed
through a bleach bath. 15.8 g of Na2S2O3 react with 30.4 g of Cl2 in excess of H2O then the mass of sulphur
containing compound formed due to this reaction is x g. This sulphur containing compound is acid salt.
x
The value of is
4
28. Dithionic acid, thiosulphuric acid and dithionous acid contain x, y and z number of  bonds respectively.
Then x + y + z is
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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A)
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

29. Which of the following is(are) correct statements regarding the structure of compound PBr 3F2?
(A) Both F occupy axial positions (B) Only two Br occupy axial positions
(C) Both F occupy equatorial positions (D) One F and one Br occupy axial position
30 PCl5 + SO2  A + B
Which is/are the hydrolysis product(s) of A & B ?
(A) HCl (B) H2SO4
(C) H3PO4 (D) H2SO3
31. Select the correct statement(s) :
(A) The total sum of formal charges on H, N and C in HNC is 0
(B) The correct set of formal charge on H, N and C respectively in HNC is 0, +1, –1
(C) HCN and HNC molecules produce different ions in aqueous solution
(D) HCN and HNC molecules produce same number of ions in aqueous solution
32. Select correct options(s) :
(A) Decreasing order of bond order is SO24−  PO34−
3− 2−
(B) Decreasing order of bond order is PO4  SO4
(C) Octet rule is not followed by N in NO2
(D) BF3 is hypervalent species and XeF2 is hypovalent species
33. Given the following nine aqueous solutions.

Select correct option(s) :

(A) Solution (7) has minimum g/L of solute
(B) Only two solutions have same g/L of solute
(C) On dividing by ten in four solutions g/L of solute value is whole number
(D) Only two solutions have g/L of solute less than 10 g/L
34. A vessel initially contains two gases A and B in the mass ratio 2 : 1 respectively. If the above gas mixture
is allowed to effuse through a hole then the molar composition of the mixture coming initially out of hole is
1 : 4. Select correct option(s) :
(A) The simplest whole number ratio of the moles of gases A and B present in the vessel in the beginning
respectively is 1 : 2
(B) The simplest whole number ratio of the moles of gases A and B present in the vessel in the beginning
respectively is 1 : 8
(C) If the mass ratio of gases A and B required in the final concentrated sample is 1 : 32 then the number
of successive steps of effusion to be carried out is 5
(D) If the mass ratio of gases A and B required in the final concentrated sample is 1 : 32, then the number
of successive steps of diffusion to be carried out is 6

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Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

35. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT statement(s).

OH
HO
(A) and are Position isomers.

(B) CH3 — CH == CH — CH == CH2 and are ring chain isomer of each others.

(C) are chain isomers

(D) are chain isomers.

36. If at 298 K, the solubility of AgCl in 0.05 M BaCl2(completely dissociated) is found to be very nearly 10 –9 M

and EoAg/Ag+ = −0.80V. Then the value of EoCl– /AgCl/Ag at the same temperature will be

(A) 1.39 V

(B) 0.8295 V

(C) –0.7705 V

(D) 0.21 V

37. The amino acid lysine (lys), has a basic side chain (amino group) as well as its -amino and carboxylic

groups. Its acid-base equilibrium is as follow

The two highest pKa values of lysine are 9.12 and 10.53. Find out the net charge on lysine at
pH = 6:

(A) Zero (B) +1

(C) –1 (D) +2

38. Which of the following is/are correct name for the given polymer?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A)
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

39. Match the reaction in Column-I with the (a) molar ratio of their respective reductant and oxidant and (b)
number of water molecules produced in balanced reaction (with smallest possible integers) values given
in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
− − − −
(A) Bi2O3 + CIO + OH → BiO + Cl 3 (P) 4 molar ratio

2
(B) MnO + PbO2 + H+ → MnO −4 + Pb 2+ (Q) molar ratio
5
1
(C) TeO32− + I− + H+ → Te + I2 (R) molar ratio
2
(D) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− + Cr2O3 + OH− → [Fe(CN)6 ]4− + CrO24− (S) Number of water molecules produced is odd
number
(T) Number of water molecules produced is
even number
40. Match the Column I with Column II
Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R)

(D) (S)

(T) Rearrangement in carbon skeleton

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Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

PART – III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
6, 0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

sec x    8
41. Let f ( x ) = cos x + , x   − ,  ; if m is the minimum value of f(x) then the value of m is equal to
2
4  2 2  3
1
sin−1 x  2 
42. Let I =  1− x + x2 dx , then the value of 
 3I
 (where [] denotes the greatest integer function) is
0

( )
20
10 a7
43. Let 2x 2 + 3 x + 4 =  ar x r , then the value of , is ______________
r =0 a13
44. If the end points A and B of the diameter of a circle are such that their abscissas are the roots of the
equation x2 + 2ax – 16 = 0 and their ordinates are the roots of x2 + 24x – 9 = 0, If a  N and radius ‘R’ of
the circle, with AB as diameter is an integer then, R – a = ____
45. Let y = f(x) be a curve passing through (e, ee) and satisfy the differential equation (2ny + xylnx)dx – xlnxdy
e
= 0. If g(x) = lim f ( x ) , then the value of  g ( x ) dx is _____________
n →
1/ e

46. If number of integral values of ‘m’ for which exactly one root of the equation. x2 + 3mx + m2 – 4 = 0 lies on
k 
the interval (–6, 2) is k. Then   = (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
5
47. If [1 + tan(k + 13)][1 + tan(k + 14)][1 + tan(k + 15)] … [1 + tan(31 – k)][1 + tan(32 – k)] = , where 
 +
and  are prime numbers then  +  −   is equal to _________
 5 
1 1 i 3
48. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex number satisfying z1 + z2 + z3 = z1z2 + z2z3 + z3 z1 and z2 = . If z2 = −
z1z3 2 2
and Re(z3)  1, then Re(z3 ) + Im(z3 ) (where [x] = greatest integer function), is ____________

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

49. If the sum of the first 100 terms of an A.P. is – 1 and the sum of the even terms lying in first 100 terms is
1 then
3
(A) Common difference of the sequence is
50
149
(B) First term of the sequence is –
50
74
(C) 100th term is the sequence is
25
(D) Zero is not a term in this A.P.

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A)

2 1 a b 
50. Let A =   be a matrix. If A10 =   then
0 3  c d 
(A) Number of factors of a is 11
(B) b is an even integer
(C) Number of factors of a + b + c + d is 22
(D) a + d is a multiple of 13
51. PQ and RS are normal chords of the parabola y2 = 8x, being normal at P and R and the points P, Q, R, S
are concyclic, then
(A) tangents at P and R meet at x-axis
(B) tangents at P and R meet at y-axis
(C) PR is parallel to y-axis
(D) PR is parallel to x-axis
(1 + x 2 )( 2 + x 2 )
52.  ( x cos x + sin x )4 dx equals

tan3 ( x + cot −1 x ) tan3 ( x − cot −1 x )

(A) tan ( x + cot −1 x ) + +c (B) tan ( x − cot −1 x ) + +c
3 3
3 3
1  1 − x tan x   1 − x tan x  1  1 + x tan x   1 + x tan x 
(C)−   − +c (D) −   − +c
3  x + tan x   x + tan x  3  x − tan x   x − tan x 
53. Let position vector of the orthocentre of ABC be r . Then, which of following statement(s) is/are correct
Given position vector of points A, B, C are aiˆ , bjˆ , ckˆ and abc  0)
a 1
(A) r  iˆ = (B) r  iˆ =
1
+
1
+
1  1 1 1
a 2 + 2 + 2 
a2 b2 c 2 a b c 
r  iˆ r  jˆ r  kˆ a b c r  iˆ r  jˆ r  kˆ b c a
(C) + + = + + (D) + + = + +
r  jˆ r  kˆ r  iˆ b c a r  jˆ r  kˆ r  iˆ a b c

54. ( )
sin−1 2 x 1 − x 2 for − 1  x  1 is equal to

1 1 1
(A)  − 2sin−1(x) for  x 1 (B) 2sin−1(x) for − x
2 2 2
1 1
(C) −  − 2sin−1(x) for −1  x  − (D) 2cos−1(x) for  x 1
2 2
sin2 x 1
55. If f(x) be a cubic polynomial and lim = then f(1) can be equal to
x →0 f ( x ) 3
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 31 (D) 331
56. Locus of the point of intersection of two perpendicular tangents to an ellipse is x2 + y2 = 25. Then the
equation of tangents to such ellipse at its point of intersection with the line y = x can be (length of semi
major and semi minor axis of the ellipse are integers)
(A) 16x + 9y = 60 (B) 16x + 9y + 60 = 0
(C) 9x + 16y = 60 (D) 9x + 16y + 60 = 0
57. In a triangle ABC, if a2 – b2 – c2 + (x – 2)bc = 0, then x can be equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
58. K subsets of a set A  {1, 2, 3, …, n} are chosen at random with replacement. The probability that their
intersection is
n n
 1 3
(A) Empty is   for K = 2 (B) Empty is   for K = 2
2 4
n n−1
7 7
(C) Empty is   for K = 3 (D) Singleton is n   for K = 3
8 8

11) Aakash Educational Services Limited – Registered Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 11]
Test-86_Paper-1 (Code-A) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

SECTION - 3

Matching Column Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)

59. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
 1
 x sin ; x  0
(A) f (x) =  x (P) Differentiable at x = 0

 0, x =0
 1 + x, x 0

(B) g ( x ) =  x, 0  x 1 (Q) Continuous at x = 0
2 – x, 1  x  2

| sin x |
 , x 0
(C) h( x ) =  x (R) Discontinuous at x = 0

 1, x =0
e –|x|, x  0
(D) k( x ) =  (S) Not differentiable at x = 0
 1, x =0
(T) Discontinuous at x = 1
60. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
x −1 y +1 z +1 6
(A) If the line = = lies in the plane (P) sin−1
1 −2 λ 25
3x – 2y + 5z = 0, then  is equal to
7
(B) If (3, , ) is a point on the line (Q) −
5
2x + y + z – 3 = 0 = x – 2y + z – 1, then  + 
is equal to
(C) The angle between the line x = y = z and the (R) –3
plane 4x – 3y + 5z = 2 is
8
(D) The angle between the planes x + y + z = 0 and (S) cos−1
75
3x – 4y + 5z = 0 is
3
(T) cos−1
5

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Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 12]