Phase-I

Test Date: 20/08/2021

B
CODE

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Time : 3 hrs FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 MM : 240

Test – 92 (Paper - 2)_Actual Pattern-2015

Topics covered :
Physics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer
sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all
pages and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No.,
Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to
the invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
has 3 sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer.
There is no negative mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice
(A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted and –2 marks
for wrong answer.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has one or more than one correct
answer and carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted and –2 marks
for wrong answer.

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Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6,
0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

1. A tangential force ‘F’ is applied at the topmost point of a spherical shell of mass m kept on a rough

6F
horizontal surface. If it rolls without slipping, it’s acceleration is , then ‘x’ is
xm

2. A motorcycle’s horn is putting out a 3015 Hz sound as it moves eastward towards a stationary observer.
A train sounds its horn at 855 Hz as it heads westward away from that same observer. If the observer
hears the train as 850 Hz and the motorcycle’s horn as 3060 Hz, what is the speed of the motorcycle
relative to the train (in m/s)? (Use 340 m/s as the speed of sound in air.)

3. Two identical straight wires PQ and RS each of mass m and length l can move smoothly on a fixed
rectangular frame. Two thin films of a liquid of surface tension T are formed between each wire and the
frame. The two wires are connected by a massless spring of stiffness k and initially in natural length
position. Wires are released from rest. If time period of oscillation of wires in millisecond is 2 × k, then find

10−4 kg
value of k . (Given m = ; k = 2 N/m2.)
π2

P R

Q S

4. Two particles of mass m and 4m, moving in vacuum at right angles to each other experience same force

F for the same time T simultaneously. Consequently the particle m moves with velocity 4v in its original
direction. If new magnitude of the velocity v′ (in m/s) of the particle 4m is k × 5, then find value of k. (Given

v = 20 m/s)

m v m 4v
y

4m 4m
x
v′
v
Before After

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)
R
5. A wire AB of length 10 m and mass 1 kg is placed on a two vertical supports each having resistance .
2
The wire AB is free to move. A cell is connected to the free ends as shown in the figure. It is placed in a
uniform magnetic field of intensity 2 T . Now switch k is closed for a short time, so that charge flown in
this interval in the circuit is 1C. Find the maximum height (in meter) attained by the wire AB. Neglect the
inductive effect of the wire and the loop (g = 10 m/s2)
× × × × × × × ×
A B
× × × × × × × ×
L
× × × × × × × ×
R/2
R/2

6. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is 9 cm. The lens is now
displaced until an image of height 4 cm is again obtained on the screen. The height of the object
is________ cm

λD
7. In the modified YDSE arrangement shown in the figure, y0 = , where λ is wavelength of light used.
3d
The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity observed on screen is n. The value of n is_______.

8. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (ν) for a metal
used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. The work function of metal is _______eV

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from ground with a speed of 10 m/sec. Which of the option(s) are
possible for complete path (before ball again reaches the ground)? (Neglect air resistance)
(A) Ball will have a speed of 11 m/sec in its path
(B) Ball will have a speed of 5 m/sec at two instants of time
(C) Ball will have a speed of 3 m/sec at only one instant of time
(D) Ball will be instantaneously at rest only once

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Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

10. A biconvex lens of focal length 30 cm has radii of curvature of surfaces in ratio 3 : 2. It is cut into two to
form two plano-convex lenses. Then the focal length of two lenses are
(A) 90 cm (B) 50 cm
(C) 40 cm (D) 75 cm
11. Two point masses M are kept fixed on the x-axis at a distance a from the origin, another point mass m is
moving in a circular path of radius R (in y-z plane) under the influence of gravitational force of attraction.
(Assume no forces are acting on 'm' other than the gravitational forces by two M)
y

M O M
a a x

2GMR 2
(A) The speed of ‘m’ is v0 = 3

(R 2
+a 2 2
)
3GMR 2
(B) The speed of m is v0 = 3

( R 2 + a2 ) 2

(C) Time period of revolution is T0 = 2π

( R 2 + a2 ) 2

2GM
3

(D) Time period of revolution is T0 = 2π

(
a2 R 2 + a2 ) 2

3GMR 2

12. A puck is connected to a string kept on a smooth table. The puck revolves about another end of the string
in a horizontal circle with uniform angular velocity
(A) Instantaneous power imparted by string to puck is zero
(B) The force exerted by the string remains constant in magnitude
(C) The angular momentum of the puck about the centre keeps on changing direction, but the magnitude
remains constant
(D) At any given instant, force, velocity and angular velocity vectors are mutually perpendicular
13. In the shown P-V diagram, AB is isothermal process. Select correct option(s)

(A) Work done by the gas during the cycle is positive

(B) Heat flows out of gas during BC and CA
(C) The internal energy of gas remains constant during AB
(D) The minimum temperature during cycle is at C

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)
14. In the figure, a ladder of mass m is shown leaning against a wall. It is in static equilibrium making an angle θ
with the horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is µ1, and that between
the floor and the ladder is µ2. The normal reaction of the wall on the ladder is N1 and that of the floor is N2.
If the ladder is about to slip, then

mg mg
(A) µ1= 0, µ2 ≠ 0 and N2 tan θ= (B)=
µ1 ≠ 0, µ2 0 and
= N1 tan θ
2 2

mg mg
(C) µ1 ≠ 0, µ2 ≠ 0 and N2 = (D) µ1= 0, µ2 ≠ 0 and N1 tan θ=
1 + µ1µ2 2

15. For given figure, mA is 30 kg and mB = mC = 5 kg respectively. All contact surfaces are smooth. (g = 10
m/s2). Select the correct statements

(A) Acceleration of block A, B and C are 1 m/s2, 3 m/s2 and 5 m/s2 respectively

(B) Contact force between B and ground is 350 N

(C) Tension in string is 30 N

(D) Contact force between ‘B’ and ‘C’ is 15 N

16. An electron accelerated by a potential difference V = 3.6 V, first enters a region of uniform electric field of
a parallel-plate capacitor whose plates extend over a length l = 6 cm in the direction of initial velocity. The
electric field is normal to the direction of initial velocity as shown in figure and its strength varies with time
as E = a × t, where a = 3200 Vm–1s–1. Then the electron enters a region of uniform magnetic field of
induction B = π × 10−9 T. Direction of magnetic field is same as that of the electric field. (Mass of electron(m)
= 9 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C). [Neglect the effect of induced magnetic field]

(A) Path followed by the electron while moving in electric field is parabolic

(B) Path followed by the electron while moving in magnetic field is helical

(C) Pitch of helical path of electron is 9 mm

(D) Pitch of helical path of electron is 29 mm

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Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should has
one or more than one correct answers among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 and 18

A cylindrical vessel is divided by smooth adiabatic piston having length of each part equal to l. Both parts of
cylinder contain same ideal gas having adiabatic exponent 3/2. Initial pressure, volume and temperature of each
1
part is shown in figure. Now the gas in part 1 is heated slowly till final volume of part 2 became th of its initial
4
volume.
1 2

P0 , V0 P0 , V 0
T0 T0

17. Let P2, T2 be the final pressure and temperature of part 2, then
(A) P2 = 4P0 (B) T2 = T0
(C) P2 = 8P0 (D) T2 = 2T0
18. Change in internal energy of gas of the system is
(A) 26 P0V0 (B) 28 P0V0
(C) 18 P0V0 (D) 24 P0V0

Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 and 20

In the given circuit, capacitor is initially uncharged. At t = 0, switch S is closed. Current in ammeter just after
V
closing the circuit is .
9R

19. If q is the final charge on capacitor and RA is the resistance of ammeter, then

4CV 3CV
(A) q = (B) q =
5 5

(C) RA = 11R (D) RA = 4R

20. The current flowing in the branch of capacitor is
−5t −5t
3V 9Rc 4V 9Rc
(A) e (B) e
9R 9R
−4t
V 3Rc
(C) e (D) None of these
9R
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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6,
0 and 9 in OMR respectively.

X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

21. When a mixture of Fe2(C2O4)3 and FeC2O4 having mole ratio 1 : 2 reacts with acidic KMnO4, all carbon

converts into 10 mol CO2(g). Calculate total moles of original mixture.

22. In how many of the following compounds, ring is the parent (principal) chain?

23. Cocaine is hallucinogen used widely. What is the degree of unsaturation of

cocaine?

24. 1.0 mol of Fe reacts completely with 0.65 mol of O2 to give a mixture of only FeO and Fe2O3. The moles of

ferric oxide in the mixture is x, then the value of 10x is ______.

 5 
25. A gas  Cv, m = R  behaving ideally is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from 1 L to 32 L. Its
 2 

initial temperature is 327°C. The molar enthalpy change for the process in kcal mol–1 is X. Report the value

of X in nearest integer. (Use R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1)

−
OH
26. CH3 — CH
= O + PhCH2 — CH
= O  → mixture of aldols (z). Total number of aldols including

x
stereoisomers is x. Then the value of is
3
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 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

27. Observe the following reaction and find out that how many number of reactant stereoisomers can be
reduced to optically inactive meso products?

28. For the reaction, A → products, the following data is given for a particular run.
Time (min.) : 0 5 15 35
1
(M−1 ) : 1 2 4 8
[ ]
A

Determine the order of the reaction.

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.

29. 78.3 g of a volatile metal chloride, when vapourised, occupies volume of 6.72 litre at STP. When 10.44 g
of the metal chloride was heated with an excess of Mg powder, 7.6 g of MgCl2 was produced along with
metal. (Consider the metal chloride is a monomer even in vapour phase and contain only 1 metal atom per
formula). Then, identify the correct statement(s):
(A) The atomic mass of metal is 119 u
(B) The oxidation number of the metal in metal chloride is 3
(C) 5.95 g of metal is obtained on the reaction of above sample of metal chloride with Mg powder
(D) The mass of Mg powder used in the above reaction of metal chloride with Mg is 2.4 g, if the Mg powder
used is 80% pure
30. Given for H-atom
3/2
1  1
=R(r)   (6 − 6σ + σ2 )e−σ /2
9 3  a0 

2Zr
where
= σ = , a0 0.53Å
na0

Select the correct statement(s) for the given orbital?

(A) Orbital is 3s
(B) Graph for the given orbital is :

(C) Distance between radial nodes is equal to a0

(D) Orbital is 3p
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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)
31. Which of the following reaction will go faster if the concentration of the nucleophile is increased?

(A) (B)

H2O
(C) (CH3 )3 CCl 
CH COOH
→ (D)
3

32. Which one can be the product of the following reaction?

(A) A diacid (B) A hydroxy monoacid

(C) A diol (D) A hydroxyphenol
33. In which of the following, chloride ion gets oxidised ?
(A) dil. HCl + KMnO4 (B) HCl (conc.) + CrO42–
(C) NaCl + MnCl2 (D) HCl (conc.) + Cr2O72–
34. The compound(s) which has (have) peroxy linkage is (are)
(A) H2S2O3 (B) H2SO5
(C) H2S2O7 (D) H2S2O8
35. Hydrogen bonding is present in which of the following species?
(A) CH3NH2 (B) CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3COOH (D) CCl3CH(OH)2
36. What is the lowest molecular weight of saturated cyclic hydrocarbon which has only two chiral centres
(do not use isotopes of H)?
(A) 50 g mol–1 (B) 30 g mol–1
(C) 70 g mol–1 (D) 40 g mol–1
SECTION - 3

Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should has
one or more than one correct answers among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Paragraph for Question Nos. 37 and 38

Metallurgy:
The scientific and technological process used for the extraction/isolation of the metal from its ore is called
as metallurgy.
This isolation and extraction of metal from their ores involve the following major steps:
(A) Crushing of the ore
(B) Dressing or concentration of the ore
(C) Isolation of the crude metal from its ore
(D) Purification or refining of the metal
Answer the following questions regarding metallurgical operations:
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct related to extraction of “Tin” from cassiterite (tinstone)?
(A) Iron tungstate is removed by magnetic separation method
(B) SiO2 is removed by heating with CaO in the form of slag
(C) Tin oxide is reduced by carbon reduction method into tin metal
(D) Tin is refined by Hall Heroult method

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Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021

38. Which of the following reaction(s) is/are incorrect about metallurgical process of copper metal from copper
pyrite?

(A) CuFeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + CuO + SO2

(B) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2

(C) CuO + SiO2 → CuSiO3

(D) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 and 40

A system of greater disorder of molecules is more probable. The disorder of molecules is reflected by the entropy
of the system. A liquid vaporizes to form a more disordered gas. When a solute is present, there is additional
contribution to the entropy of the liquid due to increase randomness. As the entropy of solution is higher than
that of pure liquid, there is weaker tendency to form the gas. Thus, a solute (non volatile) lowers the vapour
pressure of a liquid, and hence a higher boiling point of the solution.

Similarly, the greater randomness of the solution opposes the tendency to freeze. In consequence, a lower the
temperature must be reached for achieving the equilibrium between the solid (frozen solvent) and the solution.
Elevation of B.Pt. (∆Tb) and depression of F.Pt. (∆Tf) of a solution are the colligative properties which depend
only on the concentration of particles of the solute, not on their identity. For dilute solutions, ∆Tb and ∆Tf are
proportional to the molality of the solute in the solution.
2
RTb0 M
∆Tb = Kbm ; Kb = Ebullioscopic constant =
1000∆Hvap

2
RTf0 M
And ∆Tf = Kfm ; Kf = Cryoscopic constant = (M = Molecular mass of the solvent)
1000∆Hfus

For solutes undergoing change of molecular state is solution (ionization or association), the observed ∆T values
differ from the calculate ones using the above relations. In such situations, the relationships are modified as

∆Tb = iKbm; ∆Tf = iKfm

Where i = van’t Hoff factor, greater than unity for ionization and smaller than unity for association of the solute
molecules.

39. Depression of freezing point of which of the following solutions does represent the cryoscopic constant of
water?

(A) 6% by mass of urea in aqueous solution

(B) 100 g of aqueous solution containing 18 g of glucose

(C) 59 g of aqueous solution containing 9 g of glucose

(D) 1 m KCl solution in water.

40. Dissolution of a non-volatile solute into a liquid leads to the

(A) Increase of entropy

(B) Increase in tendency of the liquid to freeze

(C) Increase in tendency to pass into the vapour phase.

(D) Decrease in tendency of the liquid to freeze

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)
PART – III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6,
0 and 9 in OMR respectively.
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

( x − 2 )10
4
k
41. If the values of x satisfying the equation | x − 2 |log3 x −3 logx 9
1 are 3k1 and 3 2 , (k1 < k2), then the
=
value of ( k1 + 12k2 ) is equal to

456 333
42. The remainder when ( 3053 ) − ( 2417 ) is divided by 9 is

43. A be a square matrix of order 2 with |A| ≠ 0 such that |A + |A| adj(A)| = 0, where adj(A) is an adjoint of
matrix A, then the value of |A – |A| adj(A)| is

 α α 
44. If P  1 + , 2+  be any point on a line then the number of integral values of α for which the point P
 2 2
lies between the parallel lines x + 2y = 1 and 2x + 4y = 15 is

45. Angle between the asymptotes of the hyperbola x 2 + 2 xy − 3 y 2 + x + 7 y + 9 =0 is θ. Then tan θ is equal
to

46. If asinθ + bcosθ = acosec θ – bsecθ =1, then a 2 + b 2 =+

1 b α − bβ . The value of α + β is equal to

max g (t ), 0 ≤ t ≤ x; 0 ≤ x < 3
47. f(x) =  , where g(x) = x + sin x.
min g (t ), x ≤ t ≤ 0; −3 ≤ x < 0
The sum of all the values of x for which f(x) is not differentiable in [–3, 3], is equal to
1
48. If the area bounded by y = f(x), y-axis and line 2y = π(x + 1) where f(x) = sin-1x + cos-1x + tan−1 + tan−1 x
x
π
is , then the value of k is ___________
k
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
  
49. a, b and c are three non-zero non-coplanar vectors with fixed magnitudes. Angles between any of the
vector with the normal of the plane containing other two is α. Volume of parallelepiped formed by
a, b and c as co-terminous edges is V and its surface area is S. Which of the following is/are true?
−1
cos α  1 
(A)
=
V   + 1 + 1 
S 2  a b c 
 
  
(B) Vmax = a b c
  
(C) a, b and c are equally inclined to each other
    
(D) If angle between a , b is θ, then angle between c and plane of a and b is 90° – θ
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Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B) FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021
1/2
dx
50. If I = ∫ , n ∈ N, then
0 1 − x 2n
(A) [I] = 1 (B) [I] = 0
π π
(C) I ≤ (D) I ≤
2 6
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
1
51. There is a set of n biased coins. The probability of getting head in the toss on the kth coin is for k =
2k + 1
1, 2, 3, …, n and the result of the toss for each coin is independent. If each coin is tossed once then
n
(A) Probability of getting odd number of heads is
2n + 1
n +1
(B) Probability of getting even number of heads or all tails is
2n + 1

4n ( n ! )
(C) Probability of getting all tails is
( 2n + 1) !
n +1
(D) Probability of getting even number of heads is
2n + 1
52. The differential equation for the family of curves y = c sinx can be given by
2 2 2
 dy  2 2  dy   dy  2
(A)   = y cot x (B)   −  sec x  +y =0
 dx   dx   dx 
2
 dy  2 dy
(C)   = tan x (D) = y cot x
 dx  dx
 1  1
53. If z = sec −1  x +  + sec −1  y +  where xy < 0, then the values of z which is (are) possible:
 x  y 
8π 7π
(A) (B)
10 10
9π 21π
(C) (D)
10 20
x +1
54. The point of inflection for the curve y = is/are
x2 + 1
 − 3 − 1  1− 3 
(A)  −2 − 3,  (B)  −2 + 3, 
 4   4 

 1+ 3 
(C)  −2 + 3,  (D) (1, 1)
 4 
55. There are 6 specified caps one each for 6 commanders at a camp. They are asked to ready for an operation
at mid night in the pitch dark. In how many ways can they put on their caps such that at least 4 of them
put on the caps of the others
(A) Coefficient of x6 in the expansion of (x + x2 + …)6
(B) Coefficient of x4 + coefficient of x5 + coefficient of x6, in the expansion of (x + x2 + x3 + …)6
(C) 664
4 ( −1)k 5 ( −1)k 6 ( −1)k
(D) P4
6
k!
+ P5 ∑k!
+ P6 6
∑ 6
∑ k!
= k 0= k 0= k 0

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FTS for JEE (Advanced)-2021 Test-92_Paper-2 (Code-B)

x y z 1
56. If the line = = intersects line 3β2x + 3(1 – 2α)y + z = 3 = – (6α2x + 3(1 – 2β)y + 2z) then point
1 2 3 2
(α, β, 1) lies on the plane
(A) 2x – y + z = 4 (B) x + y – z = 2
(C) x – 2y = 0 (D) 2x – y = 0

SECTION - 3

Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should
have one or more than one correct answers among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Paragraph for Question Nos. 57 and 58

Consider a parabola P which touches y = 0 at (1, 0) and x = 0 at (0, 2).
57. Which of the following is true about parabola P ?

 16 2   4 2
(A) The vertex of P is  ,  (B) The vertex of P is  , 
 25 25  5 5

16 5 8
(C) Latus rectum of P is (D) Latus rectum of P is
25 25

58. Which of the following is NOT true about parabola P ?

(A) The equation of directrix is 2x – y = 0 (B) The equation of directrix is x + 2y = 0
(C) The equation of axis is 2x – y = 0 (D) The equation of the axis is 10 x − 5 y − 6 =0

Paragraph for Question Nos. 59 and 60

Given two intersecting circles C1 and C2 with centres at M and N respectively. From one of the points of
intersection A, tangents are drawn to the two circles meeting the circles at B and C respectively. Let P be any
point located such that PMAN is a parallelogram. Let AB = c, BC = a, CA = b and d1, d2, d3 are the distances of
P from BC, CA and AB respectively.
59. Which of the following is true?
(A) PA < PB (B) PB < PC
(C) PC < PA (D) 2PA = PB + PC
60. Which of the following is a correct relation?

(A) 4 | PB |2 − 4(b 2 + c 2 − a 2 ) ⋅ | PB | ⋅ d1 + 4d12 − a 2 =

0

(B) 4 | PB |2 + 4(b 2 + c 2 − a 2 ) ⋅ | PB | ⋅ d1 − 4d12 + a 2 =

0

(C) 4 | PA |2 + 4(b 2 + c 2 − a 2 ) ⋅ | PB | ⋅ d1 − 4d12 + a 2 =

0

(D) 4 | PA |2 − 4(b 2 + c 2 − a 2 ) ⋅ | PB | ⋅ d1 + 4d12 − a 2 =

0

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