IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

LONG TERM NEET GRANDTEST - 1

Date :16-07-2021 Time : 3hrs
Std:LONG TERM Max. Marks :720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany

& Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology
Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has

four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded

4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to th

the correct and zero

mark if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect

answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
PHYSICS
1. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is resting inside a cube as shown in the figure. The

 
cube is moving with a velocity v  5t iˆ  2t ˆj m/s. Here t is the time in second.

All the surfaces are smooth. The sphere is at rest with respect to the cube. What
is the total force exerted by the sphere on the cube. ( neglect the gravity )

1) 29N 2) 116N 3) 26 N 4) 89N

2. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed v0. If the coefficient
of friction between the tyres and the road is  , the shortest distance in which the
car can be stopped is
2
v02 v  v  v0
1) 2) 0 3)  0  4)
2 g g  g  
3. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2,
respectively. Their speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same
time t. The ratio of their centripetal acceleration is
1) m1r1 : m2 r2 2) m1 : m2 3) r1 : r2 4) 1 : 1

4. R is the range on a horizontal plane for a shot with the same velocity at two
different angles of projection. If h and h’ be the greatest heights attained
corresponding to these angles of projection, what is R2 equal to?
1) hh 2) 9 hh 3) 16 hh 4) 25 hh
5. A car starting from rest is accelerated at constant rate until it attains a constant
speed v . It is then retarded at a constant rate until it comes to rest. Considering
that the car moves with constant speed for half of the time of total journey, the
average speed of the car for the journey is
v 3v 3v
1) 2) 3) 4) Data insufficient
4 4 2
6. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle  with the horizontal. When the
particle makes an angle  with the horizontal, its speed will be:
1) u cos  2) (u cos  ) sec 
3) (u cos  ) cos  4) (u sec  ) cos 
7. If the units of mass, length and time are doubled then unit of angular momentum
will be
1) Doubled 2) Tripled
3) Quadrupled 4) Eight times the original value

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
2021

8. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating
threads of length L from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there
is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the two suspensions and the
tension in each will be.

1] 180 , ( )
2] 90 , 3] 180 , 4] 180 ,

9. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by
E = Ar. here ‘A’ is constant, r is distance. Then charge contained in a sphere of
radius a centred at the origin of the field will be given by
1] 4πϵ Aa 2] Aϵ a 3] 4πϵ Aa 4] Aϵ a
10. Two point charges q and q of +10 C and −10
0 C,, respectively are placed 0.1 m
apart. Then, ratio of magnitudes of electric fields at A and C is

1] 4 : 1 2] 1 : 4 3] 8 : 1 4] 1 : 8
11. Two identical bar magnet are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A
stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a
distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure. The force on the centre Q is

1) zero 2) directed along OP

3) directed along PO 4) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper
12. Electric charges q, q, −2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral ∆ABC of side l.
The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
1] ql 2] 2ql 3] √3ql 4] 4ql
13. An optics of mass m is moving with velocity u⃗ towards a plane mirror kept on a
stand as shown in the figure. The mass of the mirror and stand system is m. A
head-on
on elastic collision takes place between the object and the mirror stand, the
th
velocity of image before and after the collision is

1) u⃗, 2u⃗ 2)−u⃗, −2u⃗ 3) −u⃗, 2u⃗ 4) u⃗, −2u⃗

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021

14. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for

distant objects. The separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm
and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal length f of the objective and
the focal length f of the eye piece are
1) f = 45 cm and f = - 9 cm 2) f = 7.2 cm and f = 5 cm
3) f = 30 cm and f = 6 cm 4) f = 30 cm and f = 6 cm
15. The slits in a Young’s double-slit experiment have equal widths and the source is
placed symmetrically relative to the slits. The intensity at the central fringes is I .
If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at this point will be
1) I 2) I /4 3) I /2 4) 4I
16. An observer standing near the sea shore observes 54 waves per minute. If the
wavelength of the water wave is 10m then the velocity of water wave is
1) 540 ms 1 2) 5.4 ms 1 3) 0.184 ms 1 4) 9 ms 1
17. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude a and time period T. The time
required by it to travel from x = a to x = a/2 is
1) T /6 2) T/4 3) T/3 4) T/2
18. A star moves away from Earth at speed 0.8 c while emitting light of frequency
6 x 1014 Hz. What frequency will be observed on the Earth (in units of 1014 Hz)
(c = speed of light)
1) 0.24 2) 1.2 3) 30 4) 3.3
19. Three long straight and parallel wires, carrying currents are arranged as shown
figure. The force experienced by the conductor ‘B’ of length 25 cm is
1) 4 x 10-4 N from left to right
2) 4 x 10-4 N from right to left
3) 2 x 10-4 N from left to right
4) 2 x 10-4 N from right to left

20. Across a long conductor 2A current is flowing. At 10cm from it another 5cm long
conductor carries 3A. The values of B at short conductor and force on it, in the
multiple of 10-6 are
1) 4T, 6N 2) 4T, 0.6N 3) 6N, 0.4T 4) 6N, 6T
21. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i. The magnetic field
at its centre is 6.28x10-2 Wb/m2. Another solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it
carries a current i/3. The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
1) 1.05x10-4 Wb/m2 2) 1.05x10-2 Wb/m2
3) 1.05x10-5 Wb/m2 4) 1.05x10-3 Wb/m2

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
22. The magnetic induction field at the centroid of an equilateral triangle of side ‘l’
and carrying a current ‘i’ is
√ μ μ μ √ μ
1) πℓ
2) πℓ
3) πℓ
4) πℓ
23. We plot the graph having temperature in oC on x-axis and in oF on y-axis. If the
graph is straight line, then the correct statement is
1) the line intercepts the positive x-axis
2) the line intercepts the positive y-axis
3) the line passes through origin
4) the line intercepts the negative axis of both x and y-axes
24. Heat given to a system is 35 joules and work done by the system is 15 joules.
The change in the internal energy of the system will be
1) -50 J 2) 20 J 3) 30 J 4) 50 J
25. A metal ball-bearing of specific heat capacity c moving with speed v, is brought to
rest. All its kinetic energy is converted into thermal energy which it absorbs
causing a temperature rise  . What was the value of v.
1
1) c 2) 2c 3) c 4) 2c
2
26. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water rises upto 0.1m. If
the same experiment is repeated in an artificial satellite, which is revolving
around the earth, water will rise in the capillary tube upto a height of
1) 0.1 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.98 m 4) full length of tube
27. Density of ice is 900 Kg/m3. A piece of ice is floating in water of density 1000
Kg/m3. The fraction of volume of ice outside water is
1) 0.9 2) 0.8 3) 0.6 4) 0.1
28. At what temperature is the r.m.s speed of gaseous hydrogen molecules equal to
that of oxygen molecules at 47oC
1) 20 K 2) 80 K 3) -73 K 4) 3 K
29. The shape of graph between capacitive reactance and capacitance (Keeping
source frequency constant) is a
1) Straight line 2) Parabola
3) Rectangular hyperbola 4) Circle
30. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in the order of increasing energy
I. Blue light II. Yellow light III. X – ray IV. Radio wave
1) IV,II,I,III 2) I,II,IV,III 3) III,I,II,IV 4) II,I,IV,III
 x
31. The magnetic field in a region is given by B  B0   kˆ . A square loop of side d is
a
placed with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop is moved with a constant

velocity v  v0iˆ . The emf induced in the loop is:

1)

B0 v02 d B0 v0 d B0 v0 d 2 B0 v0 d 2
1) 2a 2) 2a 3) a 4) 2a

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
2021
32. A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as
shown in the figure

Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a

uniform magnetic field B pointing into the page. An external a
agent
gent pulls the bar
to the left at a constant speed v.
The correct statement about the directions of induced currents I1 and I2 flowing
through R1 and R2 respectively is:
1) Both I1 and I2 are in anticlockwise direction
2) Both I1 and I2 are in clockwise direction
3) I1 is in clockwise direction and I2 is in anticlockwise direction
4) I1 is in anticlockwise direction and I2 is in clockwise direction
33. Density ‘D’ of nuclear matter varies with mass number A as
1) D ∝ A 2) D ∝ A 3) D ∝ A 4) D ∝ A
34. The drift current in a p – n junction is
1) from the n – side to the p – side
2) from the p – side to the n – side
3) from the n – side to the p – side if the junction is forward – biased and in the
opposite direction if it is reverse – biased
4) from the p – side to the n – side if the junction is forward – biased and in the
opposite direction if it is reverse – biased
35. The band diagrams of three semiconductors are given in the figure. From left to
right they are respectively.

1) n–intrinsic–p
p 2) p–intrins
intrinsic–n
3) intrinsic–p–n
n 4) intrinsic
intrinsic–n–p
36. A steel wire is stretched by 5 kg wt. If the radius of the wire is doubled its
Young’s modulus
1) Remains unchanged 2) Becomes double
3) Becomes half 4) Becomes 1/4 times

37.  
A force F  6iˆ  8 ˆj N , acts on a particle and displaces it over 4 m along the X
X--axis

and 6m along the Y-axis.

Y axis. The work done during the total displacement is
1) 72 J 2) 24 J 3) – 24 J 4) Zero

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
2021
38.  -particles
particles are projected towards
towards the nuclei of the different metals, with the
same kinetic energy. The distance of closest approach is minimum for
1) Cu(Z=29) 2) Ag (Z=47) 3) Au(Z=79) 4) Pd(Z=46)
39. A body of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 hit a body of 1 gm at rest.
The velocity of the second body after collision, assuming it to be perfectly elastic
is
1) 10 ms-1 2) 5 ms-1 3) 15 ms-11 4) 0.10 ms-1
40. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy
of the
he ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68eV. The work function of the
metal is (hc= 1240 eV-
eV nm)
1) 2.51 eV 2) 1.68 eV 3) 3.09 eV 4) 1.42 eV
41. The half-life
life of radioactive substance is 30 min. The time (in min) taken between
40% decay and 85% decay
decay of the same radio active substance is
1) 15 2) 30 3) 45 4) 60
42. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is I. On passing through
I
36 mm of lead, it is reduced to . The thickness of lead, which will reduce the
8
I
intensity to will be
2
1) 6 mm 2) 9 mm 3) 12 mm 4) 18 mm
43. If four resistances are connected as shown in the fig. between A and B the
effective resistance is

1) 4  2) 8  3) 2.4  4) 2 
44. Find the value of colour coded resistance shown is fig.

1) 520  10% 2) 5200  1% 3) 52000  10% 4) 52000  1%

45. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force
between them is F. The space between the masses is now filled with a liquid of
specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be
F F
1) 2) 3F 3) F 4)
9 3

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GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
CHEMISTRY
46. A crystalline solid is made up of elements M and N. Atoms of M adopt CCP lattice
while atoms of N occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. Then the fomula of the crystal
is ……………..
1) M3N2 2) M2N3 3) M3N4 4) M4N3
47. Acylium cation has two resonating structures (I) and (II)

Which statement is correct for (I) and (II)

1) I is more stable than II 2) II is more stable than I
3) Both have equal stability 4) I and II are not resonating structures
48. Out of the following, the one containing only nucleophiles is
1) AlCl3 , NF3 , NH 3 2) CN  , CH 3 , CH 3OH


3) AlCl3 , H 2O , NH 2 4) H  , NO2 , C H 3

49. In the reaction sequence

50. Which of the following is the correct structure of 5,6, 6 – trimethyl-3- heptyne?

1) 2)

3) 4)

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GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
2021
51. Which are not position isomers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

52. In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl, the product obtained at the
cathode and anode respectively are
1) Na, Cl2 2) Na, O2 3) H2, O2 4) H2, Cl2
53. P4O10 has short and long P-O
P O bonds. The number of short P – O bonds in this
compound is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
54. There is no S – S bond in
1) S 2 O42  2) S 2 O52  3) S 2 O32  4) S 2 O72 

55. Among the following isomeric C4H11N amines, one having the lowest boiling point.

56. A hydrogen atom in ground sate is excited by monochromatic radiation of

wavelength  Ao . The resulting spectrum consists of maximum 15 different lines.
What is the wavelength?
1) 1236 A0 2) 1025A0 3) 937 A0 4) 863A0
57. Slope of stopping potential (V0) vs frequency  , is
h h
1)h 2) 3) e 4)
e 
58. Which of the following is true in respect of physical adsorption?
1) H  0; S  0; G  0 2) H  0; S  0; G  0
3) H  0; S  0; G  0 4) H  0; S  0; G  0

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GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
2021

59. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the reaction A+ B
B→
→C.

Exp. [A] [B] Rate

1 0.012 0.035 0.1
2 0.024 0.070 0.8
3 0.024 0.035 0.1
4 0.012 0.070 0.8

1) Rate = K[B]3 2)Rate =K[B]4 3) Rate=K[A][B]3 4) Rate=K[A]2[B]2

60. When drugs bind to the enzyme other than active site then, it is called
1) activator site 2) Regular site 3) alloste
allosteric site 4) all of these
61. A fuel cell involves combustion of butane at 1 atm and 298 K.
13
C4 H10  g   O2  g    4CO2  g   5H 2O  l  , G0  2746 kJ mol 1
2
0
The Ecell will be
1) 0.545 V 2) 1.09 V 3) 0.922 V 4) 0.785 V

62.

63. The catalyst used in Bosch process for manufacture of H2 is

1) Finely divided Ni 2) V2O5 3) Pb 4) Fe2O3+Cr2O3
64. The stability order of carbonates
1) Li2CO3>Na2CO3>K2CO3>Rb2CO3>CsCO3
2) Cs2CO3>Rb2CO3>K2CO3>Na2CO3>Li2CO3
3) Na2CO3> K2CO3>Li2CO3>Rb2CO3>Cs2CO3
4) Cs2CO3>Rb2CO3>Na2CO3>K2CO3>Li2CO3
65. In context with beryllium which one of the following statements is incorrect
1) It is rendered passive by nitric acid 2) It form Be2C
3) Its salts rarely hydrolysed
hydrolys
4) Its hydride is electron-deficient
electron deficient and polymeric

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
66. Which of the following shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
1) CHCl3 and acetone 2) C6H6 and C2H5OH
3) C6H5CH3 and C6H6 4) C6H6 and CCl4
67. The mole fraction of a given sample of I2 in C6H6 is 0.2. The molality of I2 in C6H6
is:
1) 0.32 2) 3.2 3) 0.032 4) 0.48
68. Which of the following is not a state function?
1) Enthalpy 2) Gibbs free energy
3) Entropy 4) Heat
69. The difference between  H and  E for the combustion of n – octane (l) at 25o C
would be (in KJ)
1) 13.6 2) 1.14 3) 11.15 4) 11.15
70. The BOD value of clean water is :
1) < 5 ppm 2)  15 ppm 3) > 15 ppm 4) > 17 ppm
71. Which of the following can not change the position of equilibrium?
1) Temperature 2) Concentration 3) Pressure 4) Catalyst
72. C2H5Br can be obtained in the laboratory by the action of ethyl alcohol wih:
1) CH3MgBr 2) NH4Br 3) Br2 4) KBr and conc.H2SO4
73. The IUPAC name of the following alkyl halide
CH 3
|
F  CH 2  C  CH 2  Cl
|
CH 3

1) 3-chloro-1-fluoro-2,2-dimethyl propane
2) 1-chloro-3-fluoro-2, 2-dimethyl propane
3) 2-fluoromethyl-2-methyl-1-chloro propane
4) 2-chloromethyl-2-fluoromethyl propane
74. Which of the following can participate in linkage isomerism?
1) H 2NCH 2CH 2NH 2 2) NO 2
3) NH 3 4) H 2O
75. Which complex cannot ionize in solution?
1)  Pt  NH 3 6  Cl 4 2) K 2 PtF6 
3) K 4 Fe CN 6  4) CoCl3  NH 3 3 
76. A 0.01M weak acid HX is 1% ionized. Then the pH of the solution is
1) 2 2) 5 3) 3 4) 4
77. The first ionization enthalpies for two isotopes of the same element are
1) Same 2) Different 3) Some what different 4) Can’not predict

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GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
78. In the given reaction

A and B are respectively be:

79. Which Of the following structures represents  -D-glucopyranose?

80. A certain volume of CH4 diffuses in 10 sec, through a porous partition. The time
taken by an equal volume of oxygen to diffuse under the same conditions is
1) 14.14 sec 2) 7.07sec 3) 20secc 4) 5 sec
H
81. CH 3COOC2 H 5 aq   H 2O l  
 aq 
 CH 3COOH  aq   C2 H 5OH aq 

Above reaction is an example of

1) Unimolecular elementary 2) Pseudo first order
3) Zero order 4) Second order
82. Which of the following is correct about thermosetting polymers?
1) Thermosetting polymers are cross-linked polymers
2) They do not melt ( or soften ) on heating.
3) Cross – linking is usually developed at the time of moulding where they harden
irreversibly.
4) all of the above
83. A Hydrocarbon contains two hydrogen atoms per each carbon atom. Vapour
density of the compound is 28. Then the molecular formula of given hydrocarbon
is _____
1) C2H4 2) C4H8 3) C4H10 4) C3H6
84. The oxoanion which contains all equivalent M-O bond is
(I) CrO42 (II) MnO4 (III) Cr2O72 

1) III only 2) I, II, III 3) I, II 4) I only

85. Sulphide ores are usually concentrated by froth floatation method. Which one of
the following sulphide ore offers an exception and is concentrated by leaching?
1) Sphalerite 2) Argentite 3)Galena 4) Copper pyrites
86. Which of the following is the most abundant metal in the earth crust?
1) Fe 2) Ca 3) Al 4) Na

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
87. Which of the following is allylic alcohol?
1) CH 2  CH  CH 2  O  CH 3 2) CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 3

3) HO  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 3 4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  OH

88. Alkenes can be converted to alcohols by which reagent

1) HOH / H 2SO4 2) BH 3 / H 2O2 / OH 

3) Hg OAC 2 / H 2O / NaBH 4 /OH  4) All of these

89. Which of the following order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 is correct?

1)  2 p y   2 pz   * 2 px   * 2 p y 2)  2 p y   2 pz   * 2 px   * 2 p y

3)  2 p y   2 pz   * 2 px   * 2 p y 4)  2 p y   2 pz   * 2 px   * 2 p y

90. Which of the following has higher dipole moment?

1) CHCl3 2) CH2Cl2 3) CH3Cl 4) CCl4

BOTANY
91. Foliar roots and foliar buds of Bryophyllum helps in

1) Photosynthesis 2) Food storage 3) Cloning 4) Buoyancy

92. Splicing means

1) Removal of introns 2) Removal of exons

3) Joining of rDNA 4) Tranfer of rDNA

93. The percentage of adenine in DNA isolated from human liver is observed to be 30.7%. What is the

expected percentage of thymine, guanine, and cytosine?

1) T = 19.3%, G = 19.3%, C = 30. 2) 7% T = 19.3%, G = 30.7%, C = 19.3%

3) T = 30.7%, G = 19.3%, C = 30.7% 4) T = 30.7%, G = 19.3%, C = 19.3%

94. The function of which cell organelle is affected the most due to the deficiency of

magnesium?

1) Lysosome 2) Vacuole 3) Golgi body 4) Ribosome

95. Select the incorrect match.

Variety Resistance of diseases

1) Wheat (Himgiri) Leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt

2) Brassica (Pusaswarnim) Black rot of mustard

3) Cow pea (pusakomal) Bacterial blight

4) Chilli (Pusasadabahar) Chillimosaic virus, TMV, Leaf

curl

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
GT – 1 L.T - NEET MODEL-16-07-2021
96. Production on an industrial scale requires growing microbes in very large vessels

is called

1) Fermentor 2) Autoclave 3) Laminar Air Flow 4) All of the above

97. Mark the incorrect statement for Deuteromycetes

1) Commonly known as imperfect fungi

2) The mycelium is septate and branched.

3) Large number of them are decomposers

4) Sexual reproduction through syngamy.

98. The diagram represents ethanol fermentation , identity the lebiling 1,2 and 3

1) i. The glucose breaks down into two pyruvates.

ii. The pyruvate is broken down into acetaldehyde by releasing CO2.
iii. The acetaldehyde is then converted to ethanol.
2) i) The glucose breaks down into two pyruvates.
ii). The acetaldehyde is then converted to ethanol.
iii) . The pyruvate is broken down into acetaldehyde by releasing CO2.
3) i). The glucose breaks down into two acetaldehydes
ii). The acetaldehyde is then converted to ethanol.
iii). The pyruvate is broken down into acetaldehyde by releasing CO2
4) i). The glucose breaks down into two pyruvates.
ii). The pyruvate is broken down into acetaldehyde by releasing NH3.
iii) . The acetaldehyde is then converted to ethanol.
99. Pinus is classified under Gymnosperms because
1) It is a large tree 2) It is pollinated by wind
3) It has exposed ovules 4) It produces seeds and it has narrow leaves
100. Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady place because both
1) Requires water for growth 2) Requires water for fertilisation
3) Male gametes are flagellated 4) Both (1) and (2)
101. Arrangement of sepals and petals with respect to each other in the floral bud is
called
1) Vernation 2) Venation 3) Aestivation 4) Phyllotaxy

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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102. The termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is brought about by
1) UUG,UGC,UCA 2) UCG, GCG, ACC
3) UAA, UAG, UGA 4) UUG, UAG, UCG
103. The correct order of sedimentation of subcellular structures during differential
centrifugation is
1) Lysosomes  Mitochondria  Nucleus Ribosome
2) Nucleus  Mitochondria Lysosome Ribosome
3) Mitochondria  Nucleus  Lysosome  Ribosome
4) Ribosome  Mitochondria  Nucleus  Lysosome
104. First step of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is
1) Enzyme breaks the chemical bond of substrate
2) Enzyme releases the products of the reaction
3) The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site
4) Active site reacts with substrate forming enzyme product complex
105. When crossing over completed all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have
entered a stage called
1) Zygotene 2) Pachytene 3) Diplotene 4) Diakinesis
106. Loss of water in the form of liquid droplets near the tip of grass blades is called
1) Transpiration 2) Cohesion 3) Guttation 4) Evaporation
107. Which of the following are critical elements necessary for plant growth?
1) C,H,O 2) Ca,Mg,S 3) N,P,K 4) Mn,Fe,Cu
108. What is the number of ATP required for formation of one Glucose through C4
cycle?
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 30
109. Select the correct statement.
1) FAD is hydrogen acceptor when succinic acid is oxidised to malic acid.
2) Oxygen acts a terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.
3) Cytochrome c and a3 contains two copper centres.
4) Respiration is a catabolic process only.
110. The growth of the given system per unit time expressed on a common basis, per
unit initial parameter is called
1) Absolute growth rate 2) Arithematicgrowth
3) Relative growth rate 4) Geometric growth
111. Which is not true for root pressure?
1) Positive hydrostatic pressure.
2) Maximum during the day and minimum during night.
3) Responsible for guttation
4) Develops due to metabolic activity of roots.
112. Which of the following is least likely to be the component of the cell wall in higher
plants?
1) Polymer of glucose 2) Polymer of lipid
3) Hemicellulose 4) Polymer of amino acids

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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113. How many of the given statements are incorrect?
I. Connectivity of plasmodesmata is maintained by ER membrane called
dictyosome.
II. Totally buried proteins in membrane are integral protein while partially
buried proteins are peripheral proteins.
III. The primary cell wall is capable of growth.
IV. The peroxisome is not included in the endomembrane system.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
114. Which of the following cell organelles is likely to be present in Euglena but not in
Saccharomyces (yeast)?
1) Nucleus 2) Contractile vacuole 3) Golgi body 4) Mitochondria
115. If the number of bivalents is 10 in prophase - I, what will be the number of the
chromosomes during late anaphase - II in each cell?
1) 10 with two chromatids each 2) 10 with one chromatid each
3) 20 with two chromatids each 4) 20 with one chromatid each
116. Rhizome is found in:
1) Banana 2) Potato 3) Ginger 4) Both 1 & 3
117. Which of the following is not the function of tapetum?
1) Nourishing pollengrains 2) Formation of ubisch's body
3) Release of pollen 4) Secretion of pollen kit substance.
118. Legume or Pod fruit is developed from:
1) Single ovary 2) Inflorescence 3) Single apocarpous ovary 4) Pericarp
119. A disease caused by a viroid is:
1) Potato blight 2) Bunchy top of papaya
3) Leaf curl of papaya 4) Potato spindle tuber
120. Denaturation can be achieved at which temperature during PCR ?
1) 72o C 2) 95o C 3) 40o C 4) 25o C
121. Which plant group showed vascular tissue with integumented megasporangium
for the first time?
1) Bryophyta 2) Pteridophyta 3) Gymnosperm 4) Angiosperm
122. The perigynous flower is observed in:
1) Rose 2) Plum 3) Pea 4) Both (1) and (2)
123. A. Variety of Brassica. B. Have resistance to white rust disease. C. Developed by
hybridisation and selection.
The above statements are true for:
1) Pusa gaurav 2) Pusa sadabahar 3) Pusa swarnim 4) Pusa sawani
124. Cyclosporin is used
1) As anti-allergic agent 2) As immunosuppressant
3) As clot buster 4) As an inhibitor of cholesterol synthesis

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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125. In the pathway of dark reaction, which occurs in all photosynthetic plants, the
primary CO2 acceptor contains how many carbons?
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Five
126. Which of the following has corolloid roots?
1) Maize 2) Cycas 3) Pinus 4) Both (A) and (B)
127. Gases in plants can be transported by means of
1) Ascent of sap 2) Facilitated diffusion
3) Simple diffusion 4) both 2 and 3
128. Which of the following is not the feature of the cells showing meristematic
growth?
1) Primary cell wall only 2) Conspicuous nuclei
3) Rich in cytoplasm 4) Few plasmodesmata connections
129. Mark the incorrect statement for DNA.
1) The ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are
constant and equal to one in dsDNA.
2) DNA is an acidic substance present in the nucleus was first identified by
Friedrich Meischer in 1869.
3) The X-ray diffraction data was used for discovery of the DNA
4) Two strands are anti-parallel to each other.
130. RNA polymerase-Ill synthesize
1) tRNA 2) 5.8s rRNA 3) hnRNA 4) Both (A) & (B)
131. New strands of DNA are formed only in
1) 5’  3’ direction 2) 3’  5’ direction
3) Both direction 4) There is no specific polarity
132. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the
option given:
Column-I Column-II
(1) Deuteromycetes (A) Morels
(2) Ascomycetes (B) Smut
(3) Basidiomycetes (C) Bread mould
(4) Phycomycetes (D) Imperfect fungi
1) 1-C; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B 2) 1-D; 2-A; 3-B; 4-C
3) 1-B; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A 4) 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B
133. Today, transgenic models exists for many human diseases which includes
A) Cancer B) Cystic fibrosis C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Alzheimer’s
diseas
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 3) A,B and C only 4) All of these
134. Cry 1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thruingiensis are effective against
1) Nematodes 2) Boll worms 3) Mosquitoes 4) Flies

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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135. A leaf cell of a pinus has 12 chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes
would be
1) 6 in Endosperm 2) 22 in gametes
3) 44 in embryo 4) 11 in a cell of stem

ZOOLOGY
136. A child has heterozygous allele for blood group A. What can be most possible
interpretation w.r.t. blood group of his/her parents?
A. Both the parents have same genotype IA IO and IA IO
B. Both the parents are of blood group O
C. One of the parent may have blood group AB while other have blood O.
1) Only B 2) A and C 3) B and C 4) Only A
137. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in
1) Gain or loss of chromosomes in an organisms
2) An increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism
3) Turners syndrome 4) Aneuploidy
138. The number of individuals of population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere
during the time period under consideration refer to
1) Immigration 2) Emigration 3) Natality 4) Mortality
139. The interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefitted can be seen during
1) A barncles growing on the back of a whale
2) Association between fungus and cyanobacteria
3) Association between fungus and roots of higher plants
4) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants
140. Which of the given can be primary consumer?
1) Grass 2) Cow 3) Wolf 4) Lion
141. Read the statements (A-B) and select the correct option.
A. Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and
cellular energy transfer system.
B. Carbon constitutes 49 percent of dry weight of organisms.
1) Only A is correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Both A and B are correct 4) Both A and B are incorrect
142. Which of the given invertebrates have maximum global diversity?
1) Moluscs 2) Insects 3) Crustaceans 4) Annelids
143. The world summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in
1) Rio de Janeiro 2) Johannesburg 3) Canada 4) Japan
144. Biomagnification is highest at
1) T1 2) T2 3) T3 4) T4

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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145. Study the following statements and choose the incorrect option.
1) In dairying milk yield primarily depends on quality of breeds
2) MOET is a technique to improve the herd size in shorter time
3) Leghorn is a poultry breed whereas Jersy is a dairy breed
4) Catla, Rohu and common carp are the edible marine fishes.
146. Select the set of animals which possess pseudocoelom and exhibit bilateral
symmetry.
1) Locusta, Ancylostoma, Hirudinaria 2) Nereis, Ascaris, Pheretima
3) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma 4) Fasciola, Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana
147. Proboscis gland in hemichordates is associated with the function of
1) Digestion 2) Respiration 3) Excretion 4) Bioluminescence
148. Notochord extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life
in
1) Ascidia 2) Salpa 3) Doliolum 4) Branchiostoma
149. A type of cell junction which primarily helps to cement neighbouring cells to keep
them together is called
1) Adhering junction 2) Tight junction
3) Gap junction 4) Basement membrane
150. Identify which of the following features can be associated with smooth muscle
fibres and choose the correct option
a) Fusiform b) Striated c) Unbranched d) Contractility
Choose the correct option.
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a, c and d 4) a, b and c
151. Alveoli of lungs and blood vessels are internally lined by
1) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Squamous epithelium
3) Columnar epithelium 4) Pseudostratified epithelium
152. A type of dentition in which temporary milk teeth are replaced by a set of
permanent or adult teeth is called
1) Thecodont 2) Acrodont 3) Diphyodont 4) Heterodont
153. For the given enzymatic reactions, choose the option which correctly identifies
enzyme A and B

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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154. Vital capacity can be represented by all, except
1) IRV + TV + ERV 2) ERV + IC 3) TLC – RV 4) RV + TV
155. Select the set of factors favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the
oxyhaemoglobin in the tissues
1) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
2) High pO2, low pCO2, low H+ concentration
3) Low pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration
4) High pO2, high pCO2, low H+ concentration
156. Match the items given in Column – I with those in Column – II and select the
correct option given below:
Column – I Column - II
(A) O blood group individuals (I) Universal recipients
(B) Basophils (II) Granulocytes
(C) AB blood group individuals (III) Universal donors
(IV) Universal donors
(V) Agranulocytes
.

(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C)

1) I II IV 2) III IV I
3) III II I 4) I IV III
157. Given below are four statements (a – d)
(a) Coronary artery disease is referred to as atherosclerosis
(b) The P-wave of ECG represents the electrical excitation of the ventricles
(c) Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system
(d) The cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped out by each
ventricle per stroke
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) b and c 2) a and c 3) c and d 4) b and d
158. With decrease in blood pressure and blood volume the release of ________ is
suppressed. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly
1) Vasopressin 2) Aldosterone 3) ANF 4) Renin
159. How many of the following animals in the given box are ureotelic?
Frog, Pigeon, Lizards, Humans, Cockroach
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
160. Select the correct option.
1) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid is termed muscular
dystrophy.
2) The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
3) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis.
4) Femur is the longest bone in human body.

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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161. Select the correct match w.r.t structure of human eye.
1) Cornea – Anterior transparent extension of choroid layer
2) Iris – Visible coloured potion of the eye
3) Pupil – Inner layer of retina
4) Lens – Diameter is regulated by the muscle fibres of iris
162. Select the odd one w.r.t brain stem.
1) Pons 2) Cerebellum 3) Medulla oblongata 4) Midbrain
163. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched w.r.t hormone and its
deficiency diseases/disorders?
1) GH – Pituitary dwarfism
2) Thyroxine – Grave’s disease
3) Adrenal cortical hormones – Addison’s disease
4) ADH – Diabetes insipidus
164. Which among the given hormones would enter the target cell and interact with
intracellular receptors to exert its function?
1) Insulin 2) Glucagon 3) Testosterone 4) Epinephrine
165. Choose the correct set which contains only diploblastic animals.
1) Physalia, Adamsia, Fasciola 2) Pennatula, Sea anemone, Taenia
3) Gorgonia, Meandrina, Adamsia 4) Adamsia, Ancylostoma, Meandrina
166. The water vascular system is distinctive feature of ‘X’ and help in ‘Y’. Here ‘X’ and
‘Y’ are

167 The malignant tumors show all the following features except
1) Uncontrolled and rapid growth 2) Damage to surrounding tissues
3) Presence of contact inhibition 4) Metastasis
168. Which of the following animals shows the presence of all the three features given
below in the adult stage?
(a) Air bladder (b) Bony endoskeleton (c) Operculum
1) Carcharodon 2) Labeo 3) Hyla 4) Petromyzon
169. Read the given statements (a to e) and select the option which correctly states
them as True (T) or False (F).
(a) Respiration in flying fox is by lungs
(b) Fertilisation is internal in Ornithorhynchus
(c) Heart is four-chambered in Chameleon
(d) Salamandra is an aquatic reptile
(e) Air sacs in Psittacula supplement respiration
a b c d e a b c d e
1) T F F T T 2) T F T T T
3) T T F F T 4) T T T F F
170. How many of the following organs are secondary lymphoid organs in human body?
Bone marrow, Thymus, Peyer’s patches, Spleen, Tonsils, Appendix, Lymph nodes
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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171. In a female cockroach, the location of which body part corresponds to 2nd to 6th
abdominal segments?
1) Gonapophyses 2) Ovaries 3) Mushroom gland 4) Collaterial gland
172. During fertilization changes induced in which layer ensures that only one sperm
can fertilise an ovum?
1) Corona radiata 2) Zona pellucida
3) Acrosomal layer of sperm 4) Trophoblast
173. A diagrammatic section of ovary is given below. Choose the option which
correctly identifies A and B.

174. The normal site for meiotic division of the secondary oocyte in a human female is
1) Fallopian tube 2) Ovary 3) Vagina 4) Cervix
175. Which of the following methods of birth control gives the additional benefit of
protecting the user from contracting STIs and AIDS?
1) Lippes loop 2) Condoms 3) Progestasert 4) Implants
176. Flying phalanger and flying squirrel show all of the following except
1) Convergent evolution 2) Adaptive convergence
3) Analogy 4) Adaptive radiation
177. All of the following gases were present in the urey-Miller experiment except
1) CH4 2) O2 3) NH3 4) H2
178. The first human – like being, the hominid, was called
1) Homo sapiens 2) Homo habilis 3) Homo erectus 4) Neanderthal man
179. Observe the following interspecific interactions.
Commensalism, Ammensalism, Mutualism, Paraistism
How many of these are beneficial type?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
180. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature,
according to
1) Thomas Malthus 2) Lamarck 3) Hugode Vries 4) Charles Darwin

***

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
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ANSWER KEY
STD: LT – NEET GT –1 DATE:16-07-2021
SUB: PHYSICS
S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
1 2 11 1 21 2 31 3 41 4
2 1 12 3 22 2 32 3 42 3
3 3 13 3 23 2 33 4 43 4
4 3 14 4 24 2 34 1 44 3
5 2 15 2 25 4 35 1 45 3
6 2 16 4 26 4 36 1
7 3 17 1 27 4 37 3
8 1 18 2 28 1 38 1
9 3 19 1 29 3 39 1
10 3 20 2 30 1 40 4
SUB:CHEMISTRY
S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
46 3 56 3 66 1 76 4 86 3
47 2 57 2 67 2 77 1 87 4
48 2 58 2 68 4 78 2 88 4
49 4 59 1 69 3 79 1 89 1
50 1 60 3 70 1 80 1 90 3
51 2 61 2 71 4 81 2
52 4 62 1 72 4 82 4
53 4 63 4 73 2 83 2
54 4 64 2 74 2 84 3
55 4 65 3 75 4 85 2
SUB : BOTANY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 3 101 3 111 2 121 3 131 1
92 1 102 3 112 2 122 4 132 2
93 4 103 2 113 2 123 3 133 4
94 4 104 3 114 2 124 2 134 2
95 2 105 3 115 4 125 4 135 1
96 1 106 3 116 4 126 2
97 4 107 3 117 3 127 3
98 1 108 4 118 1 128 4
99 3 109 2 119 4 129 3
100 2 110 1 120 2 130 1
SUB : ZOOLOGY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136 2 146 3 156 3 166 2 176 4
137 2 147 3 157 2 167 3 177 2
138 2 148 4 158 3 168 2 178 2
139 1 149 1 159 1 169 3 179 2
140 2 150 3 160 4 170 3 180 4
141 3 151 2 161 2 171 2
142 2 152 3 162 2 172 2
143 2 153 3 163 2 173 2
144 4 154 4 164 3 174 1
145 4 155 1 165 3 175 2

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY