Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Code-A
Topics covered :
Physics : Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity, Moving
charges and Magnetism
Chemistry : Solid State, Solution, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics & Nuclear Chemistry, Surface
Chemistry, The p-Block Elements (Group 15 - 18)
Mathematics : Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions, Matrices, Determinants
General Instructions:
1. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 3
sections.
(ii) Section-1 : This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2 : This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted. There is no negative mark for wrong
answer.
(iii) Section-3 : This section contains 14 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which one or more than one is/are correct. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted and –1 marks for wrong answer.
(iv) Section-4 : This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and
Column-II). Column-I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R),
(S) and (T). Match the entries in Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I
may match with one or more entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I carries +2 marks for
correct answer, 0 mark if not attempted. There is no negative mark for wrong answer.
PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively.
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024 Practice Term Exam Test-1A
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1. For the circuit shown in figure, charge flown through the switch after it is closed, is n C. Find the value of
n
.
5
2. A solid sphere of radius 4R is charged with volume charge density as (r) = kra (here k and a are positive
1
constant), r is the distance from the centre. If electric field at r = R is times the electric field at r = 2R,
2
then find the value of ‘a’.
V
3. Electric field in is a region given by E 3 xiˆ 4 yjˆ 5zkˆ where x, y and z are in meter. In the figure
m
below a cube of side 2 m has its orientation as shown. If the flux of electric field through the cube’s surface
in S.I unit is , then value of is equal to
24
4. A potentiometer wire AB is 2 m long and has total resistance of 10 . Galvanometer shows zero deflection
at C when switch S is closed and at point D when switch S is open. If E0 = 10 V and R = 9r, then CD is
X
equal to X cm. Find the value of .
2
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Practice Term Exam Test-1A Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024
5. A circular coil carrying current I of single turn of radius R and mass 1 kg is hanging by two ideal strings as
shown in figure. When a constant magnetic field B is set up in the horizontal direction as shown, then the
T2 g
in strings will become P : 3, find value of P Given R
4BI
ratio of tension .
T1
6. Two wires A and C carry equal current I0 = 1 A as shown in figure. One end of both wires extends to infinity.
If magnitude of magnetic induction at point P on the angle bisector of AOC at a distance 1 cm from point
O is K × 10–5 tesla, then find value of K.
7. Consider a wire placed along z-axis and having current I0 along +z axis. If B.dl along the path PRQ
0 I0
shown in figure is , then find the value of K.
K
8. Two co-axial rings of same radius R = 10 cm are placed parallel to the y-z plane, such that x-axis is the
axis of the rings. Ring 1 carries a current of 2 Ampere and ring 2 carries a current of 1 Ampere as shown
B . dx
in the figure. The separation between the rings is d = 50 cm. Find the magnitude of
0
, where B is
the net magnetic field at any point on the axis.(Current in both the rings are in opposite sense)
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024 Practice Term Exam Test-1A
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
9. In the circuit shown in figure, C1 = 1 F and C2 = 2 F. Capacitor C1 is charged to 100 V and C2 is charged
to 20 V. After charging they are connected as shown.
10. A uniform electric field exists in a region. A charged particle (–q, m) enters at point A with velocity v 0 ˆj . It
v
moves through the electric field and exit at point B with velocity xiˆ 0 jˆ , then
2
mv 02 ˆ 3mv 02 ˆ
(A) E i j
8qa 8qa
3mv 02 ˆ mv 02 ˆ
(B) E = i+ j
8qa 4qa
v0
(C) x =
2
(D) When the charged particle reaches at point B, then a uniform magnetic field B = –B0 kˆ is switched on
now force on charged particle will be along z axis at point B
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Practice Term Exam Test-1A Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024
11. The given circuit consists of two ideal batteries, two fixed resistances and a variable resistance R.
Resistance R is adjusted, so that power consumed by it is maximum. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) R = 2
(B) R = 3
7
(D) Current through 3 resistor is A
3
12. In the circuit shown in figure, the switch S is initially open and both the capacitors are initially uncharged.
Switch S is closed at t = 0, then
V0
(A) i at t = 0 is
R
V0
(B) i at t = 0 is
4R
V0
(C) i at t is
4R
27 CV02
(D) Electrostatic potential energy stored in the capacitor at steady state is
32
13. Two particles with charges Q1 and Q2 are separated by a distance d and they exert force of magnitude F
d
on each other. If the distance between them is reduced to then the force they will exert on each other
3
is
F F
(A) 4F (B) (C) (D) 9F
3 4
14. Two point charges q, 2q are placed at (a, 0) and (0, a) respectively on shown. Electrostatic force an charge
Q placed at origin, is
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024 Practice Term Exam Test-1A
2 Qq 5 Qq
(A) (B) (C) Qq (D) Qq
40a2 40a2
40a2 20a2
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to
two paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should
have only one correct answer among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 15 and 16
For the circuit shown in figure, the voltmeter reads 1 V and the ammeter reads 1 A. On inter-changing their
places, the voltmeter reads 2 V and ammeter reads 0.5 A.
Consider a long cylindrical wire of radius R having uniform current density J J0 k . Axis of this cylindrical wire
R
is along z-axis. A cylindrical wire of radius is removed from the cylindrical wire which lead to a cavity. Axis
4
of this cavity is parallel to z-axis which is passing through the point O(4, 3). Cross-sectional view of the wire is
shown in diagram. On the basis of above paragraph answer the following questions.
q
m
17. A charged particle 1 in S.I. unit at point O given a velocity v 4v0 i 3v0 j (m/s). Find
maximum value of v0 so that charged particle does not collide with the wall of cavity
R 0 J0 R 0 J0
(A) (B)
8 4
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Practice Term Exam Test-1A Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024
R 0 J0 R 0 J0
(C) (D)
2 16
18. If a charged particle at O(q, m) is projected with velocity v v 0 k then minimum time after which its
2m m
(A) t (B) t
5 q 0 J0 q 0 J0
3m m
(C) t (D) t
5 q 0 J0 5 q 0 J0
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
19. In Column-I different charge configurations are given and in Column-II the number of neutral points in the
region are given. [Neutral point is the point where electric field is zero]
Column-I Column-II
(A) (P) 5
(C) (R) 4
+q +q
Charges placed at vertex of the square
(D) (S) 1
(T) 7
20. A dipole is placed at position (a, 0, 0) in some external electric field. Response of the dipole instantly is
presented in Column-I. Column-II is having the field and orientation of dipole.
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2024 Practice Term Exam Test-1A
Column-I Column-II
(A) E 4xiˆ; P = P iˆ (P) Dipole will experience net force
(C) E xiˆ yjˆ ; P = P ˆj (R) Dipole will try to move towards origin
(D) E xyiˆ xjˆ ; P = – P iˆ (S) Dipole will try to move away from origin
(T) Dipole will be in equilibrium
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively.
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
21. In a spinel structure AB2O4, the divalent cations A2+ occupy x% of the tetrahedral voids while trivalent
cations B3+ occupy y% of the octahedral voids and z% of the tetrahedral voids. Then the value of
(y + z/x) is
22. Consider the following cells in which all the electrodes are immersed in aqueous solutions of their
electrolyte:
Cell number Cell
The freezing point of 0.1 M aq acids are: (assume molarity is equal to molality)
Acid (0.1M) HA HB HC HD HE HF HG
F.P.(K) 272.5 272 271.8 271.5 271 272.10 272.80
[Assume all acids are weak acids and pressure of H2 in each cell is 1 bar]
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Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A) Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022
If the cell number (represented in table) of cell which has minimum e.m.f. at 298 K is x, then the value of
x is
23. If K2HgI4 is 50% ionised in aqueous solution, then what is the value of van't Hoff factor?
24. Given : KO2 3.25 107 atm; KN2 6.5 107 atm (K Henry’s law constant)
Calculate the ratio of mole fractions of N2 to O2 dissolved in water at 25ºC from air to the nearest integer.
25. Consider the following first order gaseous reaction in a constant volume container.
1
N2O(g)
N2 (g) O2 (g)
2
If initially only N2O(g) is present and total pressure at time t = 0 and after time ‘t’ are Pi and P respectively,
then the rate constant is expressed as
1 Pi
K ln
t xPi – yP
then x3 + y3 is
26. CH3CHO is thermally decomposed to CH4 and CO as
CH3CHO
CH4 + CO
3
d[CH4 ]
and rate of reaction in terms of CH4 is K CH3CHO 2
dt
[K is overall rate constant].
Mechanism:
Step (I) CH3CHO
K1
CH3 CHO
Step (II) CH3 CH3CHO
K2
CH4 CH2CHO
Step (III) CH2CHO
K3
CH3 CO
Step (IV) 2CH3
K4
CH3CH3
The pre-exponential factor (A) for step I, II, III and IV are 1010, 106, 105 and 5 × 103 respectively.
The pre-exponential factor of overall reaction is 10x. The value of x is (use steady state approximation)
27. The rate constant for the decomposition of a certain substance is 1.70 10–2 dm3 mol–1 sec–1 at 27°C and
–2 3 –1 –1
2 10 dm mol sec at 37°C. If order of reaction is x and Arrhenius parameter of reaction is
3 –1 –1 y 1000
y dm mol sec , then is (Given, ln(1.176) = 0.162, R = 8.3 J/mol K, e4.86 = 129)
43x
x
28. The graph of Freundlich isotherm between log and log P is straight line with an intercept of 0.7 and
m
slope = 0.5. Calculate the amount of gas adsorbed (in g) per g of adsorbent when pressure is 49 atm.
(log2 = 0.3, log3 = 0.48, log7 = 0.85)
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022 Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
30. FeO crystallizes in C.C.P. lattice where oxide ions form the lattice and Fe 2+ ions are present at all
octahedral voids. Assume due to heating only one octahedral site in a unit cell becomes vacant but
electrical neutrality of the unit cell is maintained and other parameters remain same. Select the correct
statement(s).
(A) After heating, the crystal contains 2 types of iron ions viz Fe2+ and Fe3+ because some Fe2+ ions are
converted into Fe3+ ions
(B) Due to heating if Fe2+ at one edge centre is removed, then Fe 2+ at body centre is converted into Fe3+
2
(C) If Fe2+ at body centre is removed due to heating, the Fe2+ at rd of edge centres, are converted into
3
Fe3+ ions
(D) If Fe2+ of body centre is removed due to heating, then all Fe2+ ions along one axis is converted into
Fe3+ ions
31. Although crystalline solids have both long range and short-range order, there often exist irregularities or
deviations from ideal arrangement. These irregularities are called as defects. Consider the given
statements and select the incorrect ones.
(A) Impurity defect is non stoichiometric and affects the electrical neutrality
(B) Impurity defect always leads to an increase in the density of the solid
(C) Metal excess defect due to anionic vacancy imparts violet colour to the crystal of NaCl
(D) Metal excess defect due to cationic excess affects the electrical neutrality of the crystal
32. Consider the cell reaction
Cu2+ + H2
Cu + 2H+
(1 M) (1 atm)
Pressure of H2 and [Cu2+] are kept constant throughout the reaction and ECu2 /Cu 0.34 V. The given table
0
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Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A) Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022
33. Consider the hypothetical reaction and the mechanism involved at temperature T.
2A + 2B 2AB
Mechanism:
K1
Step I : 2B B2 (Fast)
K–1
Step II : A B2
K
2
AB2 (slow)
(given activation energy of step II and III are E2 and E3 while activation energy for forward reaction and
backward reaction of step I are E1 and E–1 respectively)
If temperature of reaction is increased then rate of overall reaction decreases. Select the correct
statement(s) based on this information.
(A) Step I of reaction must be exothermic
(B) If value of Arrhenius factor (A) is same then at temperature T, K1 > K–1
34. In an experiment it is found that at a constant temperature, rate of adsorption of gas on solid surface follows
the relation
A solid is taken in form of cube that has side length 1 cm. The total surface area of this cube is x cm 2 and
rate of adsorption of gas is r1. If this solid cube is divided equally into 1012 cubes then total surface area
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to
two paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should
have only one correct answer among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022 Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)
If only KH [H ] is important then reaction is called as specific hydrogen ion catalysis reaction and if only K HA [HA]
is important then reaction is said to be general acid catalysis reaction.
Consider the reaction given below.
Step-I S AH SH A
K1
K –1
+
The acid dissociation constant of HA is K.
By using steady state approximation we can calculate the rate law for this reaction.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
The minimum number millimole of an electrolyte per litre of solution needed to cause precipitation or coagulation
or flocculation of a sol is known as coagulation value or flocculation value.
37. Which electrolyte has minimum flocculation value of the coagulation of Fe(OH) 3 sol?
(A) Na3PO4 (B) MgSO4
(C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) NaCl
38. 5 mg of a lyophilic colloid is required to protect 5 ml gold sol in 1 ml 2% NaCl solution. The gold number
of lyophilic colloid is
(A) 50 (B) 25
(C) 10 (D) 5
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
39. Column-I contains some crystals, Column-II contains some properties associated to the crystal.
Column-I Column-II
(A) NaCl (P) Coordination number of cation and anion
are same
(B) CsCl (Q) Coordination number of cation and anion
are different
(C) CaF2 (R) Contains ions in cubical voids
(D) ZnS (S) Contains ions in tetrahedral voids
(T) Contains ions in octahedral voids
40. Match the following.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Conductance (P) ohm-metre
(B) Resistivity (Q) siemen
(C) Conductivity (R) m–1
(D) Cell constant (S) siemen m–1
(T) ohm–1
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022 Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
42. Total number of solutions of sin{x} = cos{x} (where {·} denotes the fractional part) in [0, 2] is
1 cos 1
43. The minimum value of cos 1 cos R is
1 cos 2
44. If cot 1 k 2 (cot–15 + cot–18) then k is equal to
4
45. If P(x) is a cubic polynomial such that P(0) = 0, P(1) = 2, P(2) = 4 and P(3) = 12, then P(4) – 2P(3) is equal
to
x 1 1 x 1
46. Number of real solution(s) of the equation tan1 tan is
x 2 x 2 4
d
47. If the function f(x) = x3 + ex/7 and g(x) = f–1 (x), then the value of (g ( x )) at x = 1 is
dx
x 2 2x 1 2x 3 3
48. If f ( x ) sin x cos x 1 then the coefficient of x in f(x) is then || is equal to
2 3 x
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
1
49. If | x | 1, then which of the following is/are real?
2
(A) sin–1x (B) tan–1x
(C) cos–1 2x (D) cos–1x
50. The locus of (x, y) such that sin–1(ax) + cos–1(y) + cos–1(bxy) = is
2
(A) A circle if a = 1, b = 0 (B) A straight line if a = 1, b = 0
(C) A circle if a = 1, b = 2 (D) A straight line if a = 2, b = 0
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Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A) Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022
x x2 1 x3
51. If x , and 2 x 4 x 2 1 8 x 3 10 then possible values(s) of x3 is/are
3 x 9 x 2 1 27 x 3
(A) 1 (B) –1
5 6
(C) (D)
6 5
kx – y = 0
has a non-trivial solution then k may be equal to
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2021 (D) No real value of k.
7 6 x 2 13
54. If one of roots of equation 2 x 2 13 2 0
x 13
2
3 7
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to
two paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question pertaining to a particular passage should
have only one correct answer among the four given choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
2x + y + 6z = 8
X + 2y + z = 5
X + y + 3z = 4
The system of equation has
55. No s o l ut i o n if
(A) = 2, = 3 (B) 2, 3
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Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022 Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)
(C) 2, 3 (D) 2, R
(C) 2, 3 (D) 2, R
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
58. Let A is a square matrix, satisfying A2 +5A +6I = 0, then the inverse of A + 2I is
(A) A – 2I (B) A + 3I
(C) A – 3I (D) A + 4I
SECTION - 3
Matching Column Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-
II. The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below :
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-
I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B),
(C) and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
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Term Exam Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A) Second Step JEE (Advanced)-2022
2
x x
59. If , are the roots of the equation tan1 ( 3 1)tan1 3 0, || > ||, then match the
5 5
following.
Column-I Column-II
25 2
(A) + (P)
12
(B) |– | (Q) 0
35
(C) (R)
12
5
(D) 3+ 4 (S)
12
25 2
(T)
12
60. Match the following functions for their range.
Column-I Column-II
sin x cos x 3 2
(A) f ( x ) log2 (P) [a + b, (a + b)2]
2
a2 cos2 x b2 sin2 x ,
where a + b 0
x2 4x
(C) f ( x ) C2 x 2 3 (R) [a b, 2( a2 b2 )]
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