Jee ADVPAPERpractise

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 216
MAJOR TEST-1
PATTERN : JEE ADVANCED
Batch : Sankalp 1-2-3-4-5 (xii)
Advanced Paper 2 | Date : 02.07.2023
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 16 pages and that all
the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the
invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on
the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble  COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as : ⚫

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or "un-
darken" a darkened bubble.
Plot No. R-4, Opposite Railway Track, Zone-2, MP Nagar, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh (India) - 462011
PHYSICS
ONE OR MORE THE ONE OPTION CORRECT TYPE
This section contains SEVEN questions. [28 Marks]
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
OPTION IS/ARE CORRECT of these four options is correct.
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases
1. The electrostatic potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x2

(A) The y and z-components of the electrostatic field at any point are zero
(B) The x-component at any point is given by (–8x iˆ )
(C) The x-component of electric field (1, 0, 2) is (–8 iˆ )
(D) The y-and z-components of the field are constants in magnitude
2. Potential at a point A is 3 volt and at a point B is 7 volt, an electron is moving towards A

from B
(A) It must have some K.E. at B to reach A
(B) It need not have any K.E. at B to reach A
(C) To reach A it must have more than or equal to 4 eV K.E. at B
(D) When it will reach A, it will have K.E. more then or at least equal to 4 eV if it was
released from rest at B
3. Two large thin conducting plates with small gap in between are placed in a uniform electric
field ‘E’ (perpendicular to the plates). Area of each plate is A and charges +Q and –Q are
given to these plates as shown in the figure. If points R, S and T as shown in the figure are
three points in space, then the:
(A) Field at point R is E (B) field at point S is E
 Q   Q 
(C) Field at point T is  E +  (D) Field at point S is  E + 
 0 A   A 0 
4. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 2M and radii R and 2R, respectively, start
approaching each other at time t = 0 from rest due to mutual gravitational attraction. They
were initially very far away from each other. They collide at time t = T
(A) Distance travelled by their COM till time t = T is zero. (COM – centre of mass)
1 2GM
(B) Their relative velocity at time t = T is
3 R
(C) PE of the system decreases as the bodies approach each other.
(D) In COM frame, speeds of the bodies are always equal
5. In the circuit shown in the figure, the point F is grounded as shown. Which of the following
is a wrong statement?
(A) Potential at E is zero

(B) Potential at D is zero
(C) The current in the circuit will be 0.5 A
(D) The current in the circuit is same whether or not F is grounded
6. A battery is of emf E is being charged from a charger such that positive terminal of the
battery is connected to terminal A of charger and negative terminal of the battery is
connected to terminal B of charger. The internal resistance of the battery is r.
(A) Potential difference across points A and B must be more than E
(B) A must be at higher potential than B
(C) In battery current flows from positive terminal
(D) No current flows through a battery
7. Two circuits (shown below) are called ‘Circuit A’ and ‘Circuit B’. The equivalent
resistance of ‘Circuit a’ is x and that of ‘Circuit B’ is y between 1 and 2.
(A) y > x (B) y = ( )

3 +1 R
(C) xy = 2R 2
(D) x – y = 2R
INTEGER TYPE
This section contains FIVE questions. [20 Marks]
• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT (0 TO 9) INTEGER TYPE question.
• For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
8. In the given electric circuit power supply by battery E1 and E2 are a and b respectively.
Find the value of b2.
9. Calculate the resistance (in ) of the conducting strip xyzw having uniform conductivity
 1
 = mho/metre, thickness t = m , current flows along the strip as shown by arrows in
6 ln 2
figure :
10. The potential difference across the 6 ohm resistance in the given circuit is 48 V. The
potential difference across a to b is 51 ×  Volt. Then find the value of  .
11. On a planet which has the same density as that of earth, we construct a frictionless inclined
plane of inclination 53º with the horizontal. When a block is released on the inclined plane,
it is seen to accelerate at 1 m/s2. What is the radius of planet (in 105 m)? (Take radius of
Earth = 6400 km)
12. The arrangement shown consists of three elements :
(a) A thin rod of charge – 3.0 µC that forms a full circle of radius 6.0 cm
(b) A second thin rod of charge 2.0 µC that forms a circular arc of radius 4.0 cm and
concentric with the full circle, subtending an angle of 90º at the centre of the full circle.
(c) An electric dipole with a dipole moment that is perpendicular to a radial line with the
centre of the circle lying on the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the two charges of
the dipole. The dipole has magnitude 1.28 × 10–21 C-m.
Find the net electric potential in volts at the centre.
COMPREHENSION
This section contains SIX questions. [24 Marks]
• This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Passage (Qtn. 13 – 14):

Below the fixed end of the insulating horizontal thread, there is a fixed charge A of 20µC, which is
same as the charge of the small body B of mass m at the end of the thread as shown in the figure.
The body B is released and when it is at the lowest position the thread is vertical. Assume that
thread does not strike the fixed charge. The body B comes to a stop at the lowest position.
13. Find the mass of the moving body.
(A) 18 gm (B) 36 gm (C) 72 gm (D) None of these
14. Find the tension at the lowest position.

(A) 3.6 N (B) 0.72 N (C) 4.32 N (D) None of these
Passage (Qtn. 15 – 16) :

An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the
magnitude of escape velocity from the surface of earth. R is the radius of earth and g is
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth.
(R = 6400 km)
15. Then the distance of satellite from the surface of earth is:
(A) 3200 km (B) 6400 km (C) 12800 km (D) 4800 km
16. The time period of revolution of satellite in the given orbit is:
2R 4R 8R 6R
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
g g g g

The figure shows a network of four resistances and three batteries
17. Choose the correct alternative:
(A) The potential difference VC – VF = 6V
(B) No current flows in the branch CF
(C) Current flows in the branch from F to C
(D) Both (a) and (c)
18. The current through the branch CF is :

(A) 4 A (B) 3 A (C) 7 A (D) 1 A
CHEMISTRY
19. Examine the two structures for anilinium ion and choose the correct statement from the
ones below:
(A) II is not an acceptable resonating structure because carbocation is less stable than
ammonium ion
(B) II is not acceptable structure because it is non aromatic
(C) II is not acceptable because N has 10 valence electrons
(D) II is not acceptable resonating structure
20. Complex compound [Co(SCN)2 (NH3)4]Cl exhibits:

(A) Ionization isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Linkage isomerism
21. Consider the following reactions of complex compounds A, B and C
(i) CoCl2Br. 5NH3 + excess Ag+ (aq) → 1AgCl(s)
(Compound A)
(ii) CoCl2Br.5NH3 + excess Ag+ (aq) → 2AgCl(s)
(Compound B)
(iii) CoCl2Br. 4NH3 + excess Ag+ (aq) → 1AgCl(s)
(Compound C)
Then according to the given information the correct statement(s) is/are:
(A) Compounds (A) and (B) are ionisation isomers
(B) Molar conductivity of compounds (A) and (B) are almost same
(C) Compounds (A), (B) and (C) do not exhibit geometrical isomerism
(D) Order of CFSE values : 0 ( A )   0 ( B )   0 ( C )
22. Which of the following liquid pairs do not show positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(A) Acetone−Chloroform (B) Benzene−Methanol
(C) Water−Nitric acid (D) Water−Hydrochloric acid
23. A mixture of liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the molar ratio 1 : 2 forms a maximum boiling
azeotrope. Identify the incorrect statement, if ‘A’ is more volatile.
(Molar masses: A = 100, B = 50).
(A) A liquid solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ having mass % of A = 50 will have vapours having
mass % of A = 50.
(B) A liquid solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ having mass % of A > 50 will have vapours having
mass % of A > 50.
(C) A mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the molar ratio 1 : 3 can be separated into azeotropic
mixture and pure ‘A’.
(D) A mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the molar ratio 2 : 3 can be separated into azeotropic
mixture and pure ‘A’.
24. Which of the following is pseudo first-order reaction?

(A) The basic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate.
(B) The inversion of sucrose in the presence of an acid.
(C) The acidic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate.
(D) The decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution.
25. To very good approximations, the cooling of a hot body to room temperature follows first-
order kinetics (in this case, however, the unit that is changing is temperature (in kelvin),
not molarity). If the rate constant for a body is 0.04 s−1, then [ln 2 = 0.7, ln(323/25) = 2.6]
(A) the time taken for that body to go from 323°C to 25°C is 17.5 s.
(B) the time taken for that body to go from 1192 K to 298 K is 35 s.
(C) the time taken for that body to go from 323°C to 25°C is 65 s.
(D) the time taken for that body to go from 1192 K to 298 K is 130 s.
INTEGER TYPE
26. The purine hetrocycle occurs mainly in the structure of DNA. Identify number of ‘N’
atoms having localised lone pair of electron.
27. How many resonating structures are possible for the compound
28. Total number of space (stereo) isomers of complex ion [Cr(gly) (en)2]2+ are _____
29. A quantity of 1.04 g of (CoCl3 · 6NH3) (molecular weight = 267) was dissolved in 100 g of
H2O. The freezing point of the solution was −0.29°C. How many moles of solute particle
exist in solution for each mole of solute introduced? The value of Kf for water=1.86ºCm−1.
30. For the reaction 3BrO − → BrO3− + 2 Br − in alkaline aqueous solution, the value of the
d  BrO − 
second-order rate constant (in BrO ) in rate law for −
–
was found to be 0.06 M–
dt
1 –1 d[BrO3− ]
s . The rate constant (in M–1s–1), when the rate law is written as + is a M–1s–1
dt
d[Br − ]
and as + is b M–1s–1, then value of (a + b)  100 is
dt
COMPREHENSION
• This section contains 2paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions
ONE is correct.

Magnetic moment, ionic conductance and colligative properties are useful in deciding
structure/constitution of a given unknown complex compound.
31. If molar conductivity of complex is almost equal to that of NaCl and it does not exhibits
stereoisomerism then the complex will be:
(A) [Co(CO3) (en)2]Br (B) [Co(CO3) (H2O)2 (NH3)2]Br
(C) [Co(CN) (NH3)5]Br2 (D) [Co(CO3) (NH3)4]Br
32. A metal M having electronic configuration (n – 1)d8 ns2 forms complexes with co-
ordination No = 4 and 6, if it forms diamagnetic complexes then permissible oxidation
states of metal cation an geometry is:
(A) +2, octahedral (B) +4, octahedral (C) +2, square planar (D) (B) and (C) both

Liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ forms an ideal solution. At T K, PAº = 0.4bar and PBº = 0.6bar . In a cylinder
piston arrangement, 2.0 moles of vapours of liquid ‘A’ and 3.0 moles of vapours of liquid ‘B’ are
taken at TK and 0.3 bar.
33. If the vapours are compressed slowly and isothermally, then at what pressure, the first drop
of liquid will appear?
(A) 0.4 bar (B) 0.5 bar (C) 0.52 bar (D) 0.6 bar
34. What is the composition of first drop of liquid formed?

(A) XA = 0.4 (B) XA = 0.5 (C) XA = 0.6 (D) XA = 1.0

The thermal decomposition of N2O5 occurs as 2 N2O5 → 4 NO2 + O . Experimental studies suggest
that the rate of decomposition of N2O5, rate of formation of NO2 or rate of formation of O2, all
becomes double if concentration of N2O5 is doubled.
35. If the rate constants for decomposition of N2O5, formation of NO2 and formation of O2 are
K1, K2 and K3, respectively, then
(A) K1 = K2 = K3 (B) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3
(C) K1= 2K2 = K3 (D) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3
36. If the rate of formation of O2 is 16 g/h, then the rate of decomposition of N2O5 and the rate
of formation of NO2 are
(A) 108 g/h, 92 g/h (B) 54 g/h, 46 g/h (C) 32 g/h, 64 g/hr (D) 16 g/h, 16 g/h
MATHEMATICS
  
for    0,    ,  . Then the
2
37. Let f : ( −1,1) → IR be such that f ( cos 4 ) =
2 − sec 2
 4  4 2 
1
value (s) of f   is (are)
3
3 3 2 2
(A) 1 − (B) 1 + (C) 1 − (D) 1 +
2 2 3 3
38. If f ( x ) = cos  2  x + cos  −2  x , where [x] stands for the greatest integer function them
 
(A) f   = −1 (B) f (  ) = 1 (C) f ( − ) = 0 (D) f   = 1
2  4 
If  = 3sin −1 
6 −1  4 
39.  and  = 3cos   , where the inverse trigonometric functions take
 11  9
only the principal values, then the correct option(s) is (are)
(A) cos > 0 (B) sin < 0 (C) cos( + ) > 0 (D) cos < 0
x 2 − 9 x + 20
40. Let f ( x ) = (where [x] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to x), then
x −  x
(A) lim f ( x ) = 0 (B) lim f ( x ) = 1
x → 5− x → 5+
(C) lim f ( x ) does not exist (D) none of these

x →5
41. The function f : X → Y, defined by f(x) = x2 − 4x + 5 is both one−one and onto if

(A) X = [2, ) & Y = [1, ) (B) X = (–, 2] & Y = [1, )
(C) X = [3, ) & Y = [2, ) (D) X = (–, 2] & Y = (1, )
42. For the function f (x) = n (sin–1 og2 x),

1   
(A) Domain is  , 2  (B) Range is  −, n 
2   2
(C) Domain is (1, 2] (D) Range is R
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about two square matrices A and B of same
order?
(A) If AB is symmetric then (AB)2 is symmetric
(B) ABT is symmetric then BAT – ABT is symmetric
(C) Trace of (BAT + ABT) is 0
(D) If AB and ABT both are symmetric then (BT – B)AT = A(B – BT)
INTEGER TYPE
44. Let X be a set with exactly 5 elements and Y be a set with exactly 7 elements. If  is the
number of one-one functions from X to Y and  is the number of onto functions from Y to
1
X, then the value of ( β − α ) is a three digit number abc then c – (a + b)
5!
45. Let the function be defined by

4x
f (x) = x .
4 +2
Then the value of
 1   2   3   39  1
f +f  +f   + ... + f   − f   is two digit number ab, then find b/a.
 40   40   40   40  2
46.
equals
47. If f(x) = ax7 + bx3 + cx – 5; a, b, c are real constants and f(–7) = 7 then maximum value of
|f(7) + 17 cos x| is two digit number ab, then find a + b
48.
COMPREHENSION
• This section contains 2paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions
ONE is correct.

Let A and B be two non-singular matrices of order 3 such that 2A + 3BBT = I and B–1 = AT.
49. The value of det. (A–1 – 3B3) is

(A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
50. 2AT =
(A) I – 3B2 (B) I – 3B (C) I + 3B2 (D) I + 3B

Consider the system of equations
(  − 1) x + ( 3 + 1) y + 2 z = 0;
(  − 1) x + ( 4 − 2 ) y + (  + 3 ) z = 0;
and 2 x + ( 3 + 1) y + 3 (  − 1) z = 0
Now, answer the following questions:
51. If the system of equations has non-trivial solutions for some value of  is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
52. If the system of equations has non-trivial solutions for some values of , then the ratio x : y
: z, when  has the smallest of these values is
(A) 3 : 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 3 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1
 2x 
Let f ( x ) = sin −1  2 
1+ x 
53. The value of f’(2) is
(A) 2/5 (B) –2/5 (C) 1/5 (D) –1/5
54. The value of f’(1/2) is

(A) 8/5 (B) 4/5 (C) 2/5 (D) –2/5


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Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 216

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as : ⚫

1. The electrostatic potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x2

2. Potential at a point A is 3 volt and at a point B is 7 volt, an electron is moving towards A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) Potential at E is zero

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) y > x (B) y = ( )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Passage (Qtn. 13 – 14):

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

14. Find the tension at the lowest position.

Passage (Qtn. 15 – 16) :

Passage (Qtn. 17 – 18) :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

18. The current through the branch CF is :

20. Complex compound [Co(SCN)2 (NH3)4]Cl exhibits:

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

24. Which of the following is pseudo first-order reaction?

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Passage (Qtn. 31 – 32) :

Passage (Qtn. 33 – 34) :

34. What is the composition of first drop of liquid formed?

Passage (Qtn. 35 – 36) :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(C) lim f ( x ) does not exist (D) none of these

41. The function f : X → Y, defined by f(x) = x2 − 4x + 5 is both one−one and onto if

42. For the function f (x) = n (sin–1 og2 x),

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

45. Let the function be defined by

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Passage (Qtn. 49 – 50) :

49. The value of det. (A–1 – 3B3) is

Passage (Qtn. 51 – 52) :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

54. The value of f’(1/2) is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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