Professional Documents
Culture Documents
25-07-2021
JEE (Advanced)-2022
TEST No. 1A (Paper-2)
1. Read each question carefully. (iii) Section-2: This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
appropriate circle in the answer sheet. be answered. Each question has only one correct
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. answer and carries +4 marks for correct answer and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. –1 mark for wrong answer.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer (iv) Section-3: This section contains 4 multiple choice
sheet. questions which have only one correct answer. Each
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
material in the examination hall. for wrong answer.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure
(v) Section-4: This section contains 2 questions. Each
that the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.
question has two Columns. Column-I has four entries (A),
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
(B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S)
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and Date of
and (T). Each entry in Column-I may match with one or
Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
more entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I carries
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator. +2 marks for correct answer and no negative marks for
wrong answer.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, (vi) Section-5: This section contains 3 questions. The answer
Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 5 sections. to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 5 multiple choice from 0 to 9. If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y
questions which have one or more than one correct and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00
answers. Each question carries +4 marks for correct and 09 in OMR respectively. Each question carries +4
answer and no negative marks for wrong answer. marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
1. A thin non conducting semi-circular ring of radius R has a linear charge density, = 0cos, where 0 is
constant, then
(A) Total charge on ring is 0R (B) Total charge on ring is 20R
0 0
(C) Electric field at center of ring is (D) Electric field at center of ring is
8 0 R 4 0 R
2. A metal sphere having radius r0 is charged to potential V0. Sphere is enveloped by thin conducting shell of
radius 4r0. Shell and sphere are then connected by a conducting wire. Then
V0
(A) Electric field near the outer surface of shell is
16r0
(B) Field inside the shell is zero
V0
(C) Potential of the shell is
4
V0
(D) Potential of the shell is
2
3. A quarter disc of radius R placed as shown has uniform surface charge density, . A point P(0, 0, R) is
located in space. Let Ez and V be the z component of the field and potential at point P, then
1 1
(A) Ez 1 (B) Ez 1
80 2 80 2
R
(C) V
80
2 1 (D) V
R
40
2 1
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4. Two infinite linear charges have linear charge densities – and + are arranged as shown. They are parallel
to Z-axis. Then
5. A solid sphere of radius R having uniform volume charge density is shown in figure. A spherical cavity of
R
radius is hollowed out from sphere. If V is potential difference between centre of cavity and centre of
2
sphere, then
R 2 R 2
(A) V (B) V
120 6 0
R R
(C) Electric field inside the cavity is (D) Electric field inside the cavity is
6 0 20
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022
6. Value of is
Q Q
(A) (B)
20 4 0
Q Q
(C) (D)
3 0 6 0
7. Value of F is
Q Q
(A) (B)
20 4 0
Q Q
(C) (D)
6 0 3 0
a a
8. If distance between charge and strip is reduced to from , then
2 3 2
(A) (B)
3 0 6 0
Q Q
(C) F (D) F
20 4 0
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 9 to 11
Six identical point charges each of charge Q, are placed at vertices of hexagon of side length a. The hexagon is
placed in horizontal XY plane. A charged particle (q, m) is found to be at stable equilibrium at point (0, 0, d).
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
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12. A smooth fixed rod is inclined at an angle 30º to horizontal. There is a fixed charge Q at the bottom of rod.
There is a bead of mass m having charge q that can slide freely on the rod. At equilibrium, height of bead is
h
. Time period of oscillation of bead, is
2
h h
(A) (B) 2
g g
h 2h
(C) 2 (D) 2
2g g
13. A short dipole of dipole moment piˆ is placed on the axis of a uniformly charged ring at a distance x from the
centre. The radius of ring is a and charge is +Q. As x varies from 0 to 3R, the direction of force acting on
dipole
(A) Remains same throughout (B) Changes from positive to negative x-axis
(C) Changes from negative to positive x-axis (D) Not dependent on value of x
14. Find heat dissipated in the circuit after switch 'S' is closed.
1 3
(A) CV02 (B) CV02
2 2
2 2
(C) CV0 (D) 2CV0
15. Two short dipoles, having dipole moment p each, are kept at two corners of a square as shown. Electric field
at corner D is
p p
(A) iˆ (B) iˆ
80 L 3
8 20 L3
p p
(C) 3
iˆ (D) iˆ
40 L 4 20 L3
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
16. Four identical conducting plates are placed at separation d from each other. Plates are given charges q, 2q,
3q, 4q respectively as shown. Switch 'S' is closed. Based on this information, match the entries in Column-I
with entries in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
q
(A) Charge on plate 1 (P)
3
8q
(B) Charge on plate 4 (Q)
3
q
(C) Charge on right surface of plate 2 (R)
3
7q
(D) Charge on right surface of plate 3 (S)
3
5q
(T)
3
17. In Column-I, configuration of charges are given, Column-II gives the location of null point (E 0) and
potential at null point. Match the entries of two columns.
Column-I Column-II
d
(A) (P) , 0
2
d
(C) (R) , 0
4
d
(D) (S) , 0
3
q
(T) V
40d
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SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in
OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
18. Two point charges A(q, m1) and B(2q, m2) are placed at rest at separation of l in uniform electric field, E0 as
m2 nq
shown. If separation between charges remains constant and 3 , then value of E0 is . Find n.
m1 0 l 2
26C
19. For the circuit shown in figure, equivalent capacitance between A and B is . Find n.
7n
20. On a curve xy = 9, potential is constant. At x = 3, magnitude of electric field is 10 N/C. If strength of field
along the curve is constant, then find the magnitude of component of field (in N/C) along x axis at x 3 (x
and y coordinates are in m)
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which one or more than one is/are correct.
2
21. Consider a 3-D close packing of ABAB.... type. The radius of an atom is 100 pm.
3
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25. A binary mixture containing two volatile liquids A and B is in equilibrium with its vapours. Identify the
incorrect statement(s).
(A) Sum of number of moles of A and B in vapour state is equal to the sum of number of moles of A and B in
liquid state [yA and yB are mole fractions of A and B in the vapour phase respectively] [ PAo and PBo are
vapour pressures of pure liquid A and pure liquid B respectively]
1 y A yB
(B)
PT PAo PBo
yA yB
(C) PT
PAo PBo
(D) Vapour pressure of the given binary mixture in 1 L container is 100 mm Hg. If volume of container
increases to 2 L then vapour pressure will become 50 mmHg at the same temperature
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
26. The above graph can be for which of the following mixture?
(A) CHCl3 + H2O (B) n-hexane + n-heptane
(C) Aniline + phenol (D) Alcohol + H2O
27. Identify the incorrect statement.
Pxo ny
(A) At point P, (n = number of moles of that component)
Pyo nx
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28. The maximum pressure required to evaporate all the liquid at composition E is
In chemistry and manufacturing, electrolysis is a technique that uses direct electric current (DC) to drive an
otherwise non-spontaneous chemical reaction. Electrolysis is commercially important as a stage in the separation
of elements from naturally occurring sources such as ores using an electrolytic cell. The voltage that is needed for
electrolysis to occur is called the decomposition potential.
After the passage of current of 0.5 ampere for 9650 seconds, I 2 formed required 40 ml of 0.2 M
Na2S2O3.5H2O solution in the reaction;
(A) 16 (B) 48
(C) 32 (D) 40
30. During electrolysis of H2SO4(aq) with high charge density Marshall's acid formed as a by-product. In such
electrolysis 22.4 L H2(g) and 5.6 L O2(g) liberated at STP at electrode. The number of moles of Marshall's
acid formed is x, the value of x is
31. 40 mmol R–NH–OH undergoes an electrolytic oxidation by 8 A current for 965 sec with 50% current
efficiency as
The process is done in 100 mL buffer solution made by 0.8 M Na 2HPO4 and 0.2 M Na3PO4 then find the
value of x if x is pH of buffer after electrolysis.
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
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2+ 3+
32. Consider the FeO solid. Due to strong heating some Fe ions get oxidised to Fe , and the stoichiometry
gets disturbed.
2+ 3+
It is found that out of 8 iron ions there are 7 Fe and 1 Fe ion present. The formula of the given FeO solid
should be
(A) Fe0.94O (B) Fe0.89O
33. Consider the ions given below along with their size.
+ –
w 100 pm P 200 pm
+ –
x 150 pm Q 300 pm
+ –
y 200 pm R 350 pm
Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) The solid wR undergo Frenkel defect (B) The solid yP undergo Frenkel defect
(C) The solid xP undergo Schottky defect (D) The solid xQ undergo Schottky defect
34. Consider the following diagram :
SPM is the semi permeable membrane, P1 and P2 are the pressure applied.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) If P1 = P2 , then liquid will flow from container-2 to container-1
(B) To stop the osmosis, P1 must be equal to osmotic pressure
(C) To carry out osmosis, P1 must be lesser than P2
(D) If P2 is greater than P1, then reverse osmosis will occur
35. Oxidation state of Hg in calomel is
(A) +3 (B) +4
(C) +2 (D) +1
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
36. Column-I contains different lattice types and column-II different operations and properties of lattice. Match
the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) NaCl type lattice (P) If all the ions along one of the C-4 axis
are removed then the formula of lattice
will be AB
(B) CsCl type lattice (Q) If all the ions along one of the C-4 axis
are removed then the lattice will lose all
the cations
2
(C) Na2O type lattice (R) a (r r )
3
(D) CaF2 type lattice (S) Coordination number of at least one ion
is 4
(T) If all the ions along one of the C-4 axis
are removed then the lattice will become
positively charged
37. Column-I contains some electrochemical reactions and column-II contains their characteristics.
Column-I Column-II
Eo 0.77 V, Eo 0.76 V
Fe3 /Fe2 Zn/Zn2
Eo 0.73 V, Eo 0.8 V
M /M Ag /Ag
Eo 0.13 V
Sn2 /Sn
Eo 0.8 V, Eo 0.54 V
Ag/Ag Cu /Cu
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SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in
OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. Consider a lattice whose plane passing through two opposite edges appears as
–7
If 10 mole of AgNO3 are added to 1 litre of this solution, conductivity (specific conductance) of this solution
–7 –1 c
is c ×10 S m . The value of is
11
40. Cd | Cd(OH)2 | NaOH(0.01M) | H2 (1bar) | Pt(s) Ecell = 0.0 V
(s) (s) aq (g)
–x x
If Eo 0.39 V, and the value of Ksp of Cd(OH)2 is 10 . Then what is the value of ?
Cd2 |Cd 5
2.303RT
Use, 0.06
F
41. If domain of f ( x ) ln( x 2 2(a b)x (a b 8)) is not R for all a R then value of b can be
(A) 5 (B) 79
(C) –17 (D) 2021
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1
42. Let f : R {0} A and f ( x ) 5 x 1 , then
x
(A) f(x) is onto function then set A (, 9] [11, )
(B) f(x) is a many-one function
(C) f(x) is one-one function
(D) Number of integers not in range of f(x) is 19
4
4 x2 sin x 4
43. Let f : [2, ) [1, ) defined as f ( x ) 2x and g : , A defined by g ( x ) then
2 sin x 2
f 1( x )
(A) If g 1( x ) exists then set A is [–5, –2] (B) The domain of is [–5, 4]
g 1( x )
2x 2
(C) f 1( x ) 2 4 log2 x (D) g 1( x ) is given as sin1
x4
7 5
44. If y is a function of x given by 2ln( y 1) ln x ln( y 2) 0 and y (5) then
2
(A) Domain is [4, ) (B) Domain is (0, )
(C) Range is (2, ) (D) Range is [3, )
45. Let f : R R satisfies the relation f(x) + f(2x + y) + 5xy = f(3x – y) + 2x + 1 x, y R then which of the
2
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
1 3 x x
3
3 2x
47. If f ( x ) tan1 and g ( x ) tan
1 3x 2 then f and g are identical for
2 1 x2
1 1 1
(C) x , (D) x ,
3 3 3
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48. Which of the following pairs of f and g are not identical on the given interval mentioned?
x2 1
(A) f ( x ) sin2 x cos2 x and g ( x ) on x R { 1}
x2 1
(B) f ( x ) 6 x and g( x ) cos1 cos x on x [5, 6]
11
(C) f ( x ) x 6 and g( x ) cosec 1cosec x on x , 6
2
(D) f ( x ) sin1 sin x and g( x ) cos1 cos x on x ,
2
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 49 to 51
Consider the functions f ( x ) x , g ( x ) sin1 sin x , h( x ) x and p( x ) cos1(cos x ) . If
2 2 2 2
we define L(M(x), N(x)) = length of the graph common to both y = M(x) and y = N(x) and A(M(x), N(x)) = area of
the region bounded by graph of y = M(x) and N(x) then
49. L f ( x ), g ( x )
50. L h( x ), p( x )
3
(A) 2 2 units (B) units
2
5
(C) units (D) 3 2 units
2
51. A f ( x ), p( x )
2
(A) sq. units (B) 22 sq. units
2 2
2 3 2
(C) sq. units (D) sq. units
2 2
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
3 x 1 3[ x ]
52. Range of f ( x ) sin1
2 1 [ x ] x
, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, does not contain the
value
(A) (B)
6 3
(C) (D)
4 2
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022
ax b d
53. The function f, defined by f ( x ) , x , where a, b, c, d are non-zero numbers, has the property
cx d c
d
f(1) = 1 and f(2) = 2 and f (f ( x )) x x R . Then range of f(x) is
c
4
(A) R (B) R – {2}
3
3
(C) R (D) R – {1}
2
( x a)( x b) f (x) f (y ) f (z)
54. If f ( x ) and , then is equal to
x ( x y )( x z ) ( y z )( y x ) (z x )(z y ) xyz
(A) 5ab (B) 3(a + b)
(C) ab (D) a + b
x 1
55. If cos1 x cos1 3 3 x 2 holds good then x can be equal to
2 2 3
3 1
(A) (B)
4 4
1 3
(C) (D)
4 4
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column-I with the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column-I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column-I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2022 Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-B)
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in
OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1
58. If f(x) is an even function and satisfies the relation x 2f ( x ) 2f g ( x ) , where g(x) is an odd function, then
x
the value of f(21) is equal to
ex 1
59. For the function, f ( x ) , if n1 denotes the number of integers which are not in domain of f and n2
ex 1
denotes the number of integers which are not in its range then n1 + n2 =
1
logx e
e 2x
60. Let f ( x ) ( x 2) eln( x 2) and g ( x ) . If h(x) = f(x) + g(x) then the smallest positive integer in
x e ln 2
the range of h(x) is
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