RTS - 01 PCM JM Paper (23.04.2023) 12th

JEE EXPERT
REGULAR TEST SERIES (RTS - 01)

PAPER - : JEE MAIN
[Batch - : (12th - X01 & X02)]
DATE : 23.04.2023
T ime: 3 hou r s M axi m um ma r ks : 30 0

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
This paper contains 75 questions divided among 3 parts
A. Question paper format :
1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics,). Each part has 3 sections.
2. Section I contains 12 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE IS/ARE CORRECT.
3. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONE OR MORE IS/ARE CORRECT.
4. Section III contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ASSWERTION-REASON.
5. Section IV contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an INTEGER, ranging from 0 to 9 , 9999 or
49.51. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of
the section.
B. Marking Scheme :
6. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. minus one (–1) mark will be awarded for in this
Section.
7. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
Section.
8. For each question in Section-III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
Section.
9. For each question in Section-IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
Section.
Student's Name Enrollment Number
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.
..................................................... ..................................................
Signature of the Candidate Invigilator Signature:

[JEE MAIN] [RTS - 01]
PART - I : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
 This section contains 12 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Y
1. As shown in figure, if a conductor having linear charge density ++ +
 is placed in circular form in 3 quadrant. If magnitude of +
+
R
electric field in +ve x-direction is E at O. Find the angle made +
X
by resultant electric field at O from y-axis.  O 
 
1/ 2  1
1 1
(A) tan (B) tan 
 
  

tan 1/ 3
1
(C) (D) none of these
2. A point charge of 2C is located at a point P (2m, 2m) in x - y plane. The electric field due to
this point charge at point R(5m, 6m) is
(A) 720 N/C along +ve x axis (B) 720N/C along -ve x axis
(C) 720 N/C along the line 4x – 3y = 2 (D) 720 N along the line 4x + 3y = 0
3. A long thin rod with charge per unit length  passes through of cube of length l. The
maximum flux through the cube will be
 2  3  2 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0 0 0 0
Space for Rough Work
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Paragraph Type Question – (Q.No. 4, 5 & 6)
In the figure mA = mB = 1 kg. Block A is neutral while qB = –1C. Sizes of A and B are
negligible. B is released from rest at distance 1.8 m from A. Initially spring is neither
compressed nor elongated.
E=10 N/C
K=18 N/m
A B
x-axis
smooth x=0 x =1.8m
4. If collision between A and B is perfectly inelastic, what is velocity of combined mass just after
collision?
(A) 6 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 9 m/s (D) 12 m/s
5. Equilibrium position of the combined mass is at x = …………………m.

(A) –2/9 (B) –1/3 (C) –5/9 (D) –7/9
6. The amplitude of oscillation of the combined mass will be:

124 72 106
(A) 2/3 m (B) m (C) m (D) m
3 9 9
7. A particle of mass, m = 1.67  10–27 kg and charge Q = 1.6  10–19 C orbits with speed
v = 3.0 x 105 ms–1 in a circle of radius R = 10–2 m around a very small charges sphere. The
charge on the sphere is nearly
(A) 1.0  10–5 C (B) 1.0  10–7 C (C) 1.0  10–8 C (D) 1.0  10–9 C
8. A uniformly charged ring of radius ‘a’ is lying along the x–y plane with z–axis passing through
its centre, which is the origin of the coordinates system. The maximum strength of the electric
field at z will be
a a
(A)  (B) a (C)  2a (D) 
2 2
9. Two charges Q1 = 4.0  10–8 C and Q2 = 1.0  10–8 are located (0, a) and (a, 0) in the
horizontal x – y plane. The electric field is zero at
2 1  a a a 
(A)  a, a  (B) (0, 0) (C)  ,  (D)  , 0 
3 3  2 2 2 
10. The dimensional formula of 0 E 2 (0  permittivity of free space, E = electric filed) is
(A) MLT–1 (B) ML2T–2 (C) ML–1T–2 (D) ML2T–1
11. A point charge Q is placed at the centre of a conducting spherical shell of inner radius R and
3R
outer radius 2R. The strength of electric field at a distance from the centre of the shell is
2
Q 1 Q 1 2Q 1
(A) (B) zero (C) (D)
4 o R 2
4 o  3 
 R 
2
4 o 9R 2  
2 
12. A point charge Q (mass = 10–3 kg) at the end of an
insulating massless string is observed to be in equilibrium

in a uniform horizontal electric field E  10 4 ˆi vm 1 .
0
Where the pendulum makes an angle  o with the vertical y
(tan 0  0.2) as shown in the figure, the charge Q is

g
(A) 2  10–7 C (B) –2  10–7 C  Q x
(C) 5  10–6 C (D) –5  10–6 C E O
SECTION - II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE OR MORE is correct.
  
13. A point charge q is placed at origin. Let E A , E B and E C be the electric field t three points
A (1, 2 ,3), B(1, 1, –1) and C(2, 2, 2) due to charge q. Then:
       
(A) E A ,  E B (B) E A  E C (C) E B  4 E C (D) E B  8 E C
14. In the figure shown P is a point on the surface of an imaginary sphere. Then q2
(A) Electric field at point P is due to q1 only.
(B) Electric flux through a small area at P due to q1 only.
(C) Electric flux through whole sphere due to both q1 only. q1 P
(D) Electric flux through a small area at P due to q1 and q2 both.
15. A point charge causes an electric flux of –1.0 × 103 Nm2 /C to pass through a spherical
Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centered on the charge.
(A) If the radius of the Gaussian surface were doubled, the flux that would pass through the
surface is also doubled.
(B) If the radius of the Gaussian surface were doubled, the flux that would pass through the
surface remains unchanged.
(C) If the radius of the Gaussian surface were doubled, the electric field at the points of surface
reduces by 75%.
(D) If the radius of the Gaussian surface were doubled, the electric field at the points of surface
reduces by 25%.
16. The electric field (by some source charge Q) at a point is defined as the ratio of force (F) on
some test charge (q) placed at that point, to the amount of q i.e. E = F/Q. It means
(A) The electric field by Q depends on q.
(B) If the test charge is removed, the electric field will disappear.
(C) If the test charge is removed, the electric field is still present.
(D) The electric field by Q does not depends on q.
SECTION - III
(ASSERTION – REASON ANSWER TYPE)
for its answer, out of which ASSERTION - REASON is correct.
17. Assertion : Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size.
Reason : Gauss’s law is often useful towards a much easier calculation of the electrostatic
field when the system has some symmetry.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
18. Assertion : Consider an arbitrary electrostatic field configuration. A small test charge is
placed at a null point (i.e., where E = 0) of the configuration. The equilibrium of
the test charge is necessarily unstable.
Reason : Electric force on a test charge is independent of its mass and dependent on
charge only.
19. Assertion : For a Gaussian surface through which the net flux is zero. It means the electric
field is zero everywhere on the surface.
Reason : Flux of electric field is representation of electric field lines passing through any
surface.
20. Assertion : Two solid spheres, both of radius R, carry identical total charges Q. One sphere
is a good conductor, while the other is an insulator. If the charge on the
insulating sphere is uniformly distributed throughout its interior volume, the
electric fields outside these two spheres are identical.
Reason : The Flux of electric field, for any closed surface depends on amount of net
charge inside the surface.
SECTION - IV
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
 This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a integer, question has values
between 0 to 9, 0342 or 49.51 and boxes should be filled like .
21. A square plate of copper with 50.0-cm sides has no net charge and is placed in a region of
uniform electric field of 80.0 kN/C directed perpendicularly to the plate. As a result the charge
density of each face of the plate is found to be n  107 C/m2. Then value of n (upto nearest
integer) is
22. A long, straight wire is surrounded by a hollow metal cylinder whose axis coincides with that
of the wire. The wire has a charge per unit length of , and the cylinder has a net charge per
unit length of 2. The ratio of the charge per unit length on the outer surface of cylinder to that
on the inner surface of the cylinder is
23. A charge particle of mass m = 1kg and charge q = 2C is thrown from a horizontal ground at
an angle  = 45 with speed 20 m/s. in space a horizontal electric field E = 2107 V/m exist.
Find the range (in meter) on the horizontal ground of the projectile thrown.
24. A particle having charge q = 8.85 C is placed on the axis of a circular ring of radius R = 30
cm. Distance of the particle from centre of the ring is a = 40 cm. If the electrical flux passing
through the ring is 10n N-m2/C, find the value of n.
25. A charged particle moves with a speed v1 in a circular path of radius r around a long uniformly
charged wire. The same particle moves with speed v2 in a circular path of radius 2r around the
same wire. Then v2/v1 is
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
1. According to Arrhenius equation, a straight line is obtained by plotting the logarithm of the
rate constant of a chemical reaction (log k) against
(A) log 1/T (B) log T (C) 1/T (D) T
2. For a first order reaction A(g)  B(g) + C(g), the total pressure of A + B + C at time
‘t’ and  are P2 and P3 respectively. The rate constant k of the reaction is
1 P3 1 P3 1 2P3 1 P3
(A) ln (B) ln (C) ln (D) ln
t 2P3  P2 t P3  P2 t P3  P2 t 2(P3  P2 )
3. In a certain reaction 8% of the reactant decomposes in 30 minutes, 24% in 90 minutes and 48%
in 180 minutes. What are the dimensions of the rate constant?
(A) hour1 (B) mol lit1 sec1 (C) lit mol 1 sec1 (D) mol sec1
1
4. Figure shows a graph in log10 k vs where k is rate constant and T is B
T
1
temperature. The straight line BC has slope, tan  =  and an C
log10 k
2.303
intercept of 5 on Yaxis. Thus Ea, the energy of activation is:
A 1/T
2
(A) 2.303  2 cal (B) cal (C) 2 cal (D) None of these
2.303
5. For a zero order reaction, the time required for the completion of 75% of reaction is ______
times the time required for the completion of 50% of reaction.
3t 5t
(A) 1 / 2 (B) 2t1/2 (C) 1 / 2 (D) 3t1/2
2 2
6. A graph plotted between log t 50% vs. log a is a straight line as shown. What conclusion can you
draw from the given graph if a is the initial concentration of the
reactant?
log t50%
1 1
(A) n = 1, t50% = (B) n = 2, t50% =
k.a a
0.693 log a
(C) n = 1, t50% = (D) none of these
k
7. The degree of dissociation () of a weak electrolyte AxBy is related to van’t Hoff factor (i) by
the expression
i 1 i 1 ( x  y  1) ( x  y  1)
(A)  = (B)  = (C)  = (D)  =
( x  y  1) ( x  y  1) i 1 i 1
8. 2 gm each of two non–volatile solutes A and B (molar mass of A > B) are dissolved separately
in 50 gm each of same solvent. Which is true about the solutions?
(A) Solution of A will show greater elevation of boiling point.
(B) Solution of B will show greater elevation of boiling point.
(C) Boiling points of A and B are equal.
(D) Freezing of points of A and B are equal.
9. When FeCl3 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution blue colour of ferri ferrocyanide,
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 is obtained. There are 0.1 M FeCl3 and 0.01 M
0.1M FeCl3 0.01M K4[Fe(CN)6]
K4[Fe(CN)6] solution are separated by a semi permeable
membrane as shown and osmosis occurs then
(A) blue colour is seen in side-B.
(B) blue colour is seen in side-A.
(C) blue colour is seen in both sides A and B. Side A Side B
(D) no blue colour is seen in either side.
10. If the freezing point of 0.1 molal HA (aq) is – 0.2046°C then pH of the solution is
[kf (H2O) = 1.86° mol–1 kg ; assume molality = molarity]
(A) 1.7 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1.3
11. Which one of the following solutions in water will have the highest freezing point?
(A) Solution which is 0.1 M in KNO3 and 0.2 M in Ba(NO3)2.
(B) Solution which is 0.1 M in Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2.
(C) Solution which is 0.2 M in urea and 0.2 M glucose.
(D) Solution which is 0.1 M both in Al2(SO4)3 and 0.1 M K2SO4.
12. Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio P A : P B  2 : 3 at a certain
temperature. Assume A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B
in the vapour phase is 1 : 3 , then the mole fraction of A in the solution at the same temperature
is
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3/4
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SECTION - II
13. Consider the chemical equation, N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

The rate of reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivative of concentration of N 2(g),
H2(g) or NH3(g).Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions:
d[ N 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[ NH 3 ]
(A) Rate =   (B) Rate =  
dt 3 dt 3 dt 2 dt
d[ N 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] d[ N 2 ] d[ H 2 ] d[ NH 3 ]
(C) Rate =  (D) Rate =   
dt 3 dt dt dt dt
14. In a hypothetical reaction X  Y, the activation energy for the forward and backward
reaction is 15 and 9 kJ mol–1 respectively. The potential energy of X is 10 kJ mol–1
(A) the threshold energy of the reaction is 25 kJ
(B) the potential energy of Y is 16 kJ
(C) heat of reaction is 6 kJ
(D) the reaction is endothermic
15. 1 mole benzene (p 0benzene  42 mm) and 2 mole toluene (p 0benzene  36 mm) will have:
(A) total vapour pressure 38 mm
7
(B) mole fraction of vapours of benzene above liquid mixture is
19
1
(C) mole fraction of vapours of benzene above liquid mixture is
3
8
(D) mole fraction of vapours of toluene above liquid mixture is
19
16. In the depression of freezing point experiment, It is found that

(A) The vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
(B) The vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
(C) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
(D) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point.
SECTION - III
17. Assertion : The value of Vant Hoff factor ‘i’ is less than one.
Reason : Solute added in solvent is associated.
(A) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(B) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statementl
(C) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
18. Assertion : Temperature coefficient of a reaction

k k
A  B is given as 35 C  2 for a higher temperature range, 95c  2
k 25 C k 85c
Reason : The effect of temperature on k is given by the Arrhenius equation k  Ae  Ea / RT
Statement-1
Statementl
19. Assertion : Positive catalysts lower the activation energy of the reaction whereas heat of
reaction remains same.
Reason : Heat of reaction is equal to the difference between activation energies for
forward and the backward reactions.
Statement-1
Statementl
20. Assertion : Addition of ethylene glycol to water lowers the freezing point of water.
Therefore, it is used as antifreeze.
Reason : 1, 2Ethanediol is soluble in water because it can form Hbond with water.
Therefore, vapour pressure of 1,2ethanediol solution is lowered.
Statement-1
Statementl
SECTION - IV
21. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.048 mol litre–1 s–1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol litre–1 s–1 at
20 minutes after initiation. Find the time in seconds when 75% of the reactant is consumed.
22. 2A + 3B  4C is complex reaction with rate law, r = k [A]0 [B]1. If initial conc. Of A is 'a' and
that of B is 'b' then what must be the ratio of b/a so that half life of A becomes equal to half life
of B? Give your answer by multiplying b/a with 10.
23. The reaction 2A + B  C+ D goes to completion and follows the rate law
d  B
  K  A   B . Calculate the values of (x + y) in the following date:
2
dt
Set [A0]  10–3 M [B0]  10–3 M Half life (sec)

1 300 4 62.5
2 300 6 x
3 5 300 625
4 10 300 y
24. Phenol (C6H5OH) is found to exist as polymer. If there is 100% polymerization, determine
number of phenol molecules polymerized in aqueous solution if 9.4 g phenol in 100 g water
freezes at –0.93oC Kf(H2O) = 1.86 mol–1 kg
25. Elevation in boiling point of 0.25 M aq. Solution of weak acid HX is 0.14 What is molarity of
H+ ion in solution?
 
HX aq  H aq  X aq
Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.5
Molality = Molarity
[Give : Answer as [H+] 100]
PART - III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I
 x
1. The period of the function f  x   sin  cos   cos  sin x  is equal to
 2

(A) (B) 2 (C)  (D) 4
2
2. The maximum value of sin (cos x) is equal to

 1   3
(A) sin 1 (B) 1 (C) sin   (D) sin  
 2  2 
3. Let f : R  R defined by f (x)  x 3  x 2  100x  5sin x , then f is

(A) many-one onto (B) many-one into
(C) one-one onto (D) one-one into
4. If f (x)  [x]2  [x 2 ] , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), and x  [0, 2] then the
range of f (x) is
(A) {1, 0, 2} (B) {0, 1, 2} (C) {2, 1, 0} (D) [2, 0, 1}
1 | x | , x  1
5. Let f (x)   where [] denotes the greatest integer function. The f{f(23)} is
 [x] , x  1
equal to
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 3
e|x|  e  x
6. Let f : R  R be a function defined by f (x)  . Then
ex  e x
(A) f is both one-one and onto (B) f is one-one but not onto
(C) f is onto but not one-one (D) f is neither one-one nor onto
7. Which of the following is not an odd function?

(A) g(x)  g(  x) (B) (g (x)  g(  x))3
 x4  x2 1 
(C) log  2  (D) xg(x)  g(  x)  tan(sin x)
 x  x 1 
 2 2n 
8. If {x} denotes the fractional part of x, then   , n  N, is
 8 
(A) 3/8 (B) 5/8 (C) 7/8 (D) 1/8
9. If f  x  
1
1 x

 x  1 , then f f  f  x   is 
(A) a constant function (B) equal to f  x 
(C) an identity function (D) none of these
10. If f  x   ax  b and g  x   cx  d, then f  g  x    g  f  x   if

(A) f  a   g  c  (B) f  b   g  x  (C) f  d   g  b  (D) f  c   g  a 
11. If 2f (x)  3f (1/ x)  x 2 , x is not equal to zero, then f(2) is equal to

5 7
(A) (B)  (C) –1 (D) none of these
2 4
 x 
12. Let f  x   nx  n  [nx  n]  tan   , where [x] is the greatest integer  x and n  N . It is
 2 
(A) a periodic function of period 1 (B) a periodic function of period 4
(C) non-periodic (D) a periodic function of period 2
SECTION - II
13. Which of the following are odd function?

x
(A) f  x  
1 | x |
(B) f  x   x 2 log  x6  1  x3 
2x  1
(C) f  x   x g  x  , where g  x  is an even function defined for x  R
2 1
(D)   x    f  x   f   x    g  x   g   x  
14. Which of the following functions (is) are injective map(s)?

(A) f  x   x  1 , x  [1, ) (B) h  x   x 2  4x  5, x   0,  
1
(C) g  x   x  , x   0,   (D) k  x   sin x, x  (0, )
x
15. The possible values of ‘a’ for which the function f  x   e x [x]  cos ax (where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function), is periodic with finite fundamental period is/are
(A)  (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 2
16. If f  x   sin 6 x  cos 6 x , then range of f  x  satisfies the interval

 1 3  1 
(A) f  x   0,  (B) f  x    , 1 (C) f  x   [0, 1] (D) f  x    , 1
 4 4  4 
SECTION - III
17. Assertion : If x1 , x 2 , x 3 ,......., x n are real and in AP and f  x1   f  x 2   f  x 3  ,........f  x n  ,

then the function f  x  is periodic.
Reason : All periodic functions are many one.
Statement-1
Statementl
18. Assertion : The domain of a function y  f  x  will be all reals if for every real x there
exists y.
Reason : The range of a function y  f  x  will be all reals if for every real y there exists
a real x such that f  x   y .
Statement-1
Statementl
ex  e x
19. Assertion : f : R  R, f  x   is an invertible function.
2
Reason : Odd and increasing functions are always invertible.
Statement-1
Statementl
20 . Assertion : f  x   tan x.cot x is a periodic function with period  2 .

Reason : Every defined/undefined value of the function should be repeated after every
fundamental period.
Statement-1
Statementl
SECTION - IV
21. Consider those functions f that satisfy f (x  4)  f (x  4)  f (x) for all real x. Any such
function is periodic, and there is a least common positive period p for all of them. The value of
p, is
22. If f (x + y, x – y) = xy for all x, y  R, then the value of f (5, 1) is
23. Number of integers in the solution set of 2[x]2  11[x]  12  0 (where [·] represents greatest
integer function) is/are?
24. For a real number x, [x] denotes the integral part of x. The value of
1 1 1  1 2   1 99 
 2    2  100    2  100   ......   2  100  is
       
 x  59 
25. The function f satisfies the functional equation 3f  x   2f    10x  30 for all real
 x 1 
x  1 . The value of f  7  is

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JEE EXPERT

REGULAR TEST SERIES (RTS - 01)

T ime: 3 hou r s M axi m um ma r ks : 30 0

Signature of the Candidate Invigilator Signature:

Space for Rough Work

smooth x=0 x =1.8m

5. Equilibrium position of the combined mass is at x = …………………m.

6. The amplitude of oscillation of the combined mass will be:

(tan 0  0.2) as shown in the figure, the charge Q is

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13. Consider the chemical equation, N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

16. In the depression of freezing point experiment, It is found that

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18. Assertion : Temperature coefficient of a reaction

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Set [A0]  10–3 M [B0]  10–3 M Half life (sec)

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PART - III : MATHEMATICS

2. The maximum value of sin (cos x) is equal to

3. Let f : R  R defined by f (x)  x 3  x 2  100x  5sin x , then f is

Space for Rough Work

7. Which of the following is not an odd function?

10. If f  x   ax  b and g  x   cx  d, then f  g  x    g  f  x   if

11. If 2f (x)  3f (1/ x)  x 2 , x is not equal to zero, then f(2) is equal to

Space for Rough Work

13. Which of the following are odd function?

14. Which of the following functions (is) are injective map(s)?

16. If f  x   sin 6 x  cos 6 x , then range of f  x  satisfies the interval

Space for Rough Work

17. Assertion : If x1 , x 2 , x 3 ,......., x n are real and in AP and f  x1   f  x 2   f  x 3  ,........f  x n  ,

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20 . Assertion : f  x   tan x.cot x is a periodic function with period  2 .

Space for Rough Work

22. If f (x + y, x – y) = xy for all x, y  R, then the value of f (5, 1) is

Space for Rough Work

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