26/02/2021

Morning

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 300

for
JEE (MAIN)-2021 (Online) Phase-1
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

PART–A : PHYSICS
3. Given below are two statements : one is
SECTION - I
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 as Reason R.

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
Choose the correct answer :
1. In a Young’s double slit experiment two slits are
separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed
one meter away. When a light of wavelength
500 nm is used, the fringe separation will be :
(1) 0.25 mm
(2) 0.75 mm
(3) 0.50 mm
Assertion A : Body ‘P’ having mass M moving
with speed ‘u’ has head-on collision elastically
with another body ‘Q’ having mass ‘m’ initially
at rest. If m << M, body ‘Q’ will have a maximum
speed equal to ‘2u’ after collision.
Reason R : During elastic collision, the
momentum and kinetic energy are both
conserved.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A

(4) 1 mm (2) A is not correct but R is correct

Answer (1) (3) A is correct but R is not correct

D (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the

Sol.   correct explanation of A
d
Answer (1)
500  109  1

2  103 2M
= 250 × 10–6 Sol. V2 = M  m  u

= 0.25 mm
∵ m << M1
2. A planet revolving in elliptical orbit has :
A. a constant velocity of revolution. 2M
 V2   u  2u
B. has the least velocity when it is nearest to M
the sun.
4. LED is constructed from Ga-As-P
C. its areal velocity is directly proportional to semiconducting material. The energy gap of
its velocity. this LED is 1.9 eV. Calculate the wavelength of
D. areal velocity is inversely proportional to its light emitted and its colour.
velocity. [h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
E. to follow a trajectory such that the areal
(1) 654 nm and red colour
velocity is constant.
(2) 1046 nm and blue colour
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : (3) 1046 nm and red colour
(1) A only (4) 654 nm and orange colour
(2) E only Answer (1)
(3) D only Sol. Eg = 1.9 eV
(4) C only
1242
Answer (2)   nm
1.9
dA
Sol. = constant according to Kepler’s law = 654 nm of red colour
dt
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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

5. Assume that a tunnel is dug along a chord of 7.
the earth, at a perpendicular distance (R/2)
from the earth’s centre, where ‘R’ is the radius
of the Earth. The wall of the tunnel is
frictionless. If a particle is released in this
tunnel, it will execute a simple harmonic motion
with a time period :
The normal density of a material is  and its bulk
modulus of elasticity is K. The magnitude of
increase in density of material, when a pressure
P is applied uniformly on all sides, will be :
P K
(1) (2)
K P

g 2R K PK
(1) (2)
2 R g (3)
P
(4)

R 1 g Answer (1)
(3) 2 (4)
g 2 R
P
Answer (3) Sol. K 
⎛ V ⎞
Sol. ⎜– V ⎟
x ⎝ ⎠

r V 
∵ – 
V 

P
 K
⎛  ⎞
⎜ ⎟
GMr ⎛x⎞ ⎝  ⎠
F  3
m⎜ ⎟
R ⎝r⎠
 P
 
2
d x GM  K
 2
 x
dt R3
P
  
K
R3 R
 T  2  2 8. An alternating current is given by the equation
GM g
i  i1 sin t  i2 cos t . The rms current will be :
6. A particle is moving with uniform speed along
the circumference of a circle of radius R under 1 1
i1  i2  i1  i2 
2
the action of a central fictitious force F which (1) (2)
is inversely proportional to R3. Its time period 2 2
of revolution will be given by : 1
1
1
4 3 (3)
1 2 2
2

i1  i2  2
(4)
2
i 2
1  i22  2

(1) T  R 3 (2) T  R 2
Answer (4)
5
(3) T  R 2
(4) T  R 2
Sol. i  i1 sin t  i2 cos t
Answer (3) T

∫ i dt
2

K
irms 
2
Sol. F  3   0

R T
T
mv2 K
 3 ∫ i sin2 t  i22 cos2 t  2i1i2 sin t  cos t dt 
2
 1
R R
 0

1 T
 v 
R i12 i22
  0
2 R 2 2
 T
v 1 1

 T  R2
 irms 
2
i 2
1  i22  2

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

9. The temperature  at the junction of two 11. Find the gravitational force of attraction
insulating sheets, having thermal resistances R1 between the ring and sphere as shown in the
and R2 as well as top and bottom temperatures diagram, where the plane of the ring is
1 and 2 (as shown in figure) is given by : perpendicular to the line joining the centres. If
8 R is the distance between the centres of a
2
R2 ring (of mass ‘m’) and a sphere (mass ‘M’)
 where both have equal radius ‘R’
R1
1 m M
R R
1R2 – 2R1 2R2 – 1R1
(1) (2) X Y
R2 – R1 R2 – R1 8R

1R1  2R2 1R2  2R1

(3) (4) 1 GMm 8 GmM
R1  R2 R1  R2 (1)  (2) 
2
3 8 R 9 R
Answer (4)
Sol. 2 8 GmM 2 2 GMm
(3)  (4) 
27 R2 3 R2
R2
 Answer (3)
R1
Sol. Sphere can be supposed to be concentrated at
1 centre.
2 –   – 1 m

R2 R1
R
M
⇒ 2R1 –  R1  R2 – 1R2 8R
1R2  2R1
⇒ 
R1  R2
GMm 8 R
10. In a typical combustion engine the work done by F 3/2
⎡⎣R2  8R2 ⎤⎦
2
x
–
a gas molecule is given by W   2  e kT , where x
is the displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant 8 GMm
F
and T is the temperature, If  and  are 27R2
constants, dimensions of  will be :
12. If 1 and 2 are the wavelengths of the third
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [M0LT0] member of Lyman and first member of the
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [M2LT–2] Paschen series respectively, then the value of
1 : 2 is
Answer (2)
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 7 : 108
x2
– (3) 7 : 135 (4) 1 : 9
Sol. W   2  e kT

Answer (3)
2 –2
kT ⎤ ML T
  ⎡⎢ 2 ⎥
  MT –2 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤ 16
⎣x ⎦ L2 Sol.   R ⎢ 1  16 ⎥ ⇒ 1  15R
1 ⎣ ⎦
⎡⎣  2  ⎤⎦  ML2 T –2
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤ 144
 R⎢  ⎥ ⇒ 2 
ML2 T –2 2 ⎣ 9 16 ⎦ 7R
⇒ ⎡⎣ ⎤⎦ 
2

MT –2
1 16 7R 7
  
⇒   M LT0 0 2 15R 144 135

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

13. Given below are two statements : one is Answer (3)

labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R. 1 1 1
Sol. K  K  K
Assertion A : An electron microscope can 1
achieve better resolving power than an optical
microscope. K
K1 
Reason R : The de Broglie’s wavelength of the 2
electrons emitted from an electron gun is much
less than wavelength of visible light. 1
T
In the light of the above statements, choose the K
correct answer from the options given below : 16. Four identical solid spheres each of mass ‘m’
(1) A is false but R is true. and radius ‘a’ are placed with their centres on
the four corners of a square of side ‘b’. The
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
moment of inertia of the system about one side
explanation of A.
of square where the axis of rotation is parallel
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the to the plane of the square is :
correct explanation of A.
4 8
(4) A is true but R is false. (1) ma2 (2) ma2 +mb2
5 5
Answer (2)
Sol. Resolving power increases on decreasing the 8 4
(3) ma2 + 2mb2 (4) ma2 + 2mb2
wavelength. 5 5
14. Five equal resistances are connected in a
Answer (3)
network as shown in figure. The net resistance
between the points A and B is : Sol.
b
D

R
R R

R A
B

E C
R

R 3R 2
(1) (2) I ma2  4  2  mb2
2 2 5

(3) R (4) 2R 8
 ma2  2mb2
Answer (3) 5
Sol. E and D are at same potential 17. Consider the combination of 2 capacitors C1
and C 2 , with C 2 > C 1 , when connected in
1 1 1
So, R  2R  2R 15
eq parallel, the equivalent capacitance is
times
4
Req = R the equivalent capacitance of the same
15. If two similar springs each of spring constant connected in series. Calculate the ratio of
K1 are joined in series, the new spring constant C2
and time period would be changed by a capacitors, C .
1
factor :

1 1 15 29
(1) ,2 2 (2) ,2 2 (1) (2)
4 2 4 15

1 1 111 15
(3) , 2 (4) , 2 (3) (4)
2 4 80 11

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

Answer (None of the option) 19. A large number of water drops, each of radius
Sol. r, combine to have a drop of radius R. If the
surface tension is T and mechanical equivalent
C1C2 4 of heat is J, the rise in heat energy per unit
  C1  C2  volume will be
C1  C2 15
2T ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
4  C1  C2   15C1C2
2 
J ⎜⎝ r R ⎟⎠
(1)

C2 3T
Put C  x (2)
rJ
1

4 (x + 1)2 = 15 x 3T ⎛ 1 1 ⎞

J ⎜⎝ r R ⎟⎠
(3)
None of the values of x satisfies the condition.
18. Find the electric field at point P (as shown in 2T
figure) on the perpendicular bisector of a (4)
rJ
uniformly charged thin wire of length L carrying
a charge Q. The distance of the point P from Answer (3)
3 Sol.
the centre of the rod is a  L.
2 nr3 = R3
H = T[4nr2 – 4 R2]
a E
Rise in Heat energy/volume (Q)
L O P
4 T ⎡ 2
Q= nr  R2 ⎤⎦
4 3⎣
Jn. r
Q
3

Q Q Solving we get
(1) (2)
30L2 4 0L2
3T ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
Q 
J ⎜⎝ r R ⎟⎠
3Q Q
(3) (4)
4 0L 2
2 3 0L2 20. A short straight object of height 100 cm lies
before the central axis of a spherical mirror
Answer (4) whose focal length has absolute value |f| = 40 cm.
Sol. The image of object produced by the mirror is
of height 25 cm and has the same orientation
of the object. One may conclude from the

information :
(1) Image is virtual, opposite side of convex
mirror

Q (2) Image is virtual, opposite side of concave

= mirror
L
(3) Image is real, same side of convex mirror

E= ×2sin (4) Image is real, same side of concave mirror
4 0 a
Answer (1)
 = 30°
Sol. Image is diminished and magnification is
Q Q positive.
E= 
L 2 30L2  It is possible if object is placed in front of
4 0L  3
2 convex mirror.

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

Answer (25)
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Sol. *Assuming, identical gas in both chamber
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 3 moles 4 moles at
at 2 atm 3 atm
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using 4.5 litre 5.5 litre
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad
in the place designated to enter the answer. n1T1  n2 T2
T
n1  n2
1. The circuit contains two diodes each with a
forward resistance of 50  and with infinite
P1V1  P2 V2
reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, P  2.55 atm
the current through the 120  resistance V1  V2
is __________ mA.
3. As shown in the figure, a block of mass 3 kg
D1 130  is kept on a horizontal rough surface of
1
D2 coefficient of friction . The critical force to
100  3 3
be applied on the vertical surface as shown at
an angle 60° with horizontal such that it does
120  not move, will be 3x. The value of x will
be __________.
6V
Answer (20) 3 1
[g = 10 m/s2; sin60  ; cos60  ]
Sol. D1 130  2 2

i i
D2 100  1
= m = 3 kg
3 3
60°
i 120 
Answer (3.33)
6V
Sol. N 60°
6
i= F
50  130  120

6000 f
=  103 A
300
mg
= 20 mA
N = mg + F sin60°
2. A container is divided into two chambers by a
partition. The volume of first chamber is For no movement of the block —
4.5 litre and second chamber is 5.5 litre. The F cos60°  fl
first chamber contain 3.0 moles of gas at
pressure 2.0 atm and second chamber contain F cos60°   (mg + F sin60°)
4.0 moles of gas at pressure 3.0 atm. After the
mg
partition is removed and the mixture attains F
cos60   sin60
equilibrium, then, the common equilibrium
pressure existing in the mixture is x × 10–1 atm. Fcritical = 10 N
Value of x is __________.
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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

4. A person standing on a spring balance inside a 8. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an
stationary lift measures 60 kg. The weight of amplitude modulated wave is 16 V and 8 V
that person if the lift descends with uniform respectively. The modulation index for this
downward acceleration of 1.8 m/s 2 will be amplitude modulated wave is x × 10–2. The value
______ N. [g = 10 m/s2] of x is ________.
Answer (492) Answer (33)
Sol. M = 60 kg
Am Amax  Amin
Sol.   A  A
max  Amin
N = M(g – a) C

= 60(10 – 1.8)
16  8 1
= 492 N  
16  8 3
5. In an electrical circuit, a battery is connected to
pass 20 C of charge through it in a certain given  0  33
time. The potential difference between two
plates of the battery is maintained at 15 V. The  33  102
work done by the battery is ________ J. 9. The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is
Answer (300) 0.135 g/cm. A transverse wave of the form
y = –0.21 sin (x + 30 t) is produced in it, where x
Sol. W = qV
is in meter and t is in second. Then, the
= 20 × 15 expected value of tension in the wire is
= 300 J x × 10–2 N. Value of x is ________.
(Round-off to the nearest integer)
6. A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force
 Answer (1215)
F  (20iˆ  10 ˆj) N on a frictionless surface. If the
box was initially at rest, then ________ m is 
Sol. v   30 m / s
displacement along the x-axis after 10 s. k
Answer (500)
T  v2

 F
Sol. a   10iˆ  5 ˆj  0  0135  900
m
 12.15 N
1 1
x  ax t 2   10  100 10. A radiation is emitted by 1000 W bulb and it
2 2
generates an electric field and magnetic field at
= 500 m P, placed at a distance of 2 m. The efficiency of
7. In a series LCR resonant circuit, the quality the bulb is 1.25%. The value of peak electric
factor is measured as 100. If the inductance is field at P is x × 10–1 V/m. Value of x is ________.
increased by two fold and resistance is (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
decreased by two fold, then the quality factor [Take 0  8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2 , c  3  108 ms1]
after this change will be ________.
Answer (137)
Answer (400)
P 1
XL Sol. I   0E02  c
Sol. Q   100 4 r 2 2
R

0.0125  1000 1
2XL    8.85  1012  3  108 E20
Q   4Q 4  3.14  22 2
R/2

= 400 ⇒ E0  13.69 V / m

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

PART–B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION - I OH OH
Br CHO
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
(3) and
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
OH OH
is correct. Br
(4) and
Choose the correct answer :
1. Match List -I with List - II. CHO

List - I List - II Answer (2)

(Ore) (Element Present)
(a) Kernite (i) Tin Sol. OH OH
(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron Br2/CS2
(c) Calamine (iii) Fluorine 273 K

(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc Br

Major
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
A
options given below:
OH OH
(1) (a)  (ii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iv), d  (iii) CHO
(i) CHCl 3,NaOH
(2) (a)  (iii), (b)  (i), (c)  (ii), d  (iv) (ii) H 3O
+

(3) (a)  (ii), (b)  (iv), (c)  (i), d  (iii) Major

(4) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), d  (ii) B

Answer (1)
Sol. Kernite : Na2B4O74H2O (Boron) So option (2) is the correct answer
Cassiterite : SnO2 (Tin) Hydrolysis B
3. A
(C4 H8Cl2 ) (C4 H8O)
Calamine : ZnCO3 (Zinc) 373K
Cryolite : Na3AlF6 (Fluorine) B reacts with Hydroxyl amine but does not
give Tollen’s test. Identify A and B.
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. Identify the major products A and B (1) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butanal
respectively in the following reactions of (2) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and Butanal
phenol:
(3) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone
OH (4) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butan-2-one
(i) CHCl 3, NaOH Br2 in CS 2
B A Answer (4)
(ii) H 3O
+ 273K
Sol. Cl O
Cl
OH OH Hydrolysis
373 K
(1) and (C 4H8 Cl2) (C4H 8O)
A B
Br CHO
OH OH B is a ketone, cannot give Tollen’s test.
CHO A  2, 2-Dichlorobutane
(2) and
B  Butan-2-one
Br So correct option should be (4)
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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

4. Given below are two statements : One is 6. The structure of Neoprene is :

labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions are HN N NHCH2
only non-covalent interactions, resulting in n
hydrogen bond formation. (1)
N N
Reason R : Fluorine is the most
electronegative element and hydrogen bonds
in HF are symmetrical. NH

In the light of the above statements, choose

the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: CH2 CH
(2) n
(1) A is false but R is true CN
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
CH2CH CH CH2 CH2 CH
(3) A is true but R is false (3) n
CN
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A Cl
Answer (1) (4) CH2 C CH CH2
n
Sol.  Dipole - Dipole are not only the interaction
responsible for hydrogen bond formation. Answer (4)
Ion-dipole can also be responsible for Sol. Neoprene is a polymer of monomer
hydrogen bond formation. chloroprene
 F is most electronegative element and
anhydrous HF in solid phase has Cl
symmetrical hydrogen bonding Polymerisation
nCH2 C CH CH2
So the correct option is (1).
Chloroprene Cl
5. For the given reaction :
CH2 C CH CH2
CH  CHBr
1. NaNH2 (A) n
Neoprene
2. Red hot iron tube, 873K (major product)
CH3
So the correct option should be (4)
What is ‘A’?
7. For the given reaction :
H 3C CH3
CH2 CH3 'A'
(1) (2) Br2 (Major product)
CH3 UV light monobrominated
CN
(3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (4) CH CH NH2
What is ‘A’?
CH3

Answer (2) CH2 CH3 CH2CH3

Br
(i) NaNH 2 (1) (2)
Sol. CH3 – CH = CH – Br (ii) Red hot iron CN Br CN
tube, 873 K
CH3
CH2 CH3 Br
CH3
CH

(3) CN (4)
H3 C CH 3
Br CN
Mesitylene

So the correct option should be (2). Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

Sol. 10. Compound A is used as a strong oxidizing

agent is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of
Br lead storage batteries. Compound A is
CH2 CH3 CH
(1) Pb3O4 (2) PbSO4
Br 2 (3) PbO (4) PbO2
UV light
Answer (4)
CN CN Sol. PbO2 is strong oxidizing agent because Pb+4 is
(Major Product) not stable and can be easily reduced to Pb+2.
Monobrominated
PbO2 is used in lead storage batteries. It is
also amphoteric in nature
So the correct option should be (4)
So, the answer should be (4)
8. The orbital having two radial as well as two
angular nodes is : 11. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4,
gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper
(1) 3p (2) 4d acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound
(3) 5d (4) 4f Y. X and Y respectively are :

Answer (3) (1) X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3

(2) X = SO3, Y = Cr2(SO4)3
Sol. Number of radial nodes = (n – l – 1)
(3) X = SO2, Y = Cr2(SO4)3
Number of angular nodes = l
(4) X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3
for 5d; n = 5, l = 2
Answer (3)
5d orbital has two radial nodes and two
angular nodes Sol. SO2 + K2Cr2O7 + dil. H2SO4  SO3 + Cr2(SO4)3
(green)
So, the correct option should be (3)
12. An amine on reaction with benzenesulphonyl
9. Given below are two statements: chloride produces a compound insoluble in
Statement I : o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile alkaline solution. This amine can be prepared
due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding. by ammonolysis of ethyl chloride. The correct
structure of amine is :
Statement II : o-Nitrophenol has high melting
due to hydrogen bonding. H
(1) CH3CH2 CH2 N — CH2 CH3
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options (2) CH3CH2NH2
given below:
(3) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
NH— CH2 CH2CH3
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4)
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false Answer (1)
Answer (3) Sol. Given amine on reaction with PhSO 2 Cl
produces a compound insoluble in alkaline
O – O solution it means it is a 2º amine.
N H
 Has intramolecular hydrogen
bonding and steam volatile
∵ It is prepared by ammonolysis of C2H5Cl, it


O must contain an ethyl group
Sol. Melting point is not affected


by intramolecular hydrogen H
O- Nitrophenol bonding |
CH3CH2CH2N — CH2CH3 is a 2° amine as well
So the correct option should be (3) as it contain ethyl group.

11

13. Which of the following is ‘a’ FALSE statement?
(1) Carius method is used for the estimation
of nitrogen in an organic compound
(2) Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of
phosphorus present in an organic
compound is precipitated as Mg2P2O7 by
adding magnesia mixture
(3) Kjeldahl’s method is used for the
estimation of nitrogen in an organic
compound
(4) Carius tube is used in the estimation of
sulphur in an organic compound
Answer (1)
Sol. Carius method is used for the estimation for
halogens and sulphur in organic compound.
14. Find A, B and C in the following reactions :
NH3 + A + CO2  (NH4)2CO3
(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + B  NH4HCO3
NH4HCO3 + NaCl  NH4Cl + C
(1) A – H2O ; B – CO2 ; C – NaHCO3
(2) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – Na2CO3
(3) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – NaHCO3
(4) A – O2 ; B – CO2 ; C – Na2CO3
Answer (1)
Sol. These reactions are from Solvay process
(formation of washing soda)
A = H2O
B = CO2
C = NaHCO3
15. The presence of ozone in troposphere :
(1) Protects us from greenhouse effect
(2) Protects us from the X-ray radiation
(3) Generates photochemical smog
(4) Protects us from the UV radiation
Answer (3)
Sol. Ozone in stratosphere (not in troposphere)
prevent us from U.V. radiation.
Ozone in troposphere generates
photochemical smog.
12
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M
16. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : A mixture of chloroform and
aniline can be separated by simple distillation.
Statement II : When separating aniline from a
mixture of aniline and water by steam
distillation aniline boils below its boiling point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Answer (2)
Sol.  Mixture of chloroform and aniline can be
separated by simple distillation as these
two liquids have sufficient difference in
boiling point.
Chloroform (b.p. 334 K), aniline (b.p. 457 K)
 In steam distillation, if one of the
substances is water and the other, a water
insoluble substance (like aniline) then the
mixture will boil close to but below 373 K.
17. Statements about heavy water are given below.
A. Heavy water is used in exchange reactions
for the study of reaction mechanisms.
B. Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive
electrolysis of water.
C. Heavy water has higher boiling point than
ordinary water.
D. Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only
(3) A and D only (4) A, B and C only
Answer (4)
Sol.  Viscosity of D2O is greater than H2O.
 B.P. of D2O is greater than H2O.
18. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in
delaying the blood clotting?
(1) Vitamin B (2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin C
Answer (3)
Sol. Vitamin K is helpful in delaying the blood
clotting.
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

19. Which one of the following lanthanoids does not

SECTION - II
form MO2?
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
[M is lanthanoid metal]
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
(1) Nd questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
(2) Pr
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(3) Dy truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
(4) Yb
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad
Answer (4) in the place designated to enter the answer.
Sol. Nd (60) = 4f4 6s2 1. For a chemical reaction A + B  C + D
Pr (59) = 4f3 6s2 ( ΔrHΘ = 80 kJ mol –1 ) the entropy change
Δr SΘ depends on the temperature T (in K) as
Dy (66) = 4f10 6s2
Δr SΘ = 2T (J K–1 mol–1).
Yb (70) = 4f14 6s2
Minimum temperature at which it will become
Yb+2 has fully-filled 4f orbital, it will require very spontaneous is ____________ K. (Integer)
large amount of energy to reach +4 oxidation Answer (200)
state. Sol. A + B  C + D
20. Match List-I with List-II. For a reaction to be spontaneous
rG < 0
List-I List-II
or rG° < 0 (For the given case)
Electronic iH in kJ mol–1
 rH° – TrS° < 0
configuration
of elements  80 × 1000 – T × 2T < 0
 T2 > 40000
(a) 1s2 2s2 (i) 801
T > 200
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (ii) 899
 Tmin  200 K
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (iii) 1314
2. 224 mL of SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 atm is passed
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (iv) 1402 through 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. The
Choose the most appropriate answer from the non-volatile solute produced is dissolved in 36
options given below : g of water. The lowering of vapour pressure of
solution (assuming the solution is dilute)
(1) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (ii)
(P( °
H2 O) )
= 24 mmof Hg is x × 10–2 mm of Hg, the
(2) (a)  (i), (b)  (iv), (c)  (iii), (d)  (ii) value of x is _________. (Integer answer)
(3) (a)  (iv), (b)  (i), (c)  (ii), (d)  (iii) Answer (24)
(4) (a)  (ii), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (i) 1 0.224
Sol. nSO2   0.0092  0.01moles
Answer (4) 0.082  298

Sol. On moving left to right in periodic table, NaOH + SO2  NaHSO3

ionisation energy increases (generally) but nNaHSO3  0.01
group-13 elements have lesser I.E than group-
2 due to stable ns2 electronic configuration of NaHSO3  Na  HSO3
group-2 elements and group-15 elements have Ignoring the dissociation of HSO3 into H+ and
greater I.E than group-16 elements due to half-
filled stable np 3 configuration of group-15 SO23
elements. van’t Hoff factor (i) = 2

 Overall order of I.E should be PHo2O  PS inNaHSO

 3

c>b>a>d PHo2O nH2O  inNaHSO

3

13
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(26-02-2021)-M

 as n HSO3
 nH2O  6. A certain gas obeys P(Vm–b) = RT. The value of
⎛ ∂Z ⎞⎟
⎜⎜ ⎟ is xb . The value of x is _________.
Lowering in vapour presssure ⎜⎝ ∂P ⎟⎠ RT
T
2  0.01
=  24 (Integer answer) (Z : compressibility factor)
2  2  0.01
Answer (1)
= 23.76  102 mmHg  24  102 mmHg Sol. P(Vm – b) = RT
3. 3.12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of  PVm – Pb = RT
platinum metal. The volume of oxygen PVm Pb
adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm   1
RT RT
and 300 K in L is _________.
[R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1] Pb
 Z  1
Answer (2) RT
Sol. Using ideal gas equation : PV = nRT  Z  b
   
3.12  0.0821 300  P T RT
V  2.40 L
32  1  x 1
 Volume of O2(g) adsorbed per gram of the
2.4 7. The number of significant figures in 50000.020
adsorbent  =2 × 10–3 is __________.
1.2
4. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the Answer (8)
oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is Sol. No. of significant figures in 50000.020 × 10–3 = 8
__________. 8. An exothermic reaction X  Y has an activation
Answer (6) energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change E during
 the reaction is –20 kJ, then the activation
OH
Sol. Cr2O72   CrO24 energy for the reverse reaction in kJ is
 Oxidation state of Cr in CrO 24 is +6. ________. (Integer answer)
5. A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction Answer (50)
AB2(g)  A(g) + 2B(g) is carried out in a 25 litre Sol. X  Y
flask at 27°C. The initial amount of AB2 was 1 E = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
mole and the equilibrium pressure was 1.9 atm. – 20 = 30 – (Ea)b
The value of Kp is x × 10–2. The value of x is (Ea)b = 50 kJ
_________. (Integer answer)
9. Number of bridging CO ligands in [Mn2(CO)10]
[R = 0.08206 dm3atm K–1 mol–1]
is __________.
Answer (72)
Answer (0)
Sol.  A(g) + 2B(g)
AB2(g)  Sol. [Mn2(CO)10]
t=0 1 – – CO CO
t = eqm 1-  2 OC CO
 No. of moles at equilibrium OC Mn Mn CO
PV 1.9  25 OC CO CO CO
= 1 + 2 =   1.93
RT 0.08206  300  No. of bridging CO ligands = 0
 = 0.465
10. Consider the following reaction
1 
 PAB2   PT  0.53 atm MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–  Mn+2 + 4H2O, E° = 1.51 V.
1 2
The quantity of electricity required in Faraday to
 reduce five moles of MnO4– is _________.
PA   PT  0.46 atm
1  2
(Integer answer)
2
PB   PT  0.91atm Answer (25)
1  2
PA  (PB )2 Sol. MnO4  8H  5e –  Mn2  4H2 O , Eº = 1.51 V
KP 
PAB2 ∵ 1 mole of MnO4 required 5 moles of
0.46  (0.91)2 electrons or 5 F electricity.
  0.72  72  102
0.53  5 moles of MnO4 required 25 F electricity.
14
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

PART–C : MATHEMATICS
 
SECTION - I  1 
2
2 3x 2
2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20   cos x  
 1  3 x 1  3x
 dx 
  cos x dx
0   0
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 
2
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE 1 

2  1 cos 2x  dx  4
is correct. 0
(a  1) (a  2) a  2 1
Choose the correct answer :
  3. The value of (a  2) (a  3) a  3 1 is :
1. If a and b are perpendicular, then (a  3) (a  4) a  4 1
    
   
a  a  a  a  b is equal to : (1) 0 (2) (a  2)(a  3)(a  4)

   (3) –2 (4) (a  1)(a  2)(a  3)

(1) a  b (2) 0
Answer (3)
1  4   4  Sol. Given determinant is
(3) a b (4) a b
2
Answer (4) a2  3a  2 a2 1
  D  a  5a  6 a3 1
Sol. Let ĉ be a unit vector in the direction of a  b .
2
a  7a  12 a  4 1
 aˆ  bˆ  c,
ˆ bˆ  cˆ  aˆ & cˆ  aˆ  bˆ
    R3  R3 – R2; R2  R2 – R1
a  b  a  b  cˆ
a2  3a  2 a  2 1
   2 
 
a  a  b   a b bˆ  2a  4 1 0
2a  6 1 0
    3 
 
a  a  a  b   a b cˆ  Expanding by C3
     
     a
a a a ab
4
b bˆ
4.
D = (2a + 4) – (2a + 6) = –2
The maximum slope of the curve
4 1 4
 a b y x  5x3  18x2  19x occurs at the point :
2
 (1) (2, 2) (2) (0, 0)
2
cos2 x
2. The value of  1  3x
dx
is :
 21 
(3)  3,  (4) (2, 9)

  2 
2
Answer (1*)

(1) (2) 2  1 4
4 Sol. y  x  5x3  18x2  19x
2

(3) (4) 4  Slope = y = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x – 19 = g(x) say
2
Answer (1) g(x) = 6x2 – 30x + 36 = 6(x – 2)(x – 3)
a a g(x) = 0  x = 2, 3
Sol.  f(x)dx    f(x)  f(a  x)  dx Slope g(x) has local maximum at x = 2
a 0
x=2  y=2
 
2 2
cos x 2 2
cos x 2
cos (x) Local maximum at (2, 2)
 1 3 x
dx   1 3 x

1 3 x
dx
[Note : Overall maximum (Absolute maximum)
 0
2 value of slope is far greater than that at (2, 2)].
15
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

5. In an increasing geometric series, the sum of

Sol. 2 7 12 17 22
25 S  1     ............
the second and the sixth term is and the 3 32 33 3 4 35
2
1 1 2 7 12 17
product of the third and fifth term is 25. Then, S      ...........
2
3 3 3 33 3 4 35
the sum of 4 th ,6th and 8 th term is equal to :      
(1) 26 (2) 35 2 1  5 5 5 5 
S  1       ....... 
(3) 30 (4) 32 3 3  32 33 3 4 35 
Answer (2)
5 5
25
Sol. a2  a6  4 5
2   9   9
3 1 3 2
1
a3  a5  25  a2  a6  a24 3 3

a24  25  a 4  5 2 4 5 13
S  

3 3 6 6
25
a2 & a6 are roots of x2  x  25  0
2 13
S
5 4
x , 10
2 8. Consider the three planes
5 P1 : 3x  15y  21z  9 ,
a2  , a6  10 ( GP is increasing)
2
a4 = 5 P2 : x  3y  z  5, and
5 2
a4 =a2r2  5 r  r2  2 P3 : 2x  10y  14z  5
2
a8 = a6r2 = 10 × 2 = 20 Then, which one of the following is true ?

a4 + a6 + a8 = 5 + 10 + 20 = 35 (1) P2 and P3 are parallel

6. The number of seven digit integers with sum of
(2) P1 and P3 are parallel
the digits equal to 10 and formed by using the
digits 1, 2 and 3 only is :
(3) P1 and P2 are parallel
(1) 77 (2) 42
(3) 82 (4) 35 (4) P1 ,P2 and P3 all are parallel

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. Combination of digits Sol. Ratios of DRs of normals of P1 & P3 are
7! 3 15 21
3, 2, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1   42  
5! 2 10 14
7!  Normals are parallel
2, 2, 2, 1, 1, 1, 1  4! 3!  35
 P1 || P3
Total = 42 + 35 = 77
9. Let A be a symmetric matrix of order 2 with
7. The sum of infinite series integer entries. If the sum of the diagonal
2 7 12 17 22 elements of A2 is 1, then the possible number
1     +......is equal to : of such matrices is :
3 32 33 34 35
(1) 6 (2) 1
13 9
(1) (2) (3) 4 (4) 12
4 4
Answer (3)
11 15
(3) (4)
4 4 a c 
Sol. Let A   
Answer (1) c b 
16
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

Sol. Let n number of tosses

a c   a c  a  c ac  bc 
2 2
A2       
c b  c b  ac  bc c2  b2  Given,

a2 + b2 + 2c2 = 1 as a, b, cz 7 n7 9 n 9

n  1  1  1  1
C7      n C9     
c = 0 and a, b = ±1 2 2 2 2
Total 4 matrices are possible  n = 16
10. The maximum value of the term independent of
16
 1
 1 1
10
  Probability of getting 2 heads = 16C2  
2
 (1  x) 10 
‘t’ in the expansion of  tx 5  
 t  15
  
  213

where x  (0,1) is : 100 n

 e  dx, where [x] is the
x x
12. The value of
2.10! 2.10! n 1
n 1
(1) 2 (2)
3(5!) 3 3(5!)2 greatest integer  x, is :
10! 10! (1) 100(e – 1) (2) 100(1 – e)
(3) 2 (4) 2
3(5!) 2(5!) (3) 100e (4) 100(1 + e)
Answer (2) Answer (1)
r
 1  n 1
e   dx   ex dx   e  1
1 x x
 (1  x) 10 
10
Sol. Tr 1  Cr (tx 5 )10 r   Sol. 
 t  n 1 0
 
  100
For term independent of f    e  1  100  e  1
n 1
10 – r – r = 0  r = 5
13. In the circle given below, let OA = 1 unit,
1
OB = 13 unit and PQ  OB . Then, the area of
T6 10C5 x(1 x)2  f(x) (Let)
the triangle PQB (in square units) is :
 1  y
10  x 
 f (x)  C5  (1  x) 2  0 P
1
 
2(1  x) 2
 
2 O A B x
2  2x  x  x 
3
Q
2
f(x) < 0 at x 
3 (1) 24 2 (2) 24 3
1
(3) 26 3 (4) 26 2
10 2  1 2 2.10!
T6(max)  C5 .   
33 (5!)2 3 3 Answer (2)

11. A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If Sol. Assume that OB is diameter of the given circle
the probability of getting 7 heads is equal to
Using Ptolemy’s Theorem,
probability of getting 9 heads, then the
probability of getting 2 heads is : OP·QB + OQ·PB = PQ × OB
15 15  2OP·PB = 13PQ
(1) (2)
213 212
Also PA2 = OP2 – 1 = PB2 – 122
15 15
(3) (4)  PB2 – OP2 = 143
28 214
Answer (1) and OP2 + PB2 = 132

17
 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

then PB2 = 156 and OP2 = 13 16. The rate of growth of bacteria in a culture is
proportional to the number of bacteria present
2 13· 156
So, PQ  4 3 and the bacteria count is 1000 at initial time t
13 = 0. The number of bacteria is increased by
1 20% in 2 hours. If the population of bacteria is
Area of PQB  ·4 3·12  24 3
2 2
k  k 
14. The value of 2000 after hours, then   is
6  loge 2 
     loge  
 3 sin  6  h   cos  6  h   equal to : 5
lim 2     
 is (1) 16 (2) 4
h 0
 
3h 3 cos h sin h   (3) 8 (4) 2
 
Answer (2)
4
(1) Sol. At t = 0 B  1000
3
3 dB
(2) B
4 dt
2  
12B 2
(3) dB
3   B
  kt [Given]
B 0
2
(4)  1 2B 
3
ln    2k
Answer (1)  B 
 3  1
   1    k ln(1 2)
sin   h   cos   h   2
 2 6  2 6 
lim 2   To find time when B = 2000
Sol. h0   3 1  
 3h  cosh sinh   2B t
  2 2   dB 1
  B
 ln(1 2) dt
2
  B 0
 sin  h  2 2 4
lim 2   ·  1
h0     3 3 3 ln2  ln(1 2)t
3h  sin  h  2
  3  
ln 4
15. Let R = {(P, Q) | P and Q are at the same  t hrs.
6
distance from the origin} be a relation, then the ln  
5
equivalence class of (1, –1) is the set :
 R = ln = 4
(1) S = {(x, y) | x2 + y2 = 2}
(2) S = {(x, y) | x2 + y2 = 1} 2
K 2
Thus   2 4
(3) S = {(x, y) | x2 + y2 = 2} ln
 
(4) S = {(x, y) | x2 + y2 = 4} 17. Let f be any function defined on R and let it
satisfy the condition :
Answer (1)
f  x   f  y    x  y  ,   x,y   R
2
Sol.  R = {(P, Q) | P and Q are at the same
distance from the origin}.
If f  0   1, then :
Then equivalence class of (1, –1) will
contain all such points which lies on (1) f  x  can take any value in R
circumference of the circle of centre at
origin and passing through point (1, –1). (2) f  x   0,  x  R

i.e., radius of circle  12  12  2 (3) f  x   0,  x  R

 Required equivalence class of (S) (4) f  x   0,  x  R

= {(x, y) | x2 + y2 = 2}. Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

2 19. The intersection of three lines x – y = 0,

Sol. f(x) – f(y)  (x – y) x + 2y = 3 and 2x + y = 6 is a :

f(x) – f(y) (1) None of the above

  x–y
x–y (2) Isosceles triangle

f(x) – f(y) (3) Right angled triangle

 Lim  Lim (x – y)
xy x–y xy (4) Equilateral triangle
Answer (2)
 f (x)  0
Sol. The given three lines are x – y = 0, x + 2y = 3
 f(x) = 0 and 2x + y = 6 then point of intersection
 f(x) is constant function. lines x – y = 0 and x + 2y = 3 is (1, 1)
 f(0) = 1 then f(x) = 1 lines x – y = 0 and 2x + y = 6 is (2, 2)
and lines x + 2y = 3 and 2x + y = 0 is (3, 0)
sin1 x cos1 x tan1 y
18. If   ; 0 < x < 1, then the The triangle ABC has vertices A(1, 1), B(2, 2)
a b c
and C(3, 0)
 c 
value of cos   is : 
 ab AB  2 , BC  5 and AC  5

1  y2  ABC is isosceles
(1) 1 – y2 (2)
y y 20. If (1, 5, 35), (7, 5, 5), (1, , 7) and (2, 1, 2) are
coplanar, then the sum of all possible values of
1  y2 1  y2 is
(3) 2 (4)
1 y 2y
44
Answer (3) (1)
5
44
sin–1x cos –1 x tan –1 y (2) 
Sol.     k (say) 5
a b c
39
 sin–1 x = ak, cos–1x = bk and tan–1y = ck (3)
5
Now,
39
(4) 
 5
sin –1 x  cos –1 x 
2 Answer (1)

 Sol. Four points (1, 5, 35), (7, 5, 5), (1, , 7) and (2,
(a  b)x  1, 2) are coplanar then
2

 6 0 –30
 k 0  – 5 –28  0
2(a  b)
2 – 1 –4 –33
c
Now tan–1 y 
2(a  b) 6 0 0
0 –5 –28 (R3  (C3  5  C1)  0
 c  –1
 cos    cos(2 tan y) 2 – 1 –4 10 – 38
 ab 

6  ( – 5)(10 – 38) – 112   0

  1– y2 
 cos  cos –1   [if y > 0]
  1 y2   102 – 88 + 78 = 0
  
 52 – 44 + 39 = 0
1– y2 44
  Sum of all possible values of  
1  y2 5
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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

SECTION - II 3 cos x(cos x  1)  (cosx  1)  0

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section (cos x  1)( 3 cos x  1)  0

contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a 1
 cos x  1 or 
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 3
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,  
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;  Number of solution in x  0,  is 1.
 2
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad 4. The sum of 162 th power of the roots of the
equation x3 – 2x2 + 2x –1 = 0 is _________.
in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer (3)
1. The number of integral values of ‘k’ for which
the equation 3sinx + 4cosx = k+1 has a solution, Sol. x3 – 1 + 2x – 2x2 = 0
k  R is __________.  (x – 1) [x2 – x + 1] = 0
Answer (11)  x = 1, – , – 2
Sol. 3sinx + 4cosx = k + 1 has a solution then S = 1162 + (–)162 + (–2)162

k  1 [ 5, 5] =1+1+1=3
5. The difference between degree and order of a
 k[–6, 4] differential equation that represents the family
 Number of possible integral values of k = 11.
 a
of curves given by y2  a  x   ,a  0 is
  2 

2. The value of the integral
 sin2x dx
0
is
_________.
___________. Answer (02)
Answer (02)  a
2
Sol. y  a  x   …(1)
  2 
Sol.   | sin2x | dx
0 dy
2y. a …(2)

dx
2  From (1) and (2)
  sin 2xdx    sin 2xdx
0  dy  1 dy 
y2  2y  x  2y 
2 dx  2 dx 


 cos 2x  2  cos2x  dy dy dy
   y  2x y . 2y
 2  0  2   dx dx dx
2
2 3
 dy  3  dy 
1 1  1 1   y  2x   2y  
      dx   dx 
2 2 2 2
 Order 1 and degree 3.
=2
6. If y = y(x) is the solution of the equation
3. If  2
3 cos x   
3 – 1 cos x + 1, the number
esiny cos y
dy siny
e cosx  cosx, y  0  0;
of solutions of the given equation when dx

   3  1  
x  0,  is __________. then 1  y    y   y   is equal to
 2 6 2 3 2 4
__________.
Answer (01)
Answer (1)
Sol. 3 cos2 x  ( 3  1)cos x  1
sin y dy
Sol. e  cos x  esin y  cos x  cos x
3 cos2 x  3 cos x  cos x  1  0 dx

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 JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (26-02-2021)-M

Let esiny = Y  x – 1 = (x – 3)2

dY  x2 – 7x + 8 = 0
  Y cos x  cos x
dx
7  17
 x
 IF  e sin x 2

sinx
 Y e   esinx  cos dx  c 7  17
but only is the correct answer..
2
 esin y  esin x  e sin x  c 9. Let m, n  N and gcd (2, n) = 1, If
When x = 0, y = 0 then c = 0
 30   30   30   30 
sin x  sin y 30    29    .......  2    1   n  2m ,
 e e sin x
 sin y
0  0   1  28   29 
 y=0 then n + m is equal to ____________.
 y(x) = 0
 n n 
 Here    C k 
 3  1    k  
hence, 1  y    y   y   1
6 2 3 2 4
Answer (45)
7. Let (, 2, 1) be a point on the plane which passes
through the point (4, –2, 2). If the plane is 29
perpendicular to the line joining the points Sol.  30 – r   30C r
(–2, –21, 29) and (–1, –16, 23), then r 0
2
   4 30 30
 11  – 11 – 4 is equal to ___________. =  r  30C 30r   r  30C r
 
r 1 r 1
Answer (8)
30
Sol. Vector perpendicular to the plane is 30  29C r 1  30  229
=
ˆ r 1
n  ˆi  5 ˆj  6k.

Given A  , 2, 1 and B  4,  2, 2  = 15  230

Clearly n = 15, m = 30
 AB  n, so
and m + n = 45
   4   5  4 – 6  –1  0
10. The area bounded by the lines y  x – 1 – 2 is
   4  20  6  0
___________.
   22
Answer (*)

  –2 Sol.
11
2
      2
hence   – 4   – 4  8
 11   11 
8. The number of solutions of the equation 1
log4(x – 1) = log2(x – 3) is _________.
Answer (1) –1 1 –3
Sol. Domain : x – 1 > 0 and x – 3 > 0 1
Area of the shaded region =  4  2  4
2
 x   3,  
* As per given answer key the equation in the
 log4  x  1  log2  x  3  question should be y  x  1 –2



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