31/01/2023

Evening

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS

SECTION - A Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Choose the correct answer: Answer (4)
1. For a solid rod, the Young’s modulus of elasticity is Sol. (Theoretical)
3.2 × 1011 Nm–2 and density is 8 × 103 kg m–3. The
A. Microwave → IV B. UV rays → III
velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be
(1) 18.96 × 103 ms–1 (2) 3.65 × 103 ms–1 C. Infra-red → I D. X-ray → II

(3) 145.75 × 103 ms–1 (4) 6.32 × 103 ms–1 4. A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of
Answer (4) radius 10 m. The body completes one revolution in
4 s. At the end of 3rd second, the displacement of
Y 3.2  1011 body (in m) from its starting point is:
Sol. v = =
 8  103 (1) 30 (2) 15
= 2  10 3
10 (3) 5 (4) 10 2
= 6.32 × 103 m/s Answer (4)
2. A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom
Sol. r = 10 m
5
of a bucket. If liquid with refractive index is T = 4 sec
3
poured inside the bucket, then microscope have to d = 2(10) m
be raised by 30 cm to focus the object again. The
height of the liquid in the bucket is
(1) 12 cm (2) 18 cm
(3) 75 cm (4) 50 cm
Answer (3)
 d
Sol. Shift =  d −  = 30 cm
 

  5. If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation

 1 of wavelength 350 nm. The work functions of
d 1 −  = 30
 5 metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2 eV. Then choose
 3  the correct option.
30  5 (1) Metals B will not emit photo-electrons
d= = 75 cm
2 (2) Both metals A and B will not emit photo-
3. Match List I with List II: electrons

List I List II (3) Both metals A and B will emit photo-electrons

(4) Metals A will not emit photo-electrons
A. Microwaves I. Physiotherapy
Answer (4)
B. UV rays II. Treatment of cancer
hc 1240
Sol.  = = eV = 3.54 eV
C. Infra-red light III. Lasik eye surgery  350
D. X-ray IV. Aircraft navigation  Only metal B will emit photoelectron.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
6. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed Sol. XL = L 
of 20 m/s. The body stops after 5 s due to friction = 5 mH × 628
between body and the floor. The value of the
= 3.14 
coefficient of friction is (Take acceleration due to
9. Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m
gravity g = ms–2)
and cross-section 2.5 × 10–5 m2 stretches uniformly
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.5 m and a cross-section of 3.0 × 10–5 m2 stretches.
The ratio of the Young’s modulus of wire A to that
Answer (2) of wire B will be
Sol. a = – g (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
v = u + at (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 1
Answer (4)
0 = 20 + (– × 10) × 5
F
50 = 20 Sol.  =
SY
2
= = 0.4 F is same for both wire and  is also same
5

7. A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that =  A
= B
its volume changes from 08 litres to 27 litres. If the F SY SAYA SBYB
ratio of final pressure of the gas to initial pressure 5 6
 =
16 Cp 2.5  YA 3  YB
of the gas is . Then the ratio of will be
81 Cv YA
 =1
4 1 YB
(1) (2)
3 2 10. Considering a group of positive charges, which of
the following statements is correct?
3 3
(3) (4) (1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a
2 1
point but net electric field can be zero at that
Answer (1) point.
Cp (2) Both the net potential and the net field can be
Sol. Let  be the ratio of zero at a point.
Cv
(3) Net potential of the system at a point can be
Then for adiabatic process zero but net electric field can’t be zero at that
point.
PV  = Constant
(4) Both the net potential and the net electric field
 cannot be zero at a point.
Pi  Vf 
=  Answer (1)
Pf  Vi 
 KQi
 Sol. V =
81  27  ri
= 
16  8 
Here, Qi & ri are positive
4  V>0
=
3 11. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to end of a massless
8. An alternating voltage source V = 260 sin (628t) is string of length 1m. If the breaking tension of the
string is 400 N, then maximum linear velocity, the
connected across a pure inductor of 5 mH.
stone can have without breaking the string, while
Inductive reactance in the circuit is
rotating in horizontal plane, is:
(1) 0.318  (2) 6.28  (1) 40 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1
(3) 0.5  (4) 3.14  (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 400 ms–1
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

Sol. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (3)
Tcos = mg
Sol. In transistor, emitter collector and base have
2 different doping levels and collector is the thickest
mv
T sin  = while base is thinnest segment.
l sin 
2

14. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in

mg
cos  = ... (1) Bohr's atom is R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be
T
R
mv 2 (1) (2) 2.25R
sin2 = ... ( 2 ) 3
Tl 2
(3) 9R (4) 3R
From (1) & (2)
Answer (2)
2 2
 mg  mv n2
I =  + 2 Sol. r 
 T  Tl Z
2
 10  v2 r2nd  n2 
2
I =  + = 
 400  400 r3rd  n3 
v2 = 399.78 2
R 2
 =
r3rd  3 
v = 20 m/s
12. The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil
galvanometer is increased in order to increase 9
 r3rd = R
current sensitivity by 50%. The percentage change 4
in voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer will be: = 2.25R
(1) 0% (2) 100% 15. A long conducting wire having a current I flowing
(3) 75% (4) 50% through it, is bent into a circular coil of N turns. Then
Answer (1) it is bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic
field is calculated at the centre of coils in both the
Sol. Current sensitivity = Voltage sensitivity × R cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in first case to
Current sensitivity is made 1.5 times. that of second case is:
R also increase 1.5 times. (1) n2 : N2 (2) N : n
1.5  current sensitivity (3) N2 : n2 (4) n : N
Hence voltage sensitivity =
1.5  R Answer (3)
= no change Sol. l = (2r)n
13. Given below are two statements: l 
r  
Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three regions n
emitter, base and collector have same doping level.
 i   i 
Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the thickest B = n  0    0  n2
and base is the thinnest segment.  2r   2L 

In the light of the above statements, choose the B1  N 2 

= 
most appropriate answer from the options given B2  n 2 
below:
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
16. A body weight W, is projected vertically upwards Sol. H  i2 for t = constant
from earth's surface to reach a height above the
2
earth which is equal to nine times the radius of H  4 
= 
earth. The weight of the body at that height will be: H '  16 
W W
(1) (2) H = 16H
91 3
W W 19. Match List I with List II
(3) (4)
100 9 List I List II
Answer (3) A. Angular momentum I. [ML2T–2]
Sol.
B. Torque II. [ML–2T–2]
C. Stress III. [ML2T–1]
D. Pressure gradient IV. [ML–1T–2]
(1) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
GM  g 
g' = =  (2) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(10R )2  100 
(3) A - IV, B- II, C - I, D - III
W 
W'=  (4) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
 100 
Answer (4)
17. Given below are two statements :
Statement l : For transmitting a signal, size of Sol. L = r  p  [L] = [M0L1T0] [M1L1T–1]
antenna (l) should be comparable to wavelength of
 = [M1L2T–1]
signal (at least l = in dimension)
4  = r  F  [] = [L1] [MLT–2]
Statement II : In amplitude modulation, amplitude
of carrier wave remains constant (unchanged). = [ML2T–2]
In the light of the above statements, choose the F
most appropriate answer from the options given Stress  Pressure =  [Stress] = [ML–1T–2]
A
below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct dP
Pressure Gradient =  [Pressure Gradient]
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is dx
correct
= [ML–2T–2]
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 20. Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas
incorrect allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure.
Answer (4) Each gas molecule rotates around an internal axis
Sol. • In amplitude modulation frequency of carrier but do not oscillate. The increase in the internal
wave remains unchanged. energy of the gas will be:
1 (1) 572 J (2) 525 J
• Minimum size of antenna should be th of
4
(3) 441 J (4) 735 J
wavelength.
18. The H amount of thermal energy is developed by a Answer (3)
resistor in 10 s when a current of 4 A is passed
Sol. Q = nCPT = 735 J
through it. If the current is increased to 16 A, the
thermal energy developed by the resistor in 10 s will 5nR T
be:  = 735 J
2
(1) H (2) 16H
3 3 2
(3) 4H (4)
H U = nCV T = ( nR T ) =   735
4 2 2 5
Answer (2) = 441 J

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

SECTION - B 6 6
 i AB = = 2A & i AD = = 0.5 A
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 3 12
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five  VB + 2 × 2 – 10 × 0.5 = VD
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
 VB – VD = 1 volt
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 23. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. coefficient of restitution for the collision between
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the ball and floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the rebounds to a height of ______________ m.
place designated to enter the answer.
Answer (5)
21. A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat
Sol. We know h =e2h
water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J
kg-1 K-1. The efficiency of heater is 70%. Time h = (0.5)2 × 20 m = 5 m
required to heat 2 kg of water from 10°C to 60°C 24. Two bodies are projected from ground with same
is_____________ s. speeds 40 ms-1 at two different angles with respect
(Assume that the specific heat capacity of water to horizontal. The bodies were found to have same
remains constant over the temperature range of the range. If one of the body was projected at an angle
water). of 60°, with horizontal then sum of the maximum
Answer (300) heights, attained by the two projectiles, is
___________m. (Given g = 10 ms-2)
Sol.  × P × t = M × s × T
Answer (80)
2  4200  (60 – 10)
 t = s = 300 s Sol. Since range is same.
0.7  2000
  1 + 2 = 90°
22. For the given circuit, in the steady state, VB − VD =
  2 = 30°
___________________ V.
U 2 sin2 1 U 2 sin2 2
 (Hmax )1 + (Hmax )2 = +
2g 2g

402  1 3 
=  +  = 80 m
20  4 4 

25. Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each having

capacitance of 10 F are individually charged by a
100 V D.C. source. Capacitor C1 is kept connected
Answer (1) to the source and a dielectric slab is inserted
between it plates. Capacitor C2 is disconnected
Sol. In steady state, capacitor behaves as an open
from the source and then a dielectric slab is
circuit. Circuit is:
inserted in it. Afterwards the capacitor C1 is also
disconnected from the source and the two
capacitors are finally connected in parallel
combination. The common potential of the
combination will be __________ V.
(Assuming Dielectric constant = 10)
Answer (55)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Charge on C1 = KCE 28. A series LCR circuit consists of R = 80 , XL = 100
, and XC = 40 . The input voltage is 2500
And charge on C2 = CE
cos(100 t) V. The amplitude of current, in the
When they are connected in parallel charge will be circuit, is __________ A.
equally divided so charge on one capacitor is Answer (25)
K +1 Sol.  = 100
q= CV
2
so Z = R 2 + ( X L − XC )2
q K +1
So V = = = 55 V
KC 2K = 802 + (100 − 40)2

26. If the binding energy of ground state electron in a = 100 

hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then, the energy V0 2500

i0 = = A = 25 A
required to remove the electron from the second Z 100

excited state of Li2+ will be x × 10–1 eV. The value 29. The displacement equations of two interfering
of x is __________.  
waves are given by y1 = 10 sin  t +  cm,
 3
Answer (136)
y2 = 5 sin t + 3 cos t  cm respectively. The
 
Sol. EH = 13.6
amplitude of the resultant wave is __________ cm.
Z2 9
ELi2 + = 13.6 2 = 13.6  = 13.6 eV Answer (20)
n 9
Sol. y 2 = 5(sin t + 3 cos t )
= 136 × 10–1 eV
 
27. Two discs of same mass and different radii are = 10 sin  t + 
 3 
made of different materials such that their thickness
Thus the phase difference between the waves is 0.
are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of
so A = A1 + A2 = 20 cm
materials are in the ratio 3 : 5. The moment of inertia
30. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600 nm
of these discs respectively about their diameters
are used in Young’s double slit experiment to obtain
x interference fringes on a screen placed 7 m away
will be in the ratio of . The value of x is _______.
6 from plane of slits. If the two slits are separated by
Answer (05) 0.35 mm, then shortest distance from the central
bright maximum to the point where the bright
Sol. m =  R2t fringes of the two wavelength coincide will be
__________ mm.
m
so R 2 =
t Answer (48)
1D  D
mR 2 m2 Sol. 1 = & 2 = 2
I= = d d
4 4t
1 = 16 mm & 2 = 12 mm
I1 2t 2 5 0.5 5
so = =  = so LCM (1, 2) = 48 mm
I2 1t1 3 1 6
so at 48 mm distance both bright fringes will be
so x = 5 found.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 33. Given below are two statements : one is labelled

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 Reason (R).
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy of 3d
is correct. series elements is more than that of group 2
Choose the correct answer : metals.
31. The normal rain water is slightly acidic and its pH Reason (R): In 3d series of elements successive
value is 5.6 because of which one of the filling of d-orbitals takes place.
following? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 4NO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 4HNO3 correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) N2O5 + H2O → 2HNO3 correct explanation of (A)
(4) 2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO4 (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (2) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Sol. Normally rain water has a pH of 5.6 due to
Answer (2)
presence of H+ ions formed by the reaction of rain
Sol. The first ionization energy of 3d series elements
water with carbon dioxide present in the
is more than that of group 2 metals because in 3d
atmosphere.
series of elements successive filling of d-orbitals
 H2CO3 ( g)
H2O ( l ) + CO2 ( g) 

 takes place.
34. The element playing significant role in
Hence correct answer is (2)
neuromuscular function and interneuronal
32. Given below are two statements: transmission is
Statement I : Upon heating a borax bead dipped (1) Li (2) Mg
in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, the colour (3) Ca (4) Be
of the bead becomes green. Answer (3)
Statement II: The green colour observed is due Sol. Ca plays significant role in muscular function and
to the formation of copper(I) metaborate. interneuronal transmission.

In the light of the above statements, choose the 35. Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order
of energy.
most appropriate answer from the options given
A. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
below.
B. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C. n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false The correct option for the order is
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) A > C > B > D (2) B > D > C > A
Answer (3) (3) D > B > A > C (4) D > B > C > A
Sol. Both statements are incorrect. Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. (A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 ; 3s 32
Now, 4.09 = ⇒ V = 79 ml
(B) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 ; 4s 98 × V

(C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1; 3p 100
Density = = 1.265
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 ; 3d 79

Correct order of energy will be (D) > (B) > (C) Hence, correct answer is (4) B and D only
> (A) 37. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete
36. Evaluate the following statements for their combustion it require 11 equivalents of oxygen
correctness. and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is the
A. The elevation in boiling point temperature of molecular formula of A?
water will be same for 0.1 M NaCI and 0.1 M (1) C11H8 (2) C9H8
urea. (3) C11H4 (4) C5H8
B. Azeotropic mixture boil without change in Answer (2)
their composition.
 y y
C. Osmosis always takes place from hypertonic Sol. CxHy +  x +  O2 
→ xCO2 + H2 O
 4  2
to hypotonic solution.
y
D. The density of 32% H2SO4 solution x+ 11
=
4
having molarity 4.09 M is approximately
1.26 g mL–1. y
=4
2
E. A negatively charged sol is obtained when KI
solution is added to silver nitrate solution. ∴y=8

Choose the correct answer from the options x=9

given below. ∴ C9H8 will be the formula of hydrocarbon A.
(1) A and C only (2) B, D and E only 38. The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides
(3) A, B and D only (4) B and D only follows the order
Answer (4) (1) BBr3 > BI3 > BCI3 > BF3
Sol. Elevation in boiling point temperature of water will (2) BCI3 > BF3 > BBr3 > BI3
be higher for 0.1 M NaCl as compared to 0.1 M (3) BI3 > BBr3 > BCI3 > BF3
urea. (4) BF3 > BCI3 > BBr3 > BI3
Azeotropic mixtures boil without change in their Answer (3)
composition
Sol. Correct order of Lewis acidity is
Osmosis always takes place from hypotonic (low
BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
concentration of solute) solution to hypertonic
39. A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with formula C6H8 uses two
(high concentration of solute) solution.
moles H2 on catalytic hydrogenation of its one
A negative charged sol is obtained when KI
mole. On ozonolysis, ‘X’ yields two moles of
solution is added to silver nitrate solution
methane dicarbaldehyde. The hydrocarbon ‘X’ is
whereas positive charged sol is obtained when
AgNO3 solution is added to KI solution. (1) hexa –1, 3, 5–triene

Let the mass of H2SO4 (32%) is 100. (2) cyclohexa – 1, 3 – diene

∴ wt of H2SO4 = 32 (3) cyclohexa – 1, 4 – diene

(4) 1 – methylcyclopenta – 1, 4 – diene
32
Moles of H2SO4 =
98 Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Only primary amines react with PhSO2Cl to
produce a compounds which are soluble in KOH.
Sol. Option (3) and (4) are primary amines but the
given compound is also optically active.
Hence, correct answer is (3) Hence the correct answer is (4).
40. In the following halogenated organic compounds 42. Which of the following elements have half-filled
the one with maximum number of chlorine atoms f-orbitals in their ground state?
in its structure is (Given : atomic number Sm = 62; Eu = 63; Tb =
(1) Chloropicrin (2) Freon – 12 65; Gd = 64, Pm = 61)
(3) Gammaxene (4) Chloral (A) Sm (B) Eu
Answer (3) (C) Tb (D) Gd
Sol. Chloropicrin — Cl3C – NO2 (E) Pm
Freon-12 — CF2Cl2 Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A and E only (2) B and D only
Gammaxene —
(3) C and D only (4) A and B only
Answer (2)
Chloral — Cl3C–CHO
Sol.
41. An organic compound [A] (C4H11N), shows optical
Element Electronic configuration
activity and gives N2 gas on treatment with HNO2.
The compound [A] reacts with PhSO2Cl (A) Sm [Xe]4f66s2

producing a compound which is soluble in KOH. (B) Eu [Xe]4f76s2

The structure of A is :
(C) Tb [Xe]4f96s2

(D) Gd [Xe]4f75d16s2
(1)
(E) Pm [Xe]4f56s2

43. Compound A, C5H10O5, given a tetraacetate with

AC2O and oxidation of A with Br2 – H2O gives an
acid, C5H10O6. Reduction of A with HI gives
isopentane. The possible structure of A is :
(2)

(1)

(3)

(4) (2)

Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. (A) Chloroxylenol
(B) Bithional
(3) (E) Terpineol
are used as disinfectants.
45. Incorrect statement for the use of indicators in
acid-base titration is :
(1) Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong
acid vs strong base titration.
(2) Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a
(4) weak acid vs strong base titration.
(3) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid
vs weak base titration.
(4) Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a
strong acid vs weak base titration.
Answer (4) Answer (3)
Sol. There is no suitable indicator that can be used in
the titration of weak acid and weak base.
Sol. Hence correct answer (3).
46. Given below are two statements
Statement I: H2O2 is used in the synthesis of
Cephalosporin
Statement II: H2O2 is used for the restoration of
aerobic conditions to sewage wastes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Correct answer is (4)
incorrect
44. Which of the following compounds are not used (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
as disinfectants? correct
(A) Chloroxylenol (B) Bithional Answer (4)

(C) Veronal (D) Prontosil Sol. H2O2 is used in the synthesis of hydroquinone,
tartaric acid and certain food products and
(E) Terpineol pharmaceuticals (cephalosporin).
Choose the correct answer from the options Nowadays it is also used in environmental (green)
given below: chemistry for example in pollution control
treatment of domestic and industrial effluents,
(1) A, B (2) C, D
oxidation of cyanides restoration of aerobic
(3) A, B, E (4) B, D, E condition to sewage waste.
Answer (2) Hence both statements are correct.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
47. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
(1) Boron and Indium can be purified by zone
refining method (3)
(2) van Arkel method is used to purify tungsten
(3) The malleable iron is prepared from cast iron
by oxidising impurities in a reverberatory
furnace
(4) Cast iron is obtained by melting pig iron with (4)
scrap iron and coke using hot air blast
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Van Arkel method is used to purify Zirconium or
Titanium. Rest all statements are correct.
Sol.
Hence correct answer is option (2).
48. In Dumas method for the estimation of N2, the
sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas
evolved is passed over
(1) Pd (2) Copper gauze
(3) Ni (4) Copper oxide
50. Match List I with List II
Answer (2)
LIST-I LIST-II
Sol. In dumas method for the estimation of N2, the
A. Physisorption I. Single Layer
sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas
Adsorption
evolved is passed over copper gauze.
49. Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid B. Chemisorption II. 20 – 40 kJ mol–1

yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in (Q). C. N2(g) + 3H2(g) III. Chromatography
When (Q) is heated with dil. NaOH we get (R). Fe(s)

→
The final product (R) is
2NH3(g)

D. Analytical IV. Heterogeneous

Application or catalysis
Adsorption
(1)
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below
(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(2) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(2)
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. A - (II), B - (I), C - (IV), D - (III), 52. The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte

List I List II is 5 × 10–3 Ω cm. Its molar conductivity is _____

× 104 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1. (Nearest integer)
A. Physisorption (II) 20 – 40 kJ mol–1
Answer (25)
B. Chemisorption (I) Single Layer
k × 1000
Adsorptions Sol. Molar conductivity =
C
C. N2(g) + 3H2(g) (IV) Heterogeneous 1
× 1000
Fe( s ) catalysis −3
→ = 5 × 10
0.8
2NH3(g)
106
D. Analytical (III) Chromatography = = 0.25 × 106
4
Application or
= 25 × 104 Ω–1cm2mol–1
Adsorption
53. If the CFSE of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is –96.0 kJ/mol, this
complex will absorb maximum at wavelength
SECTION - B
___________ nm. (Nearest integer)
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
Assume Planck’s constant (h) = 6.4 × 10–34 Js,
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Speed of light (c) = 3.0 × 108 m/s and Avogadro’s
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
Constant (NA) = 6 × 1023/mol.
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Answer (480)
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; Sol. [Ti(H2O)6 ]3 + , CFSE =
−0.4∆0

e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) = –96.0 kJ mol–1

using the mouse andw the on-screen virtual numeric −96.0
∴ ∆0 =
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. −0.4

51. The rate constant for a first order reaction is ∴ ∆0 =240 kJ mol−1
20 min–1. The time required for the initial
64 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 × 6 × 1023
1 λ=
concentration of the reactant to reduce to its 240 × 103
32
6.4 × 3
level is __________ × 10–2 min. (Nearest integer) = × 10−29 × 6 × 1023
240
(Given: In 10 = 2.303
= 480 × 10−9 m
log 2 = 0.3010)
= 480 nm
Answer (17)
54. Assume carbon burns according to following
Sol. K = 20 min–1 equation:
0.6932 In2 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)
t1/2
= =
20 20
When 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the
Required time = n × t1/2
volume of carbon monoxide produced is
n will be 5 _________ × 10–1 L at STP [nearest integer]
5 × 0.6932 [Given : Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is
Required time =
20 12 g mol–1, Mass of O is 16 g mol–1 and molar
= 0.173 min volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol–1)

= 17.3 ×10–2 min Answer (227)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
2C(s) + O2 (g) → 2CO(g) % M2+ = 100 – 41 = 59%
Sol. 12 Hence correct answer is 59
= 1mole 1mol
12 58. Amongst the following, the number of species
Given that molar volume at STP is 22.7 L having the linear shape is __________.
Hence 22.7 L of CO(g) will be formed XeF2, I3+ , C3O2, I3– , CO2, SO2, BeCl2 and BCI
2
Required volume will be 22.7 × 10 × 10–1
Answer (05) I
= 227 × 10–1L
55. The number of molecules which gives haloform
test among the following molecules is
___________.

59. Enthalpies of formation of CCl4(g), H2O(g),

CO2(g) and HCI(g) are –105, –242, –349 and –92
kJ mol–1 respectively. The magnitude of enthalpy
of the reaction given below is __________ kJ
mol–1. (Nearest integer)
CCl4 (g) + 2H2O(g) → CO2 (g) + 4HCl(g)
Answer (173)
Answer (03)
Sol. CCl4(g) + 2H2O(g) → CO2(g) + 4HCl(g)
Enthalpy of above reaction
Sol. = ∆Hf(CO2(g)) + 4∆Hf(HCl(g)) – ∆Hf(CCl4) – 2∆Hf(H2O)
= –394 – 4 × 92 + 105 + 2 × 242
= – 394 – 368 + 105 + 484
will give positive haloform test
= –173 kJ mol–1
56. The number of alkali metal(s), from Li, K, Cs, Rb
having ionization enthalpy greater than 400 kJ Hence the magnitude of this will be 173 kJ mol–1.
mol–1 and forming stable superoxide is 60. At 298 K, the solubility of silver chloride in water
__________. is 1.434 × 10–3 g L–1. The value of –log Ksp for
Answer (02) silver chloride is __________.
(Given mass of Ag is 107.9 g mol–1 and mass of
Ionization Li K Rb Cs
Sol. Cl is 35.5 g mol–1)
enthalpy / kJmol–1 520 419 403 376
Answer (10)
Li does not form superoxide.

 + –
Sol. AgCl 
 Ag + Cl
Hence the correct answer is 02.
57. A sample of a metal oxide has formula M0.83O1.00. (
K sp = Ag+ )(Cl ) = S × S = S
– 2

The metal M can exist in two oxidation states +2

and +3. In the sample of M0.83O1.00, the S = K sp
percentage of metal ions existing in +2 oxidation
state is __________ %. (Nearest integer). 1.434 × 10 –3
=S = 10 –5
Answer (59) 143.4
Ksp = S2 = 10–10
0.34
3+
Sol. %M
= ×=
100 40.96 ≈ 41%
0.83 ⇒ – log(Ksp) = –log(10–10) = 10

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A  32 – 120 + 900 = 0

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20  2 – 40 + 300 = 0

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices   = 10 or 30 (rejected)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Sum of variances = 102 + 202 = 500
62. The foot of perpendicular form the origin O to a
Choose the correct answer : plane P which meets the co-ordinate axes at the
61. Let the mean and standard deviation of marks of points A, B, C is (2, a, 4), a  N. If the volume of the
class A of 100 students be respectively 40 and  tetrahedron OABC is 144 unit3, then which of the
(>0), and the mean and standard deviation of marks following points is NOT on P?
of class B of n students be respectively (1) (2, 2, 4) (2) (3, 0, 4)
55 and 30 – . If the mean and variance of the (3) (0, 6, 3) (4) (0, 4, 4)
marks of the combined class of 100 + n students
Answer (2)
are respectively 50 and 350, then the sum of
Sol. As (2, a, 4) is foot of perpendicular
variances of classes A and B is :
equation of plane
(1) 450 (2) 650
2(x – 2) + a(y – a) + 4(z – 4) = 0
(3) 900 (4) 500
Clearly for (3, 0, 4) a  N.
Answer (4)
63. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
Sol. Let mean of class A = x A equation (3y2 – 5x2)y dx + 2x(x2 – y2)dy = 0 such
that y(1) = 1. Then |(y(2))3 – 12y(2)| is equal to :
& Mean of class B = x B
(1) 16 2 (2) 32
 xA
 = 40 …(i) (3) 32 2 (4) 64
100
Answer (3)
2
 xA
&
100
− 402 = 2 …(ii)
Sol.
dy
=
(
5 x 2 − 3y 2 y ) y(1) = 1
also
 xB
= 55 …(iii)
dx (
x 2 − y 2 2x )
n
v=1
 xB2
− 552 = ( 30 −  ) …(iv)
2 Put y = vx
&
( )
n 2
dv v 5 − 3v
 x A +  xB v+x =
and
100 + n
= 50 …(v) dx 2 1− v 2 ( )
2
 xA +  xB2 dv 5v − 3v 3 − 2v + 2v 3
− 502 = 350 …(vi)  x =
100 + n dx 2 1− v 2 ( )
By equation (i), (ii) & (iii)
4000 + 55n = 50(100 + n)

(
2 v 2 − 1 dv ) =
dx
3
 5n = 1000  n = 200 v − 3v x

also by (ii), (iii) & (iv) 2

 ln v 3 − 3v = ln x + c
3
(2 + 402)100 + (552 + (30 – )2)200 = (502 + 350)300
 y (1) = 1
 32 – 120 + (402 + 2 × 552) – 3(502 + 350) = 0
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

( ) ( ) ( ) 
6 4 2
2 2  6C0 3x + 1 + 6C2  3x + 1 + 6C4 3x + 1 + 6C6  x 3
 ln 2 = c Sol.
lim  
3 x → 2 ( 6C0 x 6 + 6C2 x 4 + 6C4 x 2 + 6C6 )
   y −3 3 y  
   −  33
2    x  x 
  = ln x
= = 27
 ln  1
3  2 
  66. The equation e 4 x + 8e3 x + 13e2 x − 8e x + 1 = 0 ,
 
 
x  R has :
 y ( 2) (1) two solutions and only one of them is negative
3 (2) two solutions and both are negative
 y 3 3y 
  −  = 2.2 2
 8 2  (3) four solutions two of which are negative

(4) no solution
 y3(2) – 12y(2) = 32 2
Answer (2)
64. Let (a, b)  (0, 2) be the largest interval for which
sin–1 (sin) – cos–1 (sin) > 0,   (0, 2), holds. If ( ) (
Sol. e2 x + e −2 x + 8 e x − e − x + 13 = 0 )
x2 + x + sin–1 (x2 – 6x + 10) + cos–1 (x2 – 6x + 10)
= 0 and  –  = b – a, then  is equal to : e x − e− x = t

(1)

16
(2)

8
(t 2 + 2) + 8t + 13 = 0
  t = −5, − 3
(3) (4)
48 12
e x − e − x = −5 e x − e− x = −3
Answer (4)
One negative Root One negative Root
Sol. sin–1(sin) > cos–1sin
67. Let P be the plane, passing through the point
  3 
For Q →  ,  (1, −1, −5) and perpendicular to the line joining the
4 4 
points (4,1, −3) and (2, 4, 3). Then the distance of P

  − = …(i)
2 from the point (3, −2, 2) is
 (1) 4
also x 2 + x + = 0 & x = 3 only
2
(2) 7

 9 + 3 = − …(ii) (3) 5
2
(4) 6

12 =    = Answer (3)
12
Sol. n = 2iˆ − 3 jˆ − 6kˆ
( ) +( )
6 6
3x + 1 + 3x – 1 3x + 1 − 3x − 1
65. lim x3
x → 6 6 Equation of plane is
 x + x 2 − 1 +  x − x 2 − 1
   
    2 x − 3 y − 6z = 35
(1) is equal to 9 Or 2 x − 3 y − 6z − 35 = 0
(2) does not exist
Distance from (3, –2, 2)
27
(3) is equal to 6 + 6 − 12 − 35
2 =
7
(4) is equal to 27
Answer (3) = 5 units

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
i −1 70. Let H be the hyperbola, whose foci are (1  2,0)
68. The complex number z = is equal to :
 
cos + i sin and eccentricity is 2 . Then the length of its latus
3 3
rectum is ________.
 5 5 
(1) 2  cos + i sin  3
 12 12  (1) 3 (2)
2
 
(2) cos − i sin 5
12 12 (3) (4) 2
2
   
(3) 2  cos + i sin  Answer (4)
 12 12 

 5 5 
( ) (
Sol. 2ae = 1 + 2 − 1 − 2 = 2 2 )
(4) 2 i  cos − i sin 
 12 12  2a 2 = 2 2
Answer (1) a=1
 
 3 i
2e 4 
( )
b2 = a2 e2 − 1 = i ( 2 − 1) = 1
Sol. z =

i 2b2
e 3 LR = =2
a
 5 
i  71. If a point P(, , ) satisfying
= 2e  12 
 2 10 8 
69. Let the plane P : 8 x + a1y + a2 z + 12 = 0 be parallel
(    )  9 3 8  = ( 0 0 0 )
x +2 y −3 z+4 8 4 8
to the line L : = = . If the intercept  
2 3 5
lies on the plane 2x + 4y + 3z = 5, then
of P on the y-axis is 1, then the distance between P
and L is: 6 + 9 + 7 is equal to
11
7 6 (1) (2) 11
(1) (2) 5
2 14
5
2 (3) (4) –1
(3) (4) 14 4
7
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
2 10 8 
Sol. 16 + 31 + 5 2 = 0  
Sol.      9 3 8  = 0 0 0 
At y-axis x = z = 0 8 4 8 

1y + 12 = 0 2 + 9 + 8  = 0 …(i)

1 = −12 10 + 3 + 4  = 0 …(ii)

++  = 0 …(iii)
2 = 4
2 10 8
Equation of plane is
9 3 8 =0
8 x − 12y + 4z + 12 = 0
8 4 8
Or 2 x − 3 y + z + 3 = 0  Above system of equations has infinitely many
Distance from (–2, 3, –4) Solutions
−4 − 9 − 4 + 3 (ii) – 4(iii)   = 6 …(iv)
= = 14
14 (iii)   = −7 …(v)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
(, , ) lies on 2x + 4y + 3z = 5  1+ a   1− a 
or x  2k –  + y  –2k – 
 2 + 4 + 3  = 5 …(vi)  2   2 

Using (iv) and (v) in (vi);  1+ a   1− a 

= 4k 2 –   k – (– k )  
 2   2 
 = 1,  = 6,  = –7
 1+ a 1− a 
 6 + 9 + 7  = 11 As it passes through  , 
 2 2 
72. Let a = iˆ + 2 jˆ + 3kˆ, b = iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ and c = 5iˆ − 3 ˆj + 3kˆ
1+ a  1+ a  1− a  1− a 
be three vectors if r is a vector such that,  2k − +  −2k − 
2  2  2  2 
2
r  b = c  b and r  a = 0 , then 25 r is equal to
(1 + a) (1 − a)
= 4k 2 – k +k
(1) 560 (2) 449 2 2
(3) 336 (4) 339 So, quadratic in k should have D > 0.
Answer (4)
a8
Sol. r – c = b
74. Among the relations
r = c + b
 a 
r a = 0
S = ( a, b ) : a, b  − 0, 2 +  0  and
 b 
c  a + ( b  a ) = 0 T = (a, b ) : a, b  , a2 − b2  ,
8 + (5) = 0
(1) S is transitive but T is not
–8
= (2) neither S nor T is transitive
5
(3) both S and T are symmetric
8
r =c– b
5 (4) T is symmetric but S is not

5r = 5c – 8b Answer (4)
Sol. For S
= 17iˆ – 7 ˆj – kˆ
a a
25 | r |2 = 339 If 2 +  0 or  –2
b b
73. The set of all values of a2 for which the line
b
x + y = 0 bisects two distinct chords drawn from a   –2  not symmetric
a
 1+ a 1− a 
point P  , on the circle 2x2 + 2y2 –
 2 2  For T

(1 + a)x – (1 – a)y = 0 is equal to a2 – b2 I  b2 – a2 I V a, b 

(1) (8, ) (2) (4, )
 T is symmetric but S is not.
(3) (0, 4] (4) (2, 12]
75. The number of values of r  p, q,  p,  q for
Answer (1)
Sol. If (k, –k) is mid-point which (( p  q )  (r  q ))  (( p  r )  q ) is a
Equation of chord : tautology, is
1+ a (1– a) (1) 4 (2) 1
2xk + 2y (– k ) – (x + k ) – (y – k )
2 2
(3) 2 (4) 3
= 4k 2 – (1 + a )k – (1– a )(– k )
Answer (3)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. ( ( p  q )  (r  q ) )  ( ( p  r )  q )  T (given) Sol. a7 = 3  a + 6d = 3  a = 3 − 6 d

 ( (~ p ~ q )  (r  q ) )  ( ~ p ~ r  q ) a1 ·a4 = a(a + 3d )
 (3 – 6d)(3 – 6d + 3d)
 ( (~ p  r )  (~ q  q ) )  ( ~ p ~ r  q )
 3(1 – 2d)3(1 – d)
~ p ~ r  q
 9(2d2 – 3d + 1)
For above statement to be tautology Let f(d) = 2d2 – 3d + 1
r can be ~p or q 3
f (d ) = 4d − 3  d =
 Two values of r are possible. 4
x 3 9 3
( x) =
1  a = 3 − 6· =3− = −
76. If
x
 (4 2 sin t – 3 '(t )dt, x  0 , then 4 2 2

Sn = 0
4
 n
 '   is equal to (29 + (n − 1) d ) = 0
4 2
 3 3
8 4  2· −  + (n − 1)   = 0
(1) (2)  2 4
6+  6+ 
3
4 8  3= (n − 1)
(3) (4) 4
6−  
 n=5
Answer (1) Now, n ! – 4. an( n + 2)
x
Sol. ( x ) =
1

x /4
(4 2 sin t − 3(t ) dt ) = 5!− 4·a35
 3 3
= 120 − 4  − + 34 . 
−1
x  2 4
 ( x ) =
2 x 3/2 /4
 (4 2 sin t − 3(t ) dt ) = 120 – (–6 + 102)
= 120 – (96)
+
1
x
(4 2 sin( x ) − 3( x ) ) = 24
78. The absolute minimum value, of the function
f(x) = | x2 – x + 1| + [x2 – x + 1], where [t] denotes

x= the greatest integer function, in the interval [–1. 2],
4 is
 –1 4 1    3 3
   = 0 + 4 2  − 3    (1) (2)
 
4 
3/2  2  4  4 2
2 
4 1 5
(3) (4)
4 4
  6  2
    1 +  = 4 Answer (1)
 4  
Sol. x 2 − x + 1  0
 8
    =  f ( x ) = ( x 2 − x + 1) + [ x 2 − x + 1]
  6+ x
4
Now,
Option (1) is correct.
1
77. Let a1, a2, a3, …. be an A.P. If a7 = 3, the product x 2 − x + 1 attains its minimum value at x =
2
a1a4 is minimum and the sum of its first n terms is
zero, then n! – 4an(n + 2) is equal to : and min  x 2 − x + 1 = 0 as x 2 − x + 1  0
 
381 1
(1) (2) 24  f(x) attains it min at x =
4 2
33  1 3 3
(3) 9 (4)  f   = +0 =
4 2 4 4
Answer (2) Option (1) is correct.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
 for y = 1,
x 16 + 20 2
79. Let  > 0. If  x+ − x
dx =
15
, then 
–8x + 12 = 2x + 1
0
11
is equal to: x=  I R
10
(1) 2 (2) 4
 21
(3) 2 (4) 2 2  Range =  − , −   [0, )
 4
Answer (3)
 option (1) is correct.

x
Sol. I =  x+ − x
dx,   0 SECTION - B
0
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

1
= x

( x +  + x dx ) contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
0 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
  NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
1
 

  x x +  dx +  x
3/2
= dx  correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
 
0 0 
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.

( 23/2 + 2) + 25
3/2 3/2
2 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
=
15
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the

=
2 3/2
(2 + 5)
3/2
place designated to enter the answer.
15
81. If the constant term in the binomial expansion of

x 16 + 20 2 9
When  = 2 then  x+ − x
dx =  5
 x2

0
15 4
 –  is –84 and the coefficient of x–3l is 2 ,
= 2  2 xl 
 
 
80. Let f: – 2,6 → be real valued function where  < 0 is an odd number, then |l – | is equal
x 2 + 2x + 1 to _______.
defined as f ( x ) = . Then range of f is
x 2 − 8 x + 12 Answer (98)
 21  21  9
(1)  −, −   [0,  ) (2)  −, −   ( 0,  )  5 
 4  4  x2 4 
Sol. Given binomial expansion of  − 
 21  21  21   2 xl 
(3)  −, −   [1,  ) (4)  −, −    ,   
 
 4  4 4 
9 −r
Answer (1)  5 
 x2   −4 
r
x 2 + 2x + 1 Tr +1 = 9Cr    l 
Sol. y =  2  x 
x 2 − 8 x + 12
 
 ( y − 1)x 2 − (8 y + 2)x + 12y − 1 = 0 45−5r
−lr
Let y  1, then D  0 = 9Cr x 2  2r −9  r r  ( −1)r

4(4 y + 1)2 − 4( y − 1)(12y − 1)  0 Now constant term = –84

45 − 5r
 16 y 2 + 1 + 8 y − (12y 2 − 13 y + 1)  0 So, = lr  2lr + 5r = 45
2
 4 y 2 + 21y  0
and 9 Cr  23r −9 ( −1)r = −84
 21 
 y   − , −   0,  ) − {1} So, r = 3 and l = 5
 4
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening
45 − 5r Sol. S = 12 – 2.32 + 3.52 – 4.72 + …… + 15.292
Now for x −15 − 5r = −15
2 8 7

45 – 15r = –30
=  (2r − 1)(4r − 3)2 −  2r (4r − 1)2
r =1 r =1
r =5 8 7
=  32r 3 − 64r 2 + 32r − 9 − 2 −  16r 3 − 8r 2 + r
 Coefficient = −9 C5 26 = −63.27 r =1 r =1

  = 7,  = –63 = 32 × 362 – 64 × 204 + 1152 – 72

and |l – | = |7 × 5 + 63| = 98 – 2(16 × 282 – 1120 + 28)

82. Let S be the set of all a  such that the area of = 6592
the triangle formed by the tangent at the point P(b, 84. Let a, b, c be three vectors such that
c), b, c  , on the parabola y2 = 2ax the lines
x = b, y = 0 is 16 unit2, then  a is equal
a = 31, 4 b = c = 2 and 2 a  b = 2 ( c  a ) . If ( )
aS 2
2 a c 
to_______. , then 
 a . b 
the angle between b and c is
3  
Answer (146)
is equal to _______.
Sol.
Answer (03)

Sol. a  (2b + 3c ) = 0

a = (2b + 3c )

2
a =  2 (4 | b |2 +9 | c |2 +12b  c )

31 = 31 2

 = 1
Tangent at P(b, c) :
a = (2b + 3c )
yc = a(x + b)
ac 2 bc
for Q : y = 0 x = −b =
ab 2b  b + 3c  b
 Area of shaded region = 16
2
2 1  1
1 b c =  4 – 1 − 
 2b  c = 16 4  2
2
3
bc = 16 and c2 = 2ab =
4
c 2 .c 16  16  16
 2a = ac 3 3
16 32  = =
ab 1 3 –1
2 –
c 3 4 2
a= , 1  C  16 and divisor of 16
32 2
 ac 
 a = 2, 16, 128   =3
 ab 
 a = 146 85. Let A be a n × n matrix such that |A| = 2. If the
83. The sum 12 – 232 + 352 – 472 + 592 – … + 15292 determinant of the matrix Adj(2Adj(2A–1)) is 284,
is _______. then n is equal to _______.
Answer (6592) Answer (05)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

adj ( 2  adj (2 A–1) ) = 284

For sum 5 the possible entries are (0, 0, 1, 4),
Sol.
(0, 0, 2, 3), (0, 1, 2, 2), (0, 1, 1, 3) and (1, 1, 1, 2).
( n −1)
 2n( n −1) adj ( 2 A−1 ) = 284  Total possible matrices = 12+12+12+12+4 = 52
For sum 7 the possible entries are (0, 0, 3, 4),
( n −1)2
n( n −1) −1 84
 2 2A =2 (0, 2, 2, 3), (0, 1, 2, 4), (0, 1, 3, 3), (1, 2, 2, 2),
2 1 (1, 1, 2, 3) and (1, 1, 1, 4).
 2n( n −1)  2n( n −1) . 2
= 284
| A |( n −1)  Total possible matrices = 80

2 For sum 11 the possible entries are (0, 3, 4, 4),

–( n −1)2
 2n( n −1)+ n( n −1) = 284  | 4 | = 2
(1, 2, 4, 4), (2, 3, 3, 3), (2, 2, 3, 4).
 n(n – 1) + (n – 1)3 = 84  Total number of matrices = 52
 n=5  Total required matrices = 20 + 52 + 80 + 52
86. The coefficient of x–6, in the expansion of = 204
9
 4x 5  88. Let the area of the region
 +  , is ________.
 2x 2 
( x, y ) : 2x − 1  y  x 
5 2
− x ,0  x  1 be A. Then
Answer (5040)
(6A + 11)2 is equal to ______.
9
 4x 5 
Sol. Coeff of x–6 in  +  Answer (125)
 5 2x 2 
Sol. For B,
9 −r r
 4x   5  x – x2 = 2x – 1
Tr +1 = 9Cr    2
 5   2x 
x2 + x – 1 = 0
9 – 3r = –6
−1 + 5
r=5 x=
2
4 5
4 5
Coeff of x −6 = 9C5    
5 2
= 5040

87. Let A = aij  , aij   0,4  ,1  i , j  2 . The

number of matrices A such that the sum of all

entries is a prime number p  ( 2,13 ) is ______.

Answer (204) Area = 2(area of BCE)

a a  5 −1
Sol. A =  11 12 
( x − x 2 ) − ( 2x − 1) dx
a a 2
 13 14 
A=2 
Such that  aii = 3, 5, 7 or 11 1
2
Then for sum 3, the possible entries are (0, 0, 0, 3),
5 −1
(0, 0, 1, 2), (0, 1, 1, 1). 5 −1  2
2  2 3 
x x 

Then total number of possible matrices =2 1 − x − x 2 dx = 2  x − − 
 2 3  
= 4 + 12 + 4 1  
2 1
= 20 2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (31-01-2023)-Evening

 5 − 1 1   5 − 1 
2  [ ABG] + [DEF ] 11
1 1 = 1−
= 2 

 2
−  − 
2   2 
 − 
4 2 OGAB CDEF  36
 
2[ ABG] 25
=
 3  
5 − 1 1 1 3600 36
−   −  
 2  8 3
  [ABG] = 1250
 
1
−11 + 5 5 (60 − a)2 = 1250
A= 2
6
(60 – a)2 = 2500
 (6A + 11)2 = 125
a = 10, 110 (Rejected)
89. Let A be the event that the absolute difference
a = 10
between two randomly chosen real numbers in the
sample space [0, 60] is less than or equal to a. If 90. If 2n +1Pn −1 : 2n −1Pn = 11: 21 , then n2 + n + 15 is
11
P ( A) = , then a is equal to ______. equal to
36
Answer (45)
Answer (10)
( 2n + 1)!
Sol. Let two numbers be x and y
( n + 2 )! 11
|y – x| < a (where a > 0) Sol. =
( 2n − 1)! 21
–a < y – x < a ( n − 1)!
( 2n + 1) 2n 11
=
( n + 2) (n + 1)n 21
84n + 42 = 11(n2 + 3n + 2)
11n2 – 51n – 20 = 0
(n – 5) (11n + 4) = 0
−4
n = 5, (Rejected)
11
Area of shaded region
Required probability = n2 + n + 15 = 45
Total area

❑ ❑ ❑

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