DATE : 04/05/2014 Test Booklet Code

P
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
AIPMT-2014
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(1)
1. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as Answer (4)
fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are

(1) [F V T–1] (2) [F V T–2]  ( x2  x1 )iˆ  ( y 2  y1 ) ˆj

Sol. V av 
t 2  t1
(3) [F V–1 T–1] (4) [F V–1 T]

Answer (4)
(13  2)iˆ  (14  3) ˆj

Sol. F = [M V T–1] 50

 M = [F V–1 T]
2. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with
a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle  with the horizontal.
Another projectile fired from another planet with a
velocity of 3 ms –1 at the same angle follows a
trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the
projectile fired from the earth. The value of the
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms–2)
is (given g = 9.8 ms–2)
(1) 3.5 (2) 5.9
11iˆ  11 ˆj 1 ˆ ˆ
  (i  j )
5 5
4. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough
horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = )
The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The
downward acceleration of mass m1 is

(3) 16.3 (4) 110.8 (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

Answer (1) m2 m3
P
gx 2
Sol. y  x tan  
2 u cos 2 
2

For equal trajectories for same angle of projection m1

g
 constant g(1  g ) 2 g
u2 (1) (2)
9 3
9.8 g
⇒ 
52 32 g(1  2 ) g(1  2)
(3) (4)
3 2
9.8  9
g   3.528 m/s 2  3.5 m/s 2 Answer (3)
25

3. A particle is moving such that its position m  g  2g 

coordinates (x, y) are Sol. a  m1 g  (m2  m3 ) g 
m1  m2  m3 3m
(2m, 3m) at time t = 0,
g
(6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and
  1  2 
3
(13m, 14m) at time t = 5 s
 a a
Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is P
m2g m3g
1 7 ˆ ˆ
(1) (13iˆ  14 ˆj ) (2) (i  j )
5 3
a

11 ˆ ˆ
(3) 2(iˆ  ˆj ) (4) (i  j )
m1g
5

(2)
5. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated Answer (1)
by the force-time graph shown below. The change in
momentum of the particle over the time interval from B
zero to 8 s is

Sol. a mg – B = ma …(i)

6
3 mg
F (N)

0
2 4 6 8 B
–3
t (s)

a

(1) 24 Ns
(m – m0)g
(2) 20 Ns
B – (m – m0)g = (m – m0 )a …(ii)
(3) 12 Ns
Equation (i) + equation (ii)
(4) 6 Ns  mg – mg + m0g = ma + ma – m0a

Answer (3) 2 ma
 m0 
ga
Sol. Change in momentum = Area below the F versus t
graph in that interval
7. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It
suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each
⎛1 ⎞ of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with
 ⎜  2  6 ⎟  (2  3)  (4  3) equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated
⎝2 ⎠
due to explosion is

= 6 – 6 + 12 = Ns (1) mv2

6. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an 3

(2) m v
acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should 2
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with
(3) 2 mv2
an acceleration a?
(4) 4 mv2
2 ma Answer (2)
(1) g  a
Sol. Initial momentum = Pi = 0

2 ma Final momentum Pf = 0 = mviˆ  mvjˆ  P3
(2) g  a
 P3  mv 2

ma
(3) g  a P32 1 1
Total KE   mv 2  mv 2
22m 2 2

ma 2m 2 v 2 3 mv 2
(4) g  a =  mv 2 
4m 2

(3)
8. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal 9. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is
surface is represented by the equation, free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless
string is wound round the cylinder with one end
X = Acos(t)
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in
where X = displacement at time t the string required to produce an angular acceleration
 = frequency of oscillation of 2 revolutions s–2 is

Which one of the following graphs shows correctly (1) 25 N (2) 50 N

the variation a with t?
(3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N

a Answer (4)

O T t Sol. T
(1)
r

a Tr  I 
O T t
(2) I mr 2  mr
T   
r 2 r 2

50  0.5  2  2 
 N = 157 N
2
a
10. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass
O T t
(3) m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle ''
without slipping and slipping down the incline
without rolling is

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 2 : 3
a
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 7 : 5
O T t
(4)
Answer (1)

Sol. aslipping = gsin

Here a = acceleration at time t
T = time period g sin  5
a rolling  2
 g sin 
Answer (3) K 7
1
r2
Sol. X = Acost

a a rolling 5

a slipping 7
O t

11. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is

so strong that even light cannot escape from it.
To what approximate radius would earth
dx
v   A sin t (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be
dt a black hole?

(1) 10–9 m (2) 10–6 m

d 2x 2
a   A cos t
dt 2 (3) 10–2 m (4) 100 m

(4)
Answer (3) 13. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of
length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant
2GM force F, the extension produced in the wire is l .
Sol. Ve  C Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
R

1
2GM 2  6.67  10 11  5.98  10 24 (1) l versus (2) l versus l2
⇒ R  l
C2 (3  10 8 )2
1
(3) l versus (4) l versus l
2  6.67  5.98 l2
  10 3 m
9 Answer (2)

 8.86  10 3 m  10 2 m Fl Fl Fl 2
Sol. V = Al, Y  ⇒ l  
Al AY VY
12. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of
earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly ⇒ l  l 2
represented by
14. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of
radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R
and volume V. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid,
E
R then
O
(1) r
⎛1 1 ⎞
(1) Energy = 4VT ⎜  ⎟ is released
⎝r R⎠

1 1
(2) Energy = 3VT ⎛⎜  ⎞⎟ is absorbed
E ⎝r R⎠
O r
(2) R
⎛1 1 ⎞
(3) Energy = 3VT ⎜  ⎟ is released
⎝r R⎠

(4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Answer (3)
E
R Sol. Energy released = (Af – Ai)T
O
(3) r
3 R 3 3V
A f  4 R 2  4 
3 R R
V 3V
A i  n  4 r 2  4 r 2 
4 3 r
E r
3
O r
(4) R
⎡1 1 ⎤
 Energy released = 3VT ⎢  ⎥
⎣r R⎦

15. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C.

Answer (1)
When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass
E of water present will be:
GMr
Sol. E in   [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1 and latent
R3 R r heat of steam = 540 cal g–1]
O
GM (1) 24 g (2) 31.5 g
E out   2
r (3) 42.5 g (4) 22.5 g

(5)
Answer (4)
P2V2  P3V3
Sol. Heat gain by water = Heat lost by steam
5 5
20 × 1 × (80 – 10) = m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80) P
 (2V ) 3  P3 (16 V ) 3
 1400 = 560 m 2

 m = 2.5 g 5 5
Total mass of water = 20 + 2.5 = 22.5 g P ⎛ 2V ⎞ 3 P ⎛ 1 ⎞ 3 P
 P3  ⎜ ⎟  ⎜ ⎟ 
2 ⎝ 16 V ⎠ 2 ⎝8⎠ 64
16. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in
the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes.
18. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process
The temperature of the surroundings is
ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the
(1) 45°C (2) 20°C system in the cycle is
(3) 42°C (4) 10°C
Answer (1)
P
  2 ⎡   2 ⎤ C B
Sol. Newtons law of cooling 1 K⎢ 1  0 ⎥ . 3 P0
t ⎣ 2 ⎦
2 P0
70  60
First ⇒  K  65  0 
5 P0 D
A
⇒ 2  K  65  0  ...(i) V0 2V0 V

60  54
Next ⇒  K  57  0  ...(ii) (1) P0 V0 (2) 2P0 V0
5
Diving (i) and (ii) P0V0
(3) (4) Zero
2
5 65  0
 Answer (4)
3 57  0
Sol.
⇒ 285  50  195  30 P
C B
3 P0
⇒ 2 0  90
2 P0 E
0  45º
P0 D
17. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume A
V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V and then V0 2V0 V
adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of W = Area of BCE + Area of ADE
5 = –W0 + W0 = 0
the gas is (take  = )
3
19. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r)
(1) 64 P (2) 32 P is inversely proportional to
(1) r3 (2) r2
P
(3) (4) 16 P
64 (3) r (4) r
Answer (3) Answer (2)
Sol. Step - 1 Isothermal Expansion
1 1
Sol.  
P d 2 n 2 4r 2 n 2
PV = P22V  P2 
2
1

Step - 2 Adiabatic Expansion r2

(6)
20. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of Answer (3)
three segments into which a string is divided, then
the original fundamental frequency n of the string is Sol. v0 = 36 km/h = 10 m/s vS = 18 km/h = 5 m/s
given by O S f = 1392 Hz
1 1 1 1
(1) n  n  n  n ⎡ v  v0 ⎤ ⎛ 343  10 ⎞
1 2 3 f ' f ⎢ ⎥  1392  ⎜ ⎟ Hz
1 1 1 1 ⎣ v  vs ⎦ ⎝ 343  5 ⎠
(2)   
n n1 n2 n3 353
 1392  Hz  1412 Hz
(3) n  n1  n2  n3 348

(4) n = n1 + n2 + n3 23. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1

and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between plates of a
Answer (1)
parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The
l1 l2 l3 variation of electric field E between the plates with
Sol. distance d as measured from plate P is correctly
n1 n2 n3
shown by
1 T 1 T 1 T P+ Q
n1  ; n2  ; n3  –
2l1  2l2  2l3 

1 T
n (l = l1 + l2 + l3)
2l 

+ –
1 2l 2l 2l 2l 1 1 1 K1 K2
   1  2  3   
n T T T T n1 n2 n3

   
E
21. The number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm
(1)
whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are (velocity of
sound = 340 ms–1) 0 d
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 6
Answer (4) E

Sol. lc = 0.85 m
(2)
v 340 ms 1 0
f0    100 Hz d
4 l c 4  0.85 m

fn = (2n + 1)f0 = f0, 3f0, 5f0, 7f0, 9f0, 11f0, 13f0

E
= 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz,
900 Hz, 1100 Hz (3)
22. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of
him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that 0 d
traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at
18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If
the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the E
honk as heard by him will be
(1) 1332 Hz (2) 1372 Hz (4)
(3) 1412 Hz (4) 1454 Hz 0 d

(7)
Answer (3) 26. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric poiwer is sent
from one city to another city through copper wires.
Sol. Electric field inside parallel plate capacitor having The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average
Q resistance per km is 0.5 . The power loss in the wire
charge Q at place where dielectric is absent  is
A 0
(1) 19.2 W (2) 19.2 kW
Q (3) 19.2 J (4) 12.2 kW
where dielectric is present 
KA0
Answer (2)
24. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q.
The electric potential and the electric field at the Sol. Resistance = 150 × 0.5 = 75 
centre of the sphere respectively are V 8
I   16 A
R 0.5
Q
(1) Zero and 4 R 2 P = I2R = (16)2 × 75 W = 19200 = 19.2 kW
0

27. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge

Q are 5  and R  , respectively. When the resistance
(2) 4 R and zero
0 R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new
balance point is at 1.6 l1. The resistance R, is :
Q Q
(3) 4 R and 4 R 2
0 0

(4) Both are zero 5 R

Answer (2)

Q G
Sol. Electric potential, V 
40 R A B
l1 100 – l1
Electric field E = 0.
25. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) (1) 10  (2) 15 
= 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z (3) 20  (4) 25 
are in metres. The electric force experienced by a
charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is Answer (2)

(1) 6 5 N (2) 30 N 5 R
Sol. Initially,  ...(i)
l1 100  l1
(3) 24 N (4) 4 35 N

Answer (4) 5 R
Finally,  ...(ii)
1.6 l1 2(100  1.6l1 )
Sol. V = 6x — 8xy — 8y + 6yz

V R R
Ex    (6  8 y )  2 ⇒ 
x 1.6(100  l1 ) 2(100  1.6 l1 )
V
Ey    ( 8x  8  6 z)  10 ⇒ 160 – 1.6 l1 = 200 – 3.2 l1
y
⇒ 1.6 l1 = 40
V
Ez     6 y  6
z ⇒ l1 = 25
From Equation (i),
E  E x2  E y2  E z2  4  100  36  140
5 R

 2 35 N/C 25 75
⇒ R = 15 .
F  qE  4 35 N

(8)
28. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding
the internal resistance of a given cell. The main M1 = m 2
battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an
emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The m
potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the Sol. a.
resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has
values of m
(i) Infinity
m
(ii) 9.5 , b. 
  M2 = 0
m

the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are

found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively.
m
The value of internal resistance of the cell is
c. 30°
(1) 0.25  (2) 0.95 
m
(3) 0.5  (4) 0.75 

Answer (3) M 3  m (1  cos 30)2

⎛l ⎞
Sol. r  ⎜ 1  1 ⎟ R ⎛ 3⎞
l
⎝ 2 ⎠  m ⎜⎜ 1  ⎟2
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠

⎛ 3 ⎞ 0.15
⎜  1 ⎟ 9.5    9.5  m 2 3
⎝ 2.85 ⎠ 2.85

= 0.5 
m
29. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has
d. 60°
 m
magnetic dipole moment m . Which configuration
has highest net magnetic dipole moment? M4 = 2 mcos30°

N m 3

N S 30. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through

a. b. the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G,
S N
S S N the resistance of ammeter will be

1 499
(1) G (2) G
499 500
N
N 1 500
(3) G (4) G
500 499
c. 30° d. 60°
SS N SS Answer (3)
N
I 100
Sol. n    500
(1) a (2) b I g 0.2

(3) c (4) d G G
RA  
Answer (3) n 500

(9)
31. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD 33. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working
are placed at right angle to each other, with one on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in
above other such that O is their common point for the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the
the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents, secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O respectively are
along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point (1) 300 V, 15 A (2) 450 V, 15 A
P will be (3) 450 V, 13.5 A (4) 600 V, 15 A

0 ⎛ I 1 ⎞ 0 Answer (2)
(1) 2 d ⎜ I ⎟ (2) ( I1  I2 )
⎝ 2⎠ 2 d
90
Sol. Power ouput = 3kW   2.7 kW
100
0 2 0 2
 
1/2
(3) (i1  I 22 ) (4) I 1  I 22
2 d 2 d Ib  6 A

Answer (4) 2.7 kW

VS   450 V
Sol. 6A

3 kW
I1 IP   15 A
200 V
B2
d 34. Light with an energy flux of 25 × 104 Wm–2 falls on
I2 B1
a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted
on the surface is

(1) 1.25 × 10–6 N (2) 2.50 × 10–6 N

B B B 2
1
2
2
(3) 1.20 × 10–6 N (4) 3.0 × 10–6 N

 0 2 2 21
 I1  I2 
Answer (2)

2 d
2 I A 2  25  10 4  15  10 4
32. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius Sol. Fav   N
r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal c 3  10 8
magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential
difference developed across the ring when its speed = 250 × 10–8 N = 2.5 × 10–6N
is v, is 35. A beam of light of  = 600 nm from a distant source
falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting
× × × × diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away.
Q B The distance between first dark fringes on either side
× × × × of the central bright fringe is
r (1) 1.2 cm (2) 1.2 mm
× × × ×
P R (3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm

(1) Zero Answer (4)

(2) Bvr2/2 and P is at higher potential Sol. Distance between 1st order dark fringes = width of
(3) rBv and R is at higher potential principal max
(4) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
2 D 2  600  10 9  2
Answer (4) x 
d 10 3
Sol.
 = BLeffv (Leff = Diameter) = 2400 × 10–6

= B 2Rv = 2.4 × 10–3m = 2.4 mm

(10)
36. In the Young's double-slit experiement, the intensity Answer (2)
of light at a point on the screen where the path
Sol. Normal incidence at silvered surface
difference is  is K, ( being the wavelength of light
used). The intensity at a point where the path
A
 –A
difference is , will be 90
4 A
2A

K
(1) K (2)
4
sin i sin 2 A 2 sin A cos A
∵  so,    2 cos A
sin r sin A sin A
K
(3) (4) Zero
2 39. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased
by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
Answer (3) emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV
Sol. Path difference  means maxima Imax = K to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV
 ⎡2  1⎤
I  K cos 2  K cos 2 ⎢   ⎥
2 ⎣  4 2⎦ (3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV
Answer (2)

 K cos 2 Sol. E  hv  
4
 0.5  hv   ...(1)
K

2 Again 0.8 = 1.2 hv –  ...(2)

37. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then From equation (1) × 1.2  0.6 = 1.2 hv – 1.2 
magnifying power of Equation (2) 0.8 = 1.2 hv – 
(1) Microscope will increase but that of telescope   
decrease
0.2  0.2 
(2) Microscope and telescope both will increase   1 eV
(3) Microscope and telescope both will decrease 40. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16
(4) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope times its previous value, the percentage change in the
will increase de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is

Answer (4) (1) 25 (2) 75

(3) 60 (4) 50
L ⎡ P⎤
Sol. MP of microscope  ⎢1  ⎥ Answer (2)
f0 ⎣ fe ⎦

h h
f ⎡ fe ⎤ Sol.    (∵ p  2 mE )
MP of telescope  0 p 2 mE
fe ⎢1  D ⎥
⎣ ⎦
h 
'    0.25 
38. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting 2 m(16 E) 4
surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of
incidence 2A on the first surface returns back % change = –75%
through the same path after suffering reflection at the 41. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
silvered surface. The refractive index , of the prism monochromatic radiation of  = 975 Å. Number of
is spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will
(1) 2sin A (2) 2 cos A be
(1) 3 (2) 2
1
(3) cos A (4) tan A
2 (3) 6 (4) 10

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Answer (3) 44. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a
semiconductor device.
hc 6.63  10 34  3  10 8
Sol. Energy incident   eV
 975  10 10  1.6  10 19
I
= 12.75 eV

The Hydrogen atom will be excited to n = 4 A

V
4(4  1)
Number of spectral lines  6 B
2

7 4
42. The binding energy per nucleon of 3 Li and 2 He Which of the following statement is correct?
nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In (1) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point
7 1
the nuclear reaction 3 Li  1 H  24 He  24 He  Q , the A represents open circuit voltage and point B
short circuit current
value of energy Q released is
(2) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent
(1) 19.6 MeV open circuit voltage and current, respectively

(2) –2.4 MeV (3) It is for a photodiode and points A and B

represent open circuit voltage and current,
(3) 8.4 MeV respectively
(4) It is for a LED and points A and B represents
(4) 17.3 MeV open circuit voltage and short circuit current
respectively
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Sol. Q = 2(BE of He) — (BE of Li)
Sol. Solar cell  Open circuit I = 0, potential V = emf
= 2 × (4 × 7.06) — (7 × 5.60)
 Short circuit I = I, potential V = 0
= 56.48 – 39.2 = 17.3 MeV 45. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on :
43. A radio isotope X with a half life 1.4 × 109 years a. Type of semiconductor material
decays of Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from b. Amount of doping
a cave was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7.
The age of the rock is c. Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) 1.96 × 109 years
(1) a and b only (2) b only
(2) 3.92 × 109 years
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
(3) 4.20 × 109 years Answer (4)
Sol. It depends on all.
(4) 8.40 × 109 years
46. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be
Answer (3) identified with the following quantum numbers?

Sol. X : Y = 1 : 7 n = 3, l = l, ml = 0
(1) 1 (2) 2
X : (X + Y) = 1 : 8 = 1 : 23
(3) 3 (4) 4
 3 half life Answer (1)

 T = 3 × 1.4 × 109 yrs = 4.2 × 109 yrs. Sol. Orbital is 3pz.

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47. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light 51. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in
of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h = 6.63 × water?
10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
(1) KCl (2) NaCl
(1) 6.67 × 1015 (2) 6.67 × 1011 (3) Na2CO3 (4) CuSO4
(3) 4.42 × 10–15 (4) 4.42 × 10–18 Answer (3)

Answer (4) Sol. Salt of strong base and weak acid.

52. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which
hc 6.63  10–34  3  108 one will exhibit the largest freezing point
Sol. E  
 45  10–9 depression?
(1) KCl (2) C6H12O6
= 4.42 × 10–10 J
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) K2SO4
48. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken
in a container of volume V at temperature 27°C in Answer (3)
identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of Sol. Van't Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 is maximum i.e., 5.
gases H2 : O2 : methane would be
53. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of
(1) 8 : 16 : 1 (2) 16 : 8 : 1 Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal
to
(3) 16 : 1 : 2 (4) 8 : 1 : 2
(1) 1 mol of HCl(g) (2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
Answer (3)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)
Sol. Ratio or moles (volume) Answer (1)
Sol. H2 + Cl2  2HCl
W W W
 : :
2 32 16 Initial 22.4 L 11.2 L 0
Final 11.2 L 0 22.4 L = 1 mole
 16 : 1 : 2

49. If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance 54. When 0.1 mol MnO 2–
4 is oxidised the quantity of
between the body centered atom and one corner atom
electricity required to completely oxidise MnO 2–
4 to
in the cube will be
MnO–4 is
2 4
(1) a (2) a (1) 96500 C (2) 2 × 96500 C
3 3
(3) 9650 C (4) 96.50 C
3 3 Answer (3)
(3) a (4) a
4 2
7 6
1F
Sol. MnO 24   MnO 24 
Answer (4) 1 mole

3a  For 0.1 mole 0.1 F is required.

Sol. Half of body diagonal, .
2 55. Using the Gibbs energy change, G° = +63.3 kJ, for
50. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the the following reaction,
charge on colloidal particles?
 2Ag  (aq)  CO 23  (aq)
Ag 2 CO 3 (s) 
(1) Coagulation (2) Electrophoresis
the Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 25°C is
(3) Electro-osmosis (4) Tyndall effect
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Answer (4)
(1) 3.2 × 10–26 (2) 8.0 × 10–12
Sol. Tyndall effect is an optical phenomenon. (3) 2.9 × 10–3 (4) 7.9 × 10–2

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Answer (2) 59. For the reaction, X2O4(l)  2XO2(g)

Sol. G° = –2.303 RT log Ksp U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K

63300 = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log Ksp Hence, G is

(1) 2.7 kcal (2) –2.7 kcal
Ksp = 8 × 10–12
(3) 9.3 kcal (4) –9.3 kcal
56. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a
quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 Answer (2)
at STP will be Sol. H = U + ngRT = 3.300 kcal
(1) 5.4 g (2) 10.8 g G = H – TS = –2.700 kcal
(3) 54.0 g (4) 108.0 g 60. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and Kp are the
equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2,
Answer (4) respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is
constant in temperature range between T1 and T2, it
5600 is readily observed that
Sol. WO2   32 = 8 g = 1 equivalents
22400
(1) K p  K p (2) K p  K p
= 1 equivalent of Ag

= 108 g 1
(3) K p  K p (4) K p 
K p
57. Which of the following statements is correct for the
spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
Answer (1)
(1) S is negative and, therefore, H should be Sol. Assuming T2 > T1.
highly positive
61. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is
(2) S is negative and therefore, H should be highly correctly represented?
negative
(1) H– > H+ > H (2) Na+ > F– > O2–
(3) S is positive and, therefore, H should be
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ (4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
negative
Answer (No answer)
(4) S is positive and, therefore, H should also be
highly positive Sol. All answer are incorrect.
62. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed
Answer (2)
vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
Sol. For adsorption S = –ve, H = –ve. much?

58. For the reversible reaction, (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
 2NH 3 (g)  Heat
N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g)  (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction Answer (1)

(1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g) Sol. 24 g Mg requires 16 g oxygen

 0.56 g oxygen requires 0.84 g Mg
(2) By decreasing the pressure
 Mg left = 0.16 g
(3) By decreasing the concentrations of N2(g) and
H2(g) 63. The pair of compounds that can exist together is

(4) By increasing pressure and decreasing (1) FeCl3, SnCl2 (2) HgCl2, SnCl2
temperature (3) FeCl2, SnCl2 (4) FeCl3, KI
Answer (4) Answer (3)
Sol. Le chatelier's principle. Sol. Sn+2 can not reduce Fe+2.

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64. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? 69. Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold
conditions only is
(1) H+ (2) Li+
(3) Na+ (4) Mg2+ (1) Saccharine (2) Sucralose

Answer (2) (3) Aspartame (4) Alitame

Sol. Both Be2+ and Li+1 have two electrons. Answer (3)
65. Which of the following molecules has the maximum
Sol. Aspartame decomposes at cooking temperature.
dipole moment?
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 70. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2 O7–2 to CrO5
(3) NH3 (4) NF3 which has two (—O—O—) bonds. Oxidation state of
Cr in CrO5 is
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact. (1) +5 (2) +3

66. Which one of the following species has plane (3) +6 (4) –10
triangular shape?
Answer (3)
(1) N3 (2) NO–3 O
O O
+6
NO–2 Sol.
(3) (4) CO2 Cr
Answer (3) O O
–
71. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic
O conditions gives :
N
Sol. (1) Mn4+ and O2 (2) Mn2+ and O2
O O
(3) Mn2+ and O3 (4) Mn4+ and MnO2
N is sp2 hybrid and no lone pair.
Answer (2)
67. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions
increases in the order Sol. 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4  K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +
8H2O + 5O2
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te
72. Among the following complexes the one which
(2) H2Se < H2S < H2Te
shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
(3) H2Te < H2S < H2Se is
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2S (1) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
Answer (1)
(3) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
Sol. Bond length increases from H2S to H2Te.
Answer (2)
68. (a) H2O2 + O3  H2O + 2O2
Sol. Fe+3 = d5 = t32geg2 , CFSE = 0.
(b) H2O2 + Ag2O  2Ag + H2O + O2
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is 73. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the
respectively following ions?

(1) Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b) (At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
(2) Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b) (1) Ti3+ (2) Ni2+
(3) Reducing in (a) and (b) (3) Cr3+ (4) Mn2+
(4) Oxidizing in (a) and (b)
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol.  = 2.83 BM, unpaired electrons = 2
Sol. (a) H2O2 is reduced.
+2 = 3d8 =
(b) Ag2O is reduced. 28Ni

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74. Which of the following complexes is used to be as 78. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields
an anticancer agent? an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be
(1) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2] (4) Na2CoCl4 CH = NOH
Answer (2) H – C – OH

Sol. Fact. HO – C – H

75. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is (1) HO – C – H

H – C – OH
(1) Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
CH2OH
(2) Increasing nuclear charge
(3) Decreasing nuclear charge
(4) Decreasing screening effect CH = NOH
Answer (1) HO – C – H
Sol. Fact. HO – C – H
76. In the following reaction, the product (A) (2) H – C – OH

+
H – C – OH
N  NCl– NH2 CH2OH
+
H
+ (A)
Yellow dye
CH = NOH
is HO – C – H
H – C – OH
(1) N = N – NH (3) HO – C – H
H – C – OH
NH2
CH2OH
(2) N=N

CH = NOH
NH2
H – C – OH
(3) N=N HO – C – H
(4) H – C – OH
H – C – OH
(4) N=N NH2
CH2OH

Answer (4) Answer (4)

Sol. Major product is formed by para attack. Sol. Glucoxime is formed.
77. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium 79. Which of the following hormones is produced under
salt RN 2 X – ? the condition of stress which stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
 –
(1) CH3 N 2 X – (2) C 6 H 5 N 2 X (1) Thyroxin (2) Insulin
 – (3) Adrenaline (4) Estradiol
(3) CH3 CH 2 N 2 X (4) C 6 H 5 CH 2 N 2 X –
Answer (2) Answer (3)

Sol. Resonance stabilization Sol. Fact

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80. Which one of the following is an example of a 84. What products are formed when the following
thermosetting polymer? compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of
FeBr3?
—
(CH2 — C = CH — CH2—
)n
(1) CH3
Cl

—
(CH2 — CH)—
n
(2)
Cl CH3

H H O O
(3) CH3 CH3
—
(N — (CH2)6 — N — C — (CH2)4 — C)—
n
Br
(1) and
OH OH
CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3
Br
(4)
n
CH3 CH3
Answer (4) Br Br
(2) and
Sol. Novolac is thermosetting polymer.
CH3 CH3
81. Which of the following organic compounds
polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
(1) Propylene and para HO — (C6H4) — OH
CH3 CH3
(2) Benzoic acid and ethanol
Br
(3) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol (3) and
(4) Benzoic acid and para HO — (C6H4) — OH CH3 CH3
Br
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact. CH3 CH3
82. Which one of the following is not a common
component of Photochemical Smog? (4) and
(1) Ozone (2) Acrolein CH3 Br CH3
Br
(3) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (4) Chlorofluorocarbons
Answer (4) Answer (3)
Sol. –CH3 group is o, p - directing.
Sol. Fact.
85. Which of the following compounds will undergo
83. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. CH2Cl
The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is (i) (ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(1) 37.33 (2) 45.33
(3) 35.33 (4) 43.33 CH3
CH3
Answer (1)
(iii) H 3C CH CH2Cl (iv) C
H Cl
1.4  N  V
Sol. %N = C2H5
w
1.4  10  2 (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
= = 37.33%
0.75 (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)

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Answer (No answer) Answer (4)
86. Among the following sets of reactants which one H2O2
produces anisole? Sol. CH3CH2CH = CH2 + HBr CH3CH2CH – CH3
(Y) Br
(1) CH3CHO; RMgX – +
C2H5O Na
(2) C6H5OH; NaOH; CH3I CH3CH2CH – OCH2CH3
(3) C6H5OH; neutral FeCl3 CH3 (Z)

(4) C6H5 – CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3

Answer (2) 90. Which of the following organic compounds has same
hybridization as its combustion product
OH ONa OCH3 –(CO2)?
(1) Ethane (2) Ethyne
Sol. NaOH CH3Br

(3) Ethene (4) Ethanol

Answer (2)
87. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium
hydrogen carbonate? Sol. Product Reactant
(1) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol OCO H – C  C– H
sp sp sp
(2) Benzoic acid
91. Which one of the following shows isogamy with
(3) o-Nitrophenol
non-flagellated gametes?
(4) Benzenesulphonic acid
(1) Sargassum (2) Ectocarpus
Answer (3)
(3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra
Sol. o-nitrophenol is weaker acid than HCO3–.
Answer (4)
88. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic
addition reaction? Sol. Spirogyra shows isogamy with non-lagellated
gametes.
CHO COCH3 92. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by
(1) (2) R.H. Whittaker is not based on
(1) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
CHO CHO (2) Mode of reproduction
(3) Mode of nutrition
(3) (4) (4) Complexity of body organisation
CH3 NO2 Answer (1)

Answer (4) Sol. The main criteria of Whittaker's system are :- Cell
type, Thallus organisation, Nutrition, Reprodution
Sol. Electron withdrawing group i.e., –NO 2 favours & phylogenetic relationship.
nucleophilic attack.
93. Which one of the following fungi contains
89. Identity Z in the sequence of reactions, hallucinogens?
HBr/H 2 O 2 C H ONa (1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria
CH3CH2CH = CH2   Y 
2 5
 Z

(1) CH3 – (CH2)3 – O – CH2CH3 (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp.

(2) (CH3)2CH2 – O – CH2CH3 Answer (2)

(3) CH3(CH2)4 – O – CH3 Sol. Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic
properties, with its main psychoactive constituent
(4) CH3CH2 – CH(CH3) – O – CH2CH3 being the compound muscimol.

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94. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in Answer (3)
(1) Cell membrane structure Sol. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)
(2) Mode of nutrition and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch.
(3) Cell shape In root, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and
(4) Mode of reproduction metaxylem lies towards the centre, such arrangement
is called exarch.
Answer (1)
100. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Sol. Cell membrane of archaebacteria possesses branched
chain lipids. (1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic

95. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
(1) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(2) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(4) Globule is male reproductive structure
(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in
maize grain
(4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode
Answer (3)

Answer (3) Sol. Mango – seeded fruit

Sol. Nucule/oogonium/upper sex organ Sterile stamen – staminode

Globule/antheridium/lower sex organ Seeds in grasses – endospermic
96. Which of the following is responsible for peat 101. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :
formation?
(1) Having casparian strips
(1) Marchantia (2) Riccia
(2) Being imperforate
(3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum
(3) Lacking nucleus
Answer (4)
(4) Being lignified
Sol. Species of Sphagnum, a moss provides peat that have
long been used as fuel. Answer (2)
97. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in Sol. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like structure made
(1) Apple (2) Banana of many cells, called vessel members, each with
lignified walls and a large central cavity. Vessel
(3) Tomato (4) Potato members are interconnected through perforation in
Answer (3) their common walls

Sol. Tomato–edible part is pericarp and placenta. 102. An example of edible underground stem is
98. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one (1) Carrot (2) Groundnut
another without any particular direction, the
(3) Sweet potato (4) Potato
condition is termed as
(1) Vexillary (2) Imbricate Answer (4)

(3) Twisted (4) Valvate Sol. Sweet potato, Carrot – Edible root.

Answer (2) 103. Which structures perform the function of

mitochondria in bacteria?
Sol. Imbricate aestivation – Cassia, gulmohur.
(1) Nucleoid (2) Ribosomes
99. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a
dicot root. Which of the following anatomical (3) Cell wall (4) Mesosomes
structures will you use to distinguish between the
Answer (4)
two?
Sol. Mesosomes help in respiration, secretion processes,
(1) Secondary xylem (2) Secondary phloem
to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
(3) Protoxylem (4) Cortical cells and enzymatic contact.

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104. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a 108. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would
monomer are known as produce a bending when placed on one side of
freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance
(1) Microtubules
is this experiment?
(2) Microfilaments
(1) It made possible the isolation and exact
(3) Intermediate filaments identification of auxin
(4) Lamins (2) It is the basis for quantitative determination of
small amounts of growth-promoting substances
Answer (2)
(3) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
Sol. Microfilaments are ultramicroscopic long, narrow
cylindrical solid rods or protein filaments (4) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
(actin protein) of approx 8 nm in dm.
Answer (1)
105. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
Sol. F.W. went isolated auxin from Avena coleoptile tip.
chiefly regulated by
109. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are
(1) Mitochondria (2) Vacuoles
visible first in
(3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes
(1) Senescent leaves (2) Young leaves
Answer (2)
(3) Roots (4) Buds
Sol. Vacuoles
Answer (1)
106. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA
in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is Sol. N and K are mobile elements.
denoted as 2C? 110. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not
(1) G0 and G1 (2) G1 and S released?

(3) Only G2 (4) G2 and M (1) Aerobic respiration in plants

Answer (3) (2) Aerobic respiration in animals

Sol. In M-phase, both 4C and 2C of DNA are present in (3) Alcoholic fermentation
different stages. (4) Lactate fermentation
107. Match the following and select the correct answer Answer (4)
Column I Column II Sol. Glucose
a. Centriole (i) Infoldings in
2NAD+
mitochondria
2NADH + H+
b. Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
c. Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids 2 × Pyruvic acid
+
d. Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or 2NAD
flagella 2NADH + H
+

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2 × lactic acid
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
111. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Ulva
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is organic
Sol. Ribozyme is catalytic RNA. compound during photosynthesis.

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112. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark 117. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
room. After a few days they were found to have
(1) In vitro fertilization
become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the
following terms will you use to describe them? (2) Breeding programmes
(1) Mutated (2) Embolised (3) Supplementing food
(3) Etiolated (4) Defoliated (4) Ex situ conservation
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. Etiolation is depigmentation is leaf when plant is Sol. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and it has become
placed in dark for more than 36 hrs. a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food
113. Which one of the following growth regulators is supplements.
known as ‘stress hormone’?
118. Function of filiform apparatus is to :
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene
(1) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(3) GA3 (4) Indole acetic acid
(2) Stimulate division of generative cell
Answer (1)
(3) Produce nectar
Sol. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the
epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
various kinds of stresses.
Answer (4)
114. Geitonogamy involves
Sol. Filiform apparatus, present in synergids, play an
(1) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from important role in guiding the pollen tube into the
another flower of the same plant synergid.
(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
119. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
same flower
(1) Maize (2) Castor
(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
flower of another plant in the same population (3) Wheat (4) Pea
(4) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a Answer (4)
flower of another plant belonging to a distant
Sol. Seed of garden pea is ex-albuminous or non
population
endospermic.
Answer (1)
120. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand
Sol. Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the
and capsomeres?
anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant. (1) Polio virus (2) Tobacco mosaic virus
115. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is (3) Measles virus (4) Retrovirus
present in :
Answer (2)
(1) Pteris (2) Funaria
Sol. RNA is single stranded helically coiled with 6400
(3) Lilium (4) Pinus ribonucleotides.
Answer (3) 121. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
Sol. Male gametophyte is highly reduced in angiosperm (1) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to
and is known as pollen grain. It is 2 or 3-celled. t-RNA
116. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from (2) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to
(1) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium make protein
(2) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium (3) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
(3) Complete inflorescence enzyme synthesis

(4) Multicarpellary superior ovary (4) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
Answer (2) Answer (4)
Sol. Aggregate fruits are developed from multicarpellary Sol. Operon consist of - regulator gene, promotor gene,
apocarpus gynoecium. operator gene and structural gens.

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122. Transformation was discovered by 127. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized
by
(1) Meselson and Stahl
(1) PCR and RAPD
(2) Hershey and Chase
(2) Northern blotting
(3) Griffith
(3) Electrophoresis and HPLC
(4) Watson and Crick
Answer (3) (4) Microscopy

Sol. In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed transformation Answer (1)

experiment by using Streptococcus pneumoniae. Sol. Now a days PCR & RAPD technique are used for the
123. Fruit colour in squash is an example of characterisation of in vitro clonal propagation in
plants.
(1) Recessive epistasis
Option (4) is also correct.
(2) Dominant epistasis
128. An alga which can be employed as food for human
(3) Complementary genes being is
(4) Inhibitory genes (1) Ulothrix (2) Chlorella
Answer (2) (3) Spirogyra (4) Polysiphonia
Sol. Dominant epistasis is the phenomenon of masking Answer (2)
or supressing the expression of a gene by a dominant
non-allelic gene. Sol. Chlorella is rich in proteins and are used as food
supplements even by space travellers.
eg, fruit colour in Cucurbita pepo (Summer squash)
129. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of
124. Viruses have
DNA?
(1) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(2) Prokaryotic nucleus
(2) Yeast artificial chromosome
(3) Single chromosome
(3) Plasmid
(4) Both DNA and RNA
(4) Cosmid
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. Nucleoprotein particles
Sol. Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA
125. The first human hormone produced by recombinant about 10 kbp size
DNA technology is
Cosmid – 45 kbp
(1) Insulin (2) Estrogen
YAC – 1 Mbp/ 1000 kbp – 2,500 kbp
(3) Thyroxin (4) Progesterone
BAC – 300 to 350 kbp
Answer (1)
130. An example of ex situ conservation is
Sol. The first hormone produced by recombinant DNA
technology is insulin. (1) National Park

126. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the (2) Seed Bank

southern hybridisation technique does not use
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting
(4) Sacred Grove
(3) Autoradiography (4) PCR
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. In situ conservation strategies – National park,
Sol. PCR is only for amplification of DNA. biosphere reserve, sanctuaries, sacred groves.

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131. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the 135. The organization which publishes the Red List of
trees indicates that the species is
(1) Trees are very healthy (1) ICFRE (2) IUCN

(2) Trees are heavily infested (3) UNEP (4) WWF

Answer (2)
(3) Location is highly polluted
Sol. The IUCN Red List of threatened species (also known
(4) Location is not polluted as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List), founded in
Answer (4) 1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory
of th global conservation status of biological species.
Sol. Lichens are very good pollution indicators, they do
136. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both
not grow in polluted areas.
marine and fresh water species
132. Match the following and select the correct option :
(1) Echinoderms (2) Ctenophora
(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species (3) Cephalochordata (4) Cnidaria
(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore Answer (4)
(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality Sol. Members of ctenophora, cephalochordata and
echinodermata are exclusively marine.
(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination
137. Which one of the following living organisms
(a) (b) (c) (d) completely lacks a cell wall?
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Sea - fan (Gorgonia)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) Saccharomyces (4) Blue - green algae

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Answer (2)

Sol. Gorgonia (sea-fan) is an animal. All animal lack cell
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
wall.
Answer (4) 138. Planaria possess high capacity of
Sol. Detrivores, (eg. earthworm) break down detritus into (1) Metamorphosis
smaller particles.
(2) Regeneration
The species that invade a base area in succession is (3) Alternation of generation
called pioneer species.
(4) Bioluminescence
133. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in
Answer (2)
the immediate future is called
Sol. Planaria, is a flatworm which possess a high power
(1) Vulnerable of regeneration.
(2) Endemic 139. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric
(3) Critically Endangered current is
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo
(4) Extinct
(3) Trygon (4) Scoltodon
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in Sol. Torpedo-Electric ray can produce electric current.
the immediate future is called critically endangered.
140. Choose the correctly matched pair :
134. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is
(1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
present is called
(2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(1) Ionosphere (2) Mesosphere
(3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
(3) Stratosphere (4) Troposphere
(4) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. Good ozone is found in the upper part of the Sol. Areolar and adipose tissue are loose connective
atmosphere called the stratosphere and it acts as a tissue while tendon is dense connective tissue.
shield absorbing UV rays from the sun. Cartilage is specialized connective tissue.

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141. Choose the correctly matched pair: 145. Which one of the following is a non-reducing
carbohydrate?
(1) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated
epithelium (1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular (3) Lactose (4) Ribose 5-phosphate
epithelium
Answer (2)
(3) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium
Sol. Lactose, Maltose, Ribose 5-phosphate all are reducing
(4) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous sugars.
epithelium
146. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage
Answer (3) of meiosis?
Sol. Moist surface of buccal cavity – Stratified (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
non-keratinised squamous epithelium
Inner surface of bronchioles – Ciliated epithelium (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis

Inner lining of salivary ducts – Cuboidal epithelium Answer (1)

142. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle Sol. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process and
the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
(1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
147. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is
(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
carried out by?
(3) Chromosome number is increased
(1) Lipase (2) Trypsin
(4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(3) Rennin (4) Pepsin
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. S or synthesis phase marks the period where DNA
synthesis takes place. During this time the amount Sol. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is
of DNA per cell doubles. carried out by rennin.

143. The motile bacteria are able to move by 148. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa
cells of intestine by the process called
(1) Fimbriae (2) Flagella
(1) Active transport
(3) Cilia (4) Pili
(2) Facilitated transport
Answer (2)
(3) Simple diffusion
Sol. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions from
their cell wall called flagella. (4) Co-transport mechanism
144. Select the option which is not correct with respect to Answer (2)
enzyme action Sol. Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions
(1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site like Na + . This mechanism is called facilitated
transport.
(2) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by 149. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide
malonate absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs

(3) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at (1) As bicarbonate ions

a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase
Answer (2)
Sol. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is
an example of competitive inhibition. This is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate
(succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is
removed and Vmax remain same.
(2) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(3) By binding to R.B.C.
(4) As carbamino-haemoglobin
Answer (1)
Sol. Nearly 20 – 25 percent of CO2 is transported by
RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as
bicarbonates. About 7 percent of CO2 is carried as
dissolved state in plasma.

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150. Person with blood group AB is considered as Answer (4)
universal recipient because he has
Sol. Joint between carpals is gliding joint
(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies 154. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron
in the plasma occurs at
(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma (1) The neuromuscular junction
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the (2) The transverse tubules
plasma
(3) The myofibril
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
(4) The sacroplasmic reticulum
antibodies
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. Neuromuscular junction is the junction between
Sol. Person with blood group AB has both A and B
motor neuron and muscle fibre.
antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
155. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most
151. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the likely disrupt
working of the heart?
(1) Short term memory
(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(2) Co-ordination during locomotion
(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the
cardiac output (3) Executive function, such as decision making

(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase (4) Regulation of body temperature
Answer (4)
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
Sol. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature.
Answer (1)
156. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Sol. Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous
system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart (1) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual
rate and cardiac output. photo pigments
152. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium (2) In retina the rods have the photopigment
reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule? rhodopsin while cones have three different
photopigments
(1) Increase in aldosterone levels
(3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(4) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels rods only
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol. Retinal pigment is an aldehyde of vitamin A.
Sol. Aldosterone stimulates Na+ and water reabsorption 157. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of
in DCT. source and function
153. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with (1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
the example in human skeletal system : maintenance of mammary glands
Type of joint Example (2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal
(1) Cartilaginous joint - between frontal and rhythm of sleepwake cycle
pariental (3) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation of
(2) Pivot joint - between third and growth and activities of female secondary sex
organs
fourth cervical
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
vertebrae
increases the blood pressure
(3) Hinge joint - between humerus
Answer (2)
and pectoral girdle
Sol. Atrial Natriuretic factor is secreted by atrial wall of
(4) Gliding joint - between carpals heart. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamous.

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158. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of
(1) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased
metabolic rate
(2) The kidney, leading to suppression of
reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(3) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased
secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene
162. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(1) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
up
(2) Ovaries are removed surgically
(3) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(4) Uterus is removed surgically

(4) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood Answer (1)

sugar levels
Sol. In tubectomy, small part of fallopian tube is removed
Answer (3) or tied up.
Sol. In fight or flight reactions, emergency hormones are 163. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra
secreted by adrenal medulla. Uterine Device (IUD)?
159. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and (1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG-20
urinary system in the human male is
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault
(1) Urethra
Answer (2)
(2) Ureter
Sol. LNG-20 is a hormone releasing intra-uterine device
(3) Vas deferens
(IUD).
(4) Vasa efferentia
164. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
Answer (1) transfer of
Sol. In human male, urethra is urinogenital duct carry (1) Ovum into the fallopian tube
urine and sperm both.
(2) Zygote into the fallopian tube
160. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is
to produce (3) Zygote into the uterus

(1) Estrogen only (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
tube
(2) Progesterone
Answer (2)
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Sol. In IVF, zygote or the embryo upto 8-celled stage is
(4) Relaxin only
transferred into the fallopian tube
Answer (2)
165. A man whose father was colour blind marries a
Sol. Corpus luteum secretes steroid hormones woman who had a colour blind mother and normal
progesterone and estrogen. father. What percentage of male children of this
161. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin couple will be colour blind?
activity in a normal pregnant female (1) 25% (2) 0%
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the (3) 50% (4) 75%
thickening of endometrium
Answer (3)
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation
of the embryo
Sol. X+Y X X+ Xc
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
estrogen and progesterone
X+ Y X+ Xc
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of
endometrium
Answer (3) X+Xc X+Xc X+Y XcY
Sol. In pregnant female, hCG maintains the corpus luteum
 Colourblind male = 50%
which secretes estrogen and progesterone.

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166. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to 170. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the in flying are an example of :
population is
(1) Analogous organs (2) Adaptive radiation
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
(3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent evolution
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.7
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. According to Hardy Weinberg principle. Sol. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking, forelimbs of
whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1 in flying are the examples of homologous. All are
(AA) p2 = 360 out of 1000 individual or p2 = 36 out modified forelimbs, with the same types of bones,
of 100 they have become different due to adaptation to
q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of 100 habitat
171. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
so q = .16 = .4. As p + q = 1
(1) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
so, p is 0.6.
167. A human female with Turner's syndrome (2) Gills of prawn and lungs of man

(1) Has 45 chromosomes with XO (3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(2) Has one additional X chromosome (4) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
(3) Exhibits male characters Answer (2)
(4) Is able to produce children with normal husband Sol. Wings of bat are skin folds stretched mainly between
Answer (1) elongated finger but the wings of birds are a feather
covering all along the arm. They look similar because
Sol. Turner's syndrome is caused due to the absence of
they have a common use for flying, but their origin
one of the X chromosomes i.e. 45 with XO
are not common. This makes them analogous
(or 44 + XO).
characteristics rather than homologous
168. Select the correct option characteristics.
As per 10th class NCERT option (1) can also taken
Direction of Direction of reading as correct option.
RNA synthesis of the template DNA
strand 172. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained
(1) 5 – 3 3 – 5 from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown
below?
(2) 3 – 5 5 – 3
(3) 5 – 3 5 – 3
(4) 3 – 5 3 – 5

Answer (1)
Sol. RNA Polymers catalyse polymerisation only in one
direction, that is 5  3 and the strand that has the
polarity 3  5 act as a template.
169. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are
(1) T-DNA (2) BAC and YAC
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant
(3) Expression Vectors (4) T/A Cloning Vectors
(3) Stimulant (4) Pain-killer
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome) Sol. The plant illustrated in diagram is Datura which has
and YAC (Yeast Artificial chromosome) hallucinogenic properties.

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173. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually 177. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
show symptoms of AIDS? cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(A-D). Identify the blanks.
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
person Consumers C

(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells D

A
(3) When HIV damages large numebr of helper T-
Lymphocytes Uptake
Soil solution
Run off
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase B
Answer (3) Options :
Sol. Symptoms of AIDS would appear in the late stage of
HIV infection, when the virus attacks 'Helper-T-cells' A B C D
and causes their depletion (1) Rock Detritus Litter Producers
minerals fall
174. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased
one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of (2) Litter Producers Rock Detritus
the diseased plant will be taken? fall minerals
(3) Detritus Rock Producer Litter
(1) Apical meristem only minerals fall
(2) Palisade parenchyma (4) Producers Litter Rock Detritus
fall minerals
(3) Both apical and axillary meristems
(4) Epidermis only Answer (3)

Answer (3) Sol. A – Detritus

Sol. Apical and axillary meristems are free of virus. B – Rock minerals
175. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge C – Producer
digesters? D – Litter fall
(1) Methane and CO2 only
178. Given below is the representation of the extent of
(2) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2 global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
(3) Methane, hdyrogen sulphide and O2 portions (A-D) represent respectively?

(4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2

D
Answer (2) C
Sol. In anaerobic sludge digesters, bacteria produce a B
mixture of gases like CH4, H2S and CO2. A
176. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to
escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other
extremely cold northern regions move to Options :
(1) Western Ghat
(2) Meghalaya B C D

(1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal Molluscs

(3) Corbett National Park
Groups
(4) Keolado National Park
(2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal
Answer (4) Groups

(3) Molluscs Other animal Crustaceans Insects

Sol. Every winter the famous Keolado National Park
Groups
(Bharatpur) in Rajasthan host thousands of
migratory birds coming from Siberia and other (4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal
Groups
extremely cold northern region.

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Answer (4) 180. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how
Sol. A – Insects much energy will be available to peacock as food in
the following chain?
B – Molluscs
C – Crustaceans Plant  Mice  Snake  Peacock

D – Other animal groups (1) 0.02 J

179. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial (2) 0.002 J
plant removes
(1) Gases like sulphur dioxide (3) 0.2 J

(2) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or (4) 0.0002 J

above
Answer (1)
(3) Gases like ozone and methane
(4) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or Sol. Plant  20 J
less Mice  20  10% = 2 J
Answer (1)
Snake  2  10% = 0.2 J
Sol. A sucrubber can remove gases like SO2 in which the
exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime. Peacock  0.2  10% = 0.02 J

  

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