02/08/2023 Test-02_Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter ;
Gases and Liquids
Mathemtics : Trigonometric Functions Part-I, Principle of Mathematical Induction, Quadratic Equations, Complex Number-I,
Linear Inequalities

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

1
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. A 5 kg block is being pushed against a wall 5. A helicopter rises from rest on the ground
by a force F = 200 N as shown in figure. The vertically upwards with a constant
coefficient of friction is 0.5. The magnitude of acceleration g. A food packet is dropped
acceleration of the block is [g = 10 m/s2 ] from the helicopter when it is at a height h.
The time taken by the packet to reach the
ground is close to [g is the acceleration due
to gravity]
−− − −
(1) h
t = 3.4√( )
g
−
−
(2) h
t = 1.8√
g
(1) 14 ms–2
−−
(3) 2h
(2) 12 ms–2 t=√
3g
(3) 10 ms–2
−−−−
(4) h
(4) 8 ms–2 t= 2
√( )
3 g

2. A car goes on horizontal circular road of

radius 4 m. The speed of car is increasing at 6. Two guns A and B can fire bullets at speeds
a constant rate of 3 m/s2 . The friction 1 km/s and 2 km/s respectively. From a point
coefficient between road and tyre is 0.5. The on a horizontal ground, they are fired in all
speed at which the car will skid is [g = 10 possible directions. The ratio of maximum
areas covered by the bullets fired by the two
m/s2 ]
guns, on the ground is
(1) 1 m/s (1) 1 : 4
(2) 2 m/s (2) 1 : 8
(3) 3 m/s (3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 m/s (4) 1 : 16

3. The times of ascent and descent of a particle 7. A particle is moving along a circular path
projected along an inclined plane of
inclination α are t1 and t2 respectively, the with a constant speed of 10 ms–1 . What is
coefficient of friction is the magnitude of the change in velocity of
the particle, when it moves through an angle
(1) t −t tan α
2 1

t2 +t1
of 60° around the centre of the circle?
(2) t2 +t1 (1) 10 m/s
tan α
t2 −t1
(2) Zero
(3) 2
t −t
2
2

1 (3) 10√– 3 m/s

tan α
2 2
t +t
–
2 1
(4) 10√2 m/s
(4) 2
t +t
2
2

1
tan α
2 2
t −t
2 1

8. Find the maximum speed with which a car

can run on a bend without skidding, if radius
4. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y of bend is 20 m and coefficient of friction
= ax – bx2 , where x and y axes are along between road and the tyres is 0.4 ( g = 9.8
horizontal and vertical directions m/s2 )
respectively. The range of the projectile is (1) 7 ms–1
(1) a
b (2) –
8√5 ms
−1

(2) 2a

b (3) 8.85 ms–1

(3) a
(4) 2√– −1
2b
5 ms
(4) b

2
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

9. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the 13. Two objects of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are
→ connected by a massless string passing
action of a force F such that the value of its over a fixed smooth pulley. The acceleration
→
of heavier mass with respect to the lighter
linear momentum (P ) at anytime t is
mass is : (mA = 1 kg and mB = 3 kg)
Px = 2 cos t, Py = 2 sin t. The angle θ
→ →
between F and P at a given time t. will
be
(1) θ = 0°

(2) θ = 30°

(3) θ = 90°

(4) θ = 180° (1) 2g

(2) g
10. The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. The
angle between the two forces P and Q is α. If (3) 3g

2
one of the forces is reversed in direction, the
resultant becomes R', then (4) 4g

3
(1) R′ 2 = P 2 + Q2 + 2P Q cos α
(2) R
′2
= P
2
−Q
2
− 2P Q cos α 14. A moving particle of mass m makes a head
on perfectly inelastic collision with a particle
(3) ′2 2 2 2
R +R = 2( P +Q ) of mass 2m which is initially at rest. The
fractional loss in energy of the colliding
(4) R
′2
+R
2
= 2( P
2 2
−Q ) particle, due to the collision is
(1) 2
9

11. The resultant R of two forces P and Q act at (2) 4

9
right angles to P. Then the angle between
(3) 8
the forces is 9

(1) cos−1 ( P ) (4) 1

Q 9

(2) cos
−1
(−
P
)
Q 15. In the given arrangement, what can be the
(3) −1 P
maximum mass of block C so that blocks A
sin ( )
Q and B move together?
(4) sin
−1
(−
P
)
Q

12. A block of mass M = 4 kg is pulled along a

horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of
mass m = 2 kg. If the force applied to the free
end of rope is F = 36 N, then acceleration of
block and rope is
(1) 6 m/s2
(1) μm

(2) 4 m/s2 (1+μ)

(2) 3μm
(3) 7 m/s2 (1−μ)

(4) 10 m/s2 (3) 4μm

(1−μ)

(4) 2μm

(1+μ)

3
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

16. A particle of mass m is whirled in a
horizontal circle with the help of two threads
of length ℓ as shown, then
19. A person standing on an open ground hears
the sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from
north at an angle 60° with ground level. But
he finds the aeroplane right vertically above
his position. If v is the speed of sound, speed
of the plane is
(1) 2v
√3

(2) √3
v
2

(3) v

(4) v
(1) T1 – T2 = mg
(2) T1 – T2 = mg secθ 20. Two blocks of masses M and 2M connected
(3) T1 – T2 = 0 to each other through a light spring as
shown. If we push the mass M with a force F,
(4) T1 – T2 = mg cosecθ which cause acceleration a in mass M, then
the acceleration of 2M is
17. If a force F1 acts on a mass of 10 kg and in
one-fifth of a second produces in it a velocity
of 2 m/s and the other force F2 acting on a
mass of 625 kg in a minute produces in it a
velocity of 18 km/hr, then F1 : F2
(1) 24 : 25 (1) F

2M
(2) 48 : 25
(2) F

(3) 24 : 5 3M

(4) 48 : 125 (3) a

(4) F −M a

2M
18. A block of mass 2m is pulled along a
horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of
mass m. If force applied to the free end of the
rope is F, then tension in the midpoint of the
rope is

(1) 5F

(2) 2F

(3) F

(4) F

Section-II

21. A particle is moving along the x-axis with its 22. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with
coordinate with time ‘t’ given by x(t) = 10 + 8t an initial velocity of 3.0ˆ
i m/s and moves in
– 3t2 . Another particle is moving along the y- the x–y plane with a constant acceleration
axis with its coordinate as a function of time ˆ ˆ
(6.0 i + 4.0 j ) ms
2
. The x–coordinate of
given by y(t) = 5 – 8t3 . At t = 1 s, the speed of
the second particle as measured in the the particle at the instant when its y–
frame of the first particle is given as coordinate is 32 m is D meters. The value of
−
−
√N m/s. Then N/10 is ________. D is.

4
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

23. A particle is projected at an angle of 30° with 26. In the arrangement, string and pulley are
horizontal surface with a speed of 20 m/s. ideal and friction is absent. The acceleration
The magnitude of average velocity of of centre of mass (in m/s2 ) of the blocks is
particle during the time of flight is 1 2
⋅ Find n. (g = 10 m/s )
–
n√3 m/s. Find n. √n

24. → →
The sum of two forces P and Q is
→ ∣ →∣ ∣ →∣
R such that ∣R ∣ = ∣P ∣ . The angle θ (in
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

degrees) that the resultant of

→ →
2P and Q will make with Q is,
_________.

25. A small block starts slipping down from a

point B on an inclined plane AB, which is
making an 27. A block starts moving up an inclined plane of
inclination 30° with an initial velocity of v0 . It
comes back to its initial position with
v
velocity 2 . If the value of the coefficient of
0

kinetic friction between the block and the

√3
angle θ with the horizontal. Section BC is inclined plane is n
. Find n
smooth and the remaining section CA is
rough with a coefficient of friction μ. It is
28. The horizontal range of a projectile is
found that the block comes to rest as it –
reaches the bottom (point A) of the inclined 4√3 times its maximum height. Its angle (in
plane. If BC = 2AC, the coefficient of friction degrees) of projection will be
is given by μ = ktanθ. The value of k is
_________. 29. → →
If A ⋅ B = 0 , then angle (in degree)
→ →
between vectors A and B is
∣ →∣ ∣
→
∣
[∣ A ∣ ≠ 0, ∣B ∣ ≠ 0]
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

30. Position vector of a particle varies with time t

→
ˆ
as r = 2tˆ 2ˆ
i + 4t j + k, where r is in

metre and t is in second. Find the magnitude

of its velocity (in m/s) along the acceleration
vector at t = 3 s.

5
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. Half sigma bond is present in : 37. At constant pressure and mole, V-T isobar
(1) O− for gases is
2

(2) F+
2

(3) O+
2

(4) F−
2

32. A gaseous mixture containing 128 g SO2 , 84

g N2 and 20 g H2 is enclosed in a vessel
exerts a pressure of 90 atm, then the
incorrect statement among the following
(1) Partial pressure of SO2 is least among
the gaseous mixture The relation between P1 , P2 and P3 can be
(2) Partial pressure of H2 is highest among (1) P1 < P2 < P3
the gaseous mixture.
(2) P3 < P2 < P1
(3) Partial pressure of N2 is 18 atm
(3) P1 < P3 < P2
(4) Partial pressure of H2 is 40 atm
(4) P3 < P1 < P2

33. The atomic number of element

unquadoctium is 38. Screening power of subshells are in the
(1) 140 order
(2) 149 (1) f > d > p > s
(3) 148 (2) s > p > d > f
(4) 146 (3) s > p > f > d
(4) d > f > p > s

34. Choose the incorrect statement among the

following :
(1) Sigma bond is stronger than pi bond
(2) H2 molecule is stable because
magnitude of new attractive forces is
more than the new repulsive forces
(3) Positive overlap leads to repulsive
interactions
(4) Negative overlap involves the overlap
of lobes of opposite signs

35. The correct order of bond length among the

following is
(1) N2 < O2 < F2 < H2
(2) N2 < F2 < O2 < H2
(3) H2 < N2 < O2 < F2
(4) F2 < H2 < N2 < O2

36. Valency of Cl in Cl2 O7 molecule is ____.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7

6
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

39. Which of the following graph represents 41. An element have an electronic configuration
Boyle’s law? 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 , then to which group it
(1) belongs?
(1) 13
(2) 3
(3) 15
(4) 14

42. If 60 cm3 gas at 27°C is expanded to 80 cm3

at constant P. then the final temperature of
gas would be :
(1) 410 K
(2) 127°C
(2) (3) 420 K
(4) 100°C

43. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?

(1) Na2 O
(2) CO
(3) NO
(4) Al2 O3

44. The molecule having non-zero dipole

moment is
(1) C6 H6
(3)
(2) BF3
(3) F2
(4)

(4) 45. Compressibility factor for ideal gases at

temperature T and pressure P is equal to
(1) z ≈ 1
(2) z = 1
(3) z > 1
(4) z < 1

46. Correct expression for van der Waal’s

equation for real gases is
(1) an
2

(P + )( V − nb ) = nRT
V

(2) an
40. The correct equation for ideal gas is ( P+ 2
)( V − nb) = nRT
V
(1) PV = RT
(3) an
2

(2) W ( P+ )( V + nb) = nRT

PV = RT V
2

(3) P (4) an
2

= dRT ( P+ )( V − nb) = nRT

M V
2

(4) PV = nT

7
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

47. Statement I : Block of the element is 49. Match column-I with column-II.
predicted on the basis of sub-shell which Column-I Column-II
receives the last electron. (Physical properties) (Elements)
Statement II : Group of the element is
(i) Highest electron (p) He
predicted from the number of electrons in the
gain enthalpy
outermost shell.
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true; (ii) Highest (q) Cs
Statement-II is a correct explanation for Electronegativity
statement-I. (iii) Highest first (r) Cl
ionization energy
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is NOT a correct (iv) Lowest (s) F
explanation for statement-I. electronegativity
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false (1) (i)-(p); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(r); (iv)-(q)
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true (2) (i)-(r); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(p); (iv)-(q)
(3) (i)-(q); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(p); (iv)-(r)
48. Statement I : Critical temperature is the (4) (i)-(r); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(q); (iv)-(p)
temperature above which gas cannot be
liquefied.
50. Match the column I with column II.
Statement II : Critical pressure is the
maximum pressure that is required to liquefy Column-I Column-II
a gas at critical temperature. (Species) (Shape)
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true; Square
(i) NH3 (p)
Statement-II is a correct explanation for pyramidal
statement-I.
Trigonal
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true; (ii) BrF5 (q)
pyramidal
Statement-II is NOT a correct
explanation for statement-I. (iii) SO2 (r) Linear
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false (iv) CO2 (s) Bent
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true (1) (i)-(q); (ii)-(r); (iii)-(p); (iv)-(s)
(2) (i)-(q); (ii)-(p); (iii)-(r); (iv)-(s)
(3) (i)-(q); (ii)-(p); (iii)-(s); (iv)-(r)
(4) (i)-(q); (ii)-(s); (iii)-(p); (iv)-(r)

Section-II

51. The number of elements having positive 56. The number of molecules which show
value of electron gain enthalpy among the Hydrogen bonding among the following is
following are Z. The value of Z2 is ____ ____
O, F, Br, I, Ne, Na, Be, N, He o-nitrophenol, NaCl, HF,

52. The number of molecules having sp3 d

hybridization among the following are B,
then the value of 2B is equal to _____ ,
−
PCl5 , SF6 , SF4 , IF7 , XeOF4 , I3 , CH4 , ClF3

53. ⊕
If the hybridization of N in NO2 , NO2 and
–

NF3 are spx, spy and spz respectively. The , H2 S,

value of x + y + z is equal to ____

54. The number of molecules which does not

satisfy the octet rule among the following is
equal to ____
PF5 , CH4 , H2 SO4 , O2 , BCl3 , SCl2 57. The total number of electrons in all
antibonding molecular orbital of F2 is B. The
value of 4B is ____
55. 20 cm3 of a gas at 6 atm and 27°C was
expanded to 40 cm3 at 127°C. The final
pressure of the gas is A atm, the value of A is
equal to_____

8
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)
58. Densities of two gases are in the ratio 3 : 4
and their molar masses are in the ratio 9 : 2,
at constant temperature, then the ratio of
their respective pressures is A : B. The value
of A + B is equal to ___
59. For dipole-induced dipole interaction,
interaction energy is inversely proportional
to rm and for London dispersion forces,
Interaction energy is inversely proportional
to rn , then the value of n is equal to _____
m
9
60. Consider the statements :
Statement I : Lithium and Beryllium is more
similar to magnesium and aluminium
respectively.
Statement II : The first element of s, p and d
blocks differs in many respects from the
other members of their respective groups.
Statement III : Small size and large
charge/radius ratio is the reason of
anomalous behaviour of first member of
particular group in s and p-block.
Statement IV : First member of p-block
elements generally show non-metallic
character.
Statement V : Metallic character increase
down the group in periodic table.
Statement VI : Electronegativity decreases
from left to right in periodic table.
The number of correct statements
are______
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. If the equations x2 + 3x + 4 = 0 and ax2 + bx 66. If α, β are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx +
+ c = 0, a, b, c ∈ R have a common root, then c = 0, then α2 + β2 is equal to
a : b : c is
(1) b +2ac
2

(1) 4 : 3 : 1 a
2

(2) 2 : 6 : 3 (2) 2
b −2ac

(3) 1 : 1 : 1 ab

(4) 1 : 3 : 4 (3) 2
b +2ac

2ab

(4) 2
b −2ac

62. The conjugate of a complex number is a

2

1
,then the number is
i−1

(1) −1 67. The value of cosθ + sin(270° + θ ) – sin(270°

i−1 – θ ) + cos(180° + θ ) is
(2) 1
(1) cosθ
i+1
(2) sinθ
(3) −1

i+1 (3) 1
(4) 1
(4) Zero
i−1

68. The value of 2(sin6 θ + cos6 θ ) – 3(sin4 θ +

63. If α, β, γ are the roots of a cubic equation x3
– 3x – 1 = 0, then the value of cos4 θ ) + 1 is
1
+
1
+
1
is (1) 2
α β γ
(2) 0
(1) –3
(3) 4
(2) 3
(4) 6
(3) 0
(4) 5
69. The complete solution set of inequality
2−3x 1 2x+5
≥ − , x ∈ N is
64. If the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0
3 2 4

(1) {1, 2, 3}
be α and β, then the roots of the equation
cx2 + bx + a = 0 are (where a, b, c ∈ R, a ≠ 0) (2) {1, 2, 3, 4}
(1) – α, – β (3) {1, 2}
(2) 1 (4) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
α,
β

(3) 1
,
1
70. A quadratic equation whose roots are
α β

cosec2 θ and sec2 θ can be

(4) 1
, β
α (1) x2 – 2x + 2 = 0
(2) x2 – 3x + 3 = 0
65. If (x + iy)2 (c + id) = a + ib, then (x2 + y2 )k(c2 + (3) x2 – 3x + 4 = 0
d2 ) = a2 + b2 where k is equal to
(4) x2 – 5x + 5 = 0
(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 2 71. If the roots of the equation x² + 2ax + a² – 3 =
0 are real and greater than –1, then
(4) 4
(1) a ∈ R
(2) a < 1
– –
(3) a ∈ (−∞, 1 − √3) ∪ (1 + √3, ∞)
–
(4) a ∈ (−∞, 1 − √3)

10
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T02 (Code-A)

72. The sum i + i2 + i3 + ... + up to 2018 terms is 77. The values of sin x
+
cos x
for
√1−cos2 x √
equal to
2
1−sin x
π

(1) Zero x ∈ (0,

2
) , is
(2) i (1) 6
(3) 1 – i (2) 4
(4) i – 1 (3) 2
(4) Zero
73. If sinA + sinB + sinC = 3 then find the value
of cosA + cosB + cosC is equal to 78. The value of x4 + 9x3 + 35x2 – x + 4 for x =
(1) Zero −−
−
−5 + 2√−4 is
(2) 1 (1) Zero
(3) 3 (2) –160
(4) Data insufficient (3) 160
(4) –164
74. Product of 3 consecutive natural numbers is
always divisible by
(1) 5
79. The roots α, β of the equation ax2 + bx + c =
0 are imaginary, then
(2) 6
(1) b2 – 4ac ≥ 0
(3) 7
(2) b2 – 4ac = 0
(4) 4
(3) b2 – 4ac < 0
75. If z1 = 1 + i and z2 = 3 + i are two complex (4) b2 – 4ac > 0
numbers, then Im(z1 + z2 ) is equal to
(1) 4 80. 4
If ∣∣ z
∣
∣ = 2 , then the value of |z| is equal to
(2) 1
(1) 1
(3) 2
(2) 1

(4) 3 2

(3) 2
–
76. If roots of equation x2 – px + q = 0 differ by (4) √2
unity, then value of p2 is
(1) 4q
(2) 4q + 1
(3) 4q – 1
(4) 4q2

Section-II

– –
81. Number of integers in the solution set of x 86. Let z1 = 7 + i√3 and z2 = 4 + 2√3i ,
satisfying inequation 6 < x – 5 < 9 is 2
then |z1 – z2 | is equal to

82. If A + B = 45º then

87. If ∣∣z1 ∣∣ = 3 ∣ , ∣
∣z2 ∣ = 2 and ∣z ∣ = 1 and
(1 + tan A) (1 + tan (π + B)) equals ∣ 3∣

∣9z z + 4z z + z z ∣
∣ 3 2 3 1 2 1∣ = 36 then
83. If the equation x2 + px + q = 0 and x2 + qx +
|z1 + z2 + z3 | equals
p = 0 have a common root, then p + q + 1 is
(where, p ≠ q) 88. If minimum value of y = x 2 – 2 x + λ for x ∈ R
is 4, then value of λ is (where, x ∈ R)
84. If tan2 x = 1, then the value of tan4 x – 2 tan3 x
– tan2 x + 2 tanx is equal to 89. The value of cos60°.cos61°.cos62° ….
cos131° is
85. The value of
2
º 2
º
2( sin 5 + sin 10 + ..... + sin 85 )
2
º is 90. The least integral value of a for which the
equation x2 – 2(a – 1)x + (2a + 1) = 0 has
both the roots positive, is

11