Code A

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MM : 300 Practice Mock Test -02 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1
1. A disc of mass m and radius R is rolling with
angular speed ω on a horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of
angular momentum of the disc about the
R
point P on the disc, which is distance 2 from
the horizontal surface as shown is
3. In the figure shown, mass on both side at t =
0 is M kg. Water in left side leaks out at
constant rate μ kg/s. Velocity of water flow in
downward direction relative to cylindrical
tank is Ve m/s. Acceleration at any time t will
be

(1) μgt

(2M −μt)

(1) mR2 ω (2) μVe

(2) 3 mR2 ω
(2M −μt)

8
(3) μ(Ve +gt)

(3) mR2 ω
3
(2M −μt)
2
(4) μ(Ve −gt)
(4) mR2 ω
3
(2M −μt)
4

2. 1
Graph of ( v ) versus x for a particle moving
in a straight line is as shown in figure, where
v is velocity and x is position. Time taken by
the particle to move from x = 4 m to x = 12 m
is

(1) 20 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 5 s

2
4. The electric field part of an electromagnetic 5. Liquid of density ρ is flowing through a hole
wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0; A0
of cross-sectional area ( ) . (A0 → cross-
Ey = 0; 10

Ez (All sectional area of vessel). Force F which is

6
needed to keep vessel at rest at the instant
= 2.5 (N /C) cos [(2π × 10 rad/s) t shown in diagram is
−2
− (π × 10 rad/m) x]
are in SI units). Find the corresponding
→
magnetic field vector B associated with the
given wave
(1) By = – 1. 25
–8
× 10

(2π × 106 rad/s) t

(1) 20ρgH A0

99
(T ) cos [
– ( π × 10–2 rad/m) x (2) ρgH A0

15

(3) ρg H A0

]
10

(4) ρg H A0
(2) By = 1.25

–8
× 10 T
( ) cos 6. In the circuit shown, the capacitor is initially
6 charged with a 12V battery, when switch S1
(2π × 10 rad/s) t
[ ]
is open and switch S2 is closed. S1 is then
− (π × 10
−2
rad/m) x closed and, at the same time, S2 is opened.
The value of current in the circuit when
(3) By = 1.25
energy is stored equally in both fields
(2π × 10
6
rad/s) t (electric & magnetic field) is
–8
× 10 T
( ) sin [
−2
− (π × 10 rad/m) x

(4) By = −1.25

–8
(2π × 10 rad/s) t
× 10 T
( ) sin [
−2
− (π × 10 rad/m) x

] (1) 0.38 mA
(2) 0.84 mA
(3) 0.51 mA
(4) 0.1 mA

7. A steel wire 1.5 m long and of radius 1 mm is

attached with a load 3 kg at one end the
other end of the wire is fixed. The load is
whirled in a vertical circle with a frequency
2Hz. Find the elongation of the wire when
the weight is at the lowest position- (Y = 2 ×
1011 N/m² and g = 10 m/s²)
(1) 1.77 × 10–3 m
(2) 1.77 × 10–4 m
(3) 3.17 × 10–7 m
(4) 1.37 × 10–7 m

3
8. A combination of capacitors is set up as 11.
shown in the figure. The magnitude of the
electric field, due to a point charge Q (having
a charge equal to the sum of the charges on
the 4 μF and 9 μF capacitors), at a point
distant 30 m from it, would equal :
A coil of self inductance 10 mH and
resistance 0.1 Ω is connected through a
switch to a battery of internal resistance 0.9
Ω. After the switch is closed, the time taken
for the current to attain 80% of the saturation
value is: [take In5 = 1.6]
(1) 0.002 s
(2) 0.324 s
(3) 0.103 s
(4) 0.016 s

12. A bar magnet whose magnetic moment is M

and moment of inertia about its axis (passing
through centre of mass and perpendicular to
plane of length and breath) is, I when placed
in vibrational magnetometer, oscillates with
time period T in a uniform horizontal
magnetic field. Now another magnet of same
length whose magnetic moment is M/2 and
(1) 360 N/C moment of inertia I/2 is placed over the
previous magnet such their opposite poles
(2) 420 N/C
are on the same side. The new period of
(3) 480 N/C oscillation will be
(4) 240 N/C (1) T
√3

–
(2) T √3
9. Current shown in figure is
(3) T

√2

–
(4) T √2

13. In a YDSE set up, the intensity at the point of

central bright fringe is I0 . The intensity at a
(1) 7 A point dividing the span between the central
and the first bright fringe in the ratio 1 : 2 is
(2) 2 A
(1) l0

(3) 5 A 2

(4) 3 A (2) l0

√2

10. n moles of O2 is undergoing a cyclic process (3) 3

l0
4

abc as shown. The process bc is isothermal. (4) l0

Heat absorbed by O2 during one cycle is 4

14. a
The dimensions of (
b
) in the equation
2
a−t
P = are (where P is pressure, x is the
bx

distance and t is time)

(1) M1 L1 T–2
(2) M1 L0 T–2
(1) nRT0 [ln 3 + 7]
(3) M1 L2 T–2
(2)
(4) M1 L1 T–1
4
nRT0 [ln 3 − ]
9

(3) nRT0 [ln 3 + 5]

(4) 5
nRT0 [ln 3 + ]
3

4
15. The electrostatic energy of Z protons 17. Truth table for the given circuit is
distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of
2
Z(Z−1)e
3
radius R is given by E =
5 4πε0 R
. The
measured masses of the neutron,
N and O are 1.008665 u, 1.007825
1 15 15
H, 8
1 7

u, 15.000109 u and 15.003065u,

respectively. Given that the radii of both the
(1)
N and O nuclei are same, 1 u = 931.5
15 15
7 8

MeV/c2 (c is the speed of light) and

e / (4πε0 ) = 1.44 MeVfm . Assuming that
2

the difference between the binding energies

of 15
7
N and 158
O is purely due to the

electrostatic energy, the radius of either of

the nuclei is (1 fm = 10–15 m) (2)
(1) 2.85 fm
(2) 3.03 fm
(3) 3.42 fm
(4) 3.80 fm

16. Two ohmic resistors R and 2R are joined in

(3)
parallel and their temperature coefficient of
resistances are 2α and α respectively. Their
equivalent temperature coefficient of
resistance will be equal to
(1) 3α
2

(2) 5α

2
(4)
(3) 5α

(4) 3α

18. Radiation of frequency f falls on the surface

of two metals A and B. Stopping potential vs
frequency f graph for these two metals A and
B is shown below

the ratio is

(1)

(2) 4
(3)

(4) 8

5
19. Consider a string of length l which is fixed at
both ends. Standing waves are produced in
the string and assume that string is vibrating
in 2nd harmonic mode.

Equation of standing wave is y =

2Asinkxcosωt (mass per unit length of string
is μ). Energy of the string from x = 0 to
l
x =
2
is
(1) μA ω l
2 2

(2) 2
2μω A l
2

(3) 2
μω A l
2

(4) 2
μA ω l
2

20. If density ρ and pressure P of air are related

as regardless of height (k, c0 are

constant). Then temperature gradient

is given by [assume ideal gas and

molecular mass of gas is M]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Section-II

6
21. Two identical blocks having mass 2 kg are 25. A certain species of ionized atoms
connected with each other by inextensible (hydrogen like) produces an emission line
string over frictionless tight pulley. An spectrum according to Bohr model. A group
inelastic ball of mass 1 kg collides from of lines in the spectrum form a series in
bottom with velocity 9 ms–1 , as shown in which the smallest energy is 4.896 eV and
figure. Then the time after the string will the maximum energy is 13.6 eV. The atomic
become tight in sec is number of atom is
) (assuming impact of ball is
−2
(g = 10 ms

instantaneous) 26. A long cylinder of radius ‘a’ is made of a

material whose thermal conductivity
depends on distance ‘r’ from axis of
conductor as k = cr2 , where ‘c’ is a constant.
Considering heat flow along the length,
thermal resistance per unit length of such a
x
conductor is found to be , the value of x
4
πca

is

27. Two non-conducting solid spheres of radii R

and 2R, having uniform volume charge
densities ρ1 and ρ2 respectively, touch each
other. The net electric field at a distance 2R
from the centre of the smaller sphere, along
the line joining the centres of the spheres, is
ρ
k
zero for = , where k is positive integer
1

ρ 1
2

find k.
22. A time-varying magnetic field is directed into
the page as shown in figure and it is 28. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth in a
decreasing at constant rate of 150 T/s. The circular orbit at a height 2R above earth
reading of ammeter (in A) is surface where R is the radius of earth. If it
starts loosing energy at a constant rate β (β
is small), then it will fall on the earth surface
GM m
after the time t =
nβR
. Find the value of n.

23. The concave and convex surface of a thin

concave-convex lens of refractive index 1.5
has radius of curvature 50 and 10 cm
respectively. The concave side is silvered
and placed on a horizontal surface as
shown. Find the magnitude of focal length
(in cm).

24. Velocity of a particle moving in space is

→ – ˆ
given by v = (−yˆ ˆ
i + x j + √2k) . At
initial moment (t = 0) the particle is at
–
( √2, 0, 0) . Find the distance travelled (in

m) by the particle in 1 s (All quantities are in

SI units).

7
29. Consider an annular region of inner radius a
and outer radius 2a confining magnetic field
within its boundary as shown. A charged
particle (q, m) is projected radially as shown
from inner boundary in magnetic field
varying with radial distance as
→
kr ˆ ˆ
B = B0 (1 −
a
)k , where B0 and k are
constants. If charged particle exits out from
region radially then flux of magnetic field
through region is nπkB0 a2 . Find the value
of n.

30. A block of mass m compresses a spring of

spring constant k through a distance as
shown in figure. The block is not fixed to the
spring. The period of motion of the block is
−−
m
√
k
[π + n]. Find n.

8
 CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. In which of the following species, there is no 34. SO3 can be prepared by the following two
involvement of d-orbital(s) in hybridisation of reactions
central atom? S8 + 8 O2 → 8 SO2 , 50% yield
(1) H3 PO4 2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3 , 100% yield
(2) SF4 A sample containing 50% by mass of each
S8 and O2 is taken in the initial reaction
(3) IF7
mixture. Calculate the sum of weights of
(4) XeF4 reactants initially taken if the mass of SO3
produced is 320 g (Yield of reactions are
mentioned).
32.
(1) 64 g
(2) 128 g
. (3) 256 g
The major product formed is (4) 512 g
(1)
35. Molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte with
dilution is described by the equation
∞
−
−
∧m = ∧m − A√C

(2) C → Concentration
∧m
∞
→ Limiting molar conductivity
∧m → Molar conductivity at concentration
‘C’
Which of the following pair of electrolyte
have same value of A?
(3)
(1) NaCI, CaCl2
(2) CaCl2 , MgSO4
(3) NaCI, KCI
(4) KCI, CaCl2
(4)

36. Consider the following molecules.

33. Which of the following pair contains only

amphoteric oxides?
(1) CrO3 and Mn2 O7 Select correct statement.
(2) CrO and Cr2 O3 (1) Oxidation number of ‘N’ in B is less
(3) V2 O3 and Cr2 O3 than C
(4) Cr2 O3 and V2 O5 (2) Oxidation number of ‘N’ in E is highest
among given molecules
(3) Oxidation number of ‘N’ in D is lowest
among given molecules
(4) Oxidation number of ‘N’ in A and F are
–3 and –1 respectively

9
37. Complex X of composition Cr(H2 O)6 Cln has 42. Which of following pair contain both
a spin only magnetic moment of 3.87 BM. It coloured ion?
reacts with AgNO3 and shows geometrical (1) Ti3+ and Ti4+
isomerism. The IUPAC nomenclature of X is (2) V4+ and Zn2+
(1) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)
chloride dihydrate (3) V3+ and Zn2+
(2) Hexaaquachromium(III) chloride (4) V4+ and V2+
(3) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(IV)
Chloride dihydrate
43. The hybridisation of intermediate in SN1 and
(4) Dichloridotetraaquachromium(IV) E1 are respectively.
chloride dihydrate
(1) sp2 , sp3 d

38. Select the incorrect statement about (2) sp3 d, sp2

elements of group 15th . (3) sp2 in both
(1) The order of stability of oxidation state (4) sp3 d in both
for +3 is Bi3+> Sb3+> As3+ and for +5 is
Bi5+< Sb5+ < As5+
44. Consider the following reaction:
(2) In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation Fusion

states from +1 to +5 tend to FeCr2 O4 + Na2 CO3 + O2 −

− −→ X

disproportionate in acid solution (Chromium

(3) There is considerable increase in containing

covalent radius from N to P but from As compound)

to Bi only a small increase in covalent +
H /H2 O
radius is observed X −−−−→ Y

(4) Nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond +

H /H2 O2

Y −−−−→ Blue solution

Select the correct statement.
39. In the given reaction sequence (1) Oxidation state of Cr in X and Y are +6
and +3 respectively
(2) Blue solution obtained is permanent in
A and B are respectively nature
(1) (3) Blue colour of solution is due to
presence of Cr+3 ions
(2) (4) Oxidation state of Cr in both X and Y is
+6

(3)
45. Which of the following is most soluble?
(1) Bi S (K = 1 × 10–70 )
2 3 sp

(4) (2) MnS(Ksp = 7 × 10–16 )

(3) CuS(Ksp = 8 × 10–37 )
(4) Ag2 S(Ksp = 6 × 10–51 )
40. Consider a reaction A → B + C. If the initial
concentration of A was reduced from 2 M to
46. If sodium sulphate is considered to be
1 M in 1 hour and 1 M to 0.25 M in 2 hours,
completely dissociated into cations and
the order of the reaction is
anions in aqueous solution, the change in
(1) 1 freezing point of water (ΔTf), when 0.01 mol
(2) 0 of sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of
(3) 2 water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 )
(4) 3 (1) 0.0186 K
(2) 0.0372 K
41. Which of the following compounds has a P– (3) 0.0558 K
P bond? (4) 0.0744 K
(1) (HPO3 )3
(2) H4 P2 O6
(3) H4 P2 O7
(4) H4 P2 O5

10
47. Statement-1 : The structure of tribromoocta 49. List I contain pair of solute and solvent and
oxides indicate the Br atoms are linked with list II contain properties of their resulting
each other. solution.
and List-I List-II
Statement-2 : The average oxidation number
of Br is 16/3. n-hexane +
P. 1. ∆ Hmixing = 0
n-Heptane
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct Ethanol +
Q. 2. ∆ Hmixing ≠ 0
explanation for Statement-1 Acetone
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is Minimum boiling
CHCl3 +
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct R. 3. azeotrope can be
explanation for Statement-1 Acetone formed
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is Maximum boiling
False Benzene +
S. 4. azeotrope can be
toluene
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is formed
True 0 0
PS = P XA + P XB
A B

PS → vapour pressure
48. Adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas into of solution
vacuum does not correspond to PA° → vapour pressure
(1) W = 0 of pure solute
(2) ΔE = 0 5. PB° → vapour pressure
(3) ΔH = 0 of pure solvent
XA → mole fraction of
(4) ΔS = 0
solute
XB → mole fraction of
solvent
(1) P → 1, 5; Q → 2, 3; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 3
(2) P → 2, 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 4
(3) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 5; R → 4, 5; S → 1, 5
(4) P → 1, 5; Q → 2, 3; R → 2, 4; S → 1, 5

50. Sample of H2 gas is taken in discharge tube

and wavelength of radiations emitted is
recorded. Which of the following wavelength
of photon is never emitted in hydrogen
emission spectrum? [R → Rydberg constant
1
and R ⇒ 912 Å]
(1) 600 Å
(2) 1216 Å
(3) 3648 Å
(4) 8208 Å

Section-II

51. The energy of electron in nth orbit of

hydrogen atom is –0.544 eV. The orbital
frequency of the electron is f × 21 × 1011 Hz,
where f is (nearest integer)

11
52. Among H2 , He2 +, Li2 , Be2 , B2 , C2 , N2 , O2 – , 57. If the number of chelate rings in brown ring
and F2 , the number of diamagnetic species complex is “a” and in [Fe(EDTA)]–1 is “b” and
is, five membered rings in [Ni(DMG)2 ] is “c”.
(Atomic numbers: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = Then what will be the value of (b + c – a)?
4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9)
58. Consider the following statements.
53. When FeO is heated in presence of oxygen (a) In Lucas test, 3°alcohols react
it gets converted into Fe2 O3 . A mixture of immediately.
FeO and Fe2 O3 when heated in air it gain (b) Ethers behave as base in presence of
10
mineral acids due to presence of lone pair
3
% in weight. If the simplest mass ratio of on oxygen.
FeO to that of Fe2 O3 is x : y, then the value of (c) Anisole on reaction with HI gives phenol
y – x is _____. (Given atomic mass of Fe = and CH3 — I.
56 g mol–1 ) (d) Phenol is stronger acid than most of
aliphatic alcohols.
(e) All aldehydes on reaction with Grignard
54. In the following cell reagent followed by hydrolysis yield
∣ 2+
Pt | H2 HA (10−2 M)|| Cu ( 10
−4
M)|Cu secondary alcohols.
∣
(f) t-butyl methyl ether is prepared by
Given, E°
Cu
2+
∣ Cu
= +0 .34 V reaction of t-butyl bromide with methoxide
∣
ion.
Ecell = 0.4 V
How many statements are correct?
2.303 RT
{ = 0.06}
F

The dissociation constant (approx.) of the
acid HA is 10–x. The value of x is _____.
(Assume degree of dissociation of acid is
negligible)
55. H2 O2 dissociates into H2 O(l) and O2 (g). If all
the H2 O2 present in 1 L of 3.36 volume
H2 O2 is allowed to dissociate completely
and all the released O2 is used for the
combustion of 1.56 g of diborane (B2 H6 ). If
heat of combustion of B2 H6 is –1900 kJ/mol
then heat released by combustion of 1.56 g
of diborane with O2 produced by above
H2 O2 solution is P kJ. The value of P is
(Atomic mass of boron is 10 g/mol)
59. For a reaction, rate constant is ln2 s–1 at
temperature 300 K. If activation energy of
this reaction is 600 R ln10 and the half life of
this reaction at temperature 600 K is 0.01 t
(in second). Then the value of t is (Report
the answer to the nearest integer)
60. In the following reaction sequence, the
amount of D (in g) formed from 1 mole of
acetophenone is _____.
(Atomic weights in g mol–1 : H = 1, C = 12, N
= 14, O = 16, Br = 80. The yield (%)
corresponding to the product in each step is
given in the parenthesis)

56. 10–2 M CH3 COOH (10 mL) is titrated with

10–4 M NaOH. Then the volume of buffer
formed during the course of titration
corresponding to maximum buffer capacity is
V
‘V’ mL. Then the value of 10 is

12
 MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. Two finite sets have m and n elements 66. 1113 + 1311 is divisible by
respectively. The total number of subsets of
(1) 121
first set is 24 more than the total number of
subsets of the second set. The value of 2m + (2) 192
n is (3) 144
(1) 12 (4) 88
(2) 10
(3) 13 67. Let z and ω be two complex numbers such
π
(4) 16 that arg(z) + arg(ω) =
4
, |z| = 2|ω|.
−−
−
Then z equals (where i = √−1 )

62. Let the functions f(x) and g(x) are defined as (1) ¯
(1 + i) ω̄
f : R → [0, ∞) , f (x) = |x| and g : R →
–
(2) ¯
√2(1 + i) ω̄
{–1, 0, 1}, g(x) = sgn(x), then f(g(2019)) +
g(f(–2019)) is equal to (3) –
√2 (1 − i) ω
(1) 2019 –
(4) ¯
√2 (1 − i) ω̄
(2) 4018
(3) 2
(4) Zero 68. The range of the function
4
√1+x
–1
f (x) = sin (
10
) is
63. 2 −2 −4
1+5x

⎛ ⎞

If A = ⎜ −1 3 4 ⎟ and (1) [–
π
,
π
]
2 2

⎝ ⎠
1 −2 −3 (2) [
π
,
π
)
3 2
−4 −3 −3
⎛ ⎞

B = ⎜ are two matrices, (3) (0,

π
]
1 0 1 ⎟ 2

⎝ ⎠
4 4 3 (4) (0,
π
]
3
then the value of determinant of
2 2 4 3 6
(AB +A B +A B + ......100 terms)

is equal to 69. Solution set of

2
(1) 0 ∣∣∣
∣∣ ∣x − 2x + 5∣
∣ − 1∣
∣ − 2∣
∣ ≥ x² + 3x – 4 is
(2) 100
(3) 5050 (1) (– ∞, 1]
(4) 5051 (2) [ 6 , ∞)
5

(3) −6
64. If tanA tanB + tanB tanC + tanC tanA = 1, [
5
, 1]

then which of the following is not correct?

(4) 6
(1) sin2 (A+B) = cos2 C (−∞,
5
]

(2) cos2 A+ cos2 (B + C) = 1

(3) cos2 (A + B + C) = 1 70. The positive value of λ for which the co-
(4) cot2 (A + B + C) = 0 efficient of x2 in the expression
10
−
− λ
2
x ( √x +
2
) is 720, is
x

65. The number of points of non-differentiability (1) 3

of the function f(x) = |cosx| – |sinx|, x ∈ (–3π ,
4π), is (2) 4
–
(1) 15 (3) √5
–
(2) 13 (4) 2√2

(3) 27
(4) 29

13
71. If log32 243 = m and log343 512 = n , then 76. The direction ratios of two lines are <1, –2, –
mn+1 2> and <0, 2, 1>. The direction cosines of a
( )
the value of 2 n
is line which is perpendicular to the above
(1) 7 × 31/3 lines may be
(1) 1 3 √3
(2) 3 × 72/3 ⟨
4
,
4
,
2√2
⟩

(3) 3 × 71/3 (2) −1 2 2

⟨ , , ⟩
(4) 7 × 32/3 3 3 3

(3) −2 1 2
⟨ , , ⟩
3 3 3

72. If a1 , a2 , ............, an are in arithmetic (4) 2 −1 2

⟨ , , ⟩
progression with common difference d, then 3 3 3

the sum of the following series,

sin d(cos ​e c a1 . co sec a2 + cosec a2 . cosec a3 +. +cosec an−1 cosec an )
77. Let the six numbers a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 , a5 , a6 be
..........
in A.P. and a1 + a3 = 10. If the mean of these
is
six numbers is 2 and their variance is σ2 ,
19
(1) sec a1 − sec an
(2) cot a1 − cot an then 8σ2 is equal to:
(3) tan a1 − tan an (1) 200
(4) c osec a1 − cosec an (2) 105
(3) 220

73. Let f be any function continuous on [a, b] and (4) 210

twice differentiable on (a, b). If for all
x ∈ (a, b) , f'(x) > 0 and f"(x) < 0, then for 78. The solution of the differential equation
2
f(c)−f(a) 3x sin y
any c ∈ (a, b), is greater than dx
= is
f(b)−f(c) dy 6x cos y−4 cos x

(1) 1 (1) 4cosx – 3x2 cosy = c

(2) c−a (2) 4sinx – 3x2 cosy = c
b−c

(3) b+a (3) 4cosx + 3x2 cosy = c

b−a
(4) 4sinx + 3x2 cosy = c
(4) b−c

c−a

79. Position vectors of points A and B are

74. 1+tan x →
→
→
→
∫ e
sec x
(
1−sin x
) dx equals a and b respectively. If | a | = 2, | b | = 4,
then the ratio in which the median of triangle
(1) e
sec x
(sec x + tan x) + c
OAB passing through vertex A divides the
(2) x
e (sec x + tan x) + c internal angle bisector of triangle OAB
passing through vertex O is
(3) sec x cos x
e (
1+sin x
) +c (1) 1 : 2
(4) x cos x
(2) 2 : 3
e ( ) +c
1+sin x (3) 3 : 1
(4) 3 : 5
75. A hyperbola having transverse axis of length
units, is confocal with the ellipse 3x2 + 4y2
3

2
80. (1−tan
x
)(1−sin x)
2

= 12. Then the equation of hyperbola is The value of lim

π x 3
is
x→ (1+tan )(π−2x)
(1) x 2 y 1
2
2 2

− =
9 7 16 (1) 1

16
(2) x
2 y
2
3

9
−
7
=
16
(2) 1

32

(3) x
2 y
2

(3) 1
− = 16
9 7 4

(4) x
2 y
2
5 (4) Non-existent
− =
9 7 16

Section-II

14
81. K 1 n 88. If the product of the matrices
If ∑
n=1
[
3
+
90
] = 21 , where [.]
1 1 1 2 1 3 1 n
represents the greatest integer function, then [ ][ ][ ]……[ ]
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
K is equal to
1 378
= [ ]
82. The area of the region bounded by the 0 1
curves y = sinx and y = cosx, and lying , then n is equal to
π
between the lines x = 4
5π
and x =
4
, is equal to α sq. units, then 89. π/2

2π
α
2
is equal to Let I1 = ∫ cos (
2
sin x)dx and
3
0
83. If α, β, γ be the roots of the equation x3 – 3x2 π/2

– x + 2 = 0 and P(x) is another cubic π

polynomial with leading coefficient unity I2 = ∫ cos ( sin x) dx , then the value
3
whose roots are βγ – α2 , γα – β2 and αβ – 0

γ2 . Then the value of P(2) is equal to of

I1
is
I2

84. The number of different positive integers that

can be obtained by adding two or more 90. A line from the origin meets the lines
y−1
numbers from the list of numbers 2, 5, 15, 30 x−2
= =
z+1
and
1 −2 1
and 55, is equal to x−8/3 y+3 z−1

2
=
−1
=
1
at P and Q
85. The distance of the point (1, 2) from the line respectively. If the distance PQ = l then the
x + y + 5 = 0 measured along the line value of [l] (where [.] represents the greatest
−
−
parallel to 3x – y = 7 is equal to √λ , where integer function), is
λ is

86. It is given that the events A and B are such

that
1 B 1 A 2
P (B) =
4
, P (
A
) =
2
and P (
B
) =
3
,

2
then P(A) is k
, where k is

87. A pack of 52 playing cards have one card

missing. If first 13 cards are examined and
all are found to be black. The probability that
the missing card is black, is p then 9p is

15