28/04/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Crash & Test Series GUJCET-2016 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-07

Mock Test for AIPMT

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
5. A projectile is projected with velocity v0 at angle as
d 2F shown in the figure. The relation between t1 and t2
1. The dimensions of , where F and v are force
dv 2
(Y = Vertical)
and velocity respectively
(1) [M1L0T–1] (2) [M2LT–3] T
t=
t = t1 2
(3) [M–1L–2T0] (4) [ML–1T0] v0 t = t2
A B
2. A ball is allowed to free fall from rest, the initial
acceleration of the ball is (downward is taken as h h
 t
negative)
(1) g (2) – g
T
(1) T = t1 + t2 (2)  t1  t2
g 2
(3) (4) Zero
2
(3) T = t1t2 (4) T = t2 – t1
3. A car travels with speed of 40 m/s and returns with
6. If a ball is dropped in a narrow diametrical opposite
speed of 60 m/s. The average speed of the car is
point of earth tunnel, then the time period of the ball
(1) 50 m/s (2) 48 m/s will be (M = Mass of earth, Re = Radius of earth,
(3) 55 m/s (4) 45 m/s g = 9.8 m/s2)
4. In ideal projectile motion, which of the following effect
is neglected? Re 3 Re
(1) 2 (2) 2
GM g
(1) Rotation of earth (2) Air resistance
(3) Curvature of earth (4) All of these (3) 84.6 minutes (4) All of these
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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016
7. A particle is moving on a circular path with constant 12. Two mercury drops each of radius r combine to form
speed. The graph between magnitude of acceleration a single drop, energy release in the process is
and time is correctly shown in nearly equal to [s = surface tension of mercury]
a a (1) r2s (2) 2r2s
(3) 1.65r2s (4) 2.5r2s

(1) (2) 13. Which of the following relations is incorrect?

t t
(symbols have their usual meanings)
     
(1) L  r  p (2)   v r
a a      
(3) ac    v (4) at    r
14. What does the shaded area show?
(3) t (4) t F

8. Which of the following are equal vectors? x

O x
F=
– kx

(1) v1 v2 (2) v1 v2 (1) Work done by the external force

(2) Work done by the internal force (spring)
(3) Potential energy of spring
v1 v2
(4) None of these
(3) (4) 15. When a bob is suspended by light string and it is
v2 v1 imparted a horizontal velocity to complete the full
circular trajectory in vertical plane. What is the
   difference in tension between lowest and highest
9. If a and b are two vectors and R is their resultant
point of path?
  
vector such that | R |  | a |  | b | , then the angle (1) mg (2) 6mg
 
between vectors a and b , is (3) 5mg (4) 3mg
(1) 60° (2) 90° 16. For FM Radio broadcasting, the frequency employed
is
(3) 120° (4) 150°
(1) 88–108 kHz (2) 88–108 Hz
10. The tension in a uniform rope of mass M length L
that is hung from the ceiling as shown in the figure, (3) 88–108 MHz (4) 54–72 MHz
at a point x distance from the lower end, is 17. A body cools from 90°C to 80°C in 10 minutes, then
time taken to cools same body (in same surroudning)
from 80°C to 70°C, may be
L (1) 7 minutes (2) 9 minutes
x
(3) 10 minutes (4) 14 minutes
Mg MgL 18. Which of the following gates corresponds to the
(1) x (2)
L x given truth table?

MgL MgL A B Y=
(3) (4) 0 0 0
2x (L  x )
1 0 1
11. Which of the following relations is correct? (symbols
0 1 1
have their usual meanings)
1 1 0
(1) r > k > s (2) r < k < s
(1) NAND (2) NOR
(3) r > k < s (4) r < k > s
(3) XOR (4) OR
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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
19. Which of the following regions of output 24. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of
characteristic of transistor is used when it is used 
E with distance (x) for charged circular ring along
as amplifier?
its axis?
(1) Saturation region (2) Cut off region

(3) Active region (4) All of these E E

20. In which transition minimum energy is emitted? –a

(1) 2 x (2) x
a a a
(1) n1 = 2, n2 = 3 2
2 2
(2) n1 = 2, n2 = 4

(3) n1 = 3, n2 = 4
E E
(4) n1 = 4, n2 = 5

21. The potential difference between two points A and B

(3) x (4) x
is
A

a 25. In an ideal thermodynamic system, gas is allowed to

2a expand from volume V1 to V2. The work done by the
+Q –Q
system is maximum if it is
a
(1) Isothermal expansion
B
(2) Adiabatic expansion
KQ ⎛ 1 ⎞ (3) Isobaric expansion
(1) Zero (2) ⎜ 1 ⎟
a ⎝ 5⎠ (4) Isometric expansion
26. Equation of a plane progressive harmonic wave is as
2KQ ⎡ 1 ⎤ KQ ⎡ 1 ⎤
(3) ⎢1 ⎥ (4) ⎢ 2 ⎥ ⎛ 1 ⎞
a ⎣ 5⎦ a ⎣ 5⎦ y = 0.02 sin ⎜ 20t  x  ⎟ . The speed of wave is
⎝ 25 6⎠
(All quantities are in SI units)
22. What will be the direction of electric field at the
centre of charged circular ring? 5
(1) m/s (2) 250 m/s
(1) Along the axis of ring 4
(3) 500 m/s (4) 750 m/s
(2) Plane parallel to ring
27. Assuming earth as isolated conducting sphere.
(3) Plane perpendicular to ring What will be the capacitance of earth?
(4) Zero (1) 7.1 × 10–4 F (2) 0.71 × 10–6 F

23. What is the work done by the electric field to take (3) 1 × 10–6 F (4) 1 × 106 F
any charge q from point A to D? 28. What will be the capacitance of a parallel plate
capacitor having 20 × 20 cm2 area plates separated
+Q –Q by distance of 1.0 mm?
A a 2a a D (1) 35 pF (2) 350 F

(1) Zero (3) 354 pF (4) 35 F

29. The energy stored in electric field produced by a
2 KQq metal sphere of radius R containing a charge Q, is
(2) given by
3 a

4 KQq 3 KQ 2 KQ 2
(3) (1) (2)
3 a 5 R 2R

4 KQq KQ 2 2KQ 2
(4) (3) (4)
3 a R R
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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016

30. If two identical wires have resistivity 1 and 2. They 36. What will be the inertia of a uniform square plate of
are connecting in series, then the equivalent mass M and edge a about an axis perpendicular to
resistivity is equal to plane passing through its centre?

(1) 1 2 (2) 1 + 2 Ma 2 Ma 2
(1) (2)
6 12
1  2 1  2
(3) (4)
2 2 Ma 2 2Ma2
(3) (4)
8 5
31. A wire of resistance 20 is bent to form a square.
What will be the equivalent resistance between 37. The principle of working of transformer is
diagonally opposite points?
(1) Self induction (2) Mutual induction
(1) 10  (2) 5  (3) Magnetic induction (4) All of these
(3) 15  (4) 2.5  38. In an L-R circuit, rms voltage across inductor and
resistor is 30 volt and 40 volt respectively. The rms
32. A ball is moving with velocity 5 m/s towards a heavy value of applied voltage is
wall moving towards the ball with speed 2 m/s
assuming collision to be elastic. What will be the (1) 10 V (2) 70 V
speed of ball immediately after the collision? (3) 50 V (4) 100 V

(1) 9 m/s (2) 3 m/s 39. What is the pressure head in Bernoullis theorem?
(p = pressure,  = density)
(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s

33. Which of the following quantities may remain p mp

(1) (2)
constant during the motion of an object along a  
curved path?
p
(1) Speed (3) (4) p
g
(2) Acceleration
40. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature 10 cm each.
(3) Magnitude of acceleration If the refractive index of the material of lens is 1.5.,
then the focal length of lens is
(4) All of these (1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm

k (3) – 20 cm (4) – 10 cm
34. A force F  ( x  0) acts on a particle in
x2 41. Keeping all parameter fixed if distance between two
x-direction. The work done by this force in displacing slits in Young’s double slit experiment is decreased,
a particle from x = +a to x = +2a. then fringe width will
(k = Positive constant) is equal to (1) Increase
(2) Decrease
k k
(1) (2) (3) Remain same
2a 2a
(4) May increase or decrease depends on intensity
k k of source
(3) (4)
a a 42. Which of the following relations is a correct Einstein
photoelectric equation?
35. In a velocity selector electric field vector and
magnetic field vector must be oriented so that angle (1) Kmax = h – 
between them is
hc
(2) ev 0  
(1) 0° 

(2) 90° hc ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
(3) v 0  e ⎜    ⎟
(3) 180° ⎝ 0 ⎠

(4) 360° (4) All of these

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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
43. For maximum compton shift scattering angle should 45. A magnet of length ‘L’ and magnetic moment M is
be given. If it is bent the shape as shown in figure, then
the new magnetic moment will be
(1) 0° (2) 90°
(3) 150° (4) 180°
44. In Bohr’s atomic model, the time period of an
electron in nth orbit depends on

n3 n3 (1)
M
(2)
2M
(1) Tn  (2) Tn 
Z 2
Z 3 2 3

n2 n 2M 2M
(3) Tn  (4) Tn  (3) (4)
Z 2 Z 3 

CHEMISTRY
46. The product of the following reaction is 50. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
O O –
Column-I Column-II
dil. OH
H–C–H + CH3C–H O (–)
Conc. OH
O OH O a. 2 H–C–H (i) Clemmensen reduction
(1) CH3–CH2–C–H (2) H3C–CH2–C–H O (–)
dil. OH
b. CH 3–C–H (ii) Cannizzaro reaction
O OH
(3) CH 3–C–CH 3 (4) CH3–CH–CH3 O
c. Zn–Hg, HCl (iii) Rosenmund reduction
47. Choose the incorrect statement about P4O10
(1) All P – O bonds are of equal length
O
(2) Each P is bonded to four oxygen atoms H2
d. R–C–Cl (iv) Aldol condensation
Pd + BaSO4
(3) Hybridisation of P is sp3
(4) There are six P – O – P linkages Choose the correct match.
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), b(ii)
48. Which of the following statements is correct?
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Bond order of NO is 2.5
51. Identify the least stable molecule
(2) NO is diamagnetic in nature
(3) The structure of NO is N O .,each atom having (1) (2)
zero formal charge
O
(4) NO is an acidic oxide in aqueous medium
49. Consider the following statements about the following (3) (4)
two structures
52. Match the following columns:
H COOH H H
C C C C Column-I Column-II
HOOC H HOOC COOH
a. 28 g of CO(g) (i) 224 L at NTP
(A) (B)
b. 6.022  1024 molecules (ii) 0.5 g
(i) A & B are geometrical isomers to each other of H2
(ii) A is stronger acid than B c. 2.56 L of He(g) (iii) 2.24 L
at NTP
(iii) B can form anhydride easily but A does not
d. 0.1 mole of ideal (iv) 1 mole
Choose the correct statements.
gas at NTP
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016
53. Orbital angular momentum of an electron is 60. Consider the following statements.
independent of
(i) Crystallisation is accompanied by decrease in
(1) n & l (2) l & m entropy
(3) l & s (4) n, m & s
(ii) Spontaneous process is an irreversible process
54. Choose the correct order as the property indicated and cannot be reversed by external agency
(1) F  Cl  Br  I — Negative electron gain (iii) The enthalpies of formation for all elements in
enthalpy their standard state are zero
(2) Cl  F  Br  I — Electronegativity
Choose the correct options.
(3) Cl2  Br2  F2  I2 — Bond dissociation energy
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(4) F2  Cl2  Br2  I2 — Reducing power
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
55. Which of the following chemical species is
diamagnetic in nature? 61. Which of the following sets of aqueous solutions
contains only neutral solutions?
(1) O2 (2) O2+
(1) NaCN(aq), NaCl (aq), KBr(aq)
(3) O2– (4) O22–
(2) NH4NO3(aq), NaNO2(aq), KF(aq)
56. Which of the molecule has zero net dipole moment?
(3) NaCl(aq), KBr(aq), RbCl(aq)
(1) NO2 (2) CO2
(4) NaNO3(aq), NaCN(aq), NaCl(aq)
(3) H2O (4) SO2
62. If 2 mole of H2O (g) and 2 mole of CO are taken in
57. A mixture of H2 and O2 at 1 atm pressure contains a 10 L vessel and heated to 700 K, at equilibrium
40% mass of hydrogen. The partial pressure of 20% of water is consumed according to the equation
oxygen would be
H 2O(g) + CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g)
(1) 0.086 (2) 0.6
What will be the equilibrium constant for the
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.8 reaction?

58. Match the Column-I to Column-II. 1 1

(1) (2)
Column-I Column-II 4 12
(Gas) (Critical temperature (K)
a. O2 (i) 33.2 1 1
(3) (4)
8 16
b. He (ii) 5.3
c. N2 (iii) 154.3 63. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
d. H2 (iv) 126 (1) CuO(s)  H2 (g)  Cu(s)  H2O(g)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) 2 NaOH(aq)  H2SO4 (aq)  Na 2SO4 (aq)  2H2O(l)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) (a)(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) 2 K(s)  F2 (g)  2 KF(s)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) 4 NH3 (g)  5O2 (g)  4 NO(g)+ 6 H2O(g)
59. Standard enthalpies of combustion of CH3OH(l), C(s),
and H 2(g) are –726, –393 and –286 kJ mol –1 64. Which of the following is the correct order of the
respectively. What will be the standard enthalpy of metals in which they displace each other from
formaton of CH3OH(l)? solution of their salts?

(1) – 239 kJ/mol (1) Mg  Al  Zn  Cu  Fe

(2) – 383 kJ/mol (2) Cu  Fe  Zn  Al  Mg

(3) – 620 kJ/mol (3) Al  Mg  Fe  Zn  Cu

(4) – 46 kJ/mol (4) Mg  Al  Zn  Fe  Cu
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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
65. The chemical reaction involved in water gas shift 73. What is the value of G° for the following cell
reaction is reaction?
 Zn(s) + Ag2 O(s)  H2 O(l)  Zn2(+) (ag)+ 2 Ag (s)+ 2OH(  ) (ag)
(1) C + H 2O CO + H 2
Ni
 ⎡⎣Given: EZn/ Zn2(+)   0.76 V, E Ag2 O/ Ag   0.80 V ⎤⎦
(2) CO + H2O Catalyst
CO2 + H2
(1) –1.9  107 kJ (2) – 301 kJ

(3) CnH2n+2+ n H2O n CO + (2n + 1)H2 (3) –1.8  103 kJ (4) – 200 kJ
Ni
74. Which of the following is the correct plot of
(4) C + O2 CO2(g) Arrhenius equation?
66. Which of the following metal nitrate decomposes into
corresponding nitrites on heating?
(1) NaNO3 (2) LiNO3 (1) ln k (2) ln k

(3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) Ba(NO3)2

67. Dry ice is 1 1
(1) CO2(s) (2) H2O(s) T T
(3) D2O(s) (4) H2O2(s)
68. Choose the correct statement.
(1) B2O3 is acidic in nature (3) ln k (4) ln k
(2) Boron can show maximum covalency of 4
(3) In aqueous medium B(OH)3 exists as [B(OH)4](–) 1 1
(4) All are correct T T

69. On pyrolysis of hexane, three different hydrocarbons 75. Which of the following is the correct plot for
are obtained in a balanced chemical reaction as Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
 x + y + z
C6H14
Different hydrocarbons log x log x
m m
Identify x, y & z (1) (2)
(1) CH4, C2H4 & C3H6 (2) C2H6, CH4 & C3H6
(3) C2H6, C2H4 & C2H2 (4) C3H8, CH4 & C2H6 log p log p
70. Range of stratosphere is
(1) 0 – 11 km (2) 50 – 90 km log x
log x m
m
(3) 11 – 50 km (4) 10 – 100 km (3) (4)
71. The total number of voids in face centered unit cell is
(1) 4 (2) 8 log p log p
(3) 10 (4) 12 76. Match the Column-I with Column-II .
72. Consider the following statements. Column-I Column-II
(i) On adding methyl alcohol to water boiling point a. Solid in liquid (i) Foam
of water increases
b. Liquid in solid (ii) Gel
(ii) When NaCl is added to water depression in
freezing point is observed c. Liquid in liquid (iii) Sol

(iii) Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of its d. Gas in liquid (iv) Emulsion
high concentration to a region of its low (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
concentration
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Choose the correct options
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i) & (iii) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016

77. The chemical reaction does not taking place in blast Br2 Mg (i) CO2 CH3OH
furnace during extraction of Fe from haematite is 84. FeBr3
A B C D.
Dry ether (ii) H3O 
Conc. H2SO4

(1) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 The compound D is

(2) FeO + CO  Fe + CO2 COOH COOH

(3) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (1) (2)

CH3
(4) FeO + C  Fe + CO CH3
78. Which of the following actinides shows oxidation
COOH COOCH3
states upto +7?
CH3
(3) (4)
(1) Am (2) Pu

(3) U (4) Th NH2

Br2(aq) NaNO2 + HCl H2PO2
79. Consider the following complex ions 85. A B C
(0 – 5)°C 

[Cr Cl6]3(–)
, [Cr (NH3)6]3(+), [Cr (CN)6]3(–) The compound (C) is
I II III
Br Br
The correct order of crystal field splitting energy is
(1) (2)
(1) I  II  III (2) II  III  I
Br
(3) III  II  I (4) I  III  II

80. The number of geometrical isomers possible for the Br Br

complex of the type [MA2B2C2] is
(3) (4)
Br Br Br
(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 5 (4) 8 86. Which of the following is an example of vitamin?

(1) Adipic acid (2) Palmitic acid
81. Which of the following is the least reactive towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction? (3) Ascorbic acid (4) Cinnamic acid
87. The reductive ozonolysis of natural rubber will finally
X form
(1) (2) CH 3–CH–CH 3 (1) Acetone and Ethanal
X (2) 4-Oxopentanal
(3) Acetone and Propanal
CH2–X
(3) CH3CH2–X (4) (4) All of these
88. Choose the incorrect match.
HBr KOH(aq.)
82. CH3CH = CH2 A B (1) Antipyretics : Phenacetin
Peroxide
(2) Tranquilizers : Valium
The compound B is
(3) Antifertility drug : Mifepristone
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) CH3CH = CH2 (4) Antacid : Terfenadine
89. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
O
(3) CH 3–CH–CH 3 (4) CH3–C–CH3 (1) Nylon–6, 6 (2) Nylon–2–nylon–6
OH (3) Nylon–6 (4) All of these
83. The number of phenols possible with molecular
formula C7H8O is 90. The vitamin B which can be stored in human body
is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B2
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B10
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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)

BOTANY
91. Statement A - Methanobacterium differ from Nostoc 95. How many of the given statements are incorrect?
in cell membrane structure.
I - Majority of pteridophytes are heterosporous.
Statement B - T4 bacteriophage shows coiled DNA
II - Pollination in gymnosperms is direct and
strand and peplomeres.
anemophilous
(1) Only A is correct
III - The first stage of moss gametophyte is leafy
(2) Only B is correct stage, which develops directly from spore.
(3) Both A & B are correct IV - In flowering plants endosperm is triploid and is
pre-fertilisation structure
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
(1) Two (2) Four
92. Read the following statements and choose the
correct match. (3) One (4) Three
96. Find the odd one w.r.t. leaf modification
I - Obligate aerobes.
(1) Pea - Tendril (2) Acacia - Phyllode
II - Has tail fibres for locomotion and capturing prey.
(3) Citrus - Thorn (4) Cactus – Spines
III - Symbiotic association between phycobiont and
mycobiont. 97. Zygomorphic flower with vexillary aestivation in
corolla, diadelphous stamens and non-endospermic
IV - Infectious low molecular weight ssRNA. seeds are found in
(1) I - Mycoplasma (2) IV - Prions (1) Gloriosa, Asparagus (2) Brassica, Capsella
(3) II - Slime moulds (4) III - Lichens (3) Petunia, Nicotiana (4) Trifolium, Sesbania
93. In which of the following fungi, sex-organs are absent 98. Mark correct option w.r.t. bast fibres.
but plasmogamy is brought by fusion of two somatic
cells? (1) They are absent in secondary phloem
(2) They have thin cell wall
(1) Mushroom, Puffballs
(3) They are branched cells usually
(2) Morels, Neurospora
(4) They are elongated structures with needle like
(3) Colletotricum, Trichoderma apices
(4) Rhizopus, Albugo 99. Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
94. Read the given table carefully and fill in the blanks (1) Bark - Includes both living and dead tissues
w.r.t. algae
(2) Sapwood - Central, light coloured, functional wood
Class Pigments Cell wall Example (3) Late wood - High density wood with narrow vessels
(i) Chlorophyceae Chlorophyll Cellulose C (4) Lenticels - Permit exchange of gases
a&b 100. "Power house" of cells contains
(ii) Phaeophyceae A Cellulose, Fucus
(1) Single linear DNA molecule
Algin
(iii) Rhodophyceae Chlorophyll B D (2) Circular DNA and 28S rRNA
a&d (3) Enzymes concerned with aerobic respiration

(1) A - Phycobilin (4) Enzymes for carbon fixation and protein

synthesis
B - Algin
101. Photosynthetic prokaryotes have _____ with
(2) C - Sargassum pigments

D - Sphagnum (1) Mesosomes (2) Chromatophores

(3) Polysomes (4) Microbodies
(3) A - Fucoxanthin
102. At which stage of cell cycle tubulin protein and
C - Chara centrioles duplicate respectively?
(4) B -Cellulose and Polyphosphate ester (1) G2 ; G1 (2) G2 ; S
D - Ectocarpus (3) S ; G2 (4) G1 ; G2
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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016
103. Phragmoplast is 109. During respiration the enzyme pyruvate
dehydrogenase converts
(I) Contractile ring produced during cytokinesis in
animals. (1) Pyruvic acid into acetaldehyde
(II) Precusor to cell plate produced during (2) Pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA
cytokinesis in plants.
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate into pyruvate
The correct statement/s are
(4) Pyruvic acid into lactic acid
(1) Only I (2) Only II
110. In the mitochondrial ETS ___A___ is the small
(3) Both I & II (4) None of these protein attached to the outer surface of inner
membrane. Complex ___B___ contains two copper
104. Find the direction of water flow in the given system
centers.
(1) A - Ubiquinone (2) A - Cytochrome-c
A OP = 18 atm
TP = 8 atm
B - II B - IV
B OP = 6 atm DPD = 1 atm C
TP = 2 atm (3) A - Cytochrome-c (4) A - Ubiquinone
B - III B-I
(1) A C (2) B C
111. Elongation of root at a constant rate shows/is
(3) C A (4) A B
(1) Growth with sigmoid graph
105. Most accepted view for phloem transport is
(2) Mathematically represented by L0 = Lt + r t
(1) K+ ion theory
(3) Differentiation and maturation of both daughter
(2) Cohesion-tension model
cells during mitosis
(3) Pulsation movement
(4) Growth with linear curve
(4) Pressure flow hypothesis
112. The hormone which plays an important role in seed
106. Soil less culture development, maturation and dormancy, is largely
antagonistic to hormone that
A - Is growing of plants in defined mineral solution
(1) Causes thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut
B - Decides essentiality of minerals
(2) Speeds up malting process in brewing industry
(1) Only A is correct
(3) Is widely used as herbicides
(2) Only B is correct
(4) Induces lateral shoot growth
(3) Both A & B are correct
113. The phenomenon of flowering dependent on
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
exposure to low temperature is known as
107. The first event during Z-scheme is
(1) Vernalisation (2) Photoperiodism
(1) Excitation of electron from reaction center of
(3) Stratification (4) Plasticity
photosystem
114. All the given plants are dioecious, except
(2) Photolysis of water
(1) Papaya (2) Date palm
(3) Downhill movement of electrons
(4) Synthesis of assimilatory powers (3) Mulberry (4) Coconut

108. All are the features of plants with Kranz anatomy, 115. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grain.
except (1) Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures
(1) They can tolerate high temperature called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent

(2) Show high rate of photorespiration at low CO2 (2) Inner wall of the pollen grain is called intine
concentration (3) Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape
(3) Can tolerate high light intensity (4) In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed at
(4) Show high productivity three-celled stage
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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
116. The assured seed setting in the absence of 123. Which of the following processes is performed in
pollinators, is shown by the flowers of plant template independent manner?
(1) Waterlily, Vallisneria
a - DNA replication ; b - Tailing ; c - Transcription
(2) Oxalis, Commelina
(3) Maize, Coconut (1) a & b (2) b & c
(4) Orchids, Viola (3) Only b (4) a & c
117. The phenomenon of production of seed without
124. The product of i-gene in lac-operon is
fertilisation is
(1) Called apomixis (1) Inducer (2) Repressor
(2) A type of asexual reproduction that mimics (3) Permease (4) -galactosidase
sexual reproduction
125. The incorrect statement for HGP is
(3) Found in some species of Asteraceae and
grasses (1) The functions are unknown for over 50 percent of
(4) More than one option is correct discovered genes

118. The pure line round seeded pea plant was crossed (2) More than 2 percent of the genome codes for
with wrinkled seeded pea plant. The F1 generation is proteins
_____ and it can be explained by _____,
(respectively) (3) The chromosome 1 has most genes i.e. 2968

(1) Wrinkled ; Law of segregation (4) The average gene consists of 3000 bases
(2) Round ; Law of dominance 126. "Pusa Swarnim" is
(3) Round ; Codominance
(1) Aphid resistant variety of Brassica
(4) Wrinkled ; Law of dominance
(2) White rust resistant variety of Brassica
119. The sex determination mechanism in honeybee is
(1) Chromosomal mechanism (3) Shoot and fruit borer resistant variety of flat bean

(2) Environmental mechanism (4) Hill bunt resistant variety of wheat

(3) Haplo-diploidy mechanism 127. In STP
(4) Genic-balance theory (1) Primary treatment is a biological process
120. Monosomy of X-chromosome is associated with the
syndrome showing feature (2) Flocs are anaerobic and autotrophic microbes

(1) Sterile male with gynaecomastia (3) BOD measures the organic matter present in
the water
(2) Sterile females without secondary sexual
characters (4) Activated sludge is the effluent of tertiary
(3) Characteristics palm crease and broad palm treatment
(4) Big, wrinkled furrowed tongue with open mouth 128. Biochemical adaptation for survival in extreme
121. Study the pedigree chart and choose the correct conditions is shown by
disorder/trait.
(1) Humans at low altitude
(2) Cactus in desert

(3) Desert lizards

(4) Antarctic fishes
129. "Sexual deceit" is employed by
(1) Colour-blindness (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(1) Ophrys to get pollinated
(3) Marfan's syndrome (4) PTC tasters
(2) Orchids on mango for shelter
122. The basic unit of eukaryotic DNA packaging is
(1) Histone (2) Nucleosome (3) Cuckoo on crow

(3) Chromatin (4) Histone octamer (4) Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos island
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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016
130. Humus 133. Most important cause for biodiversity loss is
(A) Dark coloured amorphous substance
(1) Over exploitation
(B) Highly resistant to microbial action
(2) Alien species invasion
(1) A & B are correct
(2) A & B are incorrect (3) Co-extinctions
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct 134. Electrostatic precipitator is employed in
131. Pioneer and climax community for rock succession
are (respectively) (1) Automobile exhaust
(1) Lichen ; Forest (2) Around road side
(2) Grass ; Shrub
(3) Paint industry
(3) Phytoplankton ; Forest
(4) Thermal power plants
(4) Moss ; Tress
132. Tropics are more diverse than temperate regions 135. The international treaty to control ozone depletion is
because they/their
(1) Kyoto Protocol
(1) Remained disturbed for many years
(2) Montreal Protocol
(2) Environment was more seasonal
(3) Environment was more constant and predictable (3) Bali convention
(4) Received less solar energy (4) Earth Summit

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the uterine events takes place according to Choose the option which correctly fills up the given
hormonal levels from 6th to 15th days of 28 days blank.
menstrual cycle?
(1) A - Direct contact with infected person
(1) Degeneration of myometrium
(2) B - Haemophilus influenza
(2) Maintenance of myometrium
(3) C - Bite of infected Aedes mosquito
(3) Endometrium of uterus regenerates through
proliferation (4) D - Ringworm

(4) Maintenance of endometrium 139. Read the following statements :

137. By the end of the first trimester, which of the (a) ATS provides slow response to a patient
following has occurred in the foetus?
(b) Colostrum secreted by mother has abundant IgA
(1) The first movement of foetus occurs antibodies to protect infant
(2) Body is covered by hair and digits are formed (c) In case of snake bites, the injection which is
given to the patient, contain preformed antigens
(3) The foetus uses its lungs to breathe
against snake venom
(4) All organs of foetus have begun to form
(d) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother
138. Given below is table including different columns. through placenta during pregnancy
Disease Medium of Causative agent How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Transfer
(1) One (2) Two
(i) Common cold __A__ Rhino virus
(3) Three (4) Four
(ii) Influenza Droplet __B__
infection 140. Which of the following stimulates adrenal gland to
release adrenaline and noradrenaline into blood
(iii) Filariasis __C__ Wuchereria
circulation?
(iv) __D__ Using towels Trichophyton
(1) Cocaine (2) Morphine
of infected
individual (3) Heroine (4) Nicotine
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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
141. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called 149. Capsular polysaccharide vaccines are used to control
interferons which protect non infected cells from virus which of the following diseases?
infections. These are included in (1) Polio (2) Tetanus
(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier (3) Meningitis (4) Leprosy
(3) Cytokine barrier (4) Cellular barrier 150. During cleavage, there is an increase in all of the
142. 'Bird flu' is caused by following, except
(1) Non enveloped RNA virus (1) Number of blastomeres
(2) Enveloped DNA virus (2) Size of blastomeres
(3) Retrovirus (3) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Enveloped RNA virus (4) DNA content

143. Which of the following involves the production of 151. Which of the following is mismatched?
useful aquatic plants and animals by proper (1) Columnar epithelium - Lining of buccal
utilisation of small and large water bodies? cavity
(1) Fishery (2) Aquaculture (2) Squamous epithelium - Lining of alveoli of
(3) Pisciculture (4) Both (1) & (3) lungs

144. Placenta secretes all of the following hormones, (3) Cuboidal epithelium - Tubular part of
except nephrons
(4) Pavement epithelium - Endothelium of blood
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin
capillary
(2) HPL
152. Which of the following animals is oviparous and
(3) Cortisol homeothermal with dicondylic skull?
(4) Progesterone (1) Struthio (2) Neophron
145. According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are (3) Calotes (4) Echidna
(1) Gradual changes (2) Directional changes 153. All of the following factors affect enzyme activity,
except
(3) Small changes (4) Directionless changes
(1) Temperature
146. All of the following include secondary lymphoid
organs, except (2) Activation energy
(1) Peyer's patches and appendix (3) Substrate concentration
(2) Lymph nodes and spleen (4) Product concentration
(3) MALT and GALT 154. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the
events that occur in the life cycle of Plasmodium?
(4) Bone marrow and thymus
(1) Release of sporozites : In salivary glands of
147. Choose the correct sequence of geological periods human
in ascending order.
(2) Asexual reproduction : In human RBC and
(1) Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian, Triassic, liver cell
Jurassic and Cretaceous
(3) Development of : In gut of mosquito
(2) Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous, Jurassic and gametes
Triassic
(4) Fertilisation : In gut of mosquito
(3) Jurassic, Triassic, Permian, Carboniferous and
155. Complete the following analogy :
Devonian
Scorpion : Book lungs :: Prawn : _____
(4) Cretaceous, Jurassic, Triassic, Permian,
Carboniferous and Devonian Choose the correct option
148. Non ionising radiations like _____ cause DNA (1) Book gills (2) Gills
damage leading to neoplastic transformation. (3) Coxal gland (4) Green gland
Choose the option which correctly fills up the given 156. A child reads the clock. Which lobe of cerebrum is
blank responsible for this act?
(1) X-rays (2) UV-rays (1) Frontal lobe (2) Parietal lobe
(3) Gamma rays (4) All of these (3) Temporal lobe (4) Occipital lobe
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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016
157. Identify the hormone which works through the 161. One of the following features in Psittacula may not
following pathway. be considered as a flight adaptation?
Hormone (1) Presence of pneumatic bone
Receptor Ovarian (2) Presence of air sac in respiratory system
cell membrane
(3) Presence of cloaca
Response 1
(4) Absence of urinary bladder
(Generation of second messenger) 162. All of the following characters are common for
(Cyclic AMP or Ca++)
Hemidactylus, Neophron and Ornithorhynchus,
Biochemical responses
except
(1) Homeotherm (2) Presence of cloaca
Physiological responses (3) Presence of claws (4) Oviparous
(e.g., ovarian growth)
163. Which of the following amino acids forms haem of
(1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone haemoglobin?
(3) DHEA (4) FSH (1) Glycine (2) Valine
158. Hirudinaria differs from Nereis in all of the following (3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan
features, except 164. The production of uric acid is enhanced by the
a. Nephridia to remove excretory waste excessive metabolism of
(1) Protein (2) Nucleic acid
b. Development is indirect
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Fat
c. Dioecious with sexual dimorphism
165. Under which of the following conditions appreciable
d. Presence of parapodia amount of glucose does not appear in urine?
Choose the correct option. a. Diabetes mellitus
(1) a only (2) a, b & c only b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Glucose concentration exceeds 180 mg/100 ml
(3) a & b only (4) a, b, c & d
of blood
159. In which of the following diseases, onchosphere larva d. Excessive secretion of insulin
directly enters in human body and destroy different
organs? Choose the correct option.
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only
(1) Taeniasis (2) Cysticercosis
(3) c & d only (4) b & d only
(3) Ancylostomiasis (4) Bilharziasis
166. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
160. Identify the organism
(1) Valine (2) Arachidonic acid
(3) Stearic acid (4) Aspartic acid
167. Extra demand of oxygen for complete recovery of
muscle is called oxygen debt. What percentage of
lactic acid is oxidised into CO2 and H2O?
(1) 100 (2) 80
(3) 20 (4) 60
168. Which of the following is an unpaired bone of human
body?
(1) Hyoid (2) Maxilla
(3) Palatine bone (4) Nasal bone
169. Foramen ovale is one of the shunts in foetus.It
Find the characteristic not suitable to the figure connects
(1) Body is protected by chitinous shell (1) Pulmonary artery to pulmonary vein
(2) Buccal cavity contains rasping organ radula (2) Right and left atria
(3) Closed circulatory system (3) Pulmonary artery and aorta

(4) Direct development (4) Interventricular septum

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Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016 Test-07 (Code A)
170. All the given statements are correct, except 176. In female cockroach, which of the following structures
does not help in excretion?
(1) The opening of voltage gated Na+ channel
causes depolarisation (1) Fat bodies
(2) Lubb sound appears at the beginning of (2) Nephrocyte
ventricular systole
(3) Malpighian tubule
(3) In myocardial infarction, ST segment is
(4) Urecose gland
depressed and T wave flattens
177. Choose the option which correctly matches the
(4) There is an increase heart rate by increasing
count and function of formed elements
extracellular Ca2+
171. The joint between prezygapophysis and post Form Normal count Function
zygapophysis of adjacent vertebra is as same as elements in blood
that it present in the joint between (1) RBCs 5 million/cm 3 Transport of
oxygen
(1) Atlas and axis (2) Ribs and clavicle 3
(2) Platelets 150,000-350,000/mm Blood coagulation
(3) Radius and ulna (4) Tibia and fibula (3) Eosinophils 1000/mm
3
Secrete IgE
antibodies
172. Mark the odd one w.r.t. nature of nerve
(4) Neutrophils 60-65% of WBCs Form resident
(1) Trochlear nerve (2) Abducens nerve macrophages
(3) Oculomotor nerve (4) Optic nerve 178. The maximum amount of air a person can breathe in
173. Which of the following amino acids is mono amino after forceful expiration is
dicarboxylic acid?
(1) TV + IRV
(1) Glycine (2) Tyrosine
(2) TLC – RV
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Tryptophane
(3) ERV + RV
174. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the reaction under
(4) TV + ERV
the influence of brush border enzymes.
179. In gastric gland cells responsible for release of
Maltase
(1) Maltose Glucose + Glucose Castle's intrinsic factor of castle are
Dipeptidase (1) Chief cell
(2) Dipeptide Amino acids
(2) Oxyntic cell
(3) Sucrose Invertase
Glucose + Fructose (3) Neck cell
lactase (4) Enterocyte
(4) Lactose Maltose + Glucose
175. Auerbach's plexus is present in 180. Find odd one out w.r.t. unconditioned reflexes

(1) Submucosa of intestine (1) Blinking of eye

(2) Muscularis layer in anterior part of oesophagus (2) Knee jerk reflex

(3) Muscularis layer of intestine (3) Salivation on seeing food

(4) More than one option is correct (4) Pupillary reflex

  

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Test-07 (Code A) Crash & Test Series GUJCET - 2016

28/04/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Crash & Test Series GUJCET-2016 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-07
ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (4) 40. (2) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (1) 117. (4) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (4) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (1) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (4) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (1) 93. (1) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (4) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (3)

(16)
 28/04/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Crash & Test Series GUJCET-2016 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test-07
Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) 12. Answer (3)

ML T 2 E=AS
 ML1 T 0
L2 T 2 = 4r 2  2  22/3  S
2. Answer (2)
 1.65  r2 S
a = –g
13. Answer (2)
3. Answer (2)
14. Answer (2)
2S
v  15. Answer (2)
S S

40 60 16. Answer (3)
17. Answer (4)
2 1 1 32
  
v 40 60 120 18. Answer (3)
19. Answer (3)
2 5 1
 
v 120 24 20. Answer (4)

v  48 m/s 21. Answer (3)

4. Answer (4) KQ KQ
VA  
5. Answer (1) a 5a
6. Answer (4)
KQ KQ
7. Answer (3) VB   
a 5a
 v2
ac  (constant)
r KQ KQ KQ KQ
VA  VB    
8. Answer (2) a 5a a 5a
9. Answer (3)
2 K Q 2K Q
10. Answer (1) = 
a 5a
T = Weight of part of rope of length x.
2K Q ⎡ 1 ⎤
⎛M ⎞ = 1
T = ⎜ x⎟g . a ⎣ ⎢ 5 ⎥⎦
⎝2 ⎠
11. Answer (2) 22. Answer (4)
(1)
23. Answer (3) 32. Answer (1)
w = – q [vDvA] ⎛m M ⎞ 2M
v ⎜ ⎟5   2  v = 9 m/s
⎡K Q K Q K Q K Q ⎤ ⎝mM ⎠ mM
= q ⎢ a  3 a  a  3 a ⎥ 33. Answer (4)
⎣ ⎦
⎡2 K Q 2 K Q ⎤ 34. Answer (1)
= q ⎢ a  3 a ⎥
⎣ ⎦ 2a

= k ∫ x dx
2

⎡2 K Q ⎛ w
1 ⎞⎤
= q ⎢ ⎜1  ⎟⎥ a

⎣ a ⎝ 3 ⎠⎦
k ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
2 K Q  2 = 1 ⎢ 2 a  a ⎥
=  ⎣ ⎦
a 3
4 KQ k
= w = 
3 a 2a
24. Answer (2) 35. Answer (2)
25. Answer (3)
36. Answer (1)
26. Answer (3)
37. Answer (2)
27. Answer (1)
38. Answer (3)
C = 40R
39. Answer (3)
28. Answer (3)
40. Answer (2)
A 0 400  10 4  8.85  10 12
C=   3540  10 13 1 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
d 1 103 =    1 ⎜ R  R ⎟
f ⎝ 1 2 ⎠
3.54  10–10
C = 354 pF ⎛2⎞
= 1.5  1 ⎜ ⎟
29. Answer (2) ⎝R⎠

1 Q2 1 Q2 K Q2 2
  = 0.5 
U= 10
2 C 2 4 0 R 2R
f = + 10 cm
30. Answer (3)
41. Answer (1)
42. Answer (4)
l l 2l 43. Answer (4)
R = 1  2  
A A A
44. Answer (1)
1  2 45. Answer (4)
 =
2 L
31. Answer (2)
M=mL
5
R
5 5
M1 = m 2 R
5
⎛L⎞
= m 2⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
10 
2
A B = mL

10 
A B 2M
5 =

(2)
 CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) 59. Answer (1)
The reaction is aldol addition. Hf(CH3 OH)  (  393) + (  286  2)  (  726)
47. Answer (1)
= – 239 kJ/mol
O
P 60. Answer (3)
O O
61. Answer (3)
O
O=P P=O 62. Answer (4)
O
O O H2O(g) + CO(g) H 2O(g) + CO 2(g)
P
O t=0 2 2 0 0
48. Answer (4)
t = eq.
Fact
49. Answer (3) 2  0.4 2  0.4 0.4 0.4
(conc.) M M M M
(B) i.e. Maleic acid is stronger acid than (A) i.e. 10 10 10 10
fumaric acid, because of the stabilization of the 1.6 1.6 0.4 0.4
monoanion by H-bonding in maleic acid. =
10 10 10 10
O
C 0.04  0.04 1
H  K c  
0.16  0.16
(–)
C O 16
63. Answer (2)
C
OH Fact
H C
O 64. Answer (4)
50. Answer (4) Fact
51. Answer (2) 65. Answer (2)
Cyclobutadiene is anti-aromatic. Fact
52. Answer (4) 66. Answer (1)
Fact 
2 MNO3   2MNO 2  O 2 ;  M  Na,K,Rb,Cs 
53. Answer (4) 2 M NO3 2 

 2 MO  2NO2  O2 ;
Fact
M  Be,Mg,Ca,Sr, Ba 
54. Answer (3)

4 LiNO3   2Li2 O  2 NO 2  O 2
55. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1)
Fact
68. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)
69. Answer (1)
O C O ;  0 70. Answer (3)
57. Answer (1) 71. Answer (4)
wH2  40g; w O2  60g 72. Answer (3)
40 60 15 Fact
nH2   20 nO2  
2 32 8 73. Answer (2)

15 74. Answer (1)

 PO  1   0.0857
2
8  21.875 75. Answer (1)

58. Answer (2) 76. Answer (3)

Fact Fact
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77. Answer (1) 85. Answer (4)
78. Answer (2)

NH2 N2 Cl2
79. Answer (3)
Br Br Br Br Br Br
The strength of ligands is : CN(–)  NH3  Cl(–)
80. Answer (3)
Br Br Br
81. Answer (1)
(A) (B) (C)
82. Answer (1)

CH3  CH2 CH2Br 

ag.KOH
 CH3 CH2CH2  OH 86. Answer (3)
(B)
(A) 87. Answer (2)
83. Answer (2)
O3
OH OH OH –H2C–C CH–CH2–CH2–C CH–CH2–
Zn/H2O
CH3 CH3 CH3
, CH3 , O=C–CH2–CH2–C=O
CH3 H CH3
84. Answer (4)
88. Answer (4)
Br MgBr COOH COOCH3
Terfenadine is an antihistamines.
89. Answer (2)
(A) (B) (C) (D) 90. Answer (1)

BOTANY
91. Answer (1) 102. Answer (2)
T2 phage is made up of DNA and capsomeres Tubulin protein synthesis - G2 phase
92. Answer (4) Centrioles duplication - S – phase
I - Mycoplasma is facultative anaerobe 103. Answer (2)
II - Tail fibres in viruses Animal cells divide by cell furrow method
III - Lichen ; IV - Viroids 104. Answer (3)
93. Answer (1) DPD  A – 10 atm ; B – 4 atm ; C – 1 atm
94. Answer (3) A
A - Fucoxanthin ; B-Cellulose + polysulphate esters Direction of H2O movement
B C
C - Chara ; D - Porphyra
105. Answer (4)
95. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3)
107. Answer (1)
Thorn is modified axillary bud
Release of electron from the reaction centre of
97. Answer (4) PS.
Fabaceae 108. Answer (2)
98. Answer (4) C4 plants
Sclerenchyma fibers 109. Answer (2)
99. Answer (2) 110. Answer (2)
Sapwood–peripheral, light coloured, functional wood Cytochrome-c -Mobile electron carrier.
100. Answer (3) Complex IV - Contains two copper centers.
Mitochondria 111. Answer (4)
101. Answer (2) Arithmetic growth shows linear graph .
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112. Answer (2) 123. Answer (3)
ABA is largely antagonistic to GAs Tailing is a template independent process.
113. Answer (1) 124. Answer (2)

114. Answer (4) I-gene - Inhibitor/Regulator gene.

Coconut is monoecious 125. Answer (2)

Less than 2% genome codes for protein.
115. Answer (4)
126. Answer (2)
In over 60% angiosperm pollen is shed at two-celled
stage . 127. Answer (3)

116. Answer (2) 128. Answer (4)

Cleistogamous flower Antarctic fishes have anti-freezing proteins.

129. Answer (1)
117. Answer (4)
Pseudocopulation mechanism.
118. Answer (2)
130. Answer (1)
119. Answer (3)
131. Answer (1)
120. Answer (2)
Pioneer community - Lichen ; Climax community - Forest
Turner syndrome
132. Answer (3)
121. Answer (1)
133. Answer (4)
X-linked recessive disorder. 134. Answer (4)
122. Answer (2) 135. Answer (2)

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 148. Answer (2)
Estrogen level is high from 6th to 15th days of UV-rays are non ionising radiations.
menstrual cycle. 149. Answer (3)
137. Answer (4) 150. Answer (2)
138. Answer (4) Size of blastomeres is decreased during cleavage.
A-Droplet infection, B-Myxovirus, C-By the bite of 151. Answer (1)
infected female Culex mosquito.
Buccal cavity is lined by stratified epithelium.
139. Answer (2) 152. Answer (4)
140. Answer (4) Echidna is a prototherian mammal.
Tobacco consists nicotine. 153. Answer (2)
141. Answer (3) 154. Answer (1)
Interferon belongs to cytokine barriers. 155. Answer (2)
142. Answer (4) Gills.
143. Answer (2) 156. Answer (2)
144. Answer (3) 157. Answer (4)
Cortisol is secreted by adrenal cortex. Leech has direct development

145. Answer (4) 158. Answer (1)

159. Answer (2)
Mutations are random, sudden and directionless
changes. 160. Answer (1)
146. Answer (4) Given animal is octopus
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid 161. Answer (3)
organs. Presence of cloaca does not reduce weight in birds.
147. Answer (1) 162. Answer (1)
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163. Answer (1) 172. Answer (4)
Glycine forms haem of haemoglobin. Optic nerve is sensory nerve.
164. Answer (2) 173. Answer (3)
Urea and ammonia are formed during protein 174. Answer (4)
metabolism.
lactase
Lactose Glucose + Galactose
165. Answer (4)
175. Answer (3)
166. Answer (2)
176. Answer (4)
Polyunsaturated fatty acids are essential fatty acids.
Urecose gland present in male cockroach.
167. Answer (3)
177. Answer (2)
1
th part of lactic acid is oxidised into CO2 and 178. Answer (2)
5
H2O. Vital capacity = TLC – RV

168. Answer (1) 179. Answer (2)

169. Answer (2) Oxyntic or parietal cell secretes intrinsic factor of

castle and HCl.
170. Answer (3)
180. Answer (3)
In myocardial infarction, ST segment is elevated.
Salivation on seeing and smelling food is an example
171. Answer (2) of conditioned reflex.

  

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